← Back

Political Science (028) · Class XII · Chapter-wise Board Questions

CBSE Board papers 2022 to 2026, plus CBSE Sample Question Papers. Chapters as per CBSE Curriculum 2026-27. 1109 questions. Click Reveal answer under any question to see the official marking scheme.

Marks
Part A · Contemporary World Politics

1. The End of Bipolarity

Q1.2026 Main 59/2/1 · Q41 mark

Identify the correct trio of Baltic Republics :

  1. Estonia, Latvia, Lithuania
  2. Slovenia, Estonia, Lithuania
  3. Slovenia, Romania, Estonia
  4. Estonia, Romania, Latvia
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/2/1

(A) Estonia, Latvia, Lithuania

Q2.2026 Main 59/2/1 · Q101 mark

Which one of the following is NOT a consequence of ‘Shock Therapy’ ?

  1. The value of the Rouble, the Russian currency declined.
  2. The economy of the entire region was ruined.
  3. The system of social welfare got strengthened.
  4. The collective farm system disintegrated.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/2/1

(C) The system of social welfare got strengthened.

Q3.2026 Main 59/5/1 · Q11 mark

Which one of the following was not a republic of the Soviet Union ?

  1. Tajikistan
  2. Uzbekistan
  3. Afghanistan
  4. Azerbaijan
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/5/1

(C) Afghanistan

Q4.2026 Main 59/5/1 · Q21 mark

Who among the following was the General Secretary of the Communist Party of Soviet Union in 1985 ?

  1. Joseph Stalin
  2. Mikhail Gorbachev
  3. Leonid Brezhnev
  4. Nikita Khrushchev
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/5/1

(B) Mikhail Gorbachev

Q5.2026 Supp. 59/7/1 · Q51 mark

Match the events given in Column A correctly with their respective years given in Column B.

Column AColumn B
1. The Berlin Wall was broken(i) 1991
2. Indo-Russia strategic agreement(ii) 1989
3. The Soviet invasion of Afghanistan(iii) 2001
4. Disintegration of the Soviet Union(iv) 1979

Codes :

  1. 1-(ii), 2-(iii), 3-(iv), 4-(i)
  2. 1-(iii), 2-(ii), 3-(iv), 4-(i)
  3. 1-(i), 2-(iii), 3-(ii), 4-(iv)
  4. 1-(iv), 2-(iii), 3-(i), 4-(ii)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/7/1

(A) (1) - (ii), (2) - (iii), (3) - (iv), (4) - (i)

Q6.2026 Supp. 59/7/1 · Q61 mark

The process of transition in Russia from an authoritarian socialist system to a democratic capitalist system is known as :

  1. Russian Revolution
  2. Shock Therapy
  3. Warsaw Pact
  4. Disintegration
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/7/1

(B) Shock Therapy

Q7.2025 Main 59/2/1 · Q11 mark

Given below are two statements :

Statement-I : Mikhail Gorbachev, who had become General Secretary of the Communist Party of the Soviet Union in 1985, sought to reform the Soviet System.

Statement-II : Gorbachev’s decision to normalise relations with the West and democratise and reform the Soviet Union had some other effects that neither he nor anyone else intended or anticipated.

Option :

  1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true.
  2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false.
  3. Statement-I is true, but Statement-II is false.
  4. Statement-I is false, but Statement-II is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/2/1

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

Q8.2025 Main 59/2/1 · Q21 mark

Which one of the following symbolised the division between the Capitalist and the Communist world ?

  1. Gulf War
  2. Berlin Wall
  3. First World War
  4. Second World War
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/2/1

(B) Berlin Wall

Q9.2025 Main 59/4/1 · Q11 mark

Which one of the following statements about the ‘Soviet System’ is not true ?

  1. A minimum standard of living ensured for all citizens
  2. Subsidised health services
  3. Private ownership of industries and land
  4. Provision of welfare schemes
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/4/1

(C) Private ownership of industries and land

Q10.2025 Main 59/4/1 · Q21 mark

Arrange the following events in chronological order :

  1. Russia, Ukraine and Belarus declared that Soviet Union was disbanded
  2. Mikhail Gorbachev became the General Secretary of the Communist Party of Soviet Union
  3. Soviet Revolution in Russia
  4. Indo-Russian Strategic Agreement was made

Choose the correct option :

  1. (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
  2. (iii), (ii), (i), (iv)
  3. (iv), (iii), (i), (ii)
  4. (i), (iv), (iii), (ii)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/4/1

(B) (iii), (ii), (i), (iv)

Q11.2025 Main 59/6/1 · Q11 mark

Arrange the following events in chronological order :

  1. Mikhail Gorbachev became General Secretary of the Communist Party
  2. Socialist Revolution in Russia
  3. The Berlin Wall was broken by the people
  4. Disintegration of the USSR

Choose the correct option :

  1. (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)
  2. (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
  3. (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
  4. (iii), (ii), (iv), (i)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/6/1

(A) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)

Q12.2025 Main 59/6/1 · Q21 mark

Choose the group of three Republics of the USSR which declared that the Soviet Union was disbanded.

  1. Russia, Tajikistan, Belarus
  2. Ukraine, Kazakhstan, Georgia
  3. Russia, Ukraine, Belarus
  4. Armenia, Georgia, Belarus
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/6/1

(C) Russia, Ukraine, Belarus

Q13.2025 Supp. 59/S/1 · Q11 mark

Which one of the following countries is in Central Asia ?

  1. Tajikistan
  2. Chechnya
  3. Yugoslavia
  4. Turkiye
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/S/1

(A) Tajikistan

Q14.2025 Supp. 59/S/1 · Q21 mark

Arrange the following in chronological order :

  1. Breaking down of the Berlin Wall
  2. The Soviet invasion of Afghanistan
  3. Indo-Russian Strategic Agreement
  4. Disintegration of the Soviet Union

Choose the correct option :

  1. (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)
  2. (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)
  3. (ii), (iii), (i), (iv)
  4. (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/S/1

(B) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)

Q15.2024 Main 59/2/1 · Q11 mark

Arrange the following events in the chronological order :

  1. Soviet invasion of Afghanistan
  2. Russian Revolution
  3. End of Civil War in Tajikistan
  4. Fall of the Berlin Wall

Choose the correct option :

  1. (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
  2. (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)
  3. (iii), (iv), (i), (ii)
  4. (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/2/1

(B) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)

Q16.2024 Main 59/2/1 · Q21 mark

Which two republics of Russia have had violent secessionist movements ?

  1. Chechnya and Azerbaijan
  2. Croatia and Uzbekistan
  3. Chechnya and Dagestan
  4. Dagestan and Croatia
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/2/1

(C) Chechnya and Dagestan

Q17.2024 Main 59/4/1 · Q11 mark

Arrange the following events in chronological order and choose the correct option as answer :

  1. The Russian Revolution
  2. The Soviet invasion of Afghanistan
  3. The disintegration of Soviet Union
  4. The end of the World War II

Options :

  1. (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
  2. (i), (ii), (iv), (iii)
  3. (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)
  4. (i), (iv), (ii), (iii)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/4/1

(D) (i), (iv), (ii), (iii)

Q18.2024 Main 59/4/1 · Q21 mark

Which Central Asian Republic witnessed a civil war for ten years till 2001 ?

  1. Tajikistan
  2. Kazakhstan
  3. Uzbekistan
  4. Azerbaijan
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/4/1

(A) Tajikistan

Q19.2024 Main 59/5/1 · Q11 mark

Arrange the following events in chronological order and choose the correct option as answer :

  1. Indo-Russian Strategic Agreement
  2. The Soviet invasion of Afghanistan
  3. Disintegration of the Soviet Union
  4. Socialist Revolution in Russia
  1. (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
  2. (ii), (iv), (iii), (i)
  3. (iv), (ii), (iii), (i)
  4. (iii), (i), (ii), (iv)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/5/1

(C) (iv), (ii), (iii), (i)

Q20.2024 Main 59/5/1 · Q111 mark

Which event marked the end of Communism in the Soviet Union ?

  1. Cuban Missile Crisis
  2. Rise of New World Order
  3. Disintegration of the Soviet Union
  4. Rise in US economy
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/5/1

(C) Disintegration of the Soviet Union

Q21.2024 Supp. 59/S/1 · Q11 mark

Arrange the following events in chronological order :

  1. Gorbachev became the General Secretary of Communist Party of the Soviet Union.
  2. Russia, Ukraine and Belarus declared that Soviet Union is disbanded.
  3. Russian Revolution.
  4. Fall of the Berlin Wall.

Choose the correct option.

  1. III, I, IV, II
  2. III, II, I, IV
  3. III, I, II, IV
  4. III, IV, I, II
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/S/1

(A) III, I, IV, II

Q22.2024 Supp. 59/S/1 · Q21 mark

The Presidents of which Central Asian Republics appointed themselves to power first for ten years and then extended their term for another ten years ?

  1. Kyrgyzstan and Kazakhstan
  2. Ukraine and Azerbaijan
  3. Turkmenistan and Uzbekistan
  4. Tajikistan and Kazakhstan
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/S/1

(C) Turkmenistan and Uzbekistan

Q23.2023 Main 59/1/1 · Q11 mark

Choose the correct option to complete the sentence :

Mikhail Gorbachev was ___________.

  1. General Secretary of the Communist Party of USSR
  2. the founder of the Communist Party of Russia
  3. a leader of Western European countries
  4. a leader against reforms in the USSR
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/1/1

(a) General Secretary of Communist Party of USSR

Q24.2023 Main 59/1/1 · Q21 mark

Choose the correct option to complete the sentence :

Arab Spring was a ___________.

  1. Political movement
  2. Cultural movement
  3. Social movement
  4. Environmental movement
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/1/1

(a) Political Movement

Q25.2023 Main 59/2/1 · Q11 mark

Which one of the following countries was NOT a part of the Soviet Union ?

  1. Ukraine
  2. Georgia
  3. Italy
  4. Estonia
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/2/1

(c) Italy

Q26.2023 Main 59/4/1 · Q11 mark

Which of the following statements about the ‘Arab Spring’ are not correct ?

  1. It began in 2008.
  2. The struggle was against terrorism and pollution.
  3. It raised its voice against corruption and unemployment.
  4. It was basically a demand for democracy.

Select the correct option :

  1. (ii) and (iv) only
  2. (iii) and (iv) only
  3. (i) and (ii) only
  4. (i) and (iii) only
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/4/1

(c) (i) and (ii) only

Q27.SQP 2025-26 · Q11 mark

The end of bipolarity in international politics led to an increase in_____________.

  1. Proxy wars between super powers
  2. Arms race between super powers
  3. Multilateral diplomacy and cooperation
  4. Bipolarity in international politics
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 · Marking Scheme

(C) Multilateral diplomacy and co-operation

Q28.SQP 2025-26 · Q41 mark

Identify the group of countries that had been part of the Soviet Union before its disintegration:

  1. Tajikistan, Azerbaijan, Armenia
  2. Armenia, West Germany, Azerbaijan
  3. Poland, East Germany, Norway
  4. Norway, Hungary, Romania
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 · Marking Scheme

(A) Tajikistan, Azerbaijan, Armenia

Q29.2026 Main 59/3/1 · Q132 marks

Name any four republics of the Soviet Union.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/3/1

(i) Tajakistan

(ii) Azerbaijan

(iii) Belarus

(iv) Armenia

(v) Ukraine

(vi) Kyrgyzstan

(vii) Georgia

(viii) Russia

(or any other) (Any four)

Q30.2025 Main 59/1/1 · Q132 marks

Can Shock Therapy be called the best way to make transition from authoritarian socialist system to liberal capitalist system after the disintegration of Soviet Union ? Explain.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/1/1

Candidates may answer the questions in ‘Yes’ or ‘No’. Candidate should give arguments to support his /her answer. For example if a candidate says ‘No’ then she/he can write that it has ruined the economy of the states and industries were sold at throw away prices. Similarly for ‘Yes’- argument is to be given.

(2)

Q31.2023 Main 59/3/1 · Q172 marks

Name any four Republics of erstwhile USSR.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/3/1

Republics of USSR:-

Armenia, Azerbaijan, Belarus, Estonia, Georgia, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Latvia, Lithuania, Moldova, Russia, Tajikistan, Turkmenistan, Ukraine, Uzbekistan.

(Any four) 4×½=2

Q32.2023 Supp. 59/C/1 · Q142 marks

Name any four countries of the Second World.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/C/1

Russia, Latvia, Ukrain, Azerbaijan.

(or any other country)

Q33.SQP 2026-27 · Q142 marks

Analyse the impact of the military coup of 1991 which was encouraged by the Communist Party hardliners on the USSR.

Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 · Marking Scheme
  1. Boris Yeltsin emerged as a national hero in opposing this coup. Power began to shift from the Soviet centre to the republics, especially in the more Europeanised parts of the Soviet Union, which saw themselves as sovereign states.
  2. The Central Asian republics did not ask for independence and wanted to remain with the Soviet Federation. In December 1991, under the leadership of Yeltsin, Russia, Ukraine and Belarus, three major republics of the USSR, declared that the Soviet Union was disbanded. The Communist Party of the Soviet Union was banned. Capitalism and democracy were adopted as the bases for the post-Soviet republics.

(To be assessed as a whole)

Q34.2026 Main 59/2/1 · Q204 marks

Why could the reforms initiated by Mikhail Gorbachev not save the disintegration of Soviet Union ? Explain any two reasons.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/2/1

(i) Some sections of the society felt that Gorbachev should have moved much faster and were disappointed that the reforms did not benefit them as they had hoped.

(ii) Members of the Communist Party felt that their power and privileges were eroding and Gorbachev was moving too fast.

(iii) Gorbachev lost support on all sides and public opinion became divided.

(iv) Desire for sovereignty and rise of nationalism in various republics.

(v) People were disillusioned by rampant corruption, slow and stifling administration and bureaucratic authoritarian system.

(or any other relevant point) (Any two)

Q35.2026 Main 59/3/1 · Q204 marks

Highlight any four effects of the shock therapy after the disintegration of the Soviet Union.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/3/1

Effects of the Shock Therapy after the disintegration of Soviet Union:—

(i) It brought ruin to the economies and disaster upon the people of the entire region.

(ii) The large state-controlled industrial complex almost collapsed in Russia.

(iii) The collective farm system disintegrated, leaving people without food security.

(iv) The old system of social welfare was systematically destroyed.

(v) Value of Russian currency Ruble declined dramatically.

(or any other relevant point) (any four)

Q36.2026 Main 59/5/1 · Q19(a)4 marks

“Indo-Russian relations are embedded in the history of trust and common interests.” Support the statement with four examples.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/5/1
  • Russia and India share a vision of a multi-polar world order i.e. the coexistence of several powers in the international system.
  • More than 80 bilateral arguments have been signed between India and Russia as the part of Indo-Russian strategic agreement in 2001.
  • India stands to benefit from its relationship with Russia on issues like Kashmir, energy supplies, sharing information on International terrorism.
  • India is an oil- importing nation, Russia is important to India during its Oil crisis.
  • Russia is important for India’s nuclear energy plans and assisted India’s space industry by giving the cryogenic rocket.

(Any four)

Q37.2026 Main 59/5/1 · Q19(b)4 marks

Soviet system was to ensure the welfare of the people.” Support the statement with four examples.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/5/1

Soviet system was to ensure the welfare of the people and a minimum standard of living for all the citizens. To achieve this aim/objective

  • It opposed the idea of Capitalism and the advocated the need for an egalitarian society.
  • The government subsidized the basic necessities of life including health, education, childcare and other welfare schemes.
  • State ownership was the dominant form of ownership.
  • Land and productive assets were owned and controlled by the government.
  • Government had an objective to work for welfare of the people.
  • It ensured a minimum standard of living for all its citizens.

(Any four)

Q38.2026 Main 59/5/1 · Q204 marks

Describe any four changes that occurred in the world after the end of the Cold War.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/5/1

Four Changes-

  • The soviet Union had collapsed.
  • The US became the sole super power.
  • The relationship between Russia and united states improved.
  • China is emerging as a new economic power.
  • The economies of the Asia are growing at a faster pace.
  • Many new countries have became members of the united Nations.

(Any four)

Q39.2026 Supp. 59/7/1 · Q214 marks

State any four consequences of shock therapy.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/7/1

Consequences of Shock Therapy –

  1. State controlled industries collapsed and were sold to private sector at throw away prices.
  2. The value of the Russian currency ‘Ruble’ declined and the rate of inflation was very high.
  3. Old system of social welfare was systematically destroyed. Many subsidies were withdrawn .
  4. Privatisation led to new disparities. Mafia emerged in most of these countries that started to control many economic activities.

(Any other point) (Any four)

Q40.2025 Main 59/1/1 · Q194 marks

Explain any four reasons responsible for the economic stagnation in Soviet Union.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/1/1

Reasons for economic stagnation in the Soviet Union:

  1. Soviet economy used much of its resources in maintaining a nuclear & military arsenal.
  2. It spent money on the development of Satellite states in eastern Europe and within the Soviet system.
  3. Soviet Union lagged behind the west in technology, infrastructure- transport, power etc.
  4. Soviet invasion of Afghanistan further pressurised the Soviet economy.
  5. Wages continued to grow but productivity & technology could not keep pace.
  6. Shortage of consumer goods led to food imports.
  7. The Soviet system became very bureaucratic and authoritarian and was not answerable to the people.

or any other relevant point (any four) (4)

Q41.2025 Main 59/2/1 · Q244 marks

Read the passage given below carefully and answer the questions that follow :

The Central Asian republics did not ask for independence and wanted to remain with the Soviet Federation. In December 1991, under the leadership of Yeltsin, Russia, Ukraine and Belarus declared that the Soviet Union was disbanded. The Communist Party of the Soviet Union was banned. Capitalism and democracy were adopted as the bases for the post-Soviet republics. The declaration on the disintegration of the USSR and the formation of the Commonwealth of Independent States (CIS) came as a surprise to the other republics, especially to the Central Asian ones.

(24.1) Which ideology was adopted by the post-Soviet countries ?

  1. Socialist
  2. Capitalist and Democratic
  3. Communist
  4. Democratic

(24.2) Which republic among the following became the successor of the Soviet Union ?

  1. Belarus
  2. Ukraine
  3. Commonwealth of Independent States
  4. Russia

(24.3) Which one of the following is a Central Asian country ?

  1. Chechnya
  2. Dagestan
  3. Tajikistan
  4. Czechoslovakia

(24.4) Which part of Soviet Union had vast hydrocarbon resources ?

  1. Eastern Europe
  2. Central Asian Republics
  3. Yugoslavia
  4. Czechoslovakia
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/2/1

24.1 (B) Capitalist and Democratic

24.2 (D) Russia

24.3 (C) Tajikistan

24.4 (B) Central Asian Republics

(4x1=4)

Q42.2025 Main 59/4/1 · Q194 marks

Was Shock therapy necessary for making a transition from Socialist economy to Capitalist economy ? Support your answer with two arguments.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/4/1

Students can answer in Yes or No. So credit should be given for their arguments.

For Yes-

  • It was necessary otherwise it had took time for the transition.
  • It was necessary for the European countries to spread their ideology.

For No-

  • European countries may have opted other methods and have given them time to change.
  • European countries should not have exploited their weak position and could have given them justice.

or any other relevant point (Evaluate as a whole)

Candidate can answer in his/her language with appropriate arguments. (2 × 2 = 4)

Q43.2025 Main 59/6/1 · Q23(a)4 marks

“After the disintegration of the Soviet Union, Indo-Russian relations are gaining new heights.” Support the statement with any four examples.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/6/1

Indo-Russian relations after the disintegration of Soviet Union :-

  1. Both share a vision of a multipolar world order.
  2. More than 80 bilateral agreements have been signed between India and Russia as part of the Indo-Russian Strategic Agreement of 2001.
  3. India stands to benefit from its relationship with Russia on issues like Kashmir, energy supplies, sharing information on international terrorism, access to Central Asia, and balancing its relations with China.
  4. Russia stands to benefit from their relationship because India is the second-largest arms market for Russia.
  5. The Indian military gets most of its hardware from Russia.
  6. Since India is an oil-importing nation, Russia is important to India and has repeatedly come to the assistance of India during its oil crises.

or any other relevant point (Any four) (4 × 1 = 4)

Q44.2025 Main 59/6/1 · Q23(b)4 marks

“After the Second World War, the Soviet Union was considered a superpower of the world.” Support the statement with any four arguments.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/6/1
  1. After the second world war, the Soviet economy was more developed than the rest of the world, except for the US.
  2. It had a complex communication network, vast energy resources including oil, iron and steel machinery production, and a transport sector that connected its remotest areas with efficiency.
  3. It had a domestic consumer industry that produced everything from pins to cars.
  4. It ensured a minimum standard of living for all citizens, and the government subsidized basic necessities including health, education, childcare and other welfare schemes.
  5. There was no unemployment.
  6. State ownership was the dominant form of ownership: land and productive assets were owned and controlled by the Soviet State.

or any other relevant point (Any four) (4 × 1 = 4)

Q45.2025 Supp. 59/S/1 · Q19(a)4 marks

Explain the meaning and purpose of Shock Therapy.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/S/1
  • The model of transition in Russia, Central Asia and East Europe from an authoritarian socialist system to a democratic capitalist system is known as shock therapy.
  • Purpose –
    1. To abolish the socialist system of economy and to establish the democratic capitalist system.
    2. To break the existing trade alliances among the countries of Soviet bloc.

any other relevant point (2 + 2 = 4)

Q46.2025 Supp. 59/S/1 · Q19(b)4 marks

Explain any four consequences of Shock Therapy.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/S/1

Consequences of shock therapy –

  1. State controlled large industrial complexes collapsed.
  2. The value of ruble declined.
  3. The old system of welfareism was systematically destroyed.
  4. Big industries were sold at throw away prices.

any other relevant point (Any four) (4 × 1 = 4)

Q47.2024 Main 59/2/1 · Q204 marks

Explain any two reasons for the disintegration of the Soviet Union.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/2/1

Reasons for the disintegration of the Soviet Union -

  • (i) Internal weaknesses of the Soviet political and economic institutions.
  • (ii) Economic stagnation for many years led to severe consumer shortages and a large section of Soviet society began to doubt and question the system.
  • (iii) Ordinary people were alienated by slow and stifling administration, rampant corruption, the inability of the system to correct mistakes. This led to unwillingness to allow more openness in government and the centralisation of authority in a vast land.
  • (iv) Maximum resources were used on nuclear weapons and other defence equipments

(Or any other relevant point) (Any Two)

Q48.2024 Main 59/3/1 · Q264 marks

Study the picture given below related to the Berlin Wall and answer the questions that follow :

Figure from the paper

(i) What did the Berlin Wall symbolise ?

(ii) Between which two countries was the Berlin Wall built ?

(iii) Highlight any two outcomes of breaking of the Berlin Wall.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/3/1

(i) The Berlin wall symbolized the division between the capitalist and the communist world.

(ii) East Germany and West Germany

(iii) Outcomes of breaking of the Berlin wall-

(a) The unification of two parts of Germany.

(b) Beginning of the end of the Communist block.

(1+1+2=4)

Q49.2024 Main 59/3/1 · Q26 (VI)4 marks

Note : The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates only, in lieu of Q. No. 26 :

(26.1) In which year did the Second World War end ?

(26.2) In which year was the Berlin Wall built ?

(26.3) In which year did the Soviet Union disintegrate ?

(26.4) Name the leader who became the General Secretary of the Communist Party of the Soviet Union in 1985.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/3/1

(26.1) 1945

(26.2) 1961

(26.3) 1991

(26.4) Mikhail Gorbachev

Q50.2024 Main 59/4/1 · Q204 marks

“India has maintained good relations with Russia after the end of Cold War.” Justify the statement with four examples.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/4/1
  1. India-Russia relations are embedded in a history of trust and common interests.
  2. Both share a vision of multipolar world order.
  3. India has signed Indo-Russian Strategic Agreement, 2001.
  4. India gets regular energy supplies from Russia.
  5. India benefits from its relationship with Russia on issues like Kashmir.
  6. Both share information on international terrorism.
  7. India gets most of its military hardware from Russia.
  8. India is assisted by Russia in its space research projects.
  9. India and Russia have collaborated on various scientific projects.

(or any other point) (any four points) (4x1=4)

Q51.2024 Main 59/5/1 · Q20(a)4 marks

“After the disintegration of Soviet Union, India has maintained good relations with all the new independent countries, but the most cordial relations are still there between Russia and India.” Justify the statement with two examples.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/5/1

Relations between Russia and India:

  1. There is trust and common interest among the two countries.
  2. Indian actors and Hindi film songs are heard all over Russia.
  3. Russia and India share a vision of a multipolar world, collective security, greater regionalism, etc.
  4. Russia benefits from India as India is the second largest arms market for Russia.
  5. Russia is an importer for India’s nuclear energy plans and space industry.

Or any other relevant point.

(any two points to be explained) (2x2=4)

Q52.2024 Main 59/5/1 · Q20(b)4 marks

During Cold War period the US economy was more developed than the rest of the world. Still the Soviet system had some special features which distinguish it from the US. Evaluate any two such features.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/5/1
  1. The Soviet Union became a great power after the Second World War. The Soviet economy was then more developed than the rest of the world except for the US.
  2. It had a complex communications network and vast energy resources.
  3. It had a domestic consumer industry that produced everything from pins to cars, though their quality did not match that of the Western capitalist countries.
  4. The Soviet state ensured a minimum standard of living for all citizens.
  5. The government subsidised basic necessities including health, education, childcare and other welfare schemes.
  6. There was no unemployment. State ownership was the dominant form of ownership: land and productive assets were owned and controlled by the Soviet state.

Or any other relevant feature

(any two to be explained) (2x2=4)

Q53.2024 Supp. 59/S/1 · Q204 marks

Explain any two reasons for disintegration of the Soviet Union.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/S/1

Reasons responsible for Disintegration of U.S.S.R:

  1. Internal weakness of Soviet political and economical institutions.
  2. Economic stagnation for many years.
  3. Soviet Union used much of its resources in maintaining Nuclear and military arsenals.
  4. Communist party was not accountable to the people.
  5. Ordinary people became knowledgeable about the technology and the economic advancement of the West.
  6. Corruption was rampant in the administration.
  7. The Soviet Union had became stagnant in administrative and political field.
  8. The system was unwilling to allow openness.
  9. Reforms introduced by Mikhail Garbachav led to the demand of quick results.

(any two reasons) (2x2=4)

Q54.2023 Main 59/5/1 · Q194 marks

“The ‘Arab Spring’ was the people’s revolution against injustice.” Support the statement with any two examples.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/5/1
  • i) Arab Spring took its roots from Tunisia where struggle against corruption, unemployment and poverty was started by the public.
  • ii) This movement turned into a political movement because the people considered the existing problems as an outcome of autocratic dictatorships.
  • iii) The demand for democracy that started in Tunisia spread throughout the Muslim dominated Arab countries West Asia.
  • iv) The regime of Hosni Mubarak in Egypt also collapsed as a result of massive democratic protest.
  • v) The influence of Arab Spring could also be seen in Yemen, Bahrain, Libya and Syria, where similar protest by the people let to the democratic awakening throughout the region.

(any two)

Q55.2022 Main 59/5/1 · Q104 marks

Highlight any four areas of cooperation between India and Russia.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 59/5/1

Four areas of Cooperation between India and Russia.

  1. Trade, export, oil, steel plants, technological exchange.
  2. Support on Kashmir issue, War against terror.
  3. Defence Cooperation and supply of war hardware.
  4. Love for Indian Culture, food, festivals, movies, literature.

Or any other relevant point

Q56.SQP 2025-26 · Q21(A)4 marks

‘Although India has maintained good relations with all the post-communist countries, yet the strongest relations are still between India and Russia’. Explain the reasons with suitable arguments.

Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 · Marking Scheme
  1. Indo-Russian relation is an important segment of India’s foreign policy. The relations between these two countries are embedded in a history of trust and common interests.
  2. Both countries share a vision of a multipolar world.
  3. From this relationship, India gets benefits on issues like Kashmir, energy supplies, sharing information on international terrorism, access to Central Asia and balancing its relations with China.
  4. On the other hand, Russia stands to benefit from this relationship because India is the second largest arms market for Russia. The Indian military gets most of its hardware from Russia.
  5. Russia is vital for India as it has repeatedly come to the assistance of India during its oil crisis. India is trying to increase its energy imports from Russia and the republics of Kazakhstan and Turkmenistan.
  6. Russia supports India’s nuclear energy plants and assisted India’s space industry. For example, Russia has provided the cryogenic rocket when India needed it.

(Or Any other relevant point/s)

Q57.SQP 2025-26 · Q21(B)4 marks

Highlight any two positive and negative features each, of the Soviet system.

Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 · Marking Scheme

The two positive features of the Soviet system were:

  1. A minimum standard of living for all citizens was ensured by the Soviet state.
  2. Subsidised basic necessities including health, education, child care and other welfare schemes.
  3. State ownership was given more importance. Land and productive assets were owned and controlled by the Soviet state.

The two negative features of the Soviet system were:

  1. The Soviet system was very bureaucratised and authoritarian in nature.
  2. Authoritarianism meant the absence of democracy and freedom of speech which angered the people.
  3. The Soviet economy witnessed economic stagnation.
  4. State Treasury had spent a huge fortune on building and maintaining nuclear arsenals and in developing its satellite states in East Europe and within the Soviet system. It turned into a large economic burden and the facilities to the people were reduced.

(Any two each or other relevant point/s)

Q58.SQP 2026-27 · Q194 marks

Analyse any four reasons that forced Mikhail Gorbachev to initiate reforms in the Soviet Union.

Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 · Marking Scheme

Mikhail Gorbachev was forced to initiate reforms in the USSR for the following reasons:

  1. To keep the USSR abreast of the information and technological revolutions taking place in the West.
  2. To make the Soviet system less bureaucratic and more efficient to improve the daily life of citizens.
  3. To address the internal dissatisfaction, lack of democracy, and absence of freedom of speech that stifled the people.
  4. To normalize relations with the West, democratisation with in the country.
  5. To counter the economic stagnation caused by diverting vast resources to a large military and supporting allies.

(Any four or other relevant point/s)

Q59.2026 Main 59/1/1 · Q28(a)6 marks

Analyse any three reasons for the disintegration of the Soviet Union.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/1/1

(i) It failed to meet the aspirations of the people. Political system became more bureaucratic and freedom of speech was not given there. Rule of one party, was not democratic any more.

(ii) USSR spent much of its money on weapons, this led to huge economic burden. Economic Stagnation for many years led to severe consumer shortages. Leaders could not see disparities between this system and the system of west.

(iii) Gorbachev introduced ‘Perestroika’ and ‘Glasnost’ to reform the USSR. But the people were disillusioned when they came to know the realities. Party members felt that they were deprived of their powers and privileges.

(iv) The rise of nationalism and desire for sovereignty within various republics became the most immediate cause for the collapse.

(any three reasons to be analysed)

Q60.2026 Main 59/1/1 · Q28(b)6 marks

Examine any three consequences of the Shock therapy.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/1/1

(i) It brought ruin to the economics and disaster upon the people of the entire region.

(ii) Transferring of industries from public to Private Sector. Proved to be the virtual disappearance of entire industries. This was called as the largest garage sale in history.

(iii) The value of Ruble declined dramatically and the inflation rate was so high that people lost their savings.

(iv) The withdrawal of government subsidies pushed large sections of the people into poverty.

(v) The collective farm system disintegrated.

(vi) Post Soviet states, especially Russia, were divided between rich and poor regions resulting into great economic inequality.

(Or Any other point) (Any three consequences with explanation)

Q61.2026 Main 59/4/1 · Q27(a)6 marks

Why is ‘Shock Therapy’ considered a painful process of transition from an authoritarian socialist system to a democratic capitalist system ? Explain any three reasons.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/4/1

Shock therapy is considered a painful process of transition as it led to

(i) A drastic change in the external orientation of these economies. Development was now envisaged through more trade. So it was a switch over to free trade also

(ii) The large state-controlled industrial complex almost collapsed.

(iii) FDI was considered as an engine of free trade. So these countries had to change their economy based on state ownership and socialist philosophy to liberal capitalist economy. It was really painful and difficult for the concerned countries.

(iv) It involved a breakup of the existing trade alliances among the countries of soviet bloc. Now it was directly related to west.

(v) The old system of social welfare was systematically destroyed.

(vi) The construction of democratic institutions was not given the same attention and priority as the demands of economic transformation.

(any other relevant point) (any three)

Hence it is considered painful.

Q62.2026 Main 59/4/1 · Q27(b)6 marks

Explain any four reasons for the disintegration of the Soviet Union.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/4/1

Reasons for the disintegration of soviet union.

(i) Internal weaknesses of the state political and economic institutions.

(ii) Soviet system failed to fulfil the aspirations of the people as it had become corrupt and incompetent.

(iii) The centralisation of authority in a vast land.

(iv) Maintenance of the nuclear and military arsenal and development of satellite programme led to huge economic burden on the people and could not meet the needs and demands of the people.

(v) The soviet system was not answerable to people.

(vi) The rise of nationalism and the desire for sovereignty within various republics including Russia and the Baltic Republics.

(vii) Reforms initiated by General Secretary Mikhail Gorbachev.

(viii) The ordinary citizens could see the disparities between their system and the system of the west.

(any other relevant point) (any four)

Q63.2025 Main 59/5/1 · Q27(a)6 marks

Examine any three reasons responsible for the disintegration of the Soviet Union.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/5/1

Reasons :

  1. Internal weaknesses of the Soviet political and economic institutions which failed to meet the needs and aspirations of the people.
  2. Soviet System had become weak and stagnant.
  3. Soviet Communist party was not accountable to people.
  4. Stifling administration and rampant corruption made the system unable to correct its mistakes.
  5. Centralisation of power and authority.
  6. Gorbachev played an important role during that time intiating its reforms and loosened the system which raise the expectations of the people.
  7. Rise of nationalism and the desire for sovereignty within various republics.

or any other relevant reason. Any three to be examined in detail. (3 × 2 = 6)

Q64.2025 Main 59/5/1 · Q27(b)6 marks

Examine any three reasons for the friendly and cooperative relations between India and Russia after the disintegration of the Soviet Union.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/5/1

Reasons :

  1. India benefited from its relationship with Russia on issue like Kashmir, energy supplies, sharing information on international terrorism.
  2. Russia benefited as India was the second largest arms market for Russia.
  3. After the disintegration of USSR India has continued to increase its energy imports from Russia.
  4. Russia is important for India’s nuclear plants and space industry programs . For example cryogenic rocket.
  5. India and Russia have treaties of friendship. Example “Indo Russian Strategic Agreement 2001”.

or any other relevant reason (Any three to be explained ) (3 × 2 = 6)

Q65.2025 Main 59/7/1 · Q27(a)6 marks

Highlight the reasons for the tensions and conflicts faced by any three former Soviet Republics.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/7/1

Reasons of conflicts in the Commonwealth of independent states (CIS) are

i) Violation of human rights:- In Russia, Chachnya and Dagestan have had violent secessionist movement. Moscow's method of dealing with Chechen rebels and indiscriminate military bombings have led to many human rights violations but failed to deter the aspirations for independence.

ii) Civil war:- In Central Asia, Tajakistan witnessed a civil war that went on for 10 years till 2001 due to many sectarian conflicts and in Georgia the demand for independence has come from two provinces , resulting in a civil war.

iii) Hydrocarbon resources:- Central Asia has become zone of competition between outside powers and Oil Companies due to vast hydrocarbon resources. For example China has interest here because of the oil resources, chinese have began to settle around the borders and conduct trade.

(Any other relevant reasons) (3 × 2 = 6)

Q66.2025 Main 59/7/1 · Q27(b)6 marks

Highlight any four reasons for the disintegration of the Soviet Union in 1991.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/7/1

Reasons for disintegration of the Soviet Union :

  1. The Soviet system became very bureaucratic and authoritarian, making life very difficult for its citizens.
  2. There was lack of democracy and absence of freedom of speech which stifled people who often expressed dissent in jokes and cartoons.
  3. The one party system represented by the Communist Party of the Soviet Union had tight control over all institutions and was unaccountable to the people.
  4. The party refused to recognise the urge of people in the 15 different republics that formed the Soviet Union to manage their own affairs including their cultural affairs.
  5. Ordinary people were alienated by slow and stifling administration, rampant corruption, the inability of the system to correct mistakes it had made.
  6. The party bureaucrats gained more privileges than ordinary citizens.
  7. People did not identify with the system and with the rulers, and the government increasingly lost popular backing.

(Any four with explanation) (4 × 1½ = 6)

Q67.2024 Main 59/1/1 · Q27(a)6 marks

“India’s relations with Russia are embedded in a history of trust and common interests.” Support the statement with any three appropriate arguments.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/1/1

Indo-Russian relations are embedded in a history of trust and common interests:

  • (i) Russia and India share a vision of a multipolar world order based on collective response, greater regionalism, negotiated settlements of international conflicts, an independent foreign policy for all countries, decision-making through bodies like the UN, etc.
  • (ii) India stands to benefit from its relationship with Russia on issues like Kashmir, energy supplies, sharing information on international terrorism.
  • (iii) Since India is an oil-importing nation, Russia is very important to us.
  • (iv) Russia has repeatedly come to the assistance of India.
  • (v) Russia is important for India’s nuclear energy.

Or any other relevant point (Any three)

Q68.2024 Main 59/1/1 · Q27(b)6 marks

Analyse any three effects of shock therapy after the disintegration of the Soviet Union.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/1/1

Effects of Shock Therapy :

  • (i) Each of the affected countries was required to make a total shift to a capitalist economy.
  • (ii) Private ownership was to be the dominant pattern of ownership of property.
  • (iii) Privatisation of state assets and corporate ownership patterns were to be immediately brought in.
  • (iv) Collective farms were to be replaced by private farming and capitalism in agriculture.
  • (v) This transition ruled out any alternate or ‘third way’ other than the state–controlled socialism or capitalism.

Or any other relevant points ( any three)

Q69.2023 Main 59/1/1 · Q27(a)6 marks

Analyse any three reasons responsible for the disintegration of the Soviet Union.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/1/1

Reasons for the disintegration of USSR

  1. Internal weakness of the Soviet System (Political & economic) which failed to meet the aspirations of the people.
  2. Most of the resources were used to maintain & develop military arsenal, nuclear weapons and space research – which lead to huge burden on the economy of USSR and the needs of the people got neglected.
  3. Soviet system had become stagnant and non-accountable to people.
  4. Rampant corruption inability to correct the mistakes and unwillingness to allow made the system unpopular.

(Any three to be explained) (or any other) 3×2=6

Q70.2023 Main 59/1/1 · Q27(b)6 marks

Analyse any two reasons for the beginning of ‘Arab Spring’ and any two outcomes of this movement.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/1/1

Reasons:-

  1. Corruption
  2. unemployment
  3. Poverty
  4. Autocratic dictatorship

Outcomes:

  1. Demand for democracy spread in Arab countries.
  2. The role of many dictatorship and rules Collapsed due to the movement ‘Arab –spring’

(to be explained) 4×1½=6

Q71.2023 Main 59/2/1 · Q27(a)6 marks

Analyse any three happenings during Gorbachev’s period that led to the disintegration of the Soviet Union.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/2/1

Happenings during Gorbachev’s period :

  1. Mikhail Gorbachev, the then General Secretary of the Communist Party sought to reform the Soviet System. His decision to normalize relations with the West and democratise and reform the Soviet Union had some other effects that neither he nor anyone else intended or anticipated.
  2. The people of the Soviet bloc started to protest against their own governments and Soviet control. The Soviet Union did not intervene and the communist regimes collapsed one after another.
  3. The economic and political reforms initiated by Gorbachev were opposed by leaders within the Communist Party.
  4. A coup took place in 1991 that was encouraged by Communist Party hardliners. The people had tasted freedom by then and did not want the old-style rule of the Communist Party.
  5. Boris Yeltsin emerged as a national hero in opposing this coup. The Russian Republic, where Yeltsin won a popular election, began to shake off centralised control. Power began to shift from the Soviet centre to the republics.

(any three to be explained)

All these happenings accelerated the disintegration of the Soviet Union.

3×2=6

Q72.2023 Main 59/2/1 · Q27(b)6 marks

Analyse any three consequences of the disintegration of USSR.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/2/1

Consequences of disintegration of USSR.

  1. End of the Cold War.
  2. End of the ideological conflict between socialists and capitalist countries.
  3. Power relations in world politics changed.
  4. The emergence of new independent countries with their own independent aspirations and choices.
  5. Coming up of unipolar world with dominance of U.S.
  6. Erstwhile socialist countries turned to capitalism.
  7. European Union strengthened itself.
  8. Some Socialist nations got divided.
  9. World Bank and IMF started helping the erstwhile republics who adopted democracy.

(any three to be explained) 3×2=6

Q73.2023 Main 59/3/1 · Q27(a)6 marks

Describe any three factors that make most of the former Soviet Republics prone to conflicts and threats.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/3/1

Factors:-

  1. Soviet system failed to meet the aspirations of the people.
  2. Economic stagnation for many years.
  3. The Soviet economy used much of its resources in maintaining a nuclear and military arsenal.
  4. It had become stagnant in an administrative and political sense.
  5. The rise of nationalism and the desire for sovereignty within various republics.
  6. Nationalists’ urges and feelings were very much at work throughout the history of the Soviet Union.
  7. Ethnic and religious differences within the Central Asian republics coupled with economic backwardness.

(Or any other relevant factor) (Any three) 3×2=6

Q74.2023 Main 59/3/1 · Q27(b)6 marks

Explain any three reasons that forced Mikhail Gorbachev to initiate reforms in the Soviet Union.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/3/1

Reasons:-

  1. Reforms were necessary to keep the USSR abreast of the information and Technological revolutions taking place in the west.
  2. Mikhail Gorvachev also felt the need to normalize relations with the US.
  3. To reform the Soviet Union economy with the west, the administrative system also forced Gorbachev to initiate the reforms in the USSR.
  4. Reforms were considered essential to liberate the rigid administrative system of the Soviet Union.
  5. Gorvachev felt that the Soviet economy had become stagnant.
  6. The Communist party was not accountable to the people, this further created resentment.
  7. The people in the East European countries which were part of the Soviet bloc, started to protest against their own governments and Soviet control.

(Any three) 3×2=6

Q75.2023 Main 59/4/1 · Q29(a)6 marks

Analyse any three reasons for the disintegration of the Soviet Union in 1991.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/4/1

Reasons responsible for disintegration of USSR:

  1. Internal weaknesses of Soviet political and economical institutions.
  2. Economic stagnation for many years led to consumer shortage.
  3. Soviet Union used much of its resources in maintaining nuclear and military arsenals.
  4. Communist Party was not accountable to the people and corruption was rampant.
  5. Ordinary people became more knowledgeable about the technology and economic advancement of the west.
  6. The Soviet Union had become stagnant in administrative and political sense. The system was unwilling to allow openness.
  7. Reforms introduced by Mikhail Gorbachev accelerated disintegration.

Any other relevant point (Explain any three) 3×2=6

Q76.2023 Main 59/4/1 · Q29(b)6 marks

Analyse any three consequences of Shock Therapy due to which the economies of Second World countries collapsed.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/4/1

Consequences of Shock Therapy:

  1. Collapse of the state controlled large industrial complex.
  2. 90% industries put up for sale at throw away prices.
  3. Value of Ruble declined and inflation was high.
  4. GDP of Russia declined.
  5. Withdrawal of government subsidies pushed people into poverty.
  6. Academic and intellectual manpower disintegrated or migrated.
  7. Mafia emerged and started controlling economic activities.

Any other relevant point (Explain any three) 3×2=6

Q77.2023 Supp. 59/C/1 · Q27(a)6 marks

Analyse any three adverse effects of the reforms initiated by Gorbachev in the Soviet Union.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/C/1

Adverse effects of the Reforms:

  • i) The people in the East European countries which were part of the Soviet block started to protest against their own governments and Soviet control.
  • ii) The communist regimes in the Soviet system collapsed one after another due to non- interference by the Soviet regime.
  • iii) Crisis within the USSR deepened leading to quick Soviet disintegration .
  • iv) These reforms were opposed even by the leaders within the communist party.

(Any three)

Q78.2023 Supp. 59/C/1 · Q27(b)6 marks

Analyse any three consequences of the disintegration of the Soviet Union.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/C/1

Consequences of disintegration:

  • i) The cold war confrontations ended.
  • ii) Power relations in world politics changed.
  • iii) The end of the Soviet bloc meant the emergence of many new countries.
  • iv) The international system saw many new players emerging, each with its new identity.

(Any three with explanation)

Part A · Contemporary World Politics

2. Contemporary Centres of Power

Q1.2026 Main 59/1/1 · Q11 mark

Given below are two statements :

Statement-I : The economic policies implemented by China helped to break the stagnation of its economy.

Statement-II : Economic development of China also increased environmental degradation and corruption.

In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true.
  2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false.
  3. Statement-I is true, but Statement-II is false.
  4. Statement-I is false, but Statement-II is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/1/1

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

Q2.2026 Main 59/1/1 · Q31 mark

Which measure was adopted by China to solve its economic crisis ?

  1. Like USSR, China also followed ‘Shock Therapy’.
  2. China ended its economic isolation with the establishment of relations with most of the developing countries of the World.
  3. China opened its economy for privatisation step by step for the development of its economy.
  4. Chine focused more on export as compared to import.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/1/1

(C) China opened its economy for privatisation step by step for the development of its economy.

Q3.2026 Main 59/3/1 · Q51 mark

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other as Reason (R). Read these statements and choose the correct answer from the given below options :

Assertion (A): The European Union has its own flag, anthem, founding date and currency.

Reason (R): The European Union has a major influence on the economic, political and military fields in the contemporary world.

Options:

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
  4. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/3/1

(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A)

Q4.2026 Main 59/3/1 · Q111 mark

Which one of the following countries was not a founder of ASEAN ?

  1. Singapore
  2. Indonesia
  3. China
  4. Thailand
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/3/1

(C) China

Q5.2026 Supp. 59/7/1 · Q11 mark

How many stars are there on the European Union flag ?

  1. 8
  2. 10
  3. 12
  4. 14
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/7/1

(C) 12

Q6.2026 Supp. 59/7/1 · Q21 mark

Which one of the following countries is not a member of ASEAN ?

  1. Indonesia
  2. Sri Lanka
  3. Singapore
  4. Thailand
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/7/1

(B) Sri Lanka

Q7.2025 Main 59/5/1 · Q11 mark

Arrange the following in chronological order :

  1. Formation of the European Economic Community
  2. Establishment of ASEAN
  3. Privatisation of Agriculture in China
  4. India’s war with China

Choose the correct option :

  1. (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)
  2. (iv), (ii), (iii), (i)
  3. (ii), (iv), (i), (iii)
  4. (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/5/1

Note :- None of the options given above is correct. Hence, any candidate who attempts the question should be given 1 mark.

Q8.2025 Main 59/5/1 · Q21 mark

Which one of the following was the third largest economy of the world in 2017 ?

  1. Germany
  2. France
  3. South Korea
  4. Japan
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/5/1

(D) Japan

Q9.2025 Main 59/7/1 · Q11 mark

In the ASEAN logo, the ten stalks of paddy (rice) represent the ten South-east Asian countries bound together in :

  1. Fraternity and Liberty
  2. Friendship and Solidarity
  3. Peace and Friendship
  4. Solidarity and Co-operation
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/7/1

(B) Friendship and Solidarity

Q10.2025 Main 59/7/1 · Q21 mark

The economy of South Korea was the _________ largest in the world in 2017.

  1. 5th
  2. 8th
  3. 11th
  4. 14th
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/7/1

(C) 11th

Q11.2024 Main 59/1/1 · Q11 mark

The ‘ASEAN Way’ is a form of interaction that is ________.

  1. formal
  2. confrontationist
  3. cooperative
  4. provocative
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/1/1

(C) Cooperative

Q12.2024 Main 59/1/1 · Q21 mark

Which one of the following countries is not a founder-member of ASEAN ?

  1. Singapore
  2. Thailand
  3. Myanmar
  4. Indonesia
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/1/1

(C) Myanmar

Q13.2024 Main 59/3/1 · Q81 mark

Match List I correctly with List II :

List IList II
1. European Currency(i) France
2. Special Economic Zone(ii) ASEAN
3. A permanent member country of UN Security Council(iii) Euro
4. A Regional Organisation(iv) China

Choose the correct option :

  1. 1-(iii), 2-(iv), 3-(i), 4-(ii)
  2. 1-(iii), 2-(i), 3-(ii), 4-(iv)
  3. 1-(ii), 2-(i), 3-(iv), 4-(iii)
  4. 1-(iv), 2-(ii), 3-(iii), 4-(i)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/3/1

(A) 1-(iii), 2-(iv), 3-(i), 4-(ii)

Q14.2023 Main 59/3/1 · Q21 mark

Which one of the following statements is not an objective of BRICS ?

  1. To distribute equal economic benefits among its member-states
  2. Non-interference in the internal policies of member-states
  3. To establish a more equitable and fair world
  4. To promote peace and security
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/3/1

(a) To distribute equal economic benefits among its member states.

Q15.2023 Main 59/3/1 · Q41 mark

Arrange the following in chronological order :

  1. Establishment of SAARC
  2. Establishment of European Union
  3. Establishment of ASEAN
  4. Privatisation of agriculture in China

Choose the correct option :

  1. (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)
  2. (iii), (iv), (i), (ii)
  3. (ii), (iv), (i), (iii)
  4. (ii), (iv), (iii), (i)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/3/1

(b) (iii), (iv), (i), (ii)

Q16.2023 Supp. 59/C/1 · Q21 mark

In the European Union flag, the circle of gold stars stands for ________.

  1. solidarity and strength
  2. peace and harmony
  3. unity and diversity
  4. solidarity and harmony
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/C/1

(d) Solidarity and harmony

Q17.2023 Supp. 59/C/1 · Q31 mark

Which one of the following was not a founder country of ASEAN ?

  1. Singapore
  2. Thailand
  3. Indonesia
  4. Vietnam
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/C/1

(d) Vietnam

Q18.2023 Supp. 59/C/1 · Q41 mark

Identify the false statement related to the Chinese economy based on the Soviet model.

  1. Employment was assured to all citizens.
  2. Better health was not ensured.
  3. China moved ahead of many developing countries.
  4. Many social welfare schemes were introduced.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/C/1

(b) Better health was not ensured.

Q19.2026 Main 59/4/1 · Q132 marks

How can the economy of the European Union pose a threat to the US economy ? Explain.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/4/1

The Economy of the EU can pose a threat to US economy because

(i) Its share of world trade which is much larger than that of the united states.

(ii) Economy of EU is becoming more assertive in trade disputes with the US and China .

(iii) Its economy has an influence over its closest neighbours as well as in Asia and Africa.

(iv) It also acts as an important bloc in International organisations such as WTO.

(any other relevant point) (any two)

Q20.2025 Main 59/2/1 · Q132 marks

State any two main objectives of ‘ASEAN’.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/2/1

Objectives :

  1. To accelerate economic growth and through that achieve social progress and cultural development.
  2. To promote regional peace and stability based on the rule of law and the principles of United Nations.

or any other relevant point (Any two) (2x1=2)

Q21.2025 Main 59/6/1 · Q142 marks

Why is the European Union considered an effective regional organisation ? Write any two reasons.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/6/1
  1. The EU is the world’s second biggest economy.
  2. Its currency Euro is strong and can pose a threat to the US dollar.
  3. Its share of the world trade is much larger than that of the United States.
  4. Its member, France holds a permanent seat in the UN Security Council.

or any other relevant point (any two) (2 × 1 = 2)

Q22.2025 Supp. 59/S/1 · Q132 marks

Explain the term ‘ASEAN Way’.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/S/1

ASEAN way is a form of interaction that is informal, non-confrontationist and cooperative.

Q23.2024 Main 59/3/1 · Q142 marks

State any two objectives of ASEAN.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/3/1

Objectives of ASEAN.

  • (i) To accelerate economic growth and through that achieve social progress and cultural development.
  • (ii) To promote regional peace and stability based on the rule of law and the principles of UN charter.

(or any other relevant objective)

Q24.2023 Main 59/1/1 · Q132 marks

Highlight any two important features of the ‘ASEAN way’.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/1/1

ASEAN way is a form of interaction that is

  1. Informal
  2. Non- Confrontational and
  3. Cooperative

It respects the national sovereignty of member nations.

2×1=2

Q25.2023 Supp. 59/C/1 · Q132 marks

Write the full form of ‘BRICS’ and highlight its main objective.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/C/1

Full form of BRICS- Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa.

Objectives-

  1. The main objective of BRICS is primarily to co-operate and distribute mutual economic benefits among its members.
  2. Non-interference in the internal policies of each nation and mutual equality.
Q26.2023 Supp. 59/C/1 · Q152 marks

Give any two arguments to support the statement – “The European Union has increasingly evolved as a political union”.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/C/1
  • i) The European Union has started to act more as a nation state.
  • ii) It has its own flag, anthem and currency.
  • iii) It has some form of common foreign and security policy also.
  • iv) The European Union has tried to expand the areas of co-operation.

(Any two)

Q27.2022 Main 59/1/1 · Q1(a)2 marks

Explain any two steps taken by the US that aided the integration of the European States after the Second World War.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 59/1/1

Steps taken by the US–

  1. America extended massive financial help for reviving Europe’s economy under the ‘Marshall Plan’ after 1945.
  2. The US created a new collective security structure under NATO.

Or any other step

Q28.2022 Main 59/1/1 · Q1(b)2 marks

Explain the ‘Vision 2020’ of the regional organization ‘ASEAN’.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 59/1/1

Vision 2020 of the ASEAN is an outward looking role for ASEAN in the international community. It is to encourage negotiation over conflicts in the region.

For Example: ASEAN has mediated the end of the Cambodian conflict, the East Timor crises and meets annually to discuss East Asian Cooperation.

Q29.2022 Main 59/2/1 · Q1(a)2 marks

Name any four countries that established ‘ASEAN’.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 59/2/1

Indonesia, Malaysia, Philippines, Singapore and Thailand.

(Any four)

Q30.2022 Main 59/2/1 · Q1(b)2 marks

Name any four member countries of the European Union.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 59/2/1

France, Spain, Italy, Austria, Germany, UK, Sweden, Finland or any other.

(Any four)

Q31.2022 Main 59/2/1 · Q22 marks

Highlight the purpose of ‘Marshall Plan’.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 59/2/1

Purpose of Marshall plan—

To extend massive financial help for reviving the economy of Europe that was shattered during the Second World War.

Q32.2022 Main 59/3/1 · Q1(a)2 marks

Why did the people of China not receive the benefits of the reforms whereas its economy had improved dramatically ? Explain giving any two reasons.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 59/3/1

Reasons:-

  1. Unemployment has risen in China.
  2. Female employment and conditions for work were bad.
  3. Environmental degradation and competition had increased.
  4. Economic inequality between rural and urban residents had increased.

(Any two)

Q33.2022 Main 59/3/1 · Q1(b)2 marks

Explain the term ‘ASEAN Way’.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 59/3/1

ASEAN way is a form of interaction that is informal, non-confrontationist and cooperative. Mutual respect for national sovereignty is critical to the functioning of ASEAN.

Q34.2022 Main 59/3/1 · Q22 marks

Highlight any two factors that establish European Union as a Nation State.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 59/3/1

The European Union acts more as a Nation State as it has its own flag, anthem, founding date and currency. The EU has some powers that are commonly/generally exercised by the governments of a country. (common foreign and security policy)

Q35.2022 Main 59/5/1 · Q22 marks

Name any four members of the European Union.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 59/5/1

France, England, Germany, Belgium, Austria, Italy, Sweden, Poland or any other member country.

(If a candidate writes U.K. or England, it should be considered correct)

(Any four)

Q36.2022 Main 59/5/1 · Q72 marks

“The objective of ASEAN is not restricted only to accelerate economic growth.” Explain the statement.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 59/5/1

The objective of ASEAN is not restricted only to accelerate economic growth but also

  1. To attain social progress and cultural development.
  2. To uphold peace, neutrality, cooperation, non-interference, respect for national differences etc.
  3. To promote regional peace and stability based on rule of law.
  4. To promote the principles of the United Nations Charter.

(Any Two)

Q37.2026 Main 59/1/1 · Q23(a)4 marks

Analyse the ‘ASEAN way’ as a unique initiative of promoting peace in South-east Asian Countries.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/1/1

(i) ‘ASEAN WAY’ is a form of interaction that is informal non- confrontationist and cooperative.

(ii) Through ‘ASEAN WAY’ countries are resolving their conflicts through negotiations. ‘ASEAN WAY’ has mediated the end of Cambodian conflict and the East Timor crises.

(iii) ASEAN nations are trying to foster peace, co-operation and economic growth by using ‘ASEAN WAY’. ASEAN Regional Forum was established in 1994 to increase coordination of security and foreign policy.

(any two example with meaning)

Q38.2026 Main 59/1/1 · Q23(b)4 marks

Determine the contribution of ‘ASEAN security community’ in its promotion of economic progress.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/1/1

(i) The ASEAN security community was based on the conviction that outstanding territorial disputes should not escalate into armed confrontation.

(ii) By 2003, ASEAN had several agreements in place by which member states promised to uphold peace, neutrality, co-operation, non – interference and respect for national differences and sovereign rights.

(iii) The ASEAN Regional Forum (ARF) was established in 1994 which carries out coordination of security and foreign policy.

(iv) It resulted in growing much faster economy than any other regional organisations as compared to the US, The EU and Japan.

(v) ASEAN has focused on creating a Free Trade Area (FTA) for investment, labour and services. The US and China have already moved fast and negotiate FTAs with ASEAN.

(any two)

Q39.2026 Main 59/3/1 · Q254 marks

Study the cartoon given below carefully and answer the questions based on it :

Figure from the paper

(i) Name any two countries of East Asia.

(ii) Identify and name the leader shown in the cartoon.

(iii) Explain the meaning of the sentence given in the cartoon ‘WE’LL HAVE TO GET USED TO IT’.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/3/1

(i) Japan, South Korea ,Taiwan ,China, Mongolia (Any two)

(ii) Dr. Manmohan Singh

(iii) After Independence India followed the policy of NAM to be away from the two blocs. But with the end of USSR in 1991, India had to redefine its relations with other nations. In this direction, India also tried to make strong relations with east Asian nations. This was known as ‘Look East /Act East Policy’. So this sentence reflects that India has to improve its relations forever with these countries. To bear the heat of competitions.

Q40.2026 Main 59/3/1 · Q25 (VI)4 marks

(25.1) Name any one country which resisted the adoption of the ‘Euro’.

(25.2) Name any two new member countries of European Union.

(25.3) Explain any two main objectives of establishing the ASEAN Regional Forum (ARF).

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/3/1

(i) Sweden and Denmark (any one)

(ii) Poland, Hungry (or any other)

(iii) ARF was established for the

(a) Coordination of security

(b) Foreign policy among member states.

Q41.2026 Main 59/4/1 · Q194 marks

Analyse the relations between India and China since independence.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/4/1

Relations between India and China since independence –

China is the neighbouring country and as per India’s foreign policy – the relations should have been friendly but are not in actual. Beginning was on good note as both had signed Panchsheel – but with the passage of time, the actions of the Chinese Government strained the relations.

  • Political asylum to Dalai Lama in 1959.
  • India was attacked by China in 1962 on pretext of Boundary dispute.
  • China supports Pakistan against India
  • China also encourages the neighbouring countries to create disputes with India.

On analysing the above stated realties the relation between India and China become strained since 1950.

( any other relevant point)

Q42.2026 Supp. 59/7/1 · Q264 marks

Study the cartoon given below carefully and answer the questions based on it :

Figure from the paper

  1. Which country is being depicted by the wall and dragon shown in the cartoon ?
  2. What does the face of the dragon express to the world ?
  3. Explain the message conveyed by this cartoon.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/7/1
  1. China (1)
  2. Aggression and the speed of economic development of China (1)
  3. The Chinese economy and its military aggression is difficult to be controlled by any other power. It is becoming very strong economy at a faster pace. It is also aggressive in political field. It has become a challenge for other to accept. (2)
Q43.2026 Supp. 59/7/1 · Q26 (VI)4 marks

The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates only, in lieu of Q. No. 26 :

  • (26.1) To which country do the popular brands like Sony, Canon and Suzuki belong ?
  • (26.2) To which country is the phrase ‘Miracle on the Han River’ related ?
  • (26.3) The Red Book is related to which leader of China ?
  • (26.4) Which one member country of the European Union is a permanent member of the UN Security Council ?
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/7/1

26.1 Japan

26.2 South Korea

26.3 Mao

26.4 France

Q44.2025 Main 59/2/1 · Q19(a)4 marks

Analyse the basis of projecting China to overtake the US America to become the world’s largest economy.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/2/1

Basis :

  1. China is considered as the driver of East Asian growth.
  2. China is considered to be very powerful because of the factors such as population, landmass, resources, regional location.
  3. China announced ‘Open Door’ policy in 1978 which aimed at generation of high productivity by investments in capital and technology from abroad.
  4. Privatisation of agriculture and industry helped the rapid growth of economy.
  5. Foreign trade grew with the creation of SEZs and new trading laws which resulted in high foreign exchange reserves. In this way, China became most significant for FDI.
  6. Because of the above written factors China is expected to overtake the US America to become the world’s largest economy.

(To be analysed as a whole) (4)

Q45.2025 Main 59/2/1 · Q19(b)4 marks

“While the Chinese economy has improved, not everyone in China received the benefits of the reforms.” Analyse any two reasons for this.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/2/1

Reasons :

  1. Unemployment has risen in China with nearly 100 million people looking for jobs.
  2. Female employment and conditions of work are as bad as in Europe of the 18th and 19th centuries.
  3. Environmental degradation has increased.
  4. Corruption in most of the administrative units has increased.
  5. A rise in economic inequality between rural and urban residents and coastal and inland provinces.

(any two reasons to be analysed) (4)

Q46.2025 Main 59/5/1 · Q264 marks

Study the cartoon given below and answer the questions based on it :

Figure from the paper

  1. Which one of the following is the valid reason to choose ‘cycle’ to represent China ?

    1. China is the largest user of cycles in the world.
    2. It is the symbol of Communist Party of China.
    3. It shows poverty in China.
    4. Popularity of cycling as a sport in China.
  2. What does the dollar in the rear wheel of the cycle depict ?

    1. The influence of the US economy on China
    2. Fifty percent partnership of the two
    3. Dependence of China on US economy
    4. Economic aid to China by US
  3. Which form of economy was popular initially in China ?

    1. Capitalist
    2. Liberal
    3. Socialist
    4. Mixed
  4. Which one of the following option is the most appropriate message given by the cartoon ?

    1. China is open only to US economy.
    2. China has established trade relations with US.
    3. China works only with European countries.
    4. China has adopted dollar as its currency.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/5/1

(i) (A) China is the largest user of cycles in the world.

(ii) (A) The influence of the US economy on China

(iii) (C) Socialist

(iv) (B) China has established trade relations with US.

Q47.2025 Main 59/5/1 · Q26 (VI)4 marks

Note : The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates only, in lieu of Q. No. 26 :

(26.1) Name any two countries that share their borders with China.

(26.2) Name the leader of China who announced the ‘Open door’ policy.

(26.3) In which year was the privatisation of industries adopted in China ?

(26.4) Name any one symbol associated with China.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/5/1

26.1 India, Nepal or any other

26.2 Deng Xiaoping

26.3 1998

26.4 Dragon, Wall of China, Cycle (Any one)

(4 × 1 = 4)

Q48.2025 Main 59/6/1 · Q264 marks

Study the cartoon given below and answer the questions based on it :

Figure from the paper

  1. Which one of the following is the valid reason to choose ‘cycle’ to represent China ?

    1. China is the largest user of cycles in the world.
    2. It is the symbol of Communist Party of China.
    3. It shows poverty in China.
    4. Popularity of cycling as a sport in China.
  2. What does the dollar in the rear wheel of the cycle depict ?

    1. The influence of the US economy on China
    2. Fifty percent partnership of the two
    3. Dependence of China on US economy
    4. Economic aid to China by US
  3. Which form of economy was popular initially in China ?

    1. Capitalist
    2. Liberal
    3. Socialist
    4. Mixed
  4. Which one of the following option is the most appropriate message given by the cartoon ?

    1. China is open only to US economy.
    2. China has established trade relations with US.
    3. China works only with European countries.
    4. China has adopted dollar as its currency.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/6/1

(i) (A) China is the largest user of cycles in the world.

(ii) (A) The influence of the US economy on China

(iii) (C) Socialist

(iv) (B) China has established trade relations with US

(1 + 1 + 1 + 1 = 4)

Q49.2025 Main 59/6/1 · Q26 (VI)4 marks

Note : The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates only, in lieu of Q. No. 26 :

(26.1) Name any one founder member of ASEAN.

(26.2) In which year was the European Union established ?

(26.3) Name the country which ended its economic isolation by establishing relations with the United States of America.

(26.4) The economy of which country is the third largest economy in the world ?

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/6/1

(26.1) Indonesia, Malaysia, Thailand, Singapore, Philippines (Any one)

(26.2) 1992

(26.3) China

(26.4) Japan

(1 + 1 + 1 + 1 = 4)

Q50.2025 Main 59/7/1 · Q21(a)4 marks

Explain the various economic policies adopted by China that led to the rise of its economy.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/7/1

Various economic policies adopted by China are:-

  • After the inception of the People’s Republic of China in 1949, following the communist revolution under the leadership of Mao, its economy was based on Soviet Model.
  • The Chinese leadership took major policy decisions in the 1970s because its industrial production was not growing fast enough, international trade was minimal and per capita income was very low.
  • China ended its political and economic isolation with the establishment of relations with the United States in 1972.
  • Premier Zhou Enlai proposed the four modernisations (agricultural, industry, science and technology and military) in 1973.
  • In 1978, the then leader Deng Xiaoping announced the ‘Open Door’ policy and economic reforms in China.
  • In 1982, the privatisation of agriculture was done.
  • In 1998, the privatisation of industry was done.
  • Trade barriers were eliminated to establish Special Economic Zones (SEZs) where foreign investors could set up enterprises.
  • In China, the state played and continues to play a central role in setting up a market economy.

(Any four points)

Q51.2025 Main 59/7/1 · Q21(b)4 marks

Between the 1960s and the 1980s, South Korea emerged as an economic power in Asia which is termed as “Miracle on the Han River”. Explain any two reasons behind it.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/7/1

Reasons behind South Korea emerging as an economic power in Asia :

  1. South Korea became a member of the OECD in 1996.
  2. In 2017, its economy was the 11th largest in the world and its military expenditure was the 10th largest.
  3. According to the HDI Report 2016, rank of South Korea is 18th. The major factors responsible for its high human development include “Successful land reforms, rural development, extensive human resources development and rapid equitable economic growth.”
  4. Export orientation, strong redistribution policies, public infrastructure development, effective institutions and governance are some other reasons for making South Korea as ‘Miracle on Han river.’

(any two) (2 × 2 = 4)

Q52.2025 Supp. 59/S/1 · Q264 marks

Study the cartoon given below carefully and answer the questions that follow :

Note : The following cartoon is related to China.

Figure from the paper

  1. What was contained in the Red Book shown in the cartoon ?
  2. Who was Mao as shown in the cartoon ?
  3. What two changes do you find in China from ‘Then’ to ‘Now’ ?
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/S/1

(i) Ideology of the Chinese Communist Party as visualised by Mao.

(ii) Mao was the leader of communist revolution and the chief of the party.

(iii) Economic policy changed and capitalism was accepted as per need. Open door policy was adopted to invite the FDI.

(1 + 1 + 2 = 4)

Q53.2025 Supp. 59/S/1 · Q26 (VI)4 marks

Note : The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates only, in lieu of Q. No. 26 :

(26.1) In which year did the inception of the ‘People’s Republic of China’ take place ?

(26.2) Name the leader who led the Communist Revolution in China.

(26.3) Name the Premier of China who proposed the four modernisations.

(26.4) In which year was agriculture privatised in China ?

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/S/1

26.1 1949

26.2 Mao

26.3 Premier Zhou Enlai

26.4 1982

(4 × 1 = 4)

Q54.2024 Main 59/1/1 · Q19(a)4 marks

Assess the economic importance of the European Union.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/1/1

Economic importance of the European Union :

  • (i) The European Union is the world’s second largest economy, next to that of the U.S.A.
  • (ii) Its share of world trade is much larger than that of the United States.
  • (iii) Its economic power gives it influence over its closest neighbours as well as in Asia and Africa.
  • (iv) It also functions as an important bloc in international economic organisations such as WTO etc.

Or any other relevant point (Any Two)

Q55.2024 Main 59/1/1 · Q19(b)4 marks

Analyse the role of the European Union as a supranational organisation with the help of examples.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/1/1
  • (i) The European Union is considered as superanational organization because it has its own flag, anthem, founding date and currency.
  • (ii) It also has some form of a common forum and security policy in its dealing with other nation.
  • (iii) As a superanational organization, the European Union is able to the intervene in economic, political and social areas. But in many areas, its members have their own foreign relations and defence policies that are often at odds with each other.
  • (iv) Britain’s Prime Minister, Tony Blair was America’s partner in the Iraq invasion.
  • (v) Similarly many of the European Union’s newer members made up the US led ‘coalition of the willing’ whereas Germany and France opposed the American policy.

(Any Two)

Q56.2024 Main 59/2/1 · Q21(b)4 marks

Suggest any two measures to improve Indo-China relations.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/2/1

Measures to improve Indo-China relations -

  • (i) Negotiations should be encouraged to resolve the border disputes.
  • (ii) Regular meetings of different personnel should be held to maintain peace at the Actual Line of Control (ALC).
  • (iii) Mutual trade should be encouraged.
  • (iv) Confidence building measures should be adopted as far as possible.

(Or any other relevant point) (Any Two)

Q57.2024 Supp. 59/S/1 · Q264 marks

Study the cartoon given below and answer the questions that follow.

(The cartoon is related to China)

Figure from the paper

  1. Identify and name the leader who is holding the ‘Red Book’.
  2. What ideological change took place in China from the ‘Red Book’ (Then) to the ‘Red Tie’ (Now) ?
  3. Explain any two economic changes that took place in China between ‘then’ and ‘now’.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/S/1

(i) Mao (1)

(ii) Shift from closed economy to open economy (1)

(iii)

  • China ended its political and economic isolation and established relations with the US in 1972.
  • Premier Zhou Enlai proposed the four modernisations – agriculture, Industry, Science and Technology and Military in 1973.
  • Deng Xiaoping announced open door policy and economic reforms in China.
  • Sez’s were established.

Or any other relevant change (any two changes) (2)

Q58.2024 Supp. 59/S/1 · Q26 (VI)4 marks

Note : The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates only, in lieu of Q. No. 26 :

(26.1) In which year was the privatisation of agriculture introduced in China ?

(26.2) Name the leader who led the Communist revolution in China.

(26.3) Explain any two factors responsible for the growth of Chinese economy.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/S/1

26.1 1982 (1)

26.2 Mao (1)

26.3 (2)

  • Its economic integration with its neighbouring countries is responsible for the growth of Chinese economy.
  • The strength of China’s economy, together with other factors such as population, land mass, resources and political influences etc. are responsible for its economic growth.

Or any other relevant point

Q59.2023 Main 59/2/1 · Q264 marks

Study the given cartoon carefully and answer the questions that follow :

Figure from the paper

  1. To which country are these two cartoons related ?
    1. Japan
    2. Vietnam
    3. South Korea
    4. China
  2. Red Book is related to which ideology ?
    1. Capitalism
    2. Communism
    3. Humanism
    4. Terrorism
  3. What does the ‘Red Power Tie’ depict ?
    1. Negation of communism
    2. Acceptance of Capitalism
    3. Coordination of communism with Capitalism
    4. Negation of Capitalism
  4. What is the difference between ‘then’ and ‘now’ as per the cartoon ?
    1. ‘Rigidity’ has increased now in the ideology of ‘then’
    2. Rigidity has decreased ‘now’ in the ideology of ‘then’.
    3. The leader under ‘then’ and the leader under ‘now’ belong to different political parties.
    4. The Leader under ‘then’ and the leader under ‘now’ belong to different organisations.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/2/1

(i) (d) China

(ii) (b) Communism

(iii) (c) Coordination of Communism with Capitalism

(iv) (b) Rigidity has decreased ‘now’ in the ideology of ‘then’

4×1=4

Q60.2023 Main 59/2/1 · Q26 (VI)4 marks

Note : The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of Qn. 26.

(26.1) Which one of the following ideologies is followed by India ?

  1. Liberalism
  2. Socialism
  3. Capitalism
  4. Communism

(26.2) In 1982, which one of the following changes was made in China ?

  1. Privatisation of industries was done.
  2. China ended its political and economic isolation.
  3. Special economic zones were established.
  4. Privatisation of agriculture was done.

(26.3) Which one of the following statements is true about China ?

  1. It is a republic
  2. It is a monarchy
  3. It has multiparty system
  4. It has a coalition government

(26.4) Which one of the following symbols is NOT related to China ?

  1. The Great Wall
  2. Dragon
  3. Bicycle
  4. Rising Sun
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/2/1

26.1 (b) Socialism

26.2 (d) Privatisation of agriculture was done

26.3 (a) It is a Republic

26.4 (d) Rising Sun

4×1=4

Q61.2023 Main 59/3/1 · Q264 marks

Study the cartoon given below carefully and answer the questions that follow.

Figure from the paper

  1. The above cartoon is related to which organisation ?
    1. ASEAN
    2. European Union
    3. SAARC
    4. BRICS
  2. The above cartoon is about which one of the following ?
    1. Global warming
    2. Failure to make a trade agreement
    3. Failure to draft a common constitution
    4. Failure to protect the environment
  3. What does the circle of stars shown in the cartoon represent ?
    1. Member-states of the organisation
    2. Unity of the organisation
    3. Success of the organisation
    4. Composition of the organisation
  4. In which year was the organisation related to the cartoon established ?
    1. 1967
    2. 1985
    3. 1992
    4. 2006
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/3/1

(i) (b) European Union

(ii) (c) Failure to draft a common constitution

(iii) (b) Unity of the organisation

(iv) (c) 1992

4×1=4

Q62.2023 Main 59/3/1 · Q26 (VI)4 marks

Note : The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates only, in lieu of Q. No. 26 :

  1. Which organisation was established under the Marshall Plan ?
    1. Council of Europe
    2. Organisation for European Economic Cooperation
    3. European Community
    4. European Economic Community
  2. Which two countries have resisted to adopt Maastricht Treaty ?
    1. Bulgaria, Romania
    2. Britain, France
    3. Denmark, Sweden
    4. Poland, Finland
  3. China adopted the ‘open door’ policy to improve its economy in which year ?
    1. 1975
    2. 1977
    3. 1978
    4. 1979
  4. Which set of five countries were the founders of ASEAN ?
    1. Indonesia, Malaysia, Philippines, Singapore and Thailand
    2. Indonesia, Malaysia, Philippines, Thailand and Brunei
    3. Indonesia, Philippines, Singapore, Thailand and Brunei
    4. Indonesia, Malaysia, Philippines, Vietnam and Thailand
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/3/1

(i) (b) Organisation for European Economic Cooperation

(ii) (c) Denmark, Sweden

(iii) (c) 1978

(iv) (a) Indonesia, Malaysia, Philippines, Singapore and Thailand

4×1=4

Q63.2022 Main 59/2/1 · Q94 marks

Evaluate the importance of any two objectives of ASEAN.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 59/2/1

Objectives of ASEAN—

  1. It is a form of interaction between the members that is informal, non-confrontationist and cooperative.
  2. The respect for National Sovereignty of member states.
  3. It is for encouraging negotiation over conflicts in the region.
  4. To accelerate economic growth
  5. To promote regional peace and stability.

(Any two)

Q64.2022 Main 59/3/1 · Q94 marks

Explain any two major policy decisions made by the Chinese government to open and develop its economy.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 59/3/1

Decisions made—

  1. Establishment of relations with the US in 1972.
  2. By 1973, four modernisations (agriculture, industry, science and technology and military) was done.
  3. By 1978, it announced ‘Open Door Policy’ and economic reforms in China.
  4. In 1982, privatisation of agriculture was done.
  5. In 1998, privatisation of industries was done.
  6. Trade barriers were eliminated in special Economic zone. (SEZ)

(Any two with elaboration)

Q65.2026 Main 59/2/1 · Q27(a)6 marks

Explain any four factors that led Japan to emerge as a new centre of power even after the destruction caused by Atom Bombs.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/2/1

Factors –

(i) Japan is advanced country in making high – technological products.

(ii) Japan joined Organization for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD) in 1964 for growth.

(iii) In 2017, it became the third largest economy in the world.

(iv) It is the second largest contributor to the regular budget of the UN.

(v) It is the only Asian member of G7.

(vi) It is the 11th most populous nation in the world.

(vii) Military expenditure is the seventh largest in the world.

(or any other relevant point) ( any four points)

Q66.2026 Main 59/2/1 · Q27(b)6 marks

Explain any four policies adopted by China to accelerate its economic growth.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/2/1

(i) Establishment of relations with the US in 1972 to end its economic isolation.

(ii) Premier Zhou Enlai presented the proposal of four modernisations.

(iii) Announcement of ‘open door policy’ and economic reforms in China by Deng Xiaoping.

(iv) New Trading Laws and establishment of special Economic Zones (SEZs).

(v) China opened its economy step by step. The privatization of agriculture in 1982 was followed by the privatization of industries in 1998.

(vi) China invited FDI for development.

(vii) It has large Foreign Exchange Reserves that allow it to make big investments in other countries.

(viii) Accession to the WTO in 2001 has been a further step in its opening to the outside world.

(or any other policies) ( any four)

Q67.2026 Main 59/5/1 · Q27(a)6 marks

Analyse any four decisions made by the Chinese leadership that led to the rise of the Chinese economy.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/5/1

Reasons :

  • Ending its economic isolation with the establishment of relations with US in 1972
  • By adopting open door policy is 1978.
  • Privatization of Agriculture in 1982
  • Privatisation of industries in 1998.
  • Establishment of SEZs. (Special Economic Zones)
  • FDI was allowed.

(Any four to be analyzed)

Q68.2026 Main 59/5/1 · Q27(b)6 marks

Analyse any four reasons that make the European Union an influential regional organisation.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/5/1

The EU has Economic, Political, Diplomatic and military influences.

Economical Influences

  • The EU is the world’s second biggest economy with a GDP of more than 17 Trillion US Dollars in 2016.
  • Its currency the Euro, can pose a threat to the dominance of US dollar.

Political Influences

  • One member i.e France holds a permanent seat in UNSC.
  • EU includes several non permanent members in UNSC.

Diplomatic Influence

  • EU is able to influence some US policies such as the current US position on Iran’s Nuclear programme.
  • EU uses diplomacy , economic investment , negotiations rather than the coercion & military forces as in the case of its dialogue with China on Human Right.

Military Influence

  • The EU combined forces are the second largest in the world.
  • The total spending on defence is second after US
  • One member I.e France has Nuclear arsenal.

(Any four)

Q69.2025 Main 59/1/1 · Q27(a)6 marks

Explain any two contentious issues between China and India. Suggest any two measures to resolve these issues for greater cooperation.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/1/1

Contentious issues :

  1. China annexed Tibet in 1950
  2. China’s close relation with Pakistan
  3. Tibetan spiritual leader sought and obtained political asylum in India.
  4. Boundary disputes between India and China which led to a war in 1962.
  5. China occupied Aksai-Chin area of Ladkh and NEFA area in 1962.

or any other relevant issue (any two issues) (2x1½=3)

Measures :

  1. Resolve the border issues through negotiation.
  2. Bilateral talks between the diplomats of both the countries.
  3. Increase in transportation and communication links to establish a more positive and sound relationship between the people of two countries.
  4. Increase in trade and economic collaboration.

or any other relevant issues, measure (any two measures) (2x1½=3)

Q70.2025 Main 59/1/1 · Q27(b)6 marks

“ASEAN took steps to establish an ASEAN community on the basis of its three pillars.” Explain the importance of these three pillars.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/1/1

Three pillars of ASEAN :

  1. ASEAN Security Community – It was based on the conviction that outstanding territorial disputes should not escalate into armed confrontation. ARF is the organisation that carries out coordination of security and foreign policy.
  2. ASEAN Economic Community – It objectives are to create a common market and production base within ASEAN states and to aid social and economic development in the region.
  3. ASEAN Socio-Cultural community.

(Three pillars to be explained briefly) (3x2=6)

Q71.2025 Main 59/4/1 · Q27(a)6 marks

Explain any three factors that make the European Union an effective regional organisation.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/4/1
  1. The EU has economic, political diplomatic and military influence.
  2. The EU is the second biggest economy in the world.
  3. Its currency Euro can pose a threat to US dollar.
  4. EU is world’s second most important source of space and communication technology.
  5. Militarily, the EU’s combined armed forces are the second largest in the world.

or any other relevant point (Any three points to be explained) (3 × 2 = 6)

Q72.2025 Main 59/4/1 · Q27(b)6 marks

Explain any three changes made in China that raised the growth of its economy.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/4/1

Reasons for the growth of Chinese economy :

  1. China changed its policy of isolation and established relations with US in 1972.
  2. Premier Zhou Enlai introduced four modernisations- Agriculture, Science and Technology, Industry and Military .
  3. Deng Xiaoping announced the open door policy.
  4. Privatisation of Agriculture was done in 1982 and privatisation of industries was done in 1998.

These changes accelerated the growth of Chinese economy.

(Any three points to be explained) (3 × 2 = 6)

Q73.2024 Main 59/2/1 · Q27(a)6 marks

Analyse any four factors that make the European Union an influential regional organisation.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/2/1

Factors-

  • (i) The EU has evolved over time from an economic union to an increasingly political one.
  • (ii) The EU has a common flag, anthem, founding date and currency which shows its solidarity and unity. It also has some form of a common foreign and security policy in its dealings with other nations.
  • (iii) The EU is the world’s second biggest economy with a GDP of more than $17 trillion in 2016, next to that of the USA.
  • (iv) It functions as an important bloc in the WTO.
  • (v) One of its members (France) is the permanent member of the UN Security Council.
  • (vi) Its currency, the Euro, can pose a threat to the dominance of the US dollar.
  • (vii) The combined armed forces of the EU are the second largest in the world. Its total spending on defense is second after the US.
  • (viii) It also works as a supranational organization, the EU is able to intervene in economic, political and social areas.

(Or any other relevant point) (Any Four)

(4x1½=6)

Q74.2024 Main 59/2/1 · Q27(b)6 marks

“ASEAN is rapidly growing into a very important regional organisation.” Justify the statement.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/2/1
  • ASEAN has little desire for supranational structures like the EU.
  • ASEAN celebrates its way of working known as the ‘ASEAN way’ which is a form of interaction that is informal, non-confrontational and cooperative.
  • ASEAN has broadened its objectives beyond the economic and social spheres.
  • It respects the sovereignty of member countries.
  • It has focussed on creating a Free Trade Area for investment, labor and service.
  • ASEAN is the only regional association in Asia that provides a political Forum where Asian countries and the major powers can discuss political and security concerns.

(Or any other relevant point) (Evaluate as a whole)

Q75.2024 Main 59/4/1 · Q27(a)6 marks

Analyse any four factors that make the European Union an influential regional organisation of the world.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/4/1

Factors that make the European Union an influential regional organisation:

  1. The European Union (EU) has economic, political, diplomatic and military influence.
  2. The EU is the world’s second biggest economy.
  3. It’s currency EURO poses a threat to the dominance of the US dollar.
  4. Its share of World Trade is larger than the United States, making it more assertive in trade disputes with US and China.
  5. It functions as an important block in international economic organisations- World Trade Organisation (WTO).
  6. France, a member of EU holds a permanent seat in UN Security Council.
  7. EU’s combined armed forces as well as a defence expenditure is second largest in the world.
  8. France, is a nuclear power state.
  9. EU is the world’s second most important source of space and communication technology.

(or any other relevant point) (any four points) (4x1½=6)

Q76.2024 Main 59/4/1 · Q27(b)6 marks

Analyse any four objectives of establishing the regional organisations.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/4/1

Objectives of establishing regional organisations:

  1. Evolving regional solutions to their historical enmities and weakness.
  2. Developing alternative institutions and conventions that build a more peaceful and cooperative regional order.
  3. Transform the countries of a region into prosperous economics.
  4. Promote political corporation and economic integration among member states within a geographical proximity.

(or any other relevant point) (any four points) (4x1½=6)

Q77.2024 Main 59/5/1 · Q28(a)6 marks

While the Chinese economy has improved dramatically, why has everyone in China not received the benefits of the reforms ? State any three reasons.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/5/1

Reasons:

  1. Unemployment had risen in China with nearly 100 million people looking for jobs.
  2. Female employment and conditions of work were bad.
  3. Environment degradation had increased.
  4. Corruption had increased.
  5. Economic inequality between rural and urban residents rose.
  6. Rise in economic inequality between coastal and inland provinces.

Or any other relevant reason.

(any three to be explained) (3x2=6)

Q78.2024 Main 59/5/1 · Q28(b)6 marks

Describe the process of evolution of the European Union from an Economic Union to an increasingly Political one.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/5/1
  • America extended massive financial help for reviving Europe economy under the Marshal Plan.
  • In 1948 OEEC was established to extend cooperation on trade and economic issues among the western European states. In 1949 Council of Europe was established for political cooperation.
  • The process of economic integration of European capitalist countries led to the formation of European Economic Community in 1957. This acquired a political dimension with the creation of the European Parliament. In 1992 EU was formed.
  • It also laid stress on a common foreign and security policy, co-operation on justice and home affairs and the creation of a common currency.
  • It started to act more as a nation state.
  • While the attempts to have a Constitution for the EU have failed still it has its own flag, anthem, founding date and currency.
  • It also has some form of a common foreign and security policy in its dealings with other nations.
  • It shows that European Union evolved over time from an economic union to an increasingly political one.

(to be assessed as a whole) (6)

Q79.2024 Supp. 59/S/1 · Q27(a)6 marks

Describe the process of evolution of European Union from an economic union to an increasingly political and military bloc.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/S/1

The process of evolution of European Union from an economic union to an increasingly political and military bloc started with the creation of the European Parliament.

  1. EU has adopted a common own flag, anthem, founding date and currency Euro.
  2. EU also has some form of a common foreign and security policy in its dealings with other nations.
  3. EU has tried to expand areas of cooperation while acquiring new members, especially from the erstwhile Soviet bloc.

(Assess as a whole) (6)

Q80.2024 Supp. 59/S/1 · Q27(b)6 marks

Describe any three objectives of the ASEAN.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/S/1

Three objectives of ASEAN-

  1. To accelerate economic growth through ‘social progress and cultural development’.
  2. To promote regional peace and stability based on the rule of law and the principles of the United Nations Charter.
  3. ASEAN countries follow an interaction that came to be known as the ‘ASEAN WAY’. It is informal, non-confrontationist and cooperative.
  4. To have respect for national sovereignty of the member countries.

Or any other relevant point

(Any Three) (3x2=6)

Q81.2023 Main 59/1/1 · Q29(a)6 marks

Evaluate the strength of European Union as the most effective regional organisation on the basis of any three facts.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/1/1

Strength of the European Union

  1. European Union is the world largest economy today.
  2. Euro as a currency of European Union can pose a threat to US dollar. The GDP of EU is much larger than that of the US.
  3. Militarily, the EU’s combined armed forces are the second largest in the world. It has two member states which are nuclear powers.
  4. Politically too, EU is extremely influential. Previously two of its members UK and France (and now France only) are permanent members of the UNSC.

or any other relevant point (any three) 3×2=6

Q82.2023 Main 59/2/1 · Q30(a)6 marks

Evaluate any three steps taken by the Chinese leadership for the growth of Chinese economy.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/2/1

The steps taken by Chinese leadership

  1. Open Door Policy :- It was announced in 1978 by Deng Yiaoping to generate higher productivity by investments of capital and technology from abroad.
  2. Market Economy:- China introduced its own market economy by the privatization of agriculture and industry in 1982 and 1988.
  3. Special Economic Zones - To remove the trade barriers and to open the economy for foreign investors China set Special Economy Zones.
  4. Accession to WTO: - China plans to deepen its integeration into the world economy and shape the future world economic order by its accession to WTO in 2001.

Or any other relevant step (any three to be explained) 3×2=6

Q83.2023 Main 59/4/1 · Q30(a)6 marks

Evaluate the role of ASEAN in the contemporary world.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/4/1

Role of ASEAN:

  • ASEAN aims at economic growth of the region.
  • It also work for social progress and cultural development.
  • It works for regional peace and stability based on the principle of United Nations.
  • ASEAN way is a big contribution which is a form of interaction between Nations. It is informal non confrontational and cooperative.
  • It has established three pillars for ASEAN community comprising
    • ASEAN Security Community
    • ASEAN Economic Community
    • ASEAN Socio - Cultural Community
  • It works for resolving all territorial disputes without armed Confrontation.

Any other relevant point (Evaluate as a whole) 6

Q84.2023 Main 59/4/1 · Q30(b)6 marks

“In spite of the improvement in the Chinese economy, not everyone in China has received the benefits of economic reforms.” Support the statement with three arguments.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/4/1

Arguments

  1. Unemployment has risen in China with nearly 100 million people looking for jobs.
  2. Female employment and conditions of work are as bad as in Europe of the 18th and 19th centuries.
  3. Environment Degradation has increased.
  4. Corruption has increased.
  5. Rise in economic inequality between rural and urban resident.
  6. Rise in economic inequality between coastal and inland provinces.

any other factors (Any three) 3×2=6

Q85.2023 Main 59/5/1 · Q27(a)6 marks

Explain the process of evolution of the European Union from an economic union to an increasingly political one.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/5/1

Evolution of EU from economic union to a political one:

  • i) European integration after 1945 aided by the Cold War. America extended financial help under the 'martial plan'
  • ii) It became a forum for Western European States to cooperate on trade and economic issues. Organisations like OEEC, Council of Europe, European economic community, European parliament and finally European Union came up.
  • iii) It also laid foundation for a common foreign and security policy, corporation on justice and home affairs and creation of common currency.
  • iv) It has also started to act more as a nation state. EU has it's own flag, anthem, founding date and currency. It also has some form of a common foreign and security policy.
  • v) The EU has economic, political and democratic and military influence.

(or any other relevant points ) ( any three points)

Q86.2023 Main 59/5/1 · Q27(b)6 marks

Explain any three factors that led India to emerge as a new Centre of Power.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/5/1

India as new centre of power:

  • i) 21st Century India is being seen as an important emerging global power. The economic,cultural, strategic position of the country with a population of more than 135 crores, is very strong.
  • ii) From an economic perspective, targeting the goal of a 5 trillion economy and a competitive huge market, help India to be a centre of power.
  • iii) An ancient inclusive culture with 200 million people of Indian Diaspora spreading across the globe impart distinct meaning and salience to India as a new centre of power.
  • iv) The military of India is self sufficient, with indigenous nuclear technology another nuclear power.
  • v) 'Make in India' scheme in technology and science is another milestone of Indian economy.

(any other relevant point ) ( any three points)

Q87.2022 Main 59/1/1 · Q12(a)6 marks

Explain any four steps taken by China to develop its economy.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 59/1/1

Steps taken by China–

  1. Established relations with the US in 1972
  2. Proposed four areas of modernisation as agriculture, industry, army and science -technology in 1973.
  3. In 1978 – announced the ‘open door’ policy
  4. In 1982 – Privatisation of Agriculture was done
  5. In 1998 – Privatisation of Industries was done
  6. Trade Barriers were eliminated
  7. Special Economic Zones were set up.

(Any four)

Q88.2022 Main 59/1/1 · Q12(b)6 marks

Explain any four factors that make the European Union a strong organization.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 59/1/1
  1. EU was the world’s biggest economy.
  2. Its share of world trade was three times larger than that of the US.
  3. Two of its countries are permanent members of UN Security Council. (Even if a candidate write ‘one’ in place of ‘two’, it may be considered right).
  4. The EU’s combined armed forces are the second largest in the world.
  5. Its currency can pose a threat to US Dollar.

Or Any other factor (Any four)

Q89.2022 Main 59/4/1 · Q12(a)6 marks

Highlight any three steps taken by China to improve its economy.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 59/4/1

Steps taken by China—

  1. Adopted open door policy
  2. Zhou-EnLai’s four modernizations – Agriculture, Industry, Science & Technology, Military
  3. Privatisation of Industries
  4. Privatisation of Agriculture
  5. Ended political & economic isolation with other countries.
  6. Trade barrier were eliminated.
  7. Creation of special economic zones
  8. Accession to WTO

(Any three points to be explained briefly)

Q90.2022 Main 59/4/1 · Q12(b)6 marks

Highlight any three strengths of the European Union as a centre of power.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 59/4/1

Strengths of EU—

  1. Two of its members are permanent members of UN Security Council.
  2. Its GDP is more than $12 trillion in 2005.
  3. Its share of World Trade is three times larger than that of US.
  4. It has second largest armed force in the World.
  5. The Euro can pose a threat to the dominance of the US Dollar.
  6. The economic power of European Union gives its influence over its closest neighbours and Asia an Africa.

Or any other relevant point (Any three)

(Credit should also be given if the students write only France as a permanent member of UN Security Council after UK left the EU)

Q91.2022 Supp. 59/6/1 · Q12(a)6 marks

Analyse any three factors responsible for the European Union to be a highly influential regional organization.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/6/1

Factors responsible for EU to be a highly influential regional organization:-

  1. EU is the world’s biggest economy.
  2. Its currency Euro can pose threat to the dominance of the US Dollar.
  3. Its economic power gives it influence over its closest neighbors’ as well as in Asia and Africa.
  4. Its share of world trade is three times larger that of the US.
  5. Its two members (now one) hold permanent seat in the UNSC and there are many other non-permanent members also.
  6. The EU’s combined armed forces are the second largest in the world.
  7. Its total spending on defence is second after the US.

(Any three with explanation) 3×2=6

Q92.2022 Supp. 59/6/1 · Q12(b)6 marks

Assess the role of ASEAN as an economic association.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/6/1

ASEAN as an economic association-

  • Its economy is growing much faster than that of the US, EU and Japan.
  • This accounts for the growth in its influence both in the region and beyond.
  • ASEAN is trying to create a common market and production base within the ASEAN states.
  • A mechanism is being evolved to settle and resolve the economic disputes.
  • ASEAN has focused on creating FTA for investment, labour and services.
  • The current economic strength of ASEAN is being trading and investment partner to the growing Asian economies such as India and China, Singapore and Thailand.
Q93.SQP 2025-26 · Q30(A)6 marks

Assess the role of ASEAN as an economic association.

Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 · Marking Scheme
  1. ASEAN was established primarily for accelerating the economic growth through ‘social progress and cultural development,’ It still remains principally an economic community.
  2. Though the ASEAN region as a whole is a much smaller economy compared to the US, the EU, and Japan, however, its economy is growing much faster than all these. This accounts for the growth in its influence both in the region and beyond.
  3. The objectives of the ASEAN are to create a common market and production base within ASEAN states. ASEAN as an economic community also committed to improving the existing ASEAN.
  4. ASEAN has focused on creating a Free Trade Area (FTA) for investment, labour and services. The US and China have already negotiated FTA with ASEAN.
  5. The current economic strength of ASEAN particularly its economic relevance as a trading and investment partner to the growing Asian economies such as India and China makes this an attractive proposition. India signed FTA with two ASEAN members, Singapore and Thailand, and trying to sign an FTA with ASEAN itself.
  6. ASEAN’s strength, however, lies in its policies of interaction and consultation with member states, with dialogue partners and with non-regional organizations.
Q94.SQP 2025-26 · Q30(B)6 marks

Can Japan effectively function as an alternative centre of power? Support your answer with logical explanation.

Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 · Marking Scheme

Years after defeat in the Second World War, Japan emerged as a developed Asian nation despite its scarce natural resources.

  1. Today, it is the third largest economy in the world and is the only Asian member of G-7.
  2. It is the second largest contributor to the UN budget, contributing almost 10% of the total budget. It has a security alliance with the US since 1951. A per Article 9 of the Japanese Constitution, to renounce war as a sovereign right of the nation and the threat or use of force as means of settling international disputes.
  3. Although Japan’s military expenditure is only 1% of its GDP, it is the seventh largest in the world.
  4. Japanese brands such as Sony, Panasonic, Suzuki, Toyota have a reputation for making high-technology products.
  5. Japan became a member of the Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) in 1964.
  6. It is the eleventh most populous nation in the world.

If it develops strategic relations with the other powerful Asian nations, Japan may become an alternative centre of power in the world.

(Or Any other relevant point/s)

Q95.SQP 2026-27 · Q28(A)6 marks

How do regional organisations like the EU and ASEAN play an influential role? Explain.

Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 · Marking Scheme

Regional organisations like the European Union (EU) and the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) play an effective role by providing platforms for member states to economic growth, foster stability, and enhance their collective influence on the global stage.

i) Economic Integration and Growth

Both the EU and ASEAN are highly effective in removing trade barriers and creating larger markets that boost economic prosperity for their members.

  • European Union (EU): The EU created a single market where goods, services, capital, and people move freely. The introduction of the Euro currency further simplified trade and investment and making the EU a dominant global economic power.
  • ASEAN: ASEAN is working towards an ASEAN Economic Community (AEC), which aims to create a single market and production base. This integration has increased intra-regional trade and attracted foreign direct investment to Southeast Asia.

ii) Maintaining Regional Peace and Stability

Regional organisations provide crucial mechanisms for dialogue, cooperation, and conflict resolution.

  • European Union (EU): The EU coordinates common foreign and security policies to address external threats collectively.
  • ASEAN: The organisation is known for the "ASEAN Way," a form of interaction that is informal, non- confrontationist and cooperative allowing members to focus on economic development rather than security threats from neighbours. The ASEAN Regional Forum (ARF) also provides a unique platform for major global powers to discuss security issues related to Asia.

iii) Collective Influence

  • European Union (EU): The EU often speaks on critical global issues, such as climate change agreements, trade negotiations with powers like China or the US, and upholding specific international norms
  • ASEAN: ASEAN has effectively managed relations with major powers—including the US, China, and India—through diplomatic platforms. ASEAN countries can negotiate trade deals or address geopolitical tensions with major powers on a more level playing field.
  • Both EU and ASEAN coordinates many contemporary problems such as climate change, pandemics, and disaster management.

(Assess the answer as a whole or other relevant point)

Q96.SQP 2026-27 · Q28(B)6 marks

Explain the various economic policies adopted by China for the rise of its economy.

Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 · Marking Scheme

After the inception of the People’s Republic of China in 1949, following the communist revolution under the leadership of Mao, its economy was based on Soviet Model.

  1. The Chinese leadership took major policy decisions in the 1970s because its industrial production was not growing fast enough, international trade was minimal and per capita income was very low.
  2. China ended its political and economic isolation with the establishment of relations with the United States in 1972.
  3. Premier Zhou Enlai proposed the four modernisations (agricultural, industry, science and technology and military) in 1973.
  4. In 1978, the then leader Deng Xiaoping announced the ‘Open Door’ policy and economic reforms in China.
  5. The government carried out the privatization of agriculture in 1982 and industry in 1998, which drastically boosted productivity.
  6. Trade barriers were eliminated to establish Special Economic Zones (SEZs) where foreign investors could set up their own enterprises, providing a major impetus to export-led growth.

In China, the state played and continues to play a central role in setting up a market economy and become a leading global power.

(Assess the answer as a whole or other relevant point)

Part A · Contemporary World Politics

3. Contemporary South Asia

Q1.2026 Main 59/4/1 · Q11 mark

Which one of the following countries is not a member of SAARC ?

  1. Nepal
  2. China
  3. Maldives
  4. Sri Lanka
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/4/1

(B) China

Q2.2026 Main 59/4/1 · Q21 mark

In which year was a multi-party system introduced in the Maldives ?

  1. 2008
  2. 2007
  3. 2006
  4. 2005
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/4/1

(D) 2005

Q3.2026 Main 59/5/1 · Q31 mark

For Question number 3, two statements are given — one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Read these statements carefully and choose the correct option as the answer from the options (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below.

Assertion (A): In April 2006, there were massive countrywide pro-democracy protests in Nepal.

Reason (R): In 2002, the king abolished the parliament and dismissed the government.

Options :

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/5/1

(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).

Q4.2026 Main 59/5/1 · Q41 mark

Match the following correctly :

AB
1. General Zia-ul-Haq(i) Bangladesh
2. Ziaur Rahman(ii) Nepal
3. Rajapaksa(iii) Pakistan
4. Seven Party Alliance(iv) Sri Lanka

Options :

  1. 1-(i), 2-(iii), 3-(iv), 4-(ii)
  2. 1-(iv), 2-(ii), 3-(i), 4-(iii)
  3. 1-(iii), 2-(i), 3-(iv), 4-(ii)
  4. 1-(iii), 2-(iv), 3-(ii), 4-(i)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/5/1

(C) 1-(iii), 2-(i), 3-(iv), 4-(ii)

Q5.2026 Supp. 59/7/1 · Q31 mark

Arrange the following in chronological order :

  1. General Musharraf got himself elected as the President of Pakistan.
  2. Bangladesh emerged as a new country.
  3. Nepal got democracy.
  4. The LTTE was vanquished.

Options :

  1. (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)
  2. (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
  3. (ii), (iii), (i), (iv)
  4. (iv), (i), (ii), (iii)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/7/1

(A) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)

Q6.2026 Supp. 59/7/1 · Q41 mark

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other as Reason (R). Read these statements and choose the correct answer from the options given below :

Assertion (A): The King of Nepal was forced to restore the House of Representatives, which had been dissolved in 2002.

Reason (R): Nepal had been a Hindu kingdom in the past.

Options :

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/7/1

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

Q7.2025 Main 59/1/1 · Q11 mark

Given below are two statements :

Statement-I : Nepal was a Hindu Kingdom in the past and then a constitutional monarchy in the modern period for many years.

Statement-II : The struggling pro-democracy forces achieved their first major victory in 2006 when the king was forced to restore the House of representatives.

Options :

  1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true.
  2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false.
  3. Statement-I is true, but Statement-II is false.
  4. Statement-I is false, but Statement-II is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/1/1

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

Q8.2025 Main 59/1/1 · Q21 mark

Which of the following events made the South Asian region a sudden focus of global attention after the cold war period ?

  1. Bangladesh War of 1971
  2. Ethnic conflict of Sri Lanka
  3. India and Pakistan both became nuclear power
  4. Kargil conflict between India and Pakistan
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/1/1

(C) India and Pakistan both became nuclear power

Q9.2024 Main 59/1/1 · Q31 mark

Which one of the following countries is not included in ‘South Asia’ ?

  1. Bangladesh
  2. China
  3. Bhutan
  4. Maldives
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/1/1

(B) China

Q10.2024 Main 59/1/1 · Q41 mark

Arrange the following rulers of Pakistan in the chronological order as per the period of their rule :

  1. General Zia-ul-Haq
  2. Benazir Bhutto
  3. General Musharraf
  4. Zulfikar Ali Bhutto

Choose the correct option.

  1. (iv), (i), (ii), (iii)
  2. (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)
  3. (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
  4. (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/1/1

(A) (iv), (i), (ii), (iii)

Q11.2024 Main 59/3/1 · Q11 mark

The ‘SAARC’ is a major _________________ initiative by South Asian States to evolve mutual cooperation.

  1. Political
  2. Military
  3. International
  4. Regional
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/3/1

(D) Regional

Q12.2024 Main 59/3/1 · Q61 mark

For Question number 6, two statements are given — one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Read these statements carefully and choose the correct option as the answer from the options (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below.

Assertion (A): The king, with the help of the army, retained full control over the government and restricted the expansion of democracy in Nepal.

Reason (R): The king accepted the demand for a new democratic constitution in 2001, in the wake of a strong pro-democracy movement.

Options :

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/3/1

(C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false

Q13.2024 Main 59/3/1 · Q111 mark

Which one of the following statements about the ethnic conflict in Sri Lanka is false ?

  1. Politics in Sri Lanka favoured the Sinhalese.
  2. Interests of Tamils were neglected.
  3. LTTE was supported by the SAARC countries.
  4. The Sri Lanka ethnic problem involved the Sinhalese and the Tamils.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/3/1

(C) LTTE was supported by the SAARC countries.

Q14.2024 Main 59/5/1 · Q51 mark

Match the List-I with the List-II correctly :

List-IList-II
(a)The first country to liberalise its economy in the South Asian region.(i)Maldives
(b)Earlier this country had the Sultan as its Head of State. Now, it is a republic.(ii)India
(c)A land locked country.(iii)Pakistan
(d)In the conflict between the military and the pro-democracy groups, the military had prevailed over democracy in this country.(iv)Nepal

Choose the correct option :

(a)(b)(c)(d)
(A)(iii)(i)(ii)(iv)
(B)(ii)(i)(iii)(iv)
(C)(ii)(i)(iv)(iii)
(D)(iv)(ii)(iii)(i)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/5/1

(C) a-(ii) b-(i) c-(iv) d-(iii)

Q15.2024 Main 59/5/1 · Q71 mark

Which one of the following developing countries was the first to successfully control the rate of growth of population ?

  1. India
  2. Pakistan
  3. Nepal
  4. Sri Lanka
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/5/1

(D) Sri Lanka

Q16.2023 Main 59/3/1 · Q51 mark

Two statements are given below — one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Read these statements carefully and choose the correct option as the answer from the options (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below.

Assertion (A): South Asia stands for diversity in every sense, even then the various countries in South Asia have the same kind of political system.

Reason (R): Despite many problems and limitations, all South Asian countries share the aspiration for democracy.

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/3/1

(d) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

Q17.2023 Main 59/3/1 · Q71 mark

Identify the country which shares its borders with most of the South Asian countries.

  1. Afghanistan
  2. India
  3. Bangladesh
  4. Nepal
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/3/1

(b) India

Q18.2023 Main 59/4/1 · Q121 mark

Which one of the following developing countries is the first to successfully control the rate of growth of population ?

  1. Bhutan
  2. Pakistan
  3. Nepal
  4. Sri Lanka
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/4/1

(d) Sri Lanka

Q19.2023 Main 59/5/1 · Q11 mark

Which one of the following statements about relations between India and Nepal is NOT correct ?

  1. India and Nepal have a special treaty related to travel and work in the other country without Visa.
  2. India shares the river water from Nepal.
  3. Both countries have democratic form of government.
  4. Nepal always follows the policies of India.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/5/1

(d) Nepal always follows the policies of India.

Q20.2023 Main 59/5/1 · Q51 mark

In the questions (5 & 6) given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read these statements and choose one correct answer from the given options :

Assertion (A): During constitutional monarchy in 1990s, the political parties and the common people of Nepal wanted to have a more open and responsive system of government.

Reason (R): The King with the help of the army retained full control over the government and restricted the expansion of democracy in Nepal.

Options:

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R), is the correct explanation of (A).
  2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  3. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
  4. (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/5/1

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and R is the correct explanation of (A)

Q21.2023 Supp. 59/C/1 · Q11 mark

‘South Asia’ does not include which one of the following countries ?

  1. Bhutan
  2. Nepal
  3. China
  4. Pakistan
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/C/1

(c) China

Q22.SQP 2026-27 · Q11 mark

In the light of the statements given below, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Statement-I: The Maldives was a Sultanate till 1968. In 1968, it transformed into a republic with a presidential form of government.

Statement-II: The Maldivian Democratic Party dominates the political affairs of the island and it won the 2010 elections.

Options:

  1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true.
  2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false.
  3. Statement-I is true, but Statement-II is false.
  4. Statement-I is false, but Statement-II is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 · Marking Scheme

(C) Statement-I is true, but Statement-II is false.

Q23.SQP 2026-27 · Q31 mark

Consider the political developments in South Asia. Which one of the following pairs is incorrectly matched?

  1. Pakistan - General Pervez Musharraf
  2. Sri Lanka- LTTE
  3. Bhutan_Constitutional monarchy in 2008.
  4. Bangladesh –continuous democracy since its independence in 1971.
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 · Marking Scheme

(D) Bangladesh –continuous democracy since its independence in 1971.

Q24.2026 Main 59/1/1 · Q142 marks

How does the natural insularity of South Asian region determine its cultural distinctiveness ? Explain.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/1/1

The mighty Himalayas in the north and the vast Indian Ocean, the Arabian Sea and the Bay of Bengal in the South, West and east respectively provide a natural insularity to the region, which is largely responsible for the linguistic, Social and cultural distinctiveness of the Sub-continent. Due to this numerous languages, festivals and Social rituals are followed in South Asia that make it distinct.

(assess as a whole)

Q25.2026 Main 59/2/1 · Q142 marks

Assess the impact of outside powers on the South Asian Countries.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/2/1

(i) China’s strategic partnership with Pakistan is an irritant for India.

(ii) Economic ties between Asian countries have multiplied.

(iii) After cold war American interference in South Asian countries has increased.

(iv) US works as a moderator in Indo-Pak relations.

(v) Sino-Indian relations have improved in the last 10 years.

(or any other relevant point) (any two points)

Q26.2026 Supp. 59/7/1 · Q132 marks

Name any four countries of South Asia.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/7/1

South Asia :- India, Nepal, Maldives, Pakistan, Afghanistan, Sri Lanka, Bhutan, Bangladesh, Myanmar.

(Any four)

Q27.2026 Supp. 59/7/1 · Q142 marks

Highlight any two reasons for ethnic conflict in Sri Lanka.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/7/1

Reasons for Ethnic Conflict –

  1. Dominance of majority Sinhala Community in the politics of Srilanka.
  2. Policies of the government are pro Sinhalas.
  3. Tamils living in Srilanka felt neglected and asked for a separate Tamil Ellam.
  4. Srilankan Tamils raised their voice and a militant group LTTE fought against the Srilankan Army.

(Any other) (Any two)

Q28.2025 Main 59/4/1 · Q132 marks

Name any four military rulers of Pakistan.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/4/1

General Ayub Khan, General Yahya Khan, General Zia-ul-Haq, General Parvez Musharraf. (4 × ½ = 2)

Q29.2025 Main 59/5/1 · Q132 marks

Highlight any one basic difference between the democracy in Sri Lanka and the democracy in India.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/5/1

Democracy in Sri Lanka favours one particular community which is in majority – but in India there is no discrimination. Every citizen has the same fundamental rights.

Democracy in Sri Lanka favours Sinhalese- a major community.

or any other relevant point

Q30.2025 Main 59/7/1 · Q132 marks

India and Pakistan relations seem to be a story of endemic conflict. Suggest any two measures to curb tensions between the two countries.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/7/1
  1. Two nations may agreed to undertake confidence building measures to reduce risk of war.
  2. Social activists and prominent personalities may collaborate to create an atmosphere of friendship among the people of both countries.
  3. Taking inspiration from “ASEAN WAY” both the countries may resolve their conflicts.
  4. Efforts may be intiated to promote trade between the two countries.
  5. Cultural programmes and agreements may be promoted to build peace.
  6. Sports/ Games between the two countries may be organised to build peace.

(or any other relevant point) (Any two) (2 × 1 = 2)

Q31.2024 Main 59/1/1 · Q132 marks

Explain any two factors that are responsible for Pakistan’s failure in building a stable democracy.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/1/1

Factors responsible for Pakistan’s failure:

  • (i) The social dominance of military, clergy and land owning aristocracy.
  • (ii) Pakistan’s conflict with India has made the promilitary groups more powerful.
  • (iii) The lack of genuine international support for democratic rule in Pakistan has further encouraged the dominance of military.

Or any other relevant point ( any two)

Q32.2024 Main 59/1/1 · Q142 marks

Highlight any two features of the Constitution of Bangladesh.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/1/1

Features of the Constitution of Bangladesh

  • (i) Secularism
  • (ii) Democracy
  • (iii) Socialism

(any two)

Q33.2024 Main 59/2/1 · Q132 marks

Which political party won all the seats in the 1970 elections in East Pakistan and under whose leadership ?

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/2/1

Awami league won all the seats in the 1970 elections in East Pakistan. It’s leadership was of Sheikh Mujib-ur Rahman.

(1+1=2)

Q34.2024 Main 59/3/1 · Q132 marks

Highlight any two features of the Constitution of Bangladesh.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/3/1

Two features of the constitutions of Bangladesh

  • (i) Secular, Democratic, Socialist
  • (ii) Parliamentary form of Government.
  • (iii) Sovereign Republic

(Any two)

Q35.2024 Main 59/4/1 · Q132 marks

Why did the people of East Pakistan resent the domination of West Pakistan ? Explain the reason.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/4/1

People of Eastern Pakistan resented the denomination of Western Pakistan because

  1. The imposition of Urdu,
  2. Unfair treatment meted out to Bengali culture and language.
  3. Unfair representation in administration and power sharing.

(Any two) (2x1=2)

Q36.2024 Supp. 59/S/1 · Q132 marks

Explain any two reasons for protests by the people of East Pakistan against West Pakistan prior to the creation of Bangladesh.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/S/1

Reasons:-

  1. Domination of West Pakistan on East Pakistan and imposition of Urdu language on East Pakistan.
  2. Unfair treatment meted out to the Bengali culture and language
  3. Unfair representation of East Pakistan in administration and political power.
  4. The domination of West Pakistan led to the popular struggle by Mujib-ur-Rahman in East Pakistan against this unfair treatment.

(or any other relevant reason) (any two) (2x1=2)

Q37.2023 Main 59/2/1 · Q152 marks

Highlight the speciality of India – Nepal relations.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/2/1

Nepal and India enjoy a very special relationship. A treaty between the two countries allows the citizens of the two countries to travel to and work in the other country without visas and passports.

Or any other relevant point (any one)

Q38.2023 Main 59/4/1 · Q132 marks

Suggest any two measures to improve relations between India and Pakistan.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/4/1

Measures to improve relations between India and Pakistan:

  • To undertake confidence building measures to reduce the risk of war.
  • To create an atmosphere of friendship among the people of both countries by enhancing of social interaction and cultural exchange programs.
  • Reciprocal visit of important leader’s, cultural activities, sports events.
  • To promote trade between the two countries.

any other relevant point (Any two) 2×1=2

Q39.2023 Main 59/5/1 · Q132 marks

Suggest any two measures to improve the relations between India and Pakistan.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/5/1

Methods of improving relations between India and Pakistan:-

  • The two countries should undertake confidence building measures to reduce the risk of war.
  • Social activists and intellectuals should make efforts to create harmonious relations among people.
  • Regular summits where leaders of the two countries should meet to find solutions to various issues.
  • Transportation between two countries be improved.
  • Increase in trade between the two parts of Punjab
  • Visa policy ; medical tourism, etc. should be encouraged.

(Any 2 of the above)(or any other relevant point)

Q40.2023 Main 59/5/1 · Q162 marks

“The South Asian experience of democracy has expanded the global imagination of democracy.” Justify the statement.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/5/1

The following points justify the statement:

  • i) People in all countries of South Asia share the aspirations of democracy.
  • ii) Various surveys in South Asian countries show that there is widespread support for democracy in South Asian countries.
  • iii) People of South Asian countries believe that the democracy is the best form of Government that suits their country
  • iv) Citizens view the idea of democracy positively and support the institutions of representative democracy.
  • v) Earlier, it was believed that the democracy could flourish and find support only in prosperous countries of the world.
  • vi) But now the experience of South Asia has been expanded the global immigration of democracy.

(Assess as a whole) ( any relevant point) ( Any 2 points)

Q41.2022 Main 59/1/1 · Q22 marks

Show with the help of any two examples the interference of military in the administration of Pakistan.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 59/1/1

After Pakistan framed its first Constitution, General Ayub Khan took over the administration of the country and got himself elected. He gave up the office when popular dissatisfaction against his rule rose.

But again General Yahya Khan took over and put Pakistan under Military rule.

Examples of Zia-ul-Haq in 1977 and General Pervez Musharraf may also be given.

(Any two)

Q42.2022 Main 59/1/1 · Q32 marks

Highlight any two reasons for the ethnic conflict in Sri Lanka.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 59/1/1
  1. Politics in Sri Lanka is dominated by forces that represent the interests of the majority Sinhala community.
  2. They were hostile to Tamils who are in minority.
  3. The Sinhala nationalists thought that Sri Lanka should not give concessions to the Tamils because Sri Lanka belongs to Sinhalas only.

(Any other valid reason)

(Any two)

Q43.2022 Main 59/1/1 · Q42 marks

Name any four countries that are included in ‘South Asia’.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 59/1/1

South Asia:

India, Sri Lanka, Pakistan, Nepal, Bhutan, Bangladesh, Maldives and Afghanistan

(Any four)

Q44.2022 Main 59/3/1 · Q32 marks

Name any four countries that are included in South Asia.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 59/3/1

India, Pakistan, Bangladesh, Sri Lanka, Bhutan, Maldives, Nepal.

(Any four)

Q45.2022 Main 59/4/1 · Q42 marks

Describe any two problems between India and Pakistan.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 59/4/1
  1. Issue of Kashmir
  2. Terrorism
  3. Sharing of River water
  4. Control over Siachen Glacier
  5. Arms race between the two states.
  6. Demarcation line in Sir Creek in the Rann of Kutch.

(Any two)

Q46.2022 Main 59/5/1 · Q52 marks

“South Asia constitutes one geo-political space, yet stands for diversity.” Justify the statement.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 59/5/1

South Asia is one geo-political space but -

  • It includes a wide variety of ethnic groups and cultures.
  • Different countries of South Asia have their own distinct languages, dress codes and social behaviour.
  • Different countries have different political systems.

(Any Two)

Q47.2022 Supp. 59/6/1 · Q72 marks

Explain any two features of the relationship between India and Maldives.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/6/1

India- Maldives relations:-

  1. In November 1988, Tamil mercenaries from Sri Lanka attacked on Maldives. Indian Air Force and Navy reacted quickly to the Maldives’s request to stop the invasion.
  2. India has also contributed towards the Island’s economic development, tourism and fisheries.

(Any other feature) 2×1=2

Q48.SQP 2025-26 · Q142 marks

Explain the process of democratisation in Maldives.

Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 · Marking Scheme
  1. The Maldives, an island nation was a sultanate till 1968. It was transformed into a republic with a presidential form of government.
  2. In June 2005 the Parliament of Maldives voted unanimously for multiparty system. MDP dominates the political affairs of the island. Democracy strengthened in the Maldives after the 2005 elections when some opposition parties were legalized.

(Both the points)

Q49.2026 Main 59/1/1 · Q244 marks

Read the passage given below carefully and answer the questions that follow :

The South Asian Association for Regional Co-operation (SAARC) is a major regional initiative by the South Asian states to evolve co-operation through multilateral means. It began in 1985. Unfortunately due to persisting political differences, SAARC has not had much success. SAARC members signed the South Asian Free Trade Agreement (SAFTA) in 2002 which promised the formation of a free trade zone for the whole of South Asia.

(i) Which one of the following South Asian countries is not a founder member of South Asian Association for Regional Co-operation (SAARC) ?

  1. Nepal
  2. Bhutan
  3. Afghanistan
  4. Bangladesh

(ii) The external power that affects the South Asian Countries the most is :

  1. United States of America
  2. Russia
  3. France
  4. Britain

(iii) The major objective of South Asian Association for Regional Co-operation is –

  1. to become a contemporary centre of power in the World.
  2. to establish a common currency for the regional organisation for its economic development.
  3. to solve all regional conflicts without interference of external powers.
  4. to co-operate member states for economic growth, social progress and cultural development through multilateral means.

(iv) Which one of the following is NOT a core objective of South Asian Free Trade Agreement (SAFTA) ?

  1. To establish a common currency for SAARC nations.
  2. To promote and enhance mutual trade and economic co-operation.
  3. To reduce custom duties and non-tariff barriers.
  4. To create a free trade area among member states.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/1/1

(i) (C) Afghanistan

(ii) (A) United State of America

(iii) (D) To co-operate member states for economic growth, Social progress and cultural development through multilateral means.

(iv) (A) To establish a common currency for SAARC nations.

Q50.2026 Main 59/2/1 · Q21(a)4 marks

Describe any two areas of co-operation and any two reasons for conflicts between India and Pakistan.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/2/1

Areas of Co-operation -

(i) In areas like water management, Indus waters treaty was signed between the two countries.

(ii) 2019 agreement to establish a corridor for pilgrims.

(iii) Initiation of bus and railway services during the end of 20th century.

(iv) During Covid-19 pandemic India extended its support to Pakistan.

(v) Agreed to undertake confidence building measures.

(vi) Social activists and prominent personalities have collaborated to improve relations.

(viii) Leaders met at various summits.

Reasons for Conflicts –

(i) Kashmir issue

(ii) Control over Siachen Glacier

(iii) Border disputes

(iv) Issue of Terrorism

(v) Various wars

(vi) Control over Sir Creek

(vii) Mutual suspicion

(viii) Arms race

(ix) Dispute over water sharing

(or any other relevant point) (Any two for each part)

Q51.2026 Main 59/2/1 · Q21(b)4 marks

Describe any two areas of co-operation and any two reasons for conflicts between India and Nepal.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/2/1

Areas of Co-operation-

(i) The citizens of the two countries can travel to work in the other country without Visas and Passports.

(ii) Both the countries work together on the issues of trade, scientific co-operation, common natural resources etc.

(iii) Both countries have Hindu dominated population and share common culture.

Reasons for Conflicts-

(i) India has expressed displeasure at the interference of China in Nepal.

(ii) Indian security agencies see the Maoist movement in Nepal as a growing security threat.

(iii) Trade related disputes.

(iv) Government of Nepal thinks that Indian government interferes in the internal affairs of Nepal and has designs on its river waters and hydroelectricity.

(v) Nepal, a landlocked country, feels that India prevents its access to sea through Indian territory.

(or any other relevant point) (any two points for each)

Q52.2026 Main 59/4/1 · Q20(a)4 marks

Explain the reasons for ethnic conflict in Sri Lanka and its impact on India.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/4/1

Reasons for ethnic conflict in Sri Lanka.

(i) Politics in Sri Lanka is dominated by forces that represent the interests of the majority Sinhala community.

(ii) This policy annoyed the Srilankan Tamils and both communities oppose the interest of each other.

(iii) Srilankan Tamils formed a militant group LTTE which fought against the Sri Lankan army for their own interests.

(iv) It led to a divide and Srilankan Tamils had a demand for separate Tamil Elam.

(or any other relevant point) ( any two)

Impact on India –

(i) Tamilians in Tamil Nadu were also agitated and wanted the Indian Government to intervene.

(ii) Indian Govt sent an Indian Peace Keeping Force to Sri Lanka which make Sri Lankan Tamil annoyed against India and got directly involved.

(iii) The impact of IPKF was negative on the Tamil people and the assassination of the Rajiv Gandhi relates to this decision.

(or any other relevant point) ( any two)

Q53.2026 Main 59/4/1 · Q20(b)4 marks

Explain any four reasons for good relations between Nepal and India.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/4/1

(i) Both have places of common interest and Hindu dominated population.

(ii) Both are neighbouring countries and enjoy a very special relationship

(iii) The citizens of the two countries can travel to each other without any passport and visa.

(iv) The citizens of the both countries can work either country of their choice without any restrictions.

(v) Indian government has helped in most of the developmental programmes like Hospitals and Electricity projects in Nepal.

(any other relevant point) (Any four)

Q54.2026 Main 59/5/1 · Q264 marks

Study the cartoon given below and answer the questions based on it :

Note : The man shown in the suit is President Musharraf and the same man shown in the cap is General Musharraf. On the basis of politics in Pakistan, answer the following questions.

Figure from the paper

(i) What message is given by the uppermost equation ? Explain.

(ii) Explain the message given by the middle line.

(iii) Explain the message given by the lowest line.

(iv) Highlight the message conveyed by the whole cartoon.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/5/1

(i) President in Pakistan is zero if he is not the general of the army.

(ii) A General in Pakistan without being President of Pakistan is effective but has some value.

(iii) A General has more value and more power if he is also the president of Pakistan.

(iv) In Pakistan military power is dominant as most of the Generals want to enhance their value and power by being the President also.

Q55.2026 Main 59/5/1 · Q26 (VI)4 marks

(26.1) Name the first military ruler of Pakistan.

(26.2) In which year did Bangladesh come into existence ?

(26.3) Name the leader who formed an elected government in Pakistan from 1971 to 1977.

(26.4) Name the regional organisation of South Asian countries.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/5/1

26.1 General Ayub Khan

26.2 1971

26.3 Z.A. Bhutto

26.4 SAARC

Q56.2025 Main 59/1/1 · Q20(a)4 marks

How is the South Asian Association for Regional Co-operation (SAARC) a major regional initiative by South Asian states to evolve co-operation through multilateral means ? Assess.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/1/1
  1. SAARC is a major regional initiative as it was established in 1985 to evolve cooperation among South Asian states.
  2. It consisted of seven countries of South Asia to encourage mutual harmony and understanding.
  3. It has initiated SAFTA to form free trade zones for the whole of South Asia.
  4. It projected economic development of its member states to reduce their dependence on the non-regional powers.
  5. SAFTA aims at lowering trade traiffs.
  6. Some neighbouring countries fear that SAFTA is a way for India to ‘invade’ their markets, society and politics.
  7. India thinks that it will bring real economic benefits for all, as a region that trades more freely would be able to cooperate better on political issues.

Hence, it is the most important regional initiative for regional cooperation and development.

or any other relevant point (Assess the answer as a whole) (2x2=4)

Q57.2025 Main 59/1/1 · Q20(b)4 marks

“Despite the mixed record of democratic experiences, the people of South Asian countries share the aspiration for democracy.” Justify the statement with two suitable arguments.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/1/1

The following points justify the given statement :

  1. Surveys in countries of South Asia showed that there is widespread support for democracy everywhere.
  2. Ordinary citizens of all the South Asian countries view the idea of democracy positively and support the institutions of representative democracy.
  3. The people think that democracy is suitable for their country.
  4. People of Nepal, Bangladesh, Maldives etc. have opted for democracy over any other form of government.

or any other relevant point (any four points) (2x2=4)

Q58.2025 Main 59/4/1 · Q264 marks

Study the cartoon given below and answer the questions based on it :

Figure from the paper

  1. Which community is being represented by the ‘Lion’ sitting on the one end of the stick ?

    1. Buddhists
    2. Christians
    3. Sinhalas
    4. Tamils
  2. What is the meaning of ‘LTTE’ written on the Tiger shown in the cartoon ?

    1. Liberation Tigers of the Eelam
    2. Liberation Tamils of the Eelam
    3. Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam
    4. Liberty Tigers of Tamil Eelam
  3. Which community in Sri Lanka had felt discriminated ?

    1. Tamils
    2. Sinhalas
    3. Buddhists
    4. Christians
  4. Which problem is being depicted by the cartoon ?

    1. Economic imbalance
    2. Political instability
    3. Regional conflict
    4. Ethnic conflict
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/4/1

(i) (C) Sinhalas

(ii) (C) Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam

(iii) (A) Tamils

(iv) (D) Ethnic conflict

(4 × 1 = 4)

Q59.2025 Main 59/4/1 · Q26 (VI)4 marks

Note : The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates only, in lieu of Q. No. 26 :

(26.1) Name the two important communities of Sri Lanka.

(26.2) What was the main issue of conflict between these two communities ? Explain.

(26.3) How did India help Sri Lanka to maintain peace ?

(26.4) Name the two countries that tried to bring the warring groups back to negotiations in Sri Lanka.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/4/1

(26.1) Sinhalas and Tamils.

(26.2) Discrimination between the Sinhalas and Tamils by the government.

(26.3) India sent its army to maintain peace.

(26.4) Norway and Iceland.

(4 × 1 = 4)

Q60.2025 Main 59/5/1 · Q19(a)4 marks

Analyse the relations between India and Bangladesh.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/5/1

The governments of Bangladesh and India have difference on many issues such as –

  1. Sharing of the water of Ganga and Brahmaputra.
  2. Bangladesh’s denial of illegal immigration to India.
  3. Support to anti Indian Islamic fundamentalists.
  4. Refusal to allow Indian troops to move through its territory to north-eastern India.
  5. Decision not to export natural gas to India.
  6. Bangladesh feels that India behaves regional bully.

Despite these differences India and Bangladesh cooperate on many issues :

  1. Bangladesh is a part of India’s ‘Look East’ policy.
  2. Bangladesh and India cooperate on the issues of disaster management and environmental issues.
  3. In 2015, they have exchanged certain enclaves.
  4. Efforts are being made to improve the relation.

There are friendly relations between the two and communication and transportation is on the increase.

or any other relevant point (Evaluate as a whole)

Q61.2025 Main 59/5/1 · Q19(b)4 marks

Analyse the process of transition from monarchy to democracy in Nepal.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/5/1

Process of transition from monarchy to democracy in Nepal :

For many years people of Nepal wanted a more open and responsive system of government – but the King with the help of army retained full control over the government and restricted the expansion of democracy in Nepal.

  1. In 1990, the King accepted the demand of a new democratic constitution.
  2. During the nineties, the Maoists of Nepal were successful in spreading their influence. Violent conflict between the Maoists and the army of the King took place.
  3. In 2002, the King abolished the parliament and dismissed the government.
  4. In 2006, the King was forced by massive agitations to restore the house of representatives that had been dissolved. This was a big victory for SPA.
  5. Nepal transition was almost complete and Nepal became democratic republic in 2008 after abolition of the monarchy.

Or any other relevant point (Evaluate as a whole)

Q62.2025 Main 59/7/1 · Q244 marks

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow :

SAFTA aims at lowering trade tariffs. But some of our neighbours fear that SAFTA is a way for India to ‘invade’ their markets and to influence their societies and politics through commercial ventures and a commercial presence in their countries. India thinks that there are real economic benefits for all from SAFTA and that a region that trades more freely will be able to cooperate better on political issues. Some in India think that SAFTA is not worth the trouble since India already has bilateral agreements with Bhutan, Nepal and Sri Lanka.
  1. SAFTA came into effect from :

    1. 1st January, 2004
    2. 1st January, 2005
    3. 1st January, 2006
    4. 1st January, 2007
  2. SAFTA is related to which one of the following regional organisations ?

    1. South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC)
    2. Association of South East Asian Nations (ASEAN)
    3. European Union (EU)
    4. Non-Aligned Movement (NAM)
  3. Which one of the following objective is true about the spirit behind the idea of SAFTA ?

    1. To develop a sense of friendship and solidarity among its member nations.
    2. To allow free trade across the borders.
    3. To resolve cross-border issues with discussion.
    4. To challenge superpowers in the contemporary world.
  4. What among the following was promised by SAFTA ?

    1. Formation of a free trade zone
    2. Formation of a peaceful environment
    3. Formation of a strong organisation
    4. Formation of a cultural organisation
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/7/1

(i) (C) 1 January, 2006

(ii) (A) SAARC ( South Asian Association for Regional Corporation)

(iii) (B) To allow free trade across the borders.

(iv) (A) Formation of a free trade zone

(1 + 1 + 1 + 1 = 4)

Q63.2024 Main 59/2/1 · Q194 marks

Describe the circumstances that led to the Bangladesh War in 1971.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/2/1

Circumstances that led to to the Bangladesh war in 1971 -

  • (i) The people of this region resented the domination of West Pakistan and imposition of Urdu language.
  • (ii) Sheikh Mujib-ur Rahman led the popular struggle against West Pakistani domination and demanded autonomy for the eastern region.
  • (iii) In the 1970 elections the Awami League led by Sheikh Mujib-urRahman won all the seats in East Pakistan and secured a majority in the proposed Constituent Assembly for the whole of Pakistan. But the West Pakistan leadership refused to convene the assembly.
  • (iv) Sheikh Mujib-ur-Rahman was arrested and the Pakistan army under Yahya Khan tried to suppress the mass movement of the Bengali people leading to large-scale migration into India. This created a huge refugee problem in India. The government of India supported the demand of the people of East Pakistan for independence and gave financial and military help. This resulted in a war between India and Pakistan in December 1971 that ended in the surrender of Pakistan forces in East Pakistan which led to the formation of Bangladesh as an independent nation.
Q64.2024 Main 59/2/1 · Q21(a)4 marks

Suggest any two measures to improve India’s relations with Pakistan.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/2/1

Measures to improve India’s relations with Pakistan -

  • (i) People to people contact and exchange programmes should be initiated.
  • (ii) Trade between the two countries should be restored and encouraged.
  • (iii) Diplomatic relations should be improved.

(Or any other relevant point) (Any Two)

Q65.2024 Main 59/3/1 · Q204 marks

Describe any two factors responsible for the economic growth in Sri Lanka despite the internal conflicts.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/3/1

Factors responsible for economic growth in Sri Lanka-

  • (i) Sri Lanka has recorded high levels of human development. It was one of the first developing countries to successfully control the rate of growth of population.
  • (ii) It was the first country in the region to liberalise the economy.
  • (iii) It has had the highest per capita income and gross domestic product for many years right through the civil war.
  • (iv) Despite the ravages of internal conflict, it has maintained a democratic, political system.

(Or any other relevant point) (any two)

Q66.2024 Main 59/4/1 · Q264 marks

Study the cartoon given below related to Sri Lanka and answer the questions that follow :

Figure from the paper

  1. Which community does the tiger shown in the cartoon represent ?
  2. Which community does the Lion shown in the cartoon represent ?
  3. What did the balancing act by Rajpakshe aim at ? Explain.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/4/1
  1. Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam (LTTE) Tamil militants
  2. Sinhala Hardliners
  3. The Balancing act by Rajapakse aimed to negotiating peace between the Sinhala Hardliners (or the Lion) and Tamil militants (or Tigers /LTTE).

(or any other relevant point) (1+1+2=4)

Q67.2024 Main 59/4/1 · Q26 (VI)4 marks

Note : The following questions are only for the Visually Impaired Candidates in lieu of question number 26.

(26.1) Name the two main communities of Sri Lanka.

(26.2) Write the correct expansion of LTTE.

(26.3) In which year did Sri Lanka get independence ?

(26.4) Name the country which mediated in the Ethnic conflict of Sri Lanka.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/4/1

Note : For visually impaired students in lieu of question no.26

(26.1) The Sinhalas and the Tamils

(26.2) Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam

(26.3) 1948

(26.4) India, Norway, Iceland (any one)

(1+1+1+1=4)

Q68.2024 Main 59/5/1 · Q21(a)4 marks

Explain any two main challenges faced by Pakistan in establishing a successful democracy.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/5/1

Challenges faced by Pakistan:

  1. Social dominance – the social dominance of the military, clergy, and landowning aristocracy has led to the frequent over throw of elected governments and the establishment of military government.
  2. Conflict with India – Pakistan’s conflict with India has made the pro-military groups more powerful. These groups have often said that political parties and democracy in Pakistan would be harmed by selfish minded parties and that the army’s stay in power is therefore justified.
  3. Lack of international Support – The lack of genuine international support for democratic rule in Pakistan has further encouraged the military to continue its dominance. The US and other Western countries have encouraged the military’s authoritarian rule in the past, for their own reasons.
  4. Global Islamic Terrorism – As the western powers assumed the threat of ‘global Islamic terrorism’ and the apprehension that Pakistani’s nuclear arsenal might fall into the hands of these terrorist groups, the military regime in Pakistn has been seen as the protector of Western interests in West Asia and South Asia.

(any two challenges) (2x2=4)

Q69.2024 Main 59/5/1 · Q21(b)4 marks

“SAARC has taken a major regional initiative in South Asian States to evolve co-operation through multilateral means.” Justify the statement with two examples.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/5/1

Role of SAARC:

  1. SAARC members have signed the South Asian Free Trade Agreement (SAFTA) in 2004 which promised the formation of a free trade zone for the whole of South Asia.
  2. There have been a series of efforts made to manage tensions and build peace through SAARC. For example SAARC summits provide the situation to India and Pakistan to understand each other better and to find solutions of their major problems.

Or any other relevant example.

(any two to be explained) (2x2=4)

Q70.2024 Supp. 59/S/1 · Q21(a)4 marks

“India enjoys a very special relationship with Bhutan.” Support the statement with two examples.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/S/1

India – Bhutan Relationship-

  1. India enjoys a very special relationship with Bhutan and does not have any major conflict with the Bhutanese government. The efforts made by the Bhutanese monarch to weed out guerrillas and militants from northeastern India that operate in his country, have been helpful to India.
  2. India is involved in big hydroelectric projects in Bhutan and is the biggest source of development aid to Bhutan.

Any other relevant point (any two) (2x2=4)

Q71.2024 Supp. 59/S/1 · Q21(b)4 marks

Analyse any two reasons for the problems that India has with its smaller neighbours.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/S/1

Reasons for the problems that India has with its smaller neighbours-

  1. Given its size and power, they are bound to be suspicious of India’s intentions. The Indian government, on the other hand, often feels exploited by its neighbours.
  2. India does not like political instability in these countries, fearing it can help outside powers to gain influence in the region.
  3. The smaller countries have a fear that India wants to be a regionally-dominant power, but India is always helpful to all the neighbouring countries.

(any two reasons) (2x2=4)

Q72.2023 Main 59/1/1 · Q264 marks

Study the cartoon given below and answer the questions that follow :

Figure from the paper

  1. The tiger sitting on the right-hand side represents which organisation ?
    1. Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam
    2. Liberal Tigers of Tamil Estate
    3. Liberation Tigers of Tamil East
    4. Liberal Tigers of Tamil Eelam
  2. The conflict in Sri Lanka from 1983 onwards was based on which of the following ?
    1. Discrimination by the government between political parties
    2. Discrimination by the government between two communities
    3. Discrimination by the government between two regions
    4. Discrimination by the government between two religions
  3. Which one of the following statements about Sri Lankan crisis is true ?
    1. India did not interfere in the crisis and kept away from the problem.
    2. India asked the United Nations to resolve the problem.
    3. India signed an Accord with Sri Lanka and got involved in the solution to the problem.
    4. India snapped its diplomatic relations with Sri Lanka during the crisis.
  4. What message does the cartoon convey ?
    1. Sri Lankan government managed to balance the two rival groups.
    2. Both the groups were against the government.
    3. The government treated both the communities equally.
    4. It was very difficult to maintain balance between the two rival groups.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/1/1

(i) (a) Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam

(ii) (b) Discrimination by the government between the two communities

(iii) (c) India signed an Accord with Sri Lanka and got involved in the solution to the problem.

(iv) (d) It was very difficult to maintain balance between the two rival groups.

4×1=4

Q73.2023 Main 59/1/1 · Q26 (VI)4 marks

Note : The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates only, in lieu of Q. No. 26 :

(26.1) In Sri Lanka, there was a conflict between __________.

  1. two communities
  2. two regions
  3. two religions
  4. two ideologies

(26.2) In 1989, India sent troops to Sri Lanka, named as :

  1. Indian Peace Groups
  2. Indian Peace Keeping Force
  3. Indian Peace Workers
  4. Indian Troops for Tamils

(26.3) Name the group of Tamils who fought against the army of Sri Lanka.

  1. Indian Tamils
  2. LTTE
  3. Tamils for Democracy
  4. Tamil United Front

(26.4) In spite of conflict, Sri Lanka has registered __________.

  1. rise in its economy and development
  2. fall in its economy
  3. rise in the population
  4. fall in its trade
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/1/1

26.1 (a) two communities

26.2 (b) Indian Peace Keeping Force

26.3 (b) LTTE

26.4 (a) rise in its economy and development

4×1=4

Q74.2023 Main 59/2/1 · Q224 marks

Evaluate the relationship between India and Pakistan with the help of examples.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/2/1

Evaluation of relationship between India and Pakistan:

  1. Both the countries share linguistic, geographical and economical links but due to political and historical issues their relations have become strained.
  2. The conflict started between India and Pakistan just after partition over the dispute on Kashmir and POK in 1948.
  3. Attacks on India by Pakistan in 1965, 1971 and 1999 have intensified the rivalry between both the countries.
  4. India’s conflict with Pakistan over strategic issues like the control of the Siachen glacier, over acquisition of arms.
  5. India and Pakistan seem to have built a military relationship by conducting nuclear explosions in Pokaran and Chagai Hills which have reduced the possibility of a direct and full-scale war.
  6. Train-bus service and cultural exchange between two countries has contributed to restore normal relations.

Or any other relevant point (any four) 4

Q75.2023 Main 59/3/1 · Q214 marks

Analyse the mutual relations between the smaller countries of South Asia and India.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/3/1

Mutual relations between the smaller countries of South Asia and India are:-

  1. Due to India’s size and power in South Asia, smaller countries are bound to be suspicious of India’s intentions. The Indian government on the other hand often feels exploited by its neighbours.
  2. Smaller countries think that India wants to invade and dominate international markets with the help of SAPTA.
  3. India does not like the political instability in these countries fearing it can help outside powers to gain influence in the region.
  4. Many times India helped the smaller countries in solving their problems.
  5. Economic relations between these two are also improving.
  6. Cooperation between the two can also be noticed. For example India and Nepal are allowed to travel and work in each other’s country without visa and passport.
  7. For development and cooperation South Asian countries have established a regional organization named SAARC.

(Or any other relevant point) (Any two) 4

Q76.2023 Main 59/4/1 · Q264 marks

Study the given picture and answer the questions that follow :

Figure from the paper

  1. The given picture belongs to which one of the following countries ?
    1. Myanmar
    2. Nepal
    3. Bangladesh
    4. Sri Lanka
  2. The memorial shown in the picture is located at which one of the following places ?
    1. Shantiniketan
    2. Calcutta University
    3. Burma University
    4. Dhaka University
  3. When did the incident related to the picture happen ?
    1. 1950
    2. 1975
    3. 1982
    4. 1987
  4. Which military ruler was the cause for this memorial ?
    1. General Musharraf
    2. Lt. General H.M. Ershad
    3. Ziaur Rahman
    4. Zia-ul-Haq
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/4/1

(i) (c) Bangladesh

(ii) (d) Dhaka University

(iii) (d) 1987

(iv) (b) Lt. General H.M. Ershad

4×1=4

Q77.2023 Main 59/4/1 · Q26 (VI)4 marks

Note : The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates only, in lieu of Q. No. 26.

(26.1) Which country is Bhutan’s biggest source of developmental aid ?

  1. USA
  2. Russia
  3. India
  4. China

(26.2) A landlocked country of South Asia is :

  1. Maldives
  2. Bangladesh
  3. Nepal
  4. Pakistan

(26.3) In East Pakistan, the popular struggle against the domination of West Pakistan was led by which one of the following leaders ?

  1. Sheikh Mujibur Rahman
  2. Sheikh Mujib Mohammed
  3. General Yahya khan
  4. Lt. General H.M. Ershad

(26.4) The Seven Party Alliance is related to which country ?

  1. Bhutan
  2. Nepal
  3. India
  4. Pakistan
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/4/1

26.1 (c) India

26.2 (c) Nepal

26.3 (a) Sheikh Mujib Ur Rahman

26.4 (b) Nepal

4×1=4

Q78.2023 Supp. 59/C/1 · Q264 marks

Study the cartoon given below carefully and answer the questions that follow :

Figure from the paper

(i) The cartoon is related to which one of the following regional organisations ?

  1. ASEAN
  2. BRICS
  3. G-7
  4. SAARC

(ii) Identify the member country whose name is missing in the cartoon.

  1. Iran
  2. Afghanistan
  3. Myanmar
  4. Pakistan

(iii) What is the main objective of the organisation related to the cartoon ?

  1. To evolve cooperation among member states through multilateral means.
  2. To resolve bilateral conflicts.
  3. To solve mutual social and religious conflicts.
  4. To fight together against a common enemy.

(iv) Which one of the following member countries does not have an elected government ?

  1. Nepal
  2. Maldives
  3. Bhutan
  4. Bangladesh
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/C/1

(i) (d) SAARC

(ii) (b) Afghanistan OR (d) Pakistan

(iii) (a) To evolve cooperation among member states through multilateral means

(iv) (c) Bhutan

Q79.2023 Supp. 59/C/1 · Q26 (VI)4 marks

Note : The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates only, in lieu of Q. No. 26 :

(26.1) Which one of the following statements about SAARC is correct ?

  1. It is a major international initiative.
  2. It is a regional effort to evolve cooperation.
  3. Its full form is South Asian Association for Revival of Cooperation.
  4. China is the most powerful member of SAARC.

(26.2) Identify the correct full form of SAFTA.

  1. South Asian Foreign Trade Agreement
  2. South Asian Financial Trade Association
  3. South Asian Free Trade Agreement
  4. South Asian Free Travel Agreement

(26.3) Which one of the following countries is not included in ‘South Asia’ ?

  1. Afghanistan
  2. Pakistan
  3. China
  4. Myanmar

(26.4) In which year did Nepal adopt a new constitution ?

  1. 2014
  2. 2015
  3. 2016
  4. 2017
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/C/1

26.1 (b) It is a regional effort to evolve cooperation

26.2 (c) South Asian Free Trade Agreement

26.3 (c) China

26.4 (b) 2015

Q80.2022 Main 59/3/1 · Q104 marks

Explain the process of transition from monarchy to democracy in Nepal.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 59/3/1
  • Political parties and the people of Nepal wanted to have a more responsive and open system of Government.
  • The King accepted the demand for a new democratic Constitution in 1990 in the wake of strong democratic movement.
  • In 2002, the King abolished the Parliament and dismissed the Government, thus ending the limited democracy.
  • In 2006, a massive, countrywide pro-democracy protest took place by SPA, the Maoists and the social activists. The king was forced to restore the House dissolved in 2002
  • In 2008, Nepal became a democratic republic after abolishing the monarchy and since 2015, it adopted a new constitution.

Evaluate as a whole

Q81.2022 Main 59/4/1 · Q104 marks

“Democracy is an accepted norm in the entire region of South Asia.” Explain the statement.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 59/4/1

Democracy is an accepted norm.

  • The people of South Asian countries share common aspiration and attitudes in support of democracy.
  • Nepal was a kingdom but fought for democracy.
  • Bangladesh in the beginning was a democracy, later was under Military rule and finally accepted democracy.
  • Maldives has also opted for democracy.
  • Ordinary citizens, rich or poor, belonging to different religions, positively support representative democracy.
  • People prefer democracy over any other form of Government and believe in it the most suitable form of Government for their country.
  • They see democracy as a modernizing project of transforming societies.

(Assess as a whole)

Q82.2022 Main 59/5/1 · Q94 marks

Why would South Asia continue to be known as a conflict prone zone ? Explain.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 59/5/1

South Asia would continue to be known as a conflict-prone zone because

  • India-Pakistan relations had been of endemic conflict and violence.
  • Interference of China and United States in South Asian politics.
  • China’s strategic partnership with Pakistan remains a major irritant.
  • The large South Asian diaspora in the US and huge size of population and markets of the region give America added stake in the future of regional peace and security.
  • South Asia region is one of the most diverse regions. The diversity in terms of language, culture and ethnicity also contributes to it.
  • India is emerging as a new centre of power which makes neighbouring countries scared.
  • Conflicts between different neighbouring countries in this region.

(Any two)

Q83.2022 Supp. 59/6/1 · Q104 marks

Highlight any two main causes of ethnic conflicts of Sri Lanka.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/6/1

Causes of ethnic conflicts of Sri Lanka:-

  1. After independence, politics in Sri Lanka was dominated by the majority Sinhala community.
  2. The ethnic conflict in Sri Lanka is between in the Sinhala community and Tamils who had migrated from India to Sri Lanka and settled there.
  3. The Sinhala nationlists thought that Sri Lanka belongs to the Sinhala people only.
  4. The neglect of Tamils concerns led to militant Tamil nationalism and LTTE has been fighting an armed struggle with the army and demanding ‘Tamil Eelam’ for Sri Lankan Tamils.

(Any two) 2×2=4

Q84.SQP 2025-26 · Q264 marks

Read the passage and choose the most appropriate answer for the questions given below:

No region exists in a vacuum. It is influenced by outside powers and events no matter how much it may try to insulate itself from non-regional powers. Some countries remain key players in South Asian politics. Sino-Indian relations have improved significantly in the last ten years, but China’s strategic partnership with Pakistan remains a major irritant. The demands of development and globalization have brought the two Asian giants closer and their economic ties have multiplied rapidly since 1991.
  1. Which two countries have been referred to as ‘Outside powers’?
    1. India and China
    2. China and Pakistan
    3. USA and China
    4. India and USA
  2. Name the two Asian giants
    1. USA and China
    2. Russia and India
    3. India and China
    4. India and USA
  3. Which one of the following countries is NOT a South Asian Country?
    1. Maldives
    2. Nepal
    3. Japan
    4. Bhutan
  4. Which one of the following countries is NOT a member of SAARC?
    1. Nepal
    2. India
    3. China
    4. Pakistan
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 · Marking Scheme

I) (C) USA and China

II) (C) India and China

III) China’s strategic partnership with Pakistan is a major irritant for India because it is causing problems in the normalisation of diplomatic relations between the two countries.

(1+1+2=4)

Q85.SQP 2026-27 · Q204 marks

‘Democracy in South Asia has expanded the global imagination of democracy.’ Justify the statement with any four suitable arguments.

Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 · Marking Scheme
  1. The various countries in South Asia have experienced mixed record of democracies and the people also share an aspiration for democracy to be flourished not only in rich or developed countries but in developing and underdeveloped countries also which can be drawn from the examples of Nepal, Pakistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan and Maldives, because:
  2. Every ordinary citizen, rich or poor belonging to different religions view the idea of democracy positively and support the institutions of representative democracy.
  3. They prefer democracy over any other form of democracy and think that democracy is suitable for their country.
  4. There has been a hint of spread and demand for democracy as we have witnessed in the case of Nepal. Nepal has transformed politically from Monarchy to Democracy. It confirms the expansion of Democracy in South Asia.

(To be assessed as a whole or other relevant point/s)

Q86.2026 Main 59/3/1 · Q27(a)6 marks

Describe the sequence of events responsible for the establishment of democracy in Nepal.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/3/1

Democracy in Nepal-

  • Nepal was a constututional monarchy before 1990.
  • In 1990, the king accepted the demand for a new democratic country and created parliament.
  • The year 2002 was a set back for the democracy because the king abolished the parliament and dismissed the government. It ended the democracy.
  • In 2006, there were massive pro-democracy protests. King was forced to restore the House of representatives.
  • Seven Party Alliance (SPA) played a significant role in this.
  • Since 2008, Nepal is a democratic republic having its own constitution.
  • Nepal formed a constituent Assembly to draft a constitution for Nepal with nominal monarchy.

(any other relevant point) (any four)

Q87.2026 Main 59/3/1 · Q27(b)6 marks

Describe the sequence of events responsible for the end of the military government and establishment of democracy in Bangladesh.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/3/1

Bangladesh was a part of Pakistan from 1947-1971.

  • In the 1970 elections, the Awami league led by Sheikh Mujib won all the seats in East Pakistan but the government was dominated by the west Pakistani leadership.
  • Protest against the unfair treatment meted out to bengali language and culture.
  • Therefore, Pakistani leadership, Pakistani army tried to suppress the mass movement of the Bengali people.
  • This led to a large scale migration into India. Indian government supported the East Pakistan for their independence.
  • This resulted in a war between India and Pakistan in December 1971.
  • Finally, with the support of India, East Pakistan won and formation of Bangladesh was done as an independent country.
  • Bangladesh drafted its constitution declaring faith in secularism, democracy and socialism and democracy was established.

(any other relevant point) (any four)

Q88.2025 Main 59/2/1 · Q27(a)6 marks

Explain any two commonalities and two differences between Bangladesh and Pakistan in their democratic experiences.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/2/1

Commonalities :

  1. There is majority of Muslim population in both the countries.
  2. There have been military takeover in both the countries time to time.
  3. There have been pro-democracy movements in both the countries.

or any other relevant commonalities (any two to be explained) (2x1½=3)

Differences :

  1. The US and Western countries have encouraged military rule in Pakistan in the past, but it is not so in Bangladesh.
  2. Pakistan is a nuclear state whereas Bangladesh is not.
  3. Bangladesh has declared its faith in secularism, democracy and socialism since 1991. In Pakistan, had been an Islamic country and democratic government has been functioning since the fall of President Pervez Musharraf.

or any other relevant difference (any two points to be explained) (2x1½=3)

Q89.2025 Main 59/2/1 · Q27(b)6 marks

Explain any two issues of co-operation and two issues of confrontation between India and Bangladesh.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/2/1

Issues of Co-operations :

  1. Bangladesh has been a part of ‘India’s look East policy’ that is linked with South East Asia via Myanmar.
  2. India and Bangladesh signed an agreement to share the water of river Ganga.
  3. On disaster management and environmental issues, both have cooperated regularly.
  4. Certain enclaves were exchanged in 2015.

or any other relevant point (any two points) (2x1½=3)

Issues of confrontation/disagreements :

  1. Denial of illegal migration to India.
  2. Refusal to allow Indian troops to move through its territory to Northeastern states.
  3. Decision not to export the export of natural Gas to India.

or any other relevant point (any two) (2x1½=3)

Q90.2025 Main 59/6/1 · Q27(a)6 marks

Describe any two areas of cooperation and any two areas of conflict among the member countries of the SAARC.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/6/1

Areas of Cooperation :

  1. Bangladesh is a part of India’s “Look East, Act East” Since 2014 that wants to link up with Southeast Asia via Myanmar.
  2. A treaty between India and Nepal allows the citizens to travel to and work in the other country without visas and passports.
  3. India is involved in big hydroelectric projects in Bhutan and remains the Himalayan Kingdom’s biggest source of development aid.

or any other relevant point (Any two) (2 × 1½ = 3)

Areas of Conflicts :

  1. Nepal and Bhutan, as well as Bangladesh and Myanmar have had disagreements in the migration of ethnic Nepalese into Bhutan and Rohingyas into Myanmar, respectively.
  2. Indian Government is unhappy with Bangladesh’s denial of illegal immigration to India.
  3. Indian security agencies see the Maoist Movement in Nepal as a growing security threat.

or any other relevant point (Any two) (2 × 1½ = 3)

(3 + 3 = 6)

Q91.2025 Main 59/6/1 · Q27(b)6 marks

Describe any three events that show that people of all the South Asian countries want to have democracy in their country.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/6/1
  1. Pakistan and Bangladesh both have experienced civilian and military rules. But the people always prefer democracy. Z.A. Bhutto, Benazir Bhutto, Nawaz Sharif and Imran Khan were elected after the long spells of military rule. Even Musharraf had to adopt the democratic way to remain in power.
  2. People of Bangladesh adopted a constitution which was for democracy. Mujib-ur Rahman was killed for not going on the path of democracy.
  3. Till 2006, Nepal was a constitutional monarchy with the danger of the king taking over executive powers. In 2008, the monarchy was abolished and Nepal emerged as a democratic republic.
  4. In Maldives democracy has been chosen by the people and in 2005, the parliament of Maldives voted to introduce multi-party system.
  5. India and Sri Lanka are democratic since independence.

Or any other relevant point (any three) (3 × 2 = 6)

Q92.2025 Supp. 59/S/1 · Q27(a)6 marks

Describe any three issues of conflict between India and Pakistan.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/S/1

Issue of Conflicts :

  1. Kashmir issue
  2. Control of the Siachen Glacier
  3. Terrorist activities in Jammu and Kashmir supported by Pakistan.
  4. Sharing of river waters.
  5. Disagreement over the demarcation line in Sir Creek in the Rann of Kutch.

any other relevant point (Any three to be described) (3 × 2 = 6)

Q93.2025 Supp. 59/S/1 · Q27(b)6 marks

Describe any three features of the ethnic conflict in Sri Lanka.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/S/1

Features of ethnic conflict in Sri Lanka

  1. Politics in Sri Lanka is dominated by majority Sinhala Community.
  2. The neglect of Indian Tamils in Sri Lanka led to militant Tamil Nationalism.
  3. The LTTE organisation has been fighting against the army of Sri Lanka.
  4. The Tamils in Sri Lanka asked for a separate Eelam.
  5. Peace keeping force sent by India was not liked by the Sri Lankans tamils.
  6. Politics of Sri Lanka is discriminatory based on majoritianism.

any other relevant point (Any three to be described) (3 × 2 = 6)

Q94.2023 Main 59/1/1 · Q29(b)6 marks

“Despite various problems, the people in all the South Asian countries share the aspiration and support for democracy.” Justify the statement with any three suitable examples.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/1/1

Democratic system has not been very successful in Pakistan, Myanmar and Sri Lanka. They have seen considerable struggle to establish complete democracy. Examples are as follows:-

  1. In Pakistan, military rule has ended and after 2006 democracy has been restored, but not truly democratic.
  2. In Nepal, people’s movement was a long struggle to replace constitutional monarchy with a democratic government in which they succeeded
  3. In Bangladesh too, the early years saw a military dominant regime. By 1979 demand for democracy gave way to multi-party elections and a representative democracy was established in 1991.

or any other relevant point (any three point) 3×2=6

Q95.2023 Main 59/2/1 · Q30(b)6 marks

Analyse any three major happenings in Bangladesh that show peoples’ support to democracy.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/2/1

Happenings in Bangladesh that show their support for democracy-

  1. Sheikh Mujibur Rahman led the popular struggle against West Pakistani domination. He demanded autonomy for the eastern region. In the 1970 elections the Awami League won all the seats in East Pakistan. But the government dominated by the West Pakistani leadership refused to convene the assembly. This resulted in a war in 1971 that ended in the surrender of the Pakistani forces in East Pakistan and the formation of Bangladesh as an independent country.
  2. In 1975 Sheikh Mujib got the constitution amended to shift from the parliamentary to presidential form of government. He also abolished all parties except his own, the Awami League. His actions were to be authoritarian. People opposed it and was assassinated in a military uprising in August 1975. The new military ruler, Ziaur Rahman, formed his own Bangladesh National Party and won elections in 1979.
  3. Later on Ziaur Rahman was assassinated and another military takeover followed under the leadership of Lt Gen H. M. Ershad. The people of Bangladesh soon rose in support of the demand for democracy. Ershad was forced to allow political activity on a limited scale. He was later elected as President for five years. Mass public protests made Ershad step down in 1990. Elections were held in 1991. Since then representative democracy based on multi-party elections has been working in Bangladesh.

Or any other happening. (any three to be explained) 3×2=6

Q96.2022 Main 59/2/1 · Q12(a)6 marks

Why could democracy not succeed in Pakistan ? Analyse any three reasons.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 59/2/1
  1. Continuous interference of the Military in the administration of Pakistan.
  2. Continuous struggle against India—three wars—economic loss leading to poverty.
  3. Social dominance of clergy and land owning aristocracy.
  4. Lack of genuine support for democratic rule in Pakistan at the international level.
  5. Pakistan had become centre for global Islamic terrorism.

Or any other (Any three)

Q97.2022 Main 59/2/1 · Q12(b)6 marks

“There is widespread support for democracy in all the Asian countries.” Support the statement with examples from any three countries.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 59/2/1

Examples can be taken from Nepal, Bangladesh, Bhutan and Maldives.

  1. Nepal was a Hindu Kingdom but now it has become secular democratic country after a long agitation by people under seven-party alliance.
  2. Bangladesh was a democratic country from the beginning but military took over after assassination of Sheikh Mujib. But again people have re-established democracy.
  3. Similarly in Maldives which earlier was a sultanate has become democratic country after agitation by the people. Now it has a multi-party system.
  4. Any other example

(Any three)

Part A · Contemporary World Politics

4. International Organisations

Q1.2026 Main 59/2/1 · Q51 mark

Given below are two statements :

Statement I : The International Monetary Fund (IMF) is an international organization that oversees those financial institutions and regulations that act at the international level.

Statement II : All the 189 members of IMF organization have equal say.

In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. Both statement I and statement II are true.
  2. Both statement I and statement II are false.
  3. Statement I is true, but statement II is false.
  4. Statement I is false, but statement II is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/2/1

(C) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.

Q2.2026 Main 59/2/1 · Q71 mark

Which statement is the best description of ‘Veto Power’ ?

  1. It is a power of positive voting.
  2. After the end of the Second World War, Veto Power is given only to permanent members of the United Nations Security Council (UNSC) to establish peace in the world.
  3. All the temporary members of the United Nations Security Council (UNSC) have the right to use Veto Power only for two years.
  4. All the members of the United Nations Security Council (UNSC) possess Veto Power.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/2/1

(B) After the end of the Second World War, ‘Veto Power’ is given only to permanent members of the United Nations Security Council (UNSC) to establish peace in the world.

Q3.2026 Main 59/3/1 · Q11 mark

Given below are two statements :

Statement I : The World Bank was created after the Second World War in the year 1945.

Statement II : The activities of the World Bank are focused on the developing countries.

In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
  2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
  3. Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.
  4. Statement I is false, but Statement II is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/3/1

(D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

Q4.2026 Main 59/3/1 · Q71 mark

Choose the best argument to support India’s claim for permanent membership in the United Nations Security Council :

  1. India’s growing economic power and stable political system
  2. India’s effective leadership
  3. India’s membership in the United Nations Organization since its inception
  4. India as the contributing member country in the United Nations Organisation’s budget
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/3/1

(A) India’s growing economic power and stable political system.

Q5.2026 Main 59/4/1 · Q31 mark

Which one organ of the United Nations stands suspended at present ?

  1. Secretariat
  2. Economic and Social Council
  3. Trusteeship Council
  4. International Court of Justice
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/4/1

(C) Trusteeship Council

Q6.2026 Main 59/4/1 · Q41 mark

Arrange the following in chronological order :

  1. Creation of the World Bank
  2. Foundation of the United Nations
  3. World Trade Organisation was set up
  4. Establishment of the International Atomic Energy Agency

Options :

  1. (i), (iv), (iii), (ii)
  2. (i), (ii), (iv), (iii)
  3. (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)
  4. (ii), (iii), (iv), (i)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/4/1

(B) i, ii, iv, iii

Q7.2025 Main 59/1/1 · Q31 mark

Match the terms given in Column-‘A’ correctly with Column-‘B’ and choose the correct answer from the codes given below :

Column-‘A’Column-‘B’
I.Human Rights Watchi.An organ of the United Nations
II.International Monetary Fundii.An agency of the United Nations
III.World Health Organisationiii.An international organisation that oversees financial institutions
IV.General Assemblyiv.An international NGO

Codes :

  1. I-iii, II-i, III-iv, IV-ii
  2. I-iv, II-i, III-iii, IV-ii
  3. I-iv, II-iii, III-ii, IV-i
  4. I-ii, II-iv, III-iii, IV-i
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/1/1

(C) I-iv, II-iii, III-ii, IV-i

Q8.2025 Main 59/1/1 · Q41 mark

Arrange the following in chronological order of their formation :

  1. The World Trade Organisation
  2. World Bank
  3. The International Atomic Energy Agency
  4. United Nations Organisation

Choose the correct option :

  1. I, II, III, IV
  2. II, IV, III, I
  3. IV, I, III, II
  4. III, I, II, IV
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/1/1

(B) II, IV, III, I

Q9.2025 Main 59/4/1 · Q31 mark

Which one of the following is not an organ of the United Nations Organization ?

  1. Security Council
  2. General Assembly
  3. Secretariat
  4. UNESCO
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/4/1

(D) UNESCO (It is an agency of UN)

Q10.2025 Main 59/4/1 · Q41 mark

Choose the country which is not a permanent member of the UN Security Council.

  1. China
  2. Russia
  3. Japan
  4. United Kingdom
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/4/1

(C) Japan

Q11.2025 Main 59/6/1 · Q31 mark

Given below are two statements :

Statement I : United Nations was established in 1945.

Statement II : United Nations was founded as a successor to the League of Nations.

In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
  2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
  3. Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.
  4. Statement I is false, but Statement II is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/6/1

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

Q12.2025 Main 59/6/1 · Q41 mark

Which of the following is not considered as an agency of the UNO ?

  1. World Health Organisation (WHO)
  2. United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organisation (UNESCO)
  3. United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees (UNHCR)
  4. World Trade Organisation (WTO)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/6/1

(D) World Trade Organisation (WTO)

Q13.2025 Supp. 59/S/1 · Q31 mark

Which one of the following is not an agency of the United Nations ?

  1. UNICEF
  2. World Health Organisation
  3. Security Council
  4. UNESCO
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/S/1

(C) Security Council

Q14.2025 Supp. 59/S/1 · Q41 mark

Which one of the following statements in not true about the ‘World Bank’ ?

  1. It was created in 1944.
  2. It works for human development.
  3. It provides loans and grants to its member states.
  4. It encourages socialist economies.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/S/1

(D) It encourages socialist economies.

Q15.2024 Main 59/3/1 · Q51 mark

Arrange the following events in chronological order :

  1. Establishment of the World Bank
  2. Establishment of the WTO
  3. Establishment of the UNO
  4. Establishment of the IAEA

Choose the correct option :

  1. (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)
  2. (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)
  3. (iii), (ii), (i), (iv)
  4. (iii), (i), (iv), (ii)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/3/1

(A) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)

Q16.2024 Main 59/3/1 · Q121 mark

UN was established with the objective to :

  1. boost trade among the member states.
  2. prevent international conflict and facilitate cooperation among member states.
  3. provide help at the time of war.
  4. help the member states in formation of military alliances.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/3/1

(B) prevent international conflict and facilitate cooperation among member states.

Q17.2023 Main 59/1/1 · Q31 mark

Which one of the following organisations works to prevent international conflicts ?

  1. United Nations Human Rights Commission
  2. United Nations Security Council
  3. ASEAN
  4. Amnesty International
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/1/1

(b) United Nation Security Council

Q18.2023 Main 59/2/1 · Q31 mark

The main objective of United Nations is to _______

  1. prevent manufacture of war weapons.
  2. prevent international conflicts.
  3. prevent industrialisation.
  4. prevent spread of refugees.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/2/1

(b) prevent international conflicts

Q19.2023 Main 59/5/1 · Q41 mark

On which basis does India claim permanent membership of the UN Security Council ?

  1. Nuclear capability
  2. Located in Asia
  3. Being a secular country
  4. Large population and big economic power
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/5/1

(d) Large population and big economic power

Q20.2023 Main 59/5/1 · Q61 mark

In the questions (5 & 6) given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read these statements and choose one correct answer from the given options :

Assertion (A): The United Nations is expected to cope better with the Unipolar World.

Reason (R): After the disintegration of Soviet Union many new countries joined the United Nations.

Options:

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R), is the correct explanation of (A).
  2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  3. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
  4. (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/5/1

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and R is not the correct explanation of (A)

Q21.2023 Supp. 59/C/1 · Q51 mark

Which one of the following is not an agency of the United Nations ?

  1. International Labour Organisation
  2. UNESCO
  3. International Court of Justice
  4. UNICEF
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/C/1

(c) International Court of Justice

Q22.SQP 2026-27 · Q41 mark

Which international organisation was formed in 1995 following the GATT treaty?

  1. International Monetary Fund
  2. World Trade Organization
  3. World Bank
  4. World Health Organization
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 · Marking Scheme

(B) World Trade Organization (WTO)

Q23.SQP 2026-27 · Q71 mark

Which one of the following organizations is not related to the United Nations?

  1. UNESCO
  2. WHO
  3. WTO
  4. UNICEF
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 · Marking Scheme

(C) WTO

Q24.2026 Main 59/5/1 · Q132 marks

Name any four principal organs of the United Nations.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/5/1
  • General Assembly
  • Secretariat
  • Security Council
  • International court of justice
  • Economic and social council
  • Trusteeship Council

(Any four)

Q25.2024 Main 59/1/1 · Q152 marks

State any two advantages of international organisations like the UNO.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/1/1

Advantages of international organisations:

  • (i) They help in matters of war and peace.
  • (ii) They also help countries cooperate to create better living conditions for all.

Or any other relevant point

Q26.2024 Main 59/5/1 · Q152 marks

Explain any two complaints related to the U.N. Security Council reflected in the resolution passed by the U.N. General Assembly in 1992.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/5/1

Complaints are:

  1. The Security Council no longer represents contemporary political realities.
  2. Its decisions reflect only western values and interests and is dominated by a few powers.
  3. It lacks equitable representation.

Or any other relevant complaint.

(any two complaints) (2x1=2)

Q27.2023 Main 59/1/1 · Q142 marks

Show with the help of any two examples, the strength of the United Nations.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/1/1

The strength of United Nations lies in the following:-

  1. It helps countries to cooperate to make better living conditions for us all.
  2. Some issues are global eg. Global warming, epidemics. UN helps nations come together to resolve.
  3. It can play an important role in helping nations discuss contentious issues and find peaceful solution.

Examples that show the strengths of UN are as follows:-

  1. UN passed a resolution that helped resolve conflict between Lebanon and Israel.
  2. UN health agencies have worked to help nations deal with COVID pandemic.

(or any other example) (any two) 2×1=2

Q28.2023 Main 59/2/1 · Q142 marks

Name any four agencies of the United Nations.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/2/1

UNICEF, UNESCO, WHO, ILO, UNDEP, IMF, FAO

Or any other related agency (any four) 4×½=2

Q29.2023 Main 59/4/1 · Q172 marks

Highlight any two functions of UNICEF which make it a significant part of the United Nations.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/4/1

Functions of UNICEF-

  1. To collect emergency funds for children and to help in their development work all across the world.
  2. Helps and encourages the works that promote children’s health and better life in all parts of the world.

Or any other point 2×1=2

Q30.2023 Main 59/5/1 · Q142 marks

Explain any two functions of International Labour Organisation (ILO).

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/5/1

Two functions of International Labour Organisations

  • i) It creates safety ,parity and dignified work conditions
  • ii) It promotes social justice for workers through International Labour standard of global level.
  • iii) promotes incentives for women and male workers to engage in productive work.

(Any two or any other relevant point)

Q31.2026 Main 59/2/1 · Q244 marks

Read the passage given below carefully and answer the questions that follow :

On the reform of structures and processes, the biggest discussion has been on the functioning of the Security Council. Related to this has been the demand for an increase in the UN Security Council’s permanent and non-permanent membership so that the realities of contemporary world politics are better reflected in the structure of the organisation. In particular, there are proposals to increase membership from Asia, Africa and South America. Beyond this, the US and other Western countries want improvements in the UN’s budgetary procedures and its administration.

(i) Which organ of the United Nations has five permanent members ?

  1. General Assembly
  2. Security Council
  3. Secretariat
  4. Economic and Social Council

(ii) Which country contributes the most in the budget of United Nations Organisation ?

  1. America
  2. Russia
  3. China
  4. France

(iii) In which year was the strength of non-permanent members of Security Council increased ?

  1. 1962
  2. 1963
  3. 1964
  4. 1965

(iv) Which of the following statements is NOT correct about the reforms in Security Council ?

  1. The Security Council no longer represents contemporary political realities.
  2. The Security Council’s decisions reflect only western values and interests and are dominated by a few powers.
  3. The Security Council lacks equitable representation.
  4. The Security Council has a large army to establish peace.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/2/1

(i) (B) Security Council

(ii) (A) America

(iii) (D) 1965

(iv) (D) The Security Council has a large army to establish peace.

Q32.2026 Main 59/3/1 · Q22(a)4 marks

“The United Nations Organisation is generally regarded as the great hope of humanity for peace and progress.” Support the statement with two arguments.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/3/1

The United Nations Organisation is generally regarded as the great hope of humanity for peace and progress because—

(i) It resolves many issues of contention by mediation / peace building commissions.

(ii) It accepts the responsibility of the international community in case of failures of the national governments to protect their own citizens from atrocities.

(iii) It has established the Human Rights Council to protect the human rights.

(iv) It condemns the terrorism in all its forms and manifestations.

( or any other relevant point) (any two points to be explained)

Q33.2026 Main 59/3/1 · Q22(b)4 marks

Suggest any four measures to make the United Nations Organisation more relevant in the current scenario.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/3/1

Suggestions to make the United Nations organisations more relevant in the current scenario -

(i) United Nations should serve as a balance against US dominance to help to maintain a dialogue between US & the rest of the world.

(ii) Change of the physical location of the UN to reduce the US influence.

(iii) Composition of the Security Council to be reviewed and new members to be added.

(iv) More/ broader representation of various countries.

(any other relevant point)

Q34.2026 Main 59/4/1 · Q264 marks

Study the cartoon given below and answer the questions based on it :

Figure from the paper

(i) Which country is being represented by the man shown in the cartoon ?

(ii) What is missing in the UN logo shown in the cartoon ?

(iii) Explain the message conveyed by the cartoon.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/4/1

(i) United States of America.

(ii) Map of the world.

(iii) Message conveyed by the cartoon is that if the USA is not able to find the solution through UNO than the war with weapons will be able to find the solution of the problem. It depicts the strength of the US holding UN in one hand and the weapons in the second hand.

Q35.2026 Main 59/4/1 · Q26 (VI)4 marks

(26.1) In which year was the United Nations founded ?

(26.2) Write the main objective of the United Nations.

(26.3) Which organ of the United Nations has five permanent members ?

(26.4) Name any one international Non-Governmental Organization (NGO) that campaigns for the protection of Human Rights.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/4/1

26.1 1945

26.2 To prevent international conflicts and to facilitate cooperation among states.

26.3 Security Council.

26.4 Amnesty International

OR

Human Rights Watch

Q36.2025 Main 59/1/1 · Q264 marks

Study the given cartoon and answer the questions that follow :

Figure from the paper

  1. What does the cartoon depict ?
    1. Influence of UNO on the World
    2. Influence of USA on UNO
    3. Relevance of UNO
    4. Influence of USA on the World
  2. What message is given by the cartoon ?
    1. If UN fails then the US can control the world by its military power.
    2. Economic superiority of US
    3. Veto power of permanent members of UN
    4. US is the largest contributor to UN
  3. Why this cartoon is not relevant today ?
    1. UN has become more powerful.
    2. Many new powerful international organisations have emerged.
    3. Countries are not having faith in UN.
    4. Now many new centres of power have emerged.
  4. What is the primary objective of UNO ?
    1. To foster economic ties of the developed nations
    2. To promote international peace and co-operation
    3. To eradicate terrorism
    4. To promote health care
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/1/1

i. (B) Influence of USA on UNO

ii. (A) If UN fails then the US can control the world by its military power.

iii. (D) Now many new centres of power emerged.

iv. (B) To promote international Peace and Co-operation.

(1+1+1+1=4)

Q37.2025 Main 59/1/1 · Q26 (VI)4 marks

Note : The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of Q. No. 26.

(26.1) State the reason for the formation of League of Nations.

(26.2) Write full form of UNESCO.

(26.3) How many member countries did sign on United Nations Charter to set up United Nations ?

(26.4) Name the most visible public figure and the representative head of the United Nations.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/1/1

(26.1) To help the world to avoid war.

(26.2) UNESCO- United Nations Educational Scientific and Cultural Organisation

(26.3) 51

(26.4) Secretary General

(1+1+1+1=4)

Q38.2025 Main 59/4/1 · Q20(a)4 marks

State any four steps that the heads of all the member countries had decided to take in September 2005 to make the United Nations more relevant in the changing context.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/4/1

Four steps :

  1. Creation of a peacebuilding commission.
  2. International community should accept the responsibility to save and protect the citizens of any country from the atrocities of their own government.
  3. Establishment of a Human Rights Commission.
  4. Agreements to achieve the Millennium Development Goals.
  5. Condemnation of terrorism in all its forms and manifestations.
  6. Creation of a Democracy Fund.
  7. An agreement to wind up the Trusteeship Council.

(Any four) (4 × 1 = 4)

Q39.2025 Main 59/4/1 · Q20(b)4 marks

State any four changes that have occurred in the world after the end of the Cold War.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/4/1
  1. The Soviet Union has collapsed
  2. The US emerged as the strongest power .
  3. The relationship between Russia and the US is much more cooperative
  4. China is fast emerging as a great power
  5. The economies of Asia are also growing
  6. Many new countries have joined the US
  7. A whole new set of challenges confronts the world genocide, civil war, terrorism, etc.

(Any four) (4 × 1 = 4)

Q40.2025 Main 59/6/1 · Q22(a)4 marks

Explain the contribution of any two Non-Governmental Organisations working for the protection of human rights in the world.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/6/1

NGOs for the Protection of Human Rights :

  1. Amnesty International :
    • It promotes respect for all the human rights. It believes that human rights are interdependent and indivisible.
    • It prepares and publishes reports on human rights.
    (name + one point)
  2. Human Rights Watch :
    • This NGO is also involved in research and advocacy on human rights.
    • It is the largest international human rights organization in the US.
    • It draws the global media’s attention to human rights abuses.
    • It helped in building international coalitions like the campaigns to ban landmines, to stop the use of child soldiers and to establish the International Criminal Court.
    (name + one point)

(2 + 2 = 4)

Q41.2025 Main 59/6/1 · Q22(b)4 marks

Explain the contribution of any two international organisations working for human development and international trade.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/6/1

Two international organisation are :

  1. World Trade Organisation :
    • It was set up in 1995 us the successor to the General Agreement on Trade and Tariffs (GATT) created after the Second World War.
    • It sets the rules for global trade.
    • It has 164 members.
    • All the decisions are taken unanimously but the major economic powers such as the US, EU and Japan have managed to use the WTO to frame rules of trade to advance their own interests.
    (Name + One point)
  2. World Bank :
    • The World Bank was created during the Second World War in 1944.
    • It provides loans and grants to the member countries, exercising enormous influence on the economic policies of developing countries.
    • It sets the economic agenda for the poorer nations, attaching stringent conditions to its loans and forcing free market reforms.
    (Name + One point)

(2 + 2 = 4)

Q42.2025 Supp. 59/S/1 · Q204 marks

Describe any four changes that occurred in the world after the end of the Cold War.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/S/1

Changes that occurred in world after the end of the cold war.

  1. The Soviet Union collapsed and disintegrated.
  2. The US became the only super power.
  3. The relationship between Russia and the US become more cooperative.
  4. The economy of the China and India is growing rapidly .
  5. The economies of Asia are growing at an unprecedented rate.
  6. Many new independent countries joined the UN.

any other relevant point ( any four changes) (4 × 1 = 4)

Q43.2024 Main 59/1/1 · Q204 marks

Describe any four criteria proposed in 1997 for new permanent and non-permanent members of the UN Security Council.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/1/1

Criteria for new members they should be a:

  • (i) Major economic power
  • (ii) Major military power
  • (iii) Substantial contributor to the UN budget
  • (iv) Big population
  • (v) Respect for human rights and democracy

or any another criterion (Any four)

Q44.2024 Main 59/3/1 · Q23(a)4 marks

“India has supported the restructuring of the United Nations on several grounds.” Support the statement.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/3/1

India has supported the restructuring of the UN on the following grounds-

  • (i) The UN security council membership has become static whereas the members of United Nations has grown.
  • (ii) UN Security Council depends only on the five permanent members- which is discriminatory.
  • (iii) There is unequitable representation in geographical terms.

Hence India supports the restructuring of the United States.

(Or any other relevant answer) ( Evaluate as a whole)

Q45.2024 Main 59/3/1 · Q23(b)4 marks

“Reforming the United Nations means restructuring of the Security Council.” Justify the statement.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/3/1

Most of the actions of the United Nations are based on the decisions of the Security Council. So if United Nation is to be restructured then the restructuring of Security Council is must-

  • (i) Change in the number of permanent and non- permanent members of the Security Council is desired.
  • (ii) Security Council should be made equitable representative in geographical terms

(Or any other relevant point) (Assess as a whole)

Q46.2024 Main 59/5/1 · Q264 marks

The given cartoon is related to Israel’s attack on Lebanon in June 2006. Study the cartoon carefully and answer the questions given below :

Figure from the paper

  1. Identify and name the organisation whose four Logos are shown in the cartoon. (1)
  2. Identify and name the person shown in the cartoon. (1)
  3. Why did Israel attack Lebanon ? (2)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/5/1

(a) United Nation (1)

(b) UN General Secretary, Kofi Annan (1)

(c) According to Israel it was necessary to attack Lebanon to control the militant group called Hezbollah who killed a large number of civilians and caused destruction. (2)

Q47.2024 Main 59/5/1 · Q26 (VI)4 marks

Note : The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of Q. No. 26.

(26.1) Write full form of UNICEF.

(26.2) Which organisation became the successor of League of Nations ?

(26.3) How many states signed the United Nations Charter ?

(26.4) Which U.N. agency is concerned with the safety and peaceful use of nuclear technology ?

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/5/1

For Visually Impaired Candidates

(26.1) United Nations Children’s Fund / (United Nations International Children’s Emergency Fund)

(26.2) United Nations Organisation

(26.3) 51

(26.4) International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)

(4x1=4)

Q48.2023 Main 59/1/1 · Q194 marks

Write the full form of ‘UNICEF’ and state any two functions of it.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/1/1

UNICEF- The United Nation International Children’s Emergency Fund.

Function:

  1. To collect emergency funds for children and to help in their development work all across the world.
  2. To help and encourage the works that promote children health and better life in all parts of the world.

Or any other function 1+3=4

Q49.2023 Main 59/4/1 · Q214 marks

What is meant by ‘Veto Power’ ? Name any four countries that enjoy veto power.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/4/1

Veto power is the power to negate any decision made by all other members of UNSC. It is a negative vote. This power has been given to the five permanent members of UNSC.

  1. USA
  2. UK
  3. Russia
  4. France
  5. China

(Any 4 countries) 2+2=4

Q50.2023 Supp. 59/C/1 · Q194 marks

Name any four principal organs of the United Nations and describe the composition of any one of them.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/C/1

Principal organs of the United Nations

  • i) The General Assembly
  • ii) Secretariat
  • iii) Security Council
  • iv) International Court of Justice
  • v) Economic and Social Council

(any four)

Composition:

  • i) The General Assembly: It includes all member states. In the UN General Assembly, all members have one vote each. Each member country may be represented by upto five state delegates but each and all of them has only one vote.
  • ii) Secretariat: The Secretariat shall comprise a Secretary-General and such staff as the Organization may require. The Secretary-General shall be appointed by the General Assembly upon the recommendation of the Security Council. He shall be the chief administrative officer of the Organization.
  • iii) Security Council :In the UN Security Council, there are ten non-permanent and five permanent members. These permanent members are: the United States, Russia, the United Kingdom, France and China.

(or composition of any other)

Q51.2023 Supp. 59/C/1 · Q204 marks

Is it justified to give Veto Power only to five permanent members of the U.N. Security Council ? Support your answer with any two arguments.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/C/1

Candidate may answer in favour or against the veto power given only to five permanent members:

  • i) It is in conflict with the concept of democracy and sovereign equality.
  • ii) Under the changing circumstances veto power is no longer relevant.
  • iii) No representative from Australia and Africa.

(Or any other relevant point) (any two with explanation)

Q52.SQP 2026-27 · Q244 marks

Study the picture given below and answer the questions based on it:

Figure from the paper

Source-Page no46 Contemporary World Politics, NCERT

Choose the correct option:

  1. What does the cartoon in the left depict?
    1. Terrorist attack on UN headquarters.
    2. Lebanon attacked Israel.
    3. Israel attacked Lebanon.
    4. Consequences of UN resolution
  2. Given below are two statements:
    Statement I: Lebanon crisis caused huge displacement- about 1 million Lebanese were displaced.
    Statement II: It had no humanitarian cost.
    In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer.
    1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
    2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
    3. Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.
    4. Statement I is false, but Statement II is true
  3. Identify the personality shown in the image holding a 'Lebanon Resolution' shield.
    1. Ban Ki-moon
    2. U Thant
    3. Dag Hammarskjold
    4. Kofi A Annan.
  4. The cartoon shows the UN as a passive observer. What does this imply about the UN Charter?
    1. The UN must intervene militarily in every conflict.
    2. The UN cannot act without approval of Security Council members.
    3. The UN is allowed to punish any country directly.
    4. The UN can override sovereignty of all states.
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 · Marking Scheme

I (C) Israel attacked Lebanon

II (C) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.

III (D) Kofi A Annan

IV (D) The UN cannot act without approval of Security Council members

Q53.SQP 2026-27 · Q24 (VI)4 marks

NOTE: Following questions are for the Candidates with Visual impairment, in lieu of Question No. 24.

  1. Who is the current Secretary-General of the United Nations?
  2. Name the international NGO that campaigns for the protection of human rights all over the world.
  3. What does Lebanon crisis show about security?
  4. What does "Veto Power" mean in the UN Security Council?
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 · Marking Scheme
  1. António Guterres is the current Secretary-General.
  2. Amnesty International is the NGO that works for human rights protection all over the World.
  3. It shows that security threats come not only from states but also from non- state actors (Hezbollah).
  4. Veto power means that any one of the five permanent members can stop a decision or resolution from being passed, even if all other members agree.
Q54.2026 Main 59/1/1 · Q27(a)6 marks

Explain the composition and one function of any three organs of the United Nations.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/1/1

(i) General Assembly :

It represents of all 193 member states, each with one vote. Major decisions require a two third majority, otherwise a single majority decision not binding on UN members. Key functions include adopting the UN budget, appointing the secretary general, electing non- permanent Security council members etc.

(ii) Security Council :

It has total 15 members, 5 permanent and 10 temporary Permanent members are US, UK, France, Russia and China. All these have veto power. Temporary members are elected for the term of two years. Its decisions are binding on all UN members. Key functions include investigating disputes , establishing peace and authorising military action to resolve threats to peace.

(iii) International court of Justice :

There are total 15 judges elected for 9 years by absolute majority in both the general Assembly and the security council. It is situated in ’The Hague’ Netherland. Key functions include to settle legal disputes , provide advisory opinions on legal questions. It interprets and inforce international laws.

(iv) Secretariat:

It is acting as UN’s executive administrative arm. It is headed by secretary -general who is appointed by the General Assembly for 5 years. It handles the day to day work, implementing decisions, organising conferences etc.

(v) Economic and Social Council:-

It has 54 seats based on geographical representation which are elected by the General Assembly for the three year terms. It co-ordinate economic, social and environmental policies and promotes sustainable development etc.

(Any three with one function)

Q55.2026 Main 59/1/1 · Q27(b)6 marks

Name any three agencies of the United Nations and explain one function of each.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/1/1

Agencies are :

i) WHO: a) It works for the health and against the spread of epidemics.

b) It works for the Vaccination.

ii) UNHRC: a) It works for the protection of human rights in different parts of the world.

b) It addresses human rights violations.

iii) UNICEF: a) It works for the welfare of children.

b) It also protects child rights, focusing on health, education, nutrition, and safety

iv) IAEA : a) It seeks to promote use of atomic energy for military purposes.

b) It seeks scientific and technical cooperation in the nuclear field.

v) ILO: a) It sets international labor standards.

b) Fostering decent employment opportunities and enhancing social protection.

vi) UNESCO: Promoting universal education, preserving cultural heritage, encouraging scientific research and protecting freedom of expression.

(or any other agency) (any three)

Q56.2026 Supp. 59/7/1 · Q27(a)6 marks

Suggest any four qualifications required by a country to be a new member of the UN Security Council.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/7/1

Qualifications required by a country to be a new member of the UN Security Council.

  1. A major economic power
  2. A major military power
  3. A substantial contributor to the UN budget
  4. A big nation in terms of its population
  5. A nation that respects democracy and human rights
  6. A country that would make the Council more representative of the world's diversity in terms of geography, economic systems, and culture.

(Any Other) (Any four)

Q57.2026 Supp. 59/7/1 · Q27(b)6 marks

Suggest any four reforms to make the United Nations an effective international organisation.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/7/1

Reforms –

  1. Some new members may be taken as permanent members of the UN Security Council.
  2. It should be made equitable representative.
  3. It decisions should not reflect the western values and interests only.
  4. The influence of the US on the UN should be rational and reasonable.
  5. It should be more active to stop the wars and to bring peace in the world.

(Any other suggestion) (Any four)

Q58.2025 Main 59/2/1 · Q28(a)6 marks

Explain the importance of International organisations like the United Nations in the contemporary world.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/2/1

Importance of UN in contemporary world :

  1. In a unipolar world in which the US is dominant, the UN served to bring the US and the rest of the world into discussions on various issues.
  2. UN is an organisation serving a purpose of bringing over 193 nations together in dealing with conflicts and social and economic developments.
  3. The UN provides an arena for the rest of the world in which it is possible to modify US attitudes and policies.
  4. The UN may be an imperfect body, but without it, the world would be worse off.
  5. International organisations help with matters of war and peace and uphold human rights.
  6. They also help countries cooperate to make better living conditions and well-being of the people.
  7. Due to growing interdependence, it is hard to imagine a world without an organisation like the UN.

or any other relevant point (Assess as a whole) (6)

Q59.2025 Main 59/2/1 · Q28(b)6 marks

Explain any four changes that have occurred after the Cold War and have affected the realities of the world politics.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/2/1

Changes :

  1. The Soviet Union has collapsed.
  2. The US has become the sole super power.
  3. The relationship between Russia, the successor to the Soviet Union, and the US is much more cooperative.
  4. China is fast emerging as a great power, and India also is growing rapidly.
  5. The economies of Asia are growing at an unprecedented rate.
  6. Many new countries have joined the UN.
  7. A whole new set of challenges confronts the world (genocide, civil war, ethnic conflict, terrorism, epidemics, etc.)

(any four points to be explained) (4x1½=6)

Q60.2025 Main 59/5/1 · Q28(a)6 marks

Explain the importance of the United Nations in the present day world with the help of any three arguments.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/5/1

Importance of United Nations :

  1. It is the only international organisation that has more than 193 member states. It means that UN has approach to all these countries and also is able to listen and solve their problems.
  2. United Nations is working for the Human Rights, all over the world.
  3. UN provides a platform for the countries to discuss their problems and disputes in a peaceful manner.
  4. UN has worked for disarmament and control on nuclear weapons.

or any other relevant point (Any three to be explained) (3 × 2 = 6)

Q61.2025 Main 59/5/1 · Q28(b)6 marks

Explain the composition and functions of the UN Security Council.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/5/1

UN Security Council :

  • Composition : It has five permanent and 10 non-permanent members. Five permanent members Russia, US, UK, France and China have the veto power to negate any decision. The most visible figure of the UN is its Secretary General.
  • Functions :
    1. It plays an effective role in maintaining peace and security in accordance with the principles of the UN.
    2. To investigate any dispute or situation which might lead to an International conflict.
    3. Security Council balances the US power.

or any other relevant function (Any three functions) (3 + 3 = 6)

Q62.2025 Main 59/7/1 · Q28(a)6 marks

Justify India’s claim for permanent membership of the United Nations Security Council with any four criteria.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/7/1

India’s claim for permanent membership of UN Security Council :

  1. India is the second most populous country in the world comprising almost one-fifth of the world population.
  2. India is also the world’s largest democracy.
  3. India is growing as a new economic power.
  4. India has participated all the initiatives of the UN.
  5. Its role in the UN’s peacekeeping efforts is a long and substantial one.
  6. The country’s economic emergence on the world stage is another factor.
  7. India has also made regular financial contributions to the UN and never faltered on its payments.

or any other relevant criteria (Any four with explanation) (4 × 1½ = 6)

Q63.2025 Main 59/7/1 · Q28(b)6 marks

Justify the relevance of United Nations Organization in the contemporary world with the help of any four examples.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/7/1

Relevance of UN :

  1. It has successfully stopped the third world war. It sent many peacekeeping forces and stopped warlike situations.
  2. It has contributed in maintaining peace among nations of the world.
  3. It has foster co-operation among nations to resolve new threats like terrorism, global warming, etc.
  4. Through health agency (WHO), it has successfully eradicated severe diseases like Polio and TB from the world by conducting vaccination programmes.
  5. In pandemic like situation as Covid-19, it worked phenomenally.
  6. It’s mission is all round development of the world. It is financially helping to the LDCs countries.
  7. It provides platform for new discussions and negotiations.

(or any other relevant point) (Any four with explanation) (4 × 1½ = 6)

Q64.2024 Main 59/2/1 · Q28(a)6 marks

Explain the grounds on the basis of which India seeks to become a permanent member of the UN Security Council.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/2/1

Grounds on the basis of which India seeks to become a permanent member of the UN Security Council-

  • (i) India is the second most populous country in the world comprising almost ⅕ of the world population.
  • (ii) India is the world’s largest democracy.
  • (iii) India has participated virtually in all of the initiatives of the UN.
  • (iv) Its role in the UN peacekeeping efforts is a long and substantial one.
  • (v) The country’s economic emergence in the world stage is another factor that perhaps justifies India’s claim to permanent seat.
  • (vi) India has also made regular financial contributions to the UN and never faltered on its payments.

(or any other relevant point) (any four points)

(4x1½=6)

Q65.2024 Main 59/2/1 · Q28(b)6 marks

Explain the three main complaints reflected in the resolution adopted by the UN General Assembly in 1992 to reform the UN Security Council.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/2/1

Complaints-

  • (i) The Security Council no longer represents the contemporary political realities.
  • (ii) Its decisions reflect only western values and interests and are dominated by a few powers.
  • (iii) It lacks equitable representation.

(To be explained )

Q66.2024 Main 59/4/1 · Q28(a)6 marks

Describe the composition of the United Nations Security Council and the suggested reforms to make it more relevant.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/4/1

Composition of the UN Security Council:

  1. The Security Council has 5 permanent and 10 non-permanent members.
  2. The five permanent members are United States of America (USA), United Kingdom (UK), France, Russia and China. They enjoy veto power which can negate any decision of the Security Council.
  3. The Non- permanent members are elected for a period of 2 years at a time.

Suggested reforms to make it more relevant:

  1. New permanent members should be added.
  2. It should be made more representative by adding new members.
  3. More developing countries should be made its members.

(Or any other relevant point) (any three points) (3+3=6)

Q67.2024 Main 59/4/1 · Q28(b)6 marks

Describe any four changes that occurred in world politics after the end of Cold War.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/4/1

The following changes occured in the world politics after the end of the cold war:

  1. The Sovient Union has collapsed.
  2. The US is the strongest power.
  3. The relationship between Russia, the successor to the Soviet Union, and the US is more cooperative.
  4. China is fast emerging as a great power, and India also is growing rapidly.
  5. The economies of Asia are growing at an unprecedented rate.
  6. Many new countries have joined the UN (as they became independent from the Sovient Union or former communist states in Eastern Europe).
  7. A whole new set of challenges confronts the world (genocide, civil war, ethnic conflict, terrorism, nuclear proliferation, Climate change, environment degradation, epidemics.

(any four points) (4x1½=6)

Q68.2024 Supp. 59/S/1 · Q28(a)6 marks

Explain the relevance of the United Nations in the contemporary world.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/S/1

Relevance of the United Nations in the Contemporary world-

  • UN has the objective to prevent the International conflicts and to facilitate cooperation among the states.
  • It has worked to stop or prevent wars.
  • Some countries think that the UN could cope better with a world in which the US is the most powerful country, without any serious rivals.
  • The UN can and has served to bring the US and the rest of the world into discussions over various issues.
  • US leaders, in spite of their frequent criticism of the UN, do see the organization as serving a purpose in bringing together over 190 nations in dealing with conflict and social and economic development.
  • For the rest of the world, the UN provides an arena in which it is possible to modify US attitudes and policies.
  • The UN is an imperfect body but without it the world would be worse off. As technology increases planetary interdependence, the importance of the UN will increase. Hence this organisation is very relevant.

(Assess as a whole) (any three) (6)

Q69.2024 Supp. 59/S/1 · Q28(b)6 marks

‘‘The Security Council lacks equitable representation.’’

In the light of the above statement, explain the need for restructuring the United Nations.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/S/1

The need for restructuring the United Nations:-

  • The Security Council no longer represents the contemporary political realities.
  • Its decisions reflect only Western values and interests and are dominated by a few big powers.
  • It lacks equitable representation with no representation from Latin America and Africa as far as permanent members are concerned.
  • Permanent members of the UN have Veto power but non-permanent members do not have such power.

(Evaluate as a whole) (6)

Q70.2023 Main 59/3/1 · Q30(a)6 marks

Examine any four criteria proposed for new members of the UN Security Council.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/3/1

New member nation must be:-

  1. A major military power
  2. A major economic power
  3. A substantial contributor to the UN budget
  4. A big nation in term of its population
  5. A nation that respects democracy and human rights
  6. A country that would represent the world’s diversity.

(Reasons to be justified) (Any four) 4×1½=6

Q71.2023 Main 59/3/1 · Q30(b)6 marks

Analyse any four steps suggested by the heads of the member states in 2005 to make the United Nations more relevant in the changing context.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/3/1

Suggestions:-

  1. Creation of a peace building commission
  2. Creation of a democracy fund
  3. Establishment of a Human Rights Council
  4. Agreement to achieve millennium goals
  5. Condemnation of terrorism.

(Suggestions to be explained) (or any other relevant point) (Any four) 4×1½=6

Q72.2023 Main 59/5/1 · Q28(b)6 marks

Explain any four criteria proposed for new permanent and non-permanent members of the UN Security Council.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/5/1

Proposed Criteria

  • i) A new member should be a major economic power.
  • ii) A major military power
  • iii) A big nation in terms of population.
  • iv) A substantial contributor to the UN budget.
  • v) Must have respect for democracy and human Rights.
  • vi) a country that would make the council more representative of the world's diversity in terms of geography, economics system and culture.

( Any Four Points)

Q73.SQP 2025-26 · Q27(A)6 marks

What steps should be taken to strengthen the UNO? Explain any four reasons as to why India should be given a permanent membership in the UN Security Council.

Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 · Marking Scheme

Following steps should be taken to strengthen the UNO: -

  1. To increase the permanent and non-permanent member in the UN Security Council so that it can represent contemporary world politics effective and better way.
  2. UN’s budgetary procedure and its administration should be strengthened.
  3. Limiting the role of UN to development and humanitarian work.

India should be given a permanent membership in the UN Security Council due to following reasons:

  1. Greater role of UN in maintaining world peace and security.
  2. India is the most populous country which constitutes l/5th of the population of the world.
  3. India is also the world’s largest democracy.
  4. India actively participated in UN’s programmes and played a material role in keeping and managing peace and cooperation.
  5. The regular financial aid to UN and evolution of its economy also support India’s desire to be the permanent member.
Q74.SQP 2025-26 · Q27(B)6 marks

Trace the evolution of the United Nations since its establishment in 1945. How does it function with the help of its structures and agencies?

Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 · Marking Scheme

The United Nations was established in 1945 after the end of Second World War as a successor to the League of Nations. The United Nations Charter was signed by 51 states for setting up of UN. The basic aim was to achieve what League of Nations was not able to achieve during the first World Wars. The other objectives of UN are:

  1. Prevention of conflicts and facilitating cooperation among nations.
  2. To stop conflicts among states resulting into war and if it takes the shape of war, to limit the effects of war.
  3. To reduce the reasons for conflict by bringing the countries together for improving social and economic- development all over the world.

UN Structures and Agencies

UN includes many different structures for dealing with different issues. The issue relating to war and peace, and differences between member states are dealt by discussion in General Assembly as well as in the security council. The other issues such as social and economic are dealt by a number of agencies which include:

WHO World Health Organisation.
UNDP United Nations Development Programme.
UNHRC United Nations Human Rights Commission
UNHCR United Nations High Commission for Refugees.
UNICEF United Nations Children’s Fund.
UNESCO United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organisation.

(Or Any other relevant point/s)

Part A · Contemporary World Politics

5. Security in the Contemporary World

Q1.2026 Main 59/1/1 · Q71 mark

Match List-I with List-II correctly and choose the correct answer from the codes given below :

List-IList-II
(a) Violation of Human Rights(i) Britain
(b) ‘Mad-Cow’ disease(ii) Chemical weapons convention
(c) Disarmament Treaty(iii) World Trade Centre in America
(d) 9/11 terrorist attack(iv) Iraq’s invasion of Kuwait

Codes :

  1. (a) – (iv), (b) – (i), (c) – (ii), (d) – (iii)
  2. (a) – (iv), (b) – (iii), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i)
  3. (a) – (ii), (b) – (i), (c) – (iv), (d) – (iii)
  4. (a) – (i), (b) – (ii), (c) – (iii), (d) – (iv)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/1/1

(A) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)

Q2.2026 Main 59/1/1 · Q121 mark

Nuclear non-proliferation Treaty refers to :

  1. Peaceful use of nuclear energy
  2. Spread of nuclear weapons
  3. Development of nuclear fusion
  4. Reduction of nuclear weapons stockpiles
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/1/1

(D) Reduction of nuclear weapons stockpiles.

Q3.2026 Main 59/2/1 · Q21 mark

Which one of the following is related to the traditional notion of security ?

  1. Russia – Ukraine War
  2. Continuous rise in the global temperature
  3. 9/11 attack on USA
  4. Spread of COVID-19 epidemic in the world
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/2/1

(A) Russia – Ukraine War

Q4.2026 Main 59/2/1 · Q61 mark

Which one of the following statements is True about the concept of ‘Co-operative Security’ ?

  1. Initiating action by the developed countries against non-traditional threats.
  2. Ensuring ‘collective security’ by the NATO countries in case of threats.
  3. Strengthening internal security by various measures within a state.
  4. Involving several countries to decide on a collective solution against non-traditional threats.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/2/1

(D) Involving several countries to decide on a collective solution against non-traditional threats.

Q5.2026 Main 59/5/1 · Q51 mark

Choose the correct full form of the ‘SALT’ treaty from the options given below :

  1. Special Arms Limited Treaty
  2. Strategic Arms Limitation Treaty
  3. Secret Arms Limitation Treaty
  4. South Asia Local Treaty
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/5/1

(B) Strategic Arms Limitation Treaty

Q6.2026 Main 59/5/1 · Q61 mark

Which one of the following is not a new source of threat to security ?

  1. Terrorism
  2. War
  3. Poverty
  4. Migration
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/5/1

(B) War

Q7.2025 Main 59/2/1 · Q31 mark

Match the terms given in Column-A correctly with Column-B and choose the correct answer from the codes given below :

Column-AColumn-B
(a)Balance of Power(i)Giving up certain types of weapons
(b)Disarmament(ii)Security
(c)Migration(iii)Traditional security
(d)Freedom from threats(iv)New source of threat

Codes :

(a)(b)(c)(d)
(A)(iii)(i)(iv)(ii)
(B)(iv)(i)(iii)(ii)
(C)(iv)(iii)(ii)(i)
(D)(ii)(iv)(iii)(i)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/2/1

(A) a-(iii), b-(i), c-(iv), d-(ii)

Q8.2025 Main 59/2/1 · Q41 mark

Arrange the following in chronological order of their happening :

  1. India-China War
  2. India’s first test of a nuclear device
  3. Terrorists attack on World Trade Centre in America
  4. The Anti-Ballistic Missile Treaty

Choose the correct option :

  1. (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
  2. (ii), (iv), (iii), (i)
  3. (iv), (i), (iii), (ii)
  4. (i), (iv), (ii), (iii)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/2/1

(D) (i), (iv), (ii), (iii)

Q9.2025 Main 59/5/1 · Q31 mark

Match the terms with their meaning :

(a)Terrorism:(i)Coalition of countries
(b)Disarmament:(ii)Political violence
(c)Alliance:(iii)Absence of threats
(d)Security:(iv)Giving up certain kind of weapons

Options :

  1. a-(ii), b-(iv), c-(i), d-(iii)
  2. a-(iii), b-(i), c-(iv), d-(ii)
  3. a-(ii), b-(iv), c-(iii), d-(i)
  4. a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(iv), d-(i)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/5/1

(A) a-(ii), b-(iv), c-(i), d-(iii)

Q10.2025 Main 59/5/1 · Q41 mark

For Question number 4, two statements are given — one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Read these statements carefully and choose the correct option as the answer from the options (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below.

Assertion (A): Health epidemics such as HIV-AIDS, Bird Flu and Coronavirus are the new threats to security.

Reason (R): Security goes beyond military threats to include a wide range of threats affecting the human life.

Options :

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/5/1

(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A)

Q11.2025 Main 59/6/1 · Q71 mark

Which one of the following has hosted the world’s largest number of displaced people ?

  1. Middle East and North Africa
  2. Africa
  3. Europe
  4. Asia and Pacific
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/6/1

(B) Africa

Q12.2025 Main 59/6/1 · Q121 mark

Which one among the following is not an example of Arms Control ?

  1. Anti-Ballistic Missile (ABM) Treaty
  2. Strategic Arms Limitations Treaty II (SALT II)
  3. Military Alliance
  4. Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty (START)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/6/1

(C) Military Alliance

Q13.2024 Main 59/1/1 · Q51 mark

Which one of the following is not considered as a new source of threat to security ?

  1. Terrorism
  2. Hijacking of planes
  3. Use of drones
  4. War
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/1/1

(D) War

Q14.2024 Main 59/1/1 · Q61 mark

For Question number 6, two statements are given — one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Read these statements carefully and choose the correct option as the answer from the options (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below.

Assertion (A): An alliance is a coalition of states that coordinate their actions to deter or defend against military attack.

Reason (R): Countries form alliances to increase their effective power relative to another country or alliance.

Options :

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
  4. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/1/1

(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).

Q15.2024 Main 59/2/1 · Q31 mark

‘Balance of power’ requires countries to __________.

  1. give up certain kinds of weapons
  2. regulate acquisition and development of weapons
  3. coordinate their actions to defend against military attack
  4. maintain a favourable balance with other countries
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/2/1

(D) maintain a favourable balance with other countries

Q16.2024 Main 59/2/1 · Q41 mark

People who flee their homes but remain within national borders are called ____________.

  1. fugitives
  2. migrants
  3. internally displaced people
  4. indigenous people
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/2/1

(C) internally displaced people

Q17.2024 Main 59/4/1 · Q31 mark

A process in which the countries share ideas and information with their rivals is called ________.

  1. Alliance Building
  2. Arms control
  3. Confidence Building
  4. Balance of Power
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/4/1

(C) Confidence Building

Q18.2024 Main 59/4/1 · Q41 mark

People who seek better economic opportunities abroad are called ________.

  1. Immigrants
  2. Migrants
  3. Refugees
  4. Non-Residents
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/4/1

(B) Migrants

Q19.2024 Supp. 59/S/1 · Q31 mark

“Disarmament” requires all states to ________.

  1. give up certain kinds of weapons
  2. regulate the acquisition or development of weapons
  3. share information about arms with rivals
  4. coordinate their actions to deter or defend against military attack
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/S/1

(A) Give up certain kinds of weapons

Q20.2024 Supp. 59/S/1 · Q41 mark

People who flee from war, natural disaster or political persecution are called ________.

  1. Fugitives
  2. Expatriates
  3. Refugees
  4. Migrants
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/S/1

(C) Refugees

Q21.2023 Main 59/1/1 · Q41 mark

Which one of the following is not a threat to global security ?

  1. Global warming
  2. International terrorism
  3. Epidemics
  4. Rising prices
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/1/1

(d) Rising Prices.

Q22.2023 Main 59/2/1 · Q41 mark

Which one of the following is a concern under Traditional Security ?

  1. Attack by a neighbouring country
  2. Spread of any pandemic disease
  3. Global warming
  4. Spread of terrorism
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/2/1

(a) Attack by a neighbouring country

Q23.2023 Main 59/4/1 · Q81 mark

A process of exchanging information on defence matters between nations on a regular basis is known as ___________.

  1. Confidence-Building Measures
  2. Arms Control
  3. Alliance
  4. Disarmament
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/4/1

(a) Confidence-Building Measures

Q24.2023 Main 59/4/1 · Q91 mark

Which among the following is a threat to non-traditional security ?

  1. War
  2. Manufacturing of weapons
  3. Terrorism
  4. Internal disturbances
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/4/1

(c) Terrorism

Q25.2023 Supp. 59/C/1 · Q61 mark

In the traditional concept of security, the greatest danger to the security of a country is from _______.

  1. military threats from outside its borders
  2. economic crisis
  3. population explosion
  4. from epidemics
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/C/1

(a) Military threats from outside its borders

Q26.SQP 2025-26 · Q31 mark

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: In the traditional view of security, most threats to a country’s security come from outside its borders.

Statement II: In world politics, each country has to be responsible for its own security.

In the light of above statement, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. Only statement I is correct.
  2. Only statement II is correct
  3. Both statements I and II are correct.
  4. Both statements I and II are not correct.
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 · Marking Scheme

(C) Both statements I and II are correct.

Q27.SQP 2025-26 · Q51 mark

The idea of global security emerged in:

  1. 1960s
  2. 1970s
  3. 1980s
  4. 1990s
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 · Marking Scheme

(D) 1990s

Q28.2026 Main 59/2/1 · Q132 marks

Highlight any four threats to non-traditional security.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/2/1

(i) Terrorism

(ii) Global warming

(iii) Global Poverty

(iv) Health Epidemics

(v) Violation of Human Rights

(vi) Migration

(vii) Refugee problem

(viii) Internal Displacement.

(or any other threat) (Any four)

Q29.2026 Main 59/2/1 · Q162 marks

Explain any two differences between the refugees and the migrants.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/2/1
RefugeesMigrants
Refugees are those who flee from war, natural disaster or political persecution.Migrants are those who voluntarily leave their home country.
States generally accept refugees.States do not have to accept migrants.
Refugees leave their country of origin due to fear of violence, destruction of livelihood, identity and living environment.Migrants move to seek a better life & economic opportunities.

(any other relevant point) (Any two)

Q30.2025 Main 59/2/1 · Q172 marks

Suggest any two ways to reduce economic disparity between the poor and the rich countries at the global level.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/2/1

Ways :

  1. Countries should manage to control the population growth
  2. Raise per capita income
  3. Spread education
  4. Improve and invest in skills development

or any other relevant way (any two ways) (2x1=2)

Q31.2025 Main 59/2/1 · Q182 marks

State any two arms control treaties signed between the US and Soviet Union.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/2/1
  1. Strategic Arms Limitations Treaty II (SALT II)
  2. Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty (START)
  3. Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT)

(any two) (1+1=2)

Q32.2025 Main 59/6/1 · Q152 marks

Suggest any two measures to deal with health epidemics as a new threat to security.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/6/1

New threats to security can be dealt effectively by :

  1. Cooperative security.
  2. Abiding by the instructions of WHO.
  3. Making other nations aware about the threat of Health epidemics.
  4. Taking assistance from Red Cross and World Bank.

or any other relevant point (Any two) (2 × 1 = 2)

Q33.2025 Main 59/6/1 · Q162 marks

Explain the traditional notion of security.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/6/1

Traditional notion of security is the danger of being attacked by another country which involves military action. It is external threat which endangers the core values of sovereignty, independence and territorial integrity.

or any other relevant point (evaluate as a whole)

Q34.2025 Main 59/7/1 · Q142 marks

Describe the basic choices that any government has in responding to a threat of war.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/7/1

Basic choices any government has :

  1. To surrender
  2. To prevent the other side from attacking by promising to raise the costs of war to an unacceptable level; and
  3. To defend when war actually breaks out so as to deny the attacking country its objectives and to turn back or defeat the attacking forces together.

(Any two) (2 × 1 = 2)

Q35.2025 Supp. 59/S/1 · Q142 marks

Analyse the need of ‘balance of power’ as a component of traditional security.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/S/1

When countries look around them, they see that some countries are bigger and stronger. This is a clue to what might be a threat in the future. To be able to face such threats governments are sensitive to balance the power between their country and other countries. They work hard to maintain a favorable balance of power with other countries. Hence it is needed to be able to face the threat.

Q36.2024 Main 59/2/1 · Q142 marks

Explain the meaning of Global Security.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/2/1
  • Global security is also known as human security and falls under the category of Non-traditional view of Security.
  • The concept of global security emerged in the 1990’s in response to the global nature of threats such as global warming, international terrorism and health epidemics like AIDS, Bird Flu, and so on.
  • It is more concerned with the protection of people of states. It considers that the threat agenda should include hunger, disease and natural disasters because these kill far more people than war
  • It also encompasses economic security and ‘threats to human dignity’.
  • In its broadest formulation it stresses on ‘freedom from want’ and ‘freedom from fear’.
  • No country can resolve these problems alone and need international cooperation to resolve the problems like genocide, terrorism etc..

(Evaluate as a whole)

Q37.2024 Main 59/2/1 · Q172 marks

How has the strengthening of international norms and international institutions helped India protect its security interests ? Explain.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/2/1
  • (i) India’s support to the cause of Asian solidarity, decolonisation, disarmament helped India to emerge as a leader of newly independent countries and its leadership of NAM strengthened its security. India promoted non-alignment to help carve out an area of peace. Recently being a leader in NAM India ratified the Kyoto Protocol to check global warming.
  • (ii) India’s continuous support to UN and its programmes made India an effective member of the UN which indirectly strengthened its security.

(Or any other relevant point)

Q38.2024 Main 59/4/1 · Q142 marks

“Terrorism is a new threat to security.” Support the statement.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/4/1

Terrorism is a new threat to security because:

  1. Terrorism refers to political violence that targets civilians deliberately and indiscriminately.
  2. International terrorism involves citizens and territories of more than one country.
  3. Terrorist groups seek to change a political context or condition that they do not like, by force or threat of force.
  4. Civilian targets are chosen to terrorrise the public and unhappiness of the public is used as a weapon against national governments.
  5. The cases of terrorism involve hijacking planes or planting bombs in trains, cafes, markets and other crowded places.

(Any two points) (2x1=2)

Q39.2024 Main 59/4/1 · Q172 marks

Explain ‘Balance of Power’ as a component of traditional security.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/4/1

Governments are very sensitive to the balance of power between their country and other countries. They do work hard to maintain a favourable balance of power with other countries, specially those close by, those with whom they have differences, or with those they had conflicts in the past. To maintain a balance of power, a country must build its military power. Economic and technological power are the basis for military power.

(2)

Q40.2024 Supp. 59/S/1 · Q142 marks

How is ‘global poverty’ a new source of threat to security in the contemporary world ? Explain.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/S/1

Global poverty is a new source of threat to Human security as -

  1. Population is expected to triple in the next 50 years. World population—now at 760 crore— will grow to nearly 1000 crore by the middle of the 21st century. Rise in population will consume more resources that would lead to poverty.
  2. Many rich countries may see shrinkage of population. It will make rich states richer and poor states, with large populations, poorer. This disparity will create huge gap.
  3. Economic disparity between Northern and Southern countries involves a lot of problems.

Any other point (any two) (2x1=2)

Q41.2024 Supp. 59/S/1 · Q172 marks

How do economic growth and democracy help India in providing greater security ? Explain.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/S/1

Economic growth and democracy help India in providing greater security in different ways. There has been an attempt to develop economy to lift vast mass of citizens out of poverty and misery end huge economic inequalities. Democracy in India believes in resolving the issues and taking care of the regional aspirations, which provides human security. Here people have the right to voice their problems and demands before the government.

(2)

Q42.2023 Main 59/1/1 · Q152 marks

Explain the term ‘Security’.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/1/1

Security implies freedom from threats. Threats which damage the core values are extremely dangerous and can endanger these values beyond repair.

Q43.2023 Main 59/2/1 · Q132 marks

Explain the notion of traditional security.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/2/1

The traditional concept of ‘Security’ is that the greatest danger to a country is from military threats, threats by any other country endangering the core values of sovereignty and the independence and integrity. Some times, it can be internal like violence, separtists movement or revolt.

Q44.2023 Main 59/4/1 · Q152 marks

Explain the notion of traditional security.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/4/1
  • Security is absence of threats
  • Notion of traditional security is concerned with the core values of a state i.e. sovereignty, independence and territorial integrity.
  • It has two components : -External and Internal security
  • External security is related to war with neighbouring countries whereas the internal security is related to internal disturbances etc.

Any other relevant point

Q45.SQP 2025-26 · Q152 marks

Describe two forms of cooperative security as per its traditional notion.

Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 · Marking Scheme
  1. Disarmament: It bounds states to give up certain kinds of weapons to avoid mass destruction such as chemical weapons.
  2. Confidence Building: Cooperative security accepts confidence building as means of avoiding violence. It is the process, designed to ensure that rivals do not go to war through misunderstanding or misperception.
  3. Arms Control: It regulates the acquisition or development of weapons. The Anti-Ballistic Missile Treaty in 1972 tried to stop United States and Soviet Union from using ballistic missiles as a defensive shield to launch a nuclear attack.

(Any two points)

Q46.SQP 2025-26 · Q182 marks

Explain the meaning of global poverty.

Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 · Marking Scheme
  1. Global poverty means the poverty spread in the different parts of the World. It is likely to rise up to 9-10 billion in upcoming decades. Currently, half of the world’s population growth occurs in just six countries India, China, Pakistan, Nigeria, Bangladesh and Indonesia. Among the world’s poorest countries, population is expected to triple in the next 50 years, whereas population is shrinking in many rich countries.
  2. High per capita income and low population growth make rich state or rich social groups get richer, whereas low incomes and high population growth reinforce each other to make poor states and poor groups get poorer. Globally, this disparity contributes to the gap between the Northern and Southern countries of world.

(or Any other relevant point/s)

Q47.2026 Main 59/1/1 · Q204 marks

Highlight any two traditional measures which may be used by different countries to maintain their national security.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/1/1

Traditional measures-

(i) Military war to protect national security.

(ii) Disarmament and arms control regulates the acquisition or development of weapons.

(iii) Confidence Building measures among nations avoid war.

(iv) Balance of power and alliance building as a means to security.

(v) To strengthen the military power of the country.

(explain any two)

Q48.2026 Main 59/5/1 · Q214 marks

Highlight any four choices available to a state when its security is threatened by a possible war.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/5/1

Available Choices –

  • To surrender – means not to protest and face the enemy. But allowing the enemy to have its own terms and conditions to reach to some agreement.
  • To prevent the other side from Attacking –Under this choice the cost of the war is raised by using costly weapons and prolonging the fighting period- which makes the invader weak-so it stops or does not dare to attack the enemy country.
  • To defend itself and creating condition for the end of war through many other means and this process is called defence.
  • To have balance of power with other countries especially those close by , those with whom they have differences or with those they had conflicts in the past.
  • Alliance building- that is coalition of states that coordinate their actions to defend or deter against military attack

(Any four)

Q49.2025 Main 59/5/1 · Q204 marks

Explain India’s strategy to strengthen its security.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/5/1

Strategy of India

  1. To strengthen its military power
  2. To strengthen the international norms and international institutions to protect its security interests.
  3. Supported Asian solidarity and opposed colonisation and was for disarmament.
  4. Gearing up towards meeting security challenges within the country.
  5. To develop its economy in a way that the citizens of India are lifted out of poverty, misery and huge economic inequalities.

or any other relevant point (Assess as a whole)

Q50.2025 Main 59/7/1 · Q204 marks

Explain any two differences between the traditional notions of external and internal security.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/7/1

Difference between Traditional notion and External notion of security:-

External SecurityInternal Security
1. It includes military threat, balance of power and alliance building.1. It includes internal peace and order, separatist movements, civil war.
2. Threats comes from another country.2. Threats arise from inside the country.

(or any other relevant point) (2 + 2 = 4)

Q51.2025 Supp. 59/S/1 · Q214 marks

“Non-traditional view of security is all about human security.” Justify the statement with the help of two arguments.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/S/1
  1. Non-traditional notion of security is not only to defend the country from the military aggression – but to look after the general security of all human beings.
  2. It includes end of pollution, decline of epidemics, abolition of poverty and unemployment, security from the threats of terrorism etc., so security is all about the Human security.
  3. The human security agenda also encompasses economic security, abolition of global poverty and threat to human dignity.

(any two arguments) (2 × 2 = 4)

Q52.2024 Main 59/1/1 · Q21(a)4 marks

What is the primary goal of human security ? Explain the difference between the narrow and broad concepts of human security.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/1/1
  • (i) The primary goal of human security is the protection of individuals.
  • (ii) Narrow concept : It focuses on violent threats to individuals or the protection of communities and individuals from internal violence.
  • (iii) Broad Concept: Proponents of this concept argue that the threat agenda should include hunger, disease and natural disaster because these kill far more people than war. It encompasses economic security and threats to human dignity;

(1+1½+1½=4)

Q53.2024 Main 59/1/1 · Q21(b)4 marks

Explain the security challenges faced by the newly independent countries of Asia and Africa.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/1/1

The challenges faced by the newly independent countries.

  • (i) They faced the prospect of military conflict with their neighbouring countries.
  • (ii) They had to worry about internal military conflicts like in Pakistan, Bangladesh.
  • (iii) Many newly independent countries came to fear their neighbours even more than they feared the US or the soviet Union or the formal colonial power.
  • (iv) Many of them quarrel over borders and territories or control of people and population. Etc.
  • (v) Many of them are worried about threats from separatist movements to form independent countries.
  • (vi) Sometimes, the external and internal threats merge when a neighbor might instigate and internal separatist movement.

(Any four)

Q54.2023 Main 59/2/1 · Q194 marks

Suggest any two measures to deal with threats to the traditional security.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/2/1
  1. Strengthening of the armed forces.
  2. Managing balance of power with other countries.
  3. Building of an alliance
  4. Negotiation with the attacking country.

Or any other measure (any two) 2×2=4

Q55.2023 Main 59/3/1 · Q194 marks

Differentiate between the traditional and non-traditional notions of security.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/3/1

Difference between the traditional and non-traditional notion of Security:-

Traditional Notion of Security:-

  1. The greatest danger to a country is from Military threats from outside.
  2. This may endanger the core values of sovereignty and territorial integrity.
  3. Military actions also endanger the lives of ordinary citizens.
  4. It is also concerned with internal security. It may be threatened by civil war and internal separatists movements.

Non-Traditional Notion of Security:-

  1. It includes a wide range of threats and dangers affecting the conditions of human existence.
  2. Main proponents of non-traditional security are not just the state but also individuals or communities or indeed all of human kinds.
  3. Threats may be such as terrorism, human rights, global poverty and migration etc.
  4. It is also called ‘human security’ or ‘global security’.

(Any two) 2×2=4

Q56.2026 Main 59/3/1 · Q30(a)6 marks

Highlight the differences between the external and internal notions of security in the contemporary world.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/3/1
External Notion of securityInternal Notion of security
(i) The greatest danger to a country is from military threats(i) Danger comes from within the country
(ii) Security policy is concerned with preventing war and with limiting or ending war(ii) It is the concern of governments of any country
(iii) Balance of power may pose a great threat to other countries(iii) Weak law and order within a country may be a threat to the country
(iv) Alliance formed on national interest may also prove threat to the other nations.(iv) Civil war or demand for separation may pose a threat to any country

(any other relevant point) (Any three to be explained)

Q57.2026 Main 59/3/1 · Q30(b)6 marks

“The non-traditional notions of security are more comprehensive than the traditional notions of security.” Support the statement with the help of suitable examples.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/3/1
  • Non-Traditional notion of security go beyond military threats to include a wide range of threats and dangers affecting the conditions of human existence.
  • These begin by questioning the traditional referent of security. In doing so, they also question the other three elements of security-what is being secured, from what kind of threats and the approach to security.
  • In the traditional security conception, the referent is the state with its territory and governing institutions. In the non-traditional conceptions, the referent is expanded. According to Proponents of non-traditional security not just the state but also individuals or communities or indeed of all of humankind.
  • Non-traditional views of security have been called-human security or global security.
  • Non traditional notion deals with all the contemporary threats like-

(i) Global Poverty

(ii) Epidemics

(iii) Terrorism

(iv) Environmental degradation

(v) Human rights violation

Whereas Traditional security is related to the thoughts of war and military action - external or internal both.

(any other relevant point) (Any three to be explained)

Q58.2026 Main 59/4/1 · Q28(a)6 marks

Analyse the non-traditional notion of security as a notion of human security.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/4/1

Analysis of the Non-traditional notion of security –

Non traditional notion of security goes beyond the military threats and wars. It is to protect the people from many new threats such as –

(i) Terrorism

(ii) Global poverty

(iii) Environmental problems.

(iv) Epidemics

(v) Migration etc.

All above sources of threat which related to Non-traditional security threats are also threats to human security. Hence the non –traditional notion of security is more or less related to Human Security.

(Any three to be analyzed)

Q59.2026 Main 59/4/1 · Q28(b)6 marks

“India has given priority to non-traditional security in the last two decades.” Analyse the statement with examples.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/4/1

Priority given to Non-traditional security -

(i) India have taken many steps to reduce poverty-MGNREGS

(ii) Steps to add new medical facilities for the protection from epidemics. Large vaccination programmes etc.- Covid Vaccination

(iii) Steps taken against the terrorism- PRAHAAR

(iv) Steps taken to protect the environment- The Energy conservation Act 2001

(v) Respect for the human rights- NHRC(1993)

(any other relevant point) (Any three to be analyzed)

Q60.2026 Supp. 59/7/1 · Q28(a)6 marks

“The Non-traditional Notion of Security is all about Human Security.” Explain.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/7/1

The Non-traditional notion of security goes beyond the traditional threat of war from any other country.

Non-traditional views of security have been called “ human security” or “global security” as it includes :-

  1. Security against terrorism which is fatal for the innocent people.
  2. Security from the epidemics like Polio, AIDS, Malaria, Covid or any other. The medicines and vaccinations are the measure that provide security to Human beings.
  3. Security against poverty. Poverty is a curse that is responsible for many problems.
  4. Security against migration – as migration puts a pressure on the resources and reduces the jobs.
  5. Security against global warming, environmental pollution are also to provide Human Security.

(Any other) (Any three points)

Q61.2026 Supp. 59/7/1 · Q28(b)6 marks

Explain any four components of India’s present security strategy.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/7/1

Four Components of India’s Security Strategy –

  1. Strengthening its military capabilities having effective weapons and improved warfare.
  2. Strengthening international norms and international institutions to protect its security interests.
  3. To remain vigilant about the internal threats within the country.
  4. Development of its economy to become self sufficient and strong to face the economic challenges. Development to come out of poverty and to be able to assort.

(Any other) (Any four)

Q62.2025 Main 59/1/1 · Q28(a)6 marks

Explain any three security challenges faced by the newly independent countries of Asia and Africa after the Second World War.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/1/1

Challenges :

  1. As member of cold war alliances, they feared being dragged into hostilities and hot war in support of the two super power.
  2. Most of these wars were fought in the third world. Some colonial people feared attack by their former colonial rulers. Therefore they had to defend themselves against an imperial war.
  3. The new countries faced the prospects of military conflict with neighbouring countries.
  4. The newly independent countries faced external and internal threats which posed serious challenges to their security.
  5. Some of these countries worried about threats from separatist movement within the country.
  6. Terrorism from outside the borders.
  7. High population and low per capita income.
  8. Problem of social injustice, discrimination based on caste, creed, religion, which effects the Human Rights.

or any other relevant point (any three) (3x2=6)

Q63.2025 Main 59/1/1 · Q28(b)6 marks

Explain any three differences between the Non-traditional and Traditional notion of security.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/1/1

Difference between traditional and non traditional notion of security.

  1. In traditional security, the greatest danger to a country is from military threats from neighboring countries, eg war, military action, etc. Non- traditional notion of security goes beyond military threats to include a wide range of threats and dangers affecting the conditions of human existence.e.g. disease, natural disaster, hunger etc.
  2. In traditional security, the referent is the state with its territory and governing institutions. In the non-traditional conceptions, the referent is expanded. It is not just the state but all of humankind.
  3. The components of traditional security include deterrence, defence, balance of power and alliance building. While non- traditional view includes human security or global security.
  4. In traditional security, limiting violence is possible through cooperation, disarmament, arms control and through confidence building measures. Non-traditional threats can be secured through cooperative security.

or any other difference (any three) (2+2+2=6)

Q64.2025 Main 59/4/1 · Q28(a)6 marks

Explain any three new sources of threats to non-traditional security.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/4/1

Three new sources of threat to Non-traditional Security :

  1. Terrorism
  2. Human Rights
  3. Global Poverty
  4. Migration of population
  5. Health Epidemics

or any other relevant point (Any three to be explained) (3 × 2 = 6)

Q65.2025 Main 59/4/1 · Q28(b)6 marks

Explain any three components of traditional security policy.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/4/1

Components of Security :

  1. Traditional policy - to face the threat of war is – to surrender or to prevent or to raise the cost of war. It is defence against war.
  2. Balance of power – to maintain relations with other countries to be able to face the war if imposed.
  3. To build alliance – Coalition of state that coordinate their actions to deter or to defend against military attack.

or any other relevant point (Any three points to be explained) (3 × 2 = 6)

Q66.2024 Main 59/3/1 · Q28(a)6 marks

Explain any three security challenges faced by the newly independent countries of Asia and Africa after the Second World War.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/3/1

Security Challenges:-

  • (i) The newly independent countries of Asia and Africa faced the prospect of military conflict with neighbouring countries. Also to strengthen their internal military capabilities in order to overcome their own internal military conflict.
  • (ii) These countries had the fear from the neighbouring countries more than that from the super powers.
  • (iii) These newly independent countries had disputes over borders and territories or control of people and population or all of these simultaneously.
  • (iv) Some of these countries had the challenge of internal threats in the form of separatist movements and socio-economic inequalities. They also faced the problem of social in justice that affects the Human Rights.

(or any other relevant point) (any three)

Q67.2024 Main 59/3/1 · Q28(b)6 marks

Explain any three components of the Indian security strategy.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/3/1

Indian security strategy-

  • (i) Strengthening its own military capabilities.
  • (ii) To strengthen international norms and institutions to protect its security interests.
  • (iii) To meet security challenges within the country from the states of Nagaland, Mizoram and Jammu Kashmir.
  • (iv) To bring the citizens out of poverty and economic inequaltities.

(or any other relevant point) (any three )

Q68.2024 Main 59/5/1 · Q27(a)6 marks

Explain any three reasons for spending more on traditional security than on non-traditional security by India.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/5/1

Reasons:

  1. India has been involved in conflict with its neighbours, Pakistan in 1947-48, 1965, 1971 and 1999 and with China in 1962.
  2. India had to update its army after the setback in 1962.
  3. India had to face some internal separatists movements.
  4. It had to equip itself with nuclear power to face the challenges from the neighbouring countries.

Or any other relevant point.

(any three to be explained) (3x2=6)

Q69.2024 Main 59/5/1 · Q27(b)6 marks

Explain any three new sources of threat to security with examples.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/5/1

New Source of threat are:

  1. Terrorism – It refers to political violence that targets civilians indiscriminately. They use civilians as a weapon against national government to change a political context or condition they do not like. Example : Plane hijacking, planting bombs at crowded places.
  2. Violation of Human Rights – These are in the form of political, economical, social rights and the rights of colonized people or ethnic and indigenous minorities. Violation may attract the invasion by international community to defend the human rights of the people. Example – Iraq’s invasion of Kuwait, Indonesian military’s killing of people in East Timor.
  3. Health epidemics – Due to migration, business, tourism etc. epidemics like HIV – AIDS, bird flu, and SARS have rapidly spread across countries. By 2003, an estimated 4 crore people were infected with HIV – AIDS worldwide. Treatment of these epidemics have proved to be a major factor in driving the region backward into deeper poverty.
  4. Global poverty
  5. Migration

or any other relevant threat

(any three to be explained) (3x2=6)

Q70.2023 Main 59/5/1 · Q28(a)6 marks

Explain terrorism as a new source of threat to the security with the help of any two examples.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/5/1
  • (i) Terrorism is a new threat to non- additional security as innocent people are targeted and killed to achieve the desired goals.
  • ii) Terrorism refers to political violence that targets civilians deliberately and in discriminately
  • iii) Terrorism refers to systematic use of brutal violence that creates an atmosphere of fear in society.
  • iv) Terrorist group seek to change a political context or condition that they do not like by force or threat of force.
  • v) Civilian targets are usually chosen to terrorise the public and use the unhappines of the public as a weapon against national government or other parties in conflict.

(Any one point)

Examples:

  • i) The hijacking of planes and attacking the World Trade Centre in USA is a classical example of terrorism. Thousands of people lost their lives.
  • ii) The terrorist activities in Jammu and Kashmir launched by Pakistan is another example which has jeopardised the peace and normal life in the region. India is facing this problem since long.
  • iii) Similar terror attacks have occurred in Middle East, Europe, Latin America and South Asia.

(If a candidate gives only one example even then full marks for the part can be awarded ) (any two)

Q71.SQP 2026-27 · Q29(A)6 marks

“The secure states do not imply the secure people in itself". With reference to this statement explain the non-traditional concept of human security.

Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 · Marking Scheme

Non-traditional notions of security go beyond military threats to include a wide range of threats and dangers affecting the conditions of human existence.

  1. Human security is about the protection of people more than the protection of states. The traditional focus on protecting a state's borders and sovereignty does not always guarantee the well-being of the people within those borders.
  2. History shows that more people have been killed by their own governments (through genocide, famine, or internal conflict) than by foreign armies.
  3. All proponents of human security agree that its primary goal is the protection of individuals.
    Proponents of the ‘narrow’ concept of human security focus on violent threats to individuals or, according to former UN Secretary-General Kofi Annan, “the protection of communities and individuals from internal violence”.
  4. Proponents of the ‘broad’ concept of human security argue that the threat agenda should include hunger, disease and natural disasters because these kill far more people than war, genocide and terrorism combined. Human security policy, should protect people from these threats as well as from violence.
  5. Human security shifts the focus from the protection of the state to the protection of the individual.
  6. It emphasizes two main goals:
    Freedom from Fear: This involves protecting people from violent threats, including war, ethnic cleansing, terrorism, and human rights abuses.
    Freedom from Want: This addresses fundamental human needs, such as ensuring economic security, access to food and healthcare, and protection from environmental disasters.

(Assess the answer as a whole or other relevant point)

Q72.SQP 2026-27 · Q29(B)6 marks

Explain balance of power and alliance building as components of traditional notion of security.

Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 · Marking Scheme

The traditional notion of security focuses primarily on the use or threat of military force to protect a state's sovereignty, territorial integrity, and political independence from external aggression.

Balance of Power: The balance of power as a component of traditional security policy means that not every country is equal in terms of power. When other countries are looked around, it can be judged easily that who is threat for our nation in coming future. Some countries are bigger and stronger. For instance, a neighbouring country may not be preparing to attack. In fact, there is no strong reason for a war or attack to happen. But the fact that the country is very strong is a sign that it may be aggressive in future Therefore Governments are very sensitive to the balance of power between their country and other countries.

It is important to maintain a favourable balance of power with the countries with whom they have differences and with those they have had issues in the past.

In the following way state/nation can achieve balance of power:

  1. Building up one’s military power is essential to have a balance of power.
  2. Developing economic and technological power are also important since they are the basis for military power.

Alliance building:

  1. An alliance is a coalition of states that coordinate their actions to deter or defend against military attack.
  2. Most alliances are formalised in written treaties and are based on a clear identification of who constitutes the threat. Countries form alliances to increase their effective power relative to another country or alliance.
  3. Alliances are based on national interests and can change when national interests change. For example, the US backed the Islamic militants in Afghanistan against the Soviet Union in the 1980s, but later attacked them when Al Qaeda—a group of Islamic militants led by Osama bin Laden—launched terrorist strikes against America on 11 September 2001.

(Assess the answer as a whole or other relevant point)

Part A · Contemporary World Politics

6. Environment and Natural Resources

Q1.2026 Main 59/3/1 · Q21 mark

The major objective of ‘Kyoto Protocol’ was :

  1. to reduce greenhouse gas emissions.
  2. to reduce pollution by increasing forest cover.
  3. to provide grant-in-aid to the developing nations to control environmental pollution.
  4. to promote sustainable development.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/3/1

(A) To reduce greenhouse gas emissions

Q2.2026 Main 59/3/1 · Q31 mark

The concept of ‘sustainable development’ emphasises on :

  1. utilizing maximum resources for human development.
  2. increasing Gross Domestic Product (GDP) of a country.
  3. combining economic growth with ecological responsibility.
  4. maximising the efforts for environmental conservation.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/3/1

(C) Combining economic growth with ecological responsibility

Q3.2026 Main 59/4/1 · Q51 mark

For Question number 5, two statements are given — one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Read these statements carefully and choose the correct option as the answer from the options (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below.

Assertion (A): India signed and ratified the Kyoto Protocol in August 2002.

Reason (R): India was reluctant to participate in global efforts of environment conservation.

Options :

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/4/1

(C) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false.

Q4.2026 Main 59/4/1 · Q61 mark

Which one of the following statements is true about Global Commons ?

  1. Global Commons are determined by the United Nations.
  2. Global Commons are outside the sovereign jurisdiction of any one state.
  3. Global Commons have been determined by the Kyoto Protocol.
  4. Global Commons are owned by big powers.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/4/1

(B) Global Commons are outside the _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _.

Q5.2025 Main 59/2/1 · Q51 mark

Which one among the following agreements was to cut the green house gas emissions ?

  1. Antarctic Treaty
  2. Kyoto Protocol
  3. Montreal Protocol
  4. Antarctic Environmental Protocol
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/2/1

(B) Kyoto Protocol

Q6.2025 Main 59/2/1 · Q121 mark

In which country was an Australian Mining Company ‘WMC’ opposed ?

  1. Singapore
  2. Philippines
  3. Thailand
  4. Japan
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/2/1

(B) Philippines

Q7.2025 Main 59/7/1 · Q71 mark

The term ‘Sustainable Development’ implies :

  1. Combining economic growth with ecological responsibility.
  2. Combining economic growth with social responsibility.
  3. Combining economic growth with per capita income.
  4. Combining economic growth with national income.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/7/1

(A) Combining economic growth with ecological responsibility.

Q8.2025 Main 59/7/1 · Q101 mark

In which layer of the atmosphere is ozone found ?

  1. Troposphere
  2. Stratosphere
  3. Mesosphere
  4. Thermosphere
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/7/1

(B) Stratosphere

Q9.2024 Main 59/2/1 · Q51 mark

Match List I with List II and choose the correct option :

List IList II
1. Kyoto Protocol(i) List of developmental practices
2. Electricity Act of 2003, India(ii) Economic growth with ecological responsibility
3. Agenda 21(iii) Aims to cut greenhouse gas emissions
4. Sustainable Development(iv) Encourages use of renewable energy

Options :

  1. 1-(iii), 2-(iv), 3-(i), 4-(ii)
  2. 1-(ii), 2-(iii), 3-(iv), 4-(i)
  3. 1-(iv), 2-(i), 3-(iii), 4-(ii)
  4. 1-(i), 2-(ii), 3-(iii), 4-(iv)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/2/1

(A) 1-(iii), 2-(iv), 3-(i), 4-(ii)

Q10.2024 Main 59/2/1 · Q61 mark

For Question number 6, two statements are given — one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Read these statements carefully and choose the correct option as the answer from the options (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below.

Assertion (A): Oil continues to be the most important resource in global strategy.

Reason (R): The immense wealth associated with oil generates political struggles.

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/2/1

(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).

Q11.2024 Main 59/4/1 · Q51 mark

Match the List-I correctly with List-II :

List-IList-II
a.Antarctic Treatyi.1997
b.Montreal Protocolii.1991
c.Antarctic Environmental Protocoliii.1987
d.Kyoto Protocoliv.1959

Options :

abcd
(A)iviiiiii
(B)iiiiiiiv
(C)iiiviiii
(D)iiiiivii
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/4/1

(A) iv iii ii i

Q12.2024 Main 59/4/1 · Q61 mark

In the following question, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Choose the appropriate option as the answer.

Assertion (A): India, China and other developing countries were exempted from the requirements of Kyoto Protocol.

Reason (R): Their contribution to the emission of green house gases during the industrialisation period was not significant.

Options:

  1. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  2. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  3. (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect.
  4. (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/4/1

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Q13.2024 Main 59/5/1 · Q41 mark

Which one of the following encourages the use of renewable energy ?

  1. Energy Conservation Act
  2. Environment Protection Act
  3. Electricity Act
  4. National Auto Fuel Policy
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/5/1

(C) Electricity Act

Q14.2024 Main 59/5/1 · Q101 mark

In the following question, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Choose the correct option as answer.

Assertion (A): Presently the global atmosphere is warming up.

Reason (R): A steady decline in the total amount of Ozone in the earth’s stratosphere.

Options:

  1. Both the Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) are correct, and the Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  2. Both the Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) are correct, but the Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  3. The Assertion (A) is correct, but the Reason (R) is incorrect.
  4. The Assertion (A) is incorrect, but the Reason (R) is correct.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/5/1

(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct but the Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A)

Q15.2024 Supp. 59/S/1 · Q51 mark

Match the List-I with List-II and choose the correct option as answer :

List-IList-II
1.The Energy Conservation Act, India(i)1975
2.The Electricity Act, India(ii)1992
3.Earth Summit(iii)2001
4.World Council of Indigenous Peoples(iv)2003

Options :

  1. 1-(iv), 2-(i), 3-(iii), 4-(ii)
  2. 1-(iii), 2-(iv), 3-(ii), 4-(i)
  3. 1-(ii), 2-(iii), 3-(i), 4-(iv)
  4. 1-(i), 2-(ii), 3-(iv), 4-(iii)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/S/1

(B) 1-(iii), 2-(iv), 3-(ii), 4-(i)

Q16.2024 Supp. 59/S/1 · Q61 mark

For this question, two statements are given - one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Read these statements carefully and choose the correct option as the answer from the options (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below.

Assertion (A): Common property resources have dwindled in size, quality and availability to the poor in much of the world.

Reason (R): A combination of factors including privatisation, agricultural intensification, population growth and ecosystem degradation are responsible for degradation of common property.

Options:

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/S/1

(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).

Q17.2023 Main 59/1/1 · Q51 mark

Which of the following statements about environment are correct ?

  1. Environmental concerns are part of the global politics.
  2. A conference on environment was held in Rio-de-Janeiro in 1992.
  3. The UN has assigned the environmental programmes to UN Human Rights Commission.
  4. The Earth Summit was organised by the United Nations.

Choose the correct option.

  1. (i), (iii), (iv)
  2. (i), (ii), (iv)
  3. (i), (ii), (iii)
  4. (ii), (iii), (iv)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/1/1

(b) (i), (ii), (iv)

Q18.2023 Main 59/2/1 · Q51 mark

Which of the following resources is NOT a global common ?

  1. Antarctica
  2. Ocean floor
  3. Outer space
  4. Forests
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/2/1

(d) Forests

Q19.2023 Main 59/5/1 · Q31 mark

Fill in the following blank with an appropriate term from among the following :

_______ means the progress that meets the needs of the present generation without compromising the need of future generation.

  1. Global commons
  2. Development without destruction
  3. Sustainable development
  4. Politics of developed nations
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/5/1

(c) Sustainable Development

Q20.SQP 2025-26 · Q21 mark

Agenda-21 is related to which one of the following?

  1. Rio Summit
  2. Antarctic Treaty
  3. Montreal Protocol
  4. Antarctic Environmental Protocol
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 · Marking Scheme

(A) Rio Summit

Q21.SQP 2025-26 · Q61 mark

In the following question, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason(R). Choose the appropriate option as answer:

Assertion (A): At the G-8 meeting in June 2005, India pointed out that the per capita emission rates of the developing countries are a tiny fraction of those in the developed world.

Reason (R): A review of the implementation of the agreements at the Earth Summit in Rio was undertaken by India in 1997.

Options:

  1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
  2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
  3. A is true, but R is false.
  4. A is false, but R is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 · Marking Scheme

(B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

Q22.2026 Main 59/1/1 · Q152 marks

Explain any two human activities responsible for degradation of environment.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/1/1

(i) Cutting of trees.

(ii) Overuse of natural resources.

(iii) Use of chemicals in agriculture.

(iv) Increasing population

(v) Burning of fossil fuels

(vi) Pollution caused by different human activities.

(vii) Increasing Industrialization and urbanisation.

(or any other) (Any Two)

Q23.2026 Main 59/4/1 · Q142 marks

Name any four Global Commons.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/4/1

(i) Earth’s Atmosphere

(ii) Antarctica

(iii) The Ocean floor

(iv) Outer space

Q24.2026 Main 59/4/1 · Q152 marks

“Water is a crucial resource that is relevant to global politics.” Justify the statement with the help of one example.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/4/1

(i) Regional variations and the increasing scarcity of fresh water in some parts of the world point to the possibility of disagreements over shared water and may lead to conflicts.

(ii) Many states have used force to protect or seize fresh water resources.

(iii) Water is an important issue for international politics.

These points justify the statement

Example – (i) The Indus River water agreement

(ii) Violence in Israel, Syria and Jordan.

(iii) Threats to Turkey, Syria and Iraq.

(any other relevant point) (Any one example)

Q25.2026 Supp. 59/7/1 · Q152 marks

Explain the meaning of ‘Kyoto Protocol’.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/7/1

The Kyoto Protocol is an international agreement setting targets for industrialised countries to cut their greenhouse gas emissions.

Q26.2025 Main 59/1/1 · Q162 marks

Name any four global commons.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/1/1
  1. Earth atmosphere
  2. Antartica
  3. Ocean floor
  4. Outer space

or any other relevant goal/example (any four) (4x½=2)

Q27.2025 Main 59/4/1 · Q142 marks

Define the Indigenous people.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/4/1

Indigenous people comprise the descendants of people who inhabited the present territory of a country at the time when persons of a different culture or ethnic origin arrived there from other parts of the world and overcame them.

(Candidate may define the same in his/her words.)

Q28.2025 Main 59/5/1 · Q142 marks

Name any four elements of Global Commons.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/5/1
  1. Earth’s atmosphere
  2. Antarctica
  3. The ocean floor
  4. The outer space

(4 × ½ = 2)

Q29.2024 Main 59/5/1 · Q132 marks

Explain any two outcomes of the ‘Earth Summit’ held in June 1992 at Rio-de-Janeiro.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/5/1

Outcomes:

  1. A list of development practices called “Agenda 21” were recommended.
  2. There was consensus on sustainable development.
  3. The principle of ‘common but differentiated responsibilities’ was accepted.

Or any other relevant outcome

(any two outcomes) (2x1=2)

Q30.2024 Main 59/5/1 · Q142 marks

Analyse any two reasons as to why issues of environment and natural resources have become a part of the World Politics.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/5/1

Reasons:

  1. Throughout the world cultivable area is barely expanding any more and a substantial portion of existing agricultural land is loosing fertility.
  2. About 1.2 billion people in developing countries have no access to safe drinking water.
  3. Natural forest are being cut down throughout the world which has disestablished the climate.
  4. A steady decline in the total amount of ozone is taking place in the earth’s stratosphere which is posing real danger to eco system.
  5. These issues can be solved at the global level by cooperation of the governments of various countries.

Or any other relevant reason.

(any two reasons) (2x1=2)

Q31.SQP 2026-27 · Q152 marks

State any four factors that have caused common property resources to decline in size and quality.

Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 · Marking Scheme
  1. Privatisation
  2. Agricultural intensification
  3. Population growth
  4. Ecosystem degradation

(All four or other relevant point/s) (1/2x4=2)

Q32.2026 Main 59/1/1 · Q214 marks

Describe any four initiatives taken across the world to create awareness about the protection of the environment.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/1/1

Initiatives:-

(i) The club of Rome published a book in 1972 entitled ‘Limits to Growth’ to create awareness.

(ii) International agencies including the United Nations Environment programme (UNEP) began holding international conference promoting detailed studies to get a more coordinated and effective response to environmental problems.

(iii) The Brundtland Report, ‘Our Common Future’ warned that the traditional patterns of economic development were not sustainable.

(iv) Earth Summit was held to prepare agenda and programme for the protection of environment.

(or any other relevant point) ( any four points)

Q33.2026 Main 59/3/1 · Q23(a)4 marks

Why have the global efforts to protect the environment not been as successful as desired ? Analyse the reasons.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/3/1

Reasons –

(i) Because all the states don’t want to stop their development which is a cause of degradation of environment.

(ii) Global North wants to discuss the environmental issues as it stands now and wants everyone to be equally responsible for ecological conservation.

(iii) Global South claims that Global North is more responsible for their ecological degradation.

(iv) Responsibilities to protect environment are being shifted to each other.

(or any other relevant point) ( any two to be explained)

Q34.2026 Main 59/3/1 · Q23(b)4 marks

Evaluate the efforts made to achieve the objectives of the Rio Declaration by the developed and developing countries.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/3/1

Rio-Declaration produced conventions dealing with climate change, Biodiversity and forestry recommended a list of development practices but the problem of environment is getting worse day by day because:

(i) Commitments are not being followed strictly.

(ii) No country wants to do compromise at the cost of developments.

(iii) Population is increasing.

(iv) Industrialisation is on the rise.

(v) Resources are limited and the ultimate use of these causes environmental degradation.

(or any other relevant point) ( any two to be explained)

Q35.2026 Supp. 59/7/1 · Q19(a)4 marks

Highlight any four environmental concerns that have become a part of global politics.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/7/1

Four environmental concerns –

  1. Cultivable area is not expanding any more in most of the countries.
  2. Access to safe drinking water. About 2.4 billion people do not have easy access to safe drinking water.
  3. Deforestation - The continuous loss of biodiversity due to destruction of habitats in those areas which are rich in species.
  4. A steady decline in the total amount of Ozone in the atmosphere.
  5. Coastal pollution is increasing.

These concerns have become part of the global politics.

(Any other) (Any four)

Q36.2026 Supp. 59/7/1 · Q19(b)4 marks

Highlight any two outcomes of the Rio Summit held in 1992.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/7/1

Outcomes of the Rio Summit –

  1. Interests of the developing countries were taken into consideration and it was decided that the special needs of the developing countries must be taken into account while framing international environmental law.
  2. The concept of common but differentiated responsibilities was accepted.
  3. Developed countries should contribute more for protection of environment.

(Any other relevant point) (Any two)

Q37.2025 Main 59/1/1 · Q214 marks

Suggest any four steps for the Indian Government to take to check the pollution and save the environment.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/1/1

Suggestions :

  1. More plantation drives.
  2. Clean fuel policy for vehicles.
  3. To frame policies to reduce pollution created by industries.
  4. Optimum use of renewable energy.
  5. Energy conservation
  6. Ban on polluting vehicles.
  7. Use of Natural Gas / Clean coal technology.

or any other relevant suggestion (any four suggestions) (4x1=4)

Q38.2025 Main 59/2/1 · Q264 marks

Study the given picture and answer the questions that follow :

(The given cartoon is about USA’s invasion on a Gulf Country.)

Figure from the paper

(26.1) Which one of the following is the most important resource in global strategy ?

  1. Water
  2. Oil
  3. Land
  4. Automobile

(26.2) Which of the following regions accounts for about 30% of global oil production ?

  1. Europe
  2. China
  3. Gulf Region
  4. Japan

(26.3) Which Gulf country was invaded by US America ?

  1. Iraq
  2. Saudi Arabia
  3. Kuwait
  4. Iran

(26.4) What was the objective of the United States of America to attack the Gulf country ?

  1. To get control on the oil resources
  2. To get the territory of a country
  3. To establish its army headquarters
  4. To stop USSR from entering this region
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/2/1

26.1 (B) Oil

26.2 (C) Gulf region

26.3 (A) Iraq

26.4 (A) To get control on the oil resources

(1+1+1+1=4)

Q39.2025 Main 59/2/1 · Q26 (VI)4 marks

Note : The following questions are only for the Visually Impaired Candidates in lieu of question number 26.

(26.1) Name the largest oil producer country.

(26.2) Which region produces 30% of the total oil produced in the world ?

(26.3) Which Gulf country was invaded by USA ?

(26.4) Explain the objective of the US to attack the Gulf country.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/2/1

(26.1) Saudi Arab

(26.2) Gulf region

(26.3) Iraq

(26.4) To get control on the oil resources

(1+1+1+1=4)

Q40.2025 Main 59/4/1 · Q214 marks

Explain any four environmental concerns that have become important for global politics.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/4/1

Environmental Concerns :

  1. Throughout the world, cultivable area is barely expanding any more.
  2. Millions of people do not have access to the safe drinking water.
  3. Deforestation – Natural forests are being cutdown resulting into loss of bio-diversity.
  4. A steady decline in the total amount of ozone in the Earth’s atmosphere.
  5. Coastal pollution is on increase.

or any other relevant point (Any four) (4 × 1 = 4)

Q41.2025 Main 59/5/1 · Q214 marks

Explain the geo-politics of resources with the help of the example of ‘water’ as a crucial resource.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/5/1

Resource geo-politics is all about who gets what, when, where and how resources have provided means and motives of global European power expansion.

Water is a crucial resource relevant to global politics. Scarcity of fresh water leads to possibility of disagreement over sharing of river waters. Water wars are possible. There are many other reasons of geo-politics like pollution of water, excessive irrigation, construction of dams, degradation of the quality of water. States have used force to protect or seize fresh water resources. Examples of violence between Israel, Syria and Jordan in 1950s and 1960s over attempts by each side to divert water from the Jordan and Yarmuk rivers. A number of studies show that countries that share rivers are involved in militarily conflicts with each other.

(Assess as a whole)

Q42.2025 Main 59/7/1 · Q264 marks

Study the cartoon given below and answer the questions based on it :

Figure from the paper

  1. Which country has attacked any other country to have control on the ‘Oil’ resource ?

    1. India
    2. Pakistan
    3. United States of America
    4. United Kingdom
  2. Which one of the following country is rich in the ‘Oil’ resource ?

    1. Saudi Arbia
    2. Japan
    3. Italy
    4. Vietnam
  3. Which one of the following is an example of a war for getting control of the natural resources like oil ?

    1. Indo-China War 1962
    2. Indo-Pak War 1971
    3. Gulf War
    4. Second World War
  4. Which one of the following is the most appropriate message given by the cartoon ?

    1. Oil is an important resource for developed countries.
    2. Oil is cheap for making payment.
    3. Big powers can attack the small countries to grab oil resources.
    4. Oil producing countries need the help of big powers.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/7/1

(i) (C) United States of America

(ii) (A) Saudi Arbia

(iii) (C) Gulf War

(iv) (C) Big powers can attack the small countries to grab oil resources.

(1 + 1 + 1 + 1 = 4)

Q43.2025 Main 59/7/1 · Q26 (VI)4 marks

Note : The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates only, in lieu of Question No. 26 :

(26.1) In which year was the Earth Summit held ?

(26.2) Name the international agreement that targets to cut the greenhouse gas emissions.

(26.3) Name the region that accounts for 30 percent of global oil production.

(26.4) Which people in India are usually described as indigenous people ?

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/7/1

(26.1) 1992

(26.2) Kyoto Protocol

(26.3) Gulf Region

(26.4) Scheduled Tribes

(1 + 1 + 1 + 1 = 4)

Q44.2024 Main 59/2/1 · Q244 marks

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow :

India is of the view that the major responsibility of curbing emission of greenhouse gases rests with the developed countries, which have accumulated emissions over a long period of time. India pointed out that the per capita emission rates of the developing countries are a tiny fraction of those in the developed world.

(i) India signed and ratified the Kyoto Protocol in :

  1. August 2000
  2. August 2001
  3. August 2002
  4. August 2003

(ii) Why were some developing countries exempted from the requirements of the Kyoto Protocol ?

  1. They were pioneers in developing eco-friendly technology.
  2. They were assisting some other countries to adopt clean technologies.
  3. They had already launched renewable energy programmes.
  4. Their contribution to emission of greenhouse gases was insignificant.

(iii) Where was the ‘Earth Summit’ held ?

  1. Paris
  2. Rio de Janeiro
  3. Kyoto
  4. Montreal

(iv) Which one of the following is an example of ‘Global Commons’ ?

  1. The Great Barrier Reef
  2. The Grand Canyon
  3. The Outer Space
  4. The Sahara Desert
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/2/1

(i) (C) August 2002

(ii) (D) their contribution to emission of greenhouse gasses was insignificant.

(iii) (B) Rio de Janerio

(iv) (C) Outer space

Q45.2024 Main 59/4/1 · Q244 marks

Read the passage given below carefully and answer the questions that follow :

The growing focus on environmental issues within the arena of global politics was firmly consolidated at United Nations Conference on Environment and Development held in Rio de Janeiro of Brazil. This was also called the Earth Summit.

  1. In which year was the Earth Summit held ?
    1. 1990
    2. 1991
    3. 1992
    4. 1993
  2. Which one of the following countries was exempted from the requirements of the Kyoto Protocol ?
    1. USA
    2. United Kingdom
    3. France
    4. China
  3. Which one of the following was not an outcome of the Rio Summit ?
    1. Agenda-21
    2. Sustainable Development
    3. Common but differentiated responsibilities
    4. Kyoto Protocol
  4. The Ozone hole was discovered in the mid 80’s over the ________.
    1. Atlantic Ocean
    2. Pacific Ocean
    3. Antarctic
    4. Arctic Ocean
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/4/1

(i) (C) 1992

(ii) (D) China

(iii) (D) Kyoto Protocol

(iv) (C) Antarctic

(4x1=4)

Q46.2024 Supp. 59/S/1 · Q244 marks

Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow :

‘Commons’ are those resources which are not owned by anyone but rather shared by a community. This could be a ‘common room’ or a ‘community centre’, a park or a river. Similarly, there are some areas or regions of the world which are located outside the sovereign jurisdiction of any one state and therefore, require common governance by the international community. These are known as ‘Global Commons’.

  1. Which one of the following aspects best describes the ‘Global Commons’ ?
    1. Resources only accessible for scientific research.
    2. Resources under the jurisdiction of a single nation.
    3. Resources located outside the governance of developed nations.
    4. Sovereign regions under the common governance of international community.
  2. The Rio Summit of 1992 is also known as ________.
    1. Global Summit
    2. Planet Summit
    3. Earth Summit
    4. World Summit
  3. Why is the international cooperation essential for managing the ‘Global Commons’ ?
    Choose the most suitable option from the following :
    1. Resources are abundant and self-replenishing.
    2. There are political benefits for sharing resources of other countries.
    3. Individual countries can manage their resources.
    4. The approach towards sustainable development is common for all.
  4. Which of the following pair of countries was exempted from the requirements of the Kyoto Protocol ?
    1. China and Russia
    2. China and India
    3. China and USA
    4. India and France
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/S/1

(i) (D) Sovereign regions under the common governance of international community.

(ii) (C) Earth Summit

(iii) (D) The approach towards sustainable development is common for all.

(iv) (B) China and India

(4x1=4)

Q47.2023 Main 59/1/1 · Q214 marks

Suggest any two measures to conserve the natural resources.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/1/1
  1. 3 Rs- Reduce, Reuse and Recycle
  2. Save forests – Plant more trees
  3. Use renewable sources of energy
  4. Obey international rules, regulation and environmental laws.

Or any other relevant point (any two) 2×2=4

Q48.2023 Main 59/2/1 · Q214 marks

“Development mostly causes degradation of environment.” Justify the statement referring to two environmental movements.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/2/1

Development mostly causes degradation of environment as:

  1. Industrialisation and urbanisation have resulted in deforestation which increased environmental pollution. The forest movements of the South, in Mexico, Chile, Brazil, Malaysia, Indonesia, continental Africa and India started the movement against deforestation.
  2. The minerals industry also harm the environment by extraction of earth, use of chemicals, pollution of waterways and land is increased. Philippines started a movement against an Australian based MNC known as Western Mining Corporation.
  3. Building of large dams on the rivers in different countries is another serious cause of the environmental degradation. The early 1980s saw the first anti-dam movement launched to save the Franklin River and its surrounding forests in Australia. India has had some of the leading anti-dam, pro-river movements named Narmada Bachao Andolan is one of the best known of these movements to save environment.

(any two) 2×2=4

Q49.2023 Main 59/5/1 · Q214 marks

Highlight any four outcomes of the ‘Earth Summit’ held in June 1992 at Rio.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/5/1

Outcomes of the Earth Summit 1992

  • (i) The environmental issues were brought into the focus of global politics.
  • (ii) A list of development practices called “Agenda 21” were recommended.
  • (iii) Sustainable development was emphasized upon.
  • (iv) The rich and the developed countries pursued different agenda than the poor and developing environmental countries of the third world.
  • (v) The principle of ‘common but differentiated responsibilities’ was accepted.

Or any other point (any four)

Q50.SQP 2025-26 · Q244 marks

Study the picture given below and answer the questions that follow:

Figure from the paper

Source NCERT textbook page-84

Choose the most appropriate option:

  1. Which Summit has brought the environmental issues to the center stage of global politics?
    1. G-8 summit
    2. Earth summit
    3. Antarctic summit
    4. Stockholm summit
  2. What do the two men shown in the image symbolise?
    1. First World and the Third World countries
    2. Second World and the Third World counties
    3. Developed and under developed World
    4. First World and the Second World counties
  3. What these two men are trying to save?
    1. Outer space
    2. Oceans
    3. Forests
    4. Earth
  4. The Global North includes which of the following regions?
    1. Africa and Asia
    2. Europe and North America
    3. Latin America and Oceania
    4. South America and the Middle East
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 · Marking Scheme

I) (B) Earth summit

II) (A) The First World and the Third World countries

III) (D) Earth

IV) (B) Europe and North America

Q51.SQP 2025-26 · Q24 (VI)4 marks

NOTE: Following questions are for the visually Challenged candidates in lieu of question number 24

  1. what does Global North and Global South represent?
  2. Name two countries which were exempted from Kyoto Protocol.
  3. What are Global Commons?
  4. Define geopolitics.
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 · Marking Scheme
  1. Global North reflects rich and developed countries of the First World and the Global South reflects the poor and under developed countries of the Third World.
  2. India and China.
  3. Antarctic
  4. Outer space.
Q52.SQP 2026-27 · Q21(A)4 marks

“Oil is an important resource that affects the geopolitics and global economy”. Analyse.

Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 · Marking Scheme

Oil is the resource which generates immense wealth, hence it creates political struggles involving industrialised countries to adopt various methods to ensure steady flows of oil:

  1. These include deployment of military forces near exploitation sites and along sea lanes of communications.
  2. The stockpiling of strategic resources.
  3. They support multinational companies by making favourable international agreements.
  4. The global economy relied on oil as a portable and indispensable fuel; hence, the history of petroleum is the history of war and struggle.
  5. It created conflict between Iraq and Saudi Arabia as Iraq’s known reserves are second only to Saudi Arabia and since substantial portions of Iraqi territory are yet to be fully explored, there is a fair chance that actual reserves might be far larger.
Q53.SQP 2026-27 · Q21(B)4 marks

How does the UN define indigenous peoples? Mention any three demands of indigenous people.

Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 · Marking Scheme

The UN defines indigenous population as the descendants of people who inhabited the present territory of a country at the time when persons of a different culture or ethnic origin arrived there from other parts of world and overcame them.

The demands of indigenous people can be summarised as follows:

  1. Indigenous people speak of their struggles, agenda and fights like social movements.
  2. Their voices in world politics call for the admission of indigenous people to the world community as equals.
  3. Many of the present day island states in the Oceania region (including Australia, New Zealand) appeal to their governments to come to terms with the continuing existence of indigenous nations with an identity of their own.

(To be assessed as a whole or other relevant point/s)

Q54.2026 Main 59/2/1 · Q28(a)6 marks

Highlight any four steps taken by the Government of India to minimize the greenhouse gas emissions.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/2/1

(i) Adoption of National Auto Fuel Policy

(ii) Energy Conservation Act(2001)

(iii) Electricity Act of 2003.

(iv) Use of natural gas and encouragement for the adoption of clean coal technologies.

(v) Launch of National Mission on Biodiesel.

(vi) Ratification of Paris Climate Agreement in 2016.

(vii) India signed and ratified the Kyoto Protocol.

(viii) India has one of the largest renewable energy programmes in the world.

(ix) A review of the implementation of the agreements at the Earth Summit at Rio was undertaken by India in 1997.

(x) India encourages SAARC countries to adopt a common position on major global environmental issues.

(xi) India's international negotiating position relies heavily on principles of historical responsibilities as enshrined in the UNFCCC.

(or any other relevant step ) (any four points)

Q55.2026 Main 59/2/1 · Q28(b)6 marks

How does geo-politics of natural resources determine the balance of power in the contemporary world ? Examine.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/2/1
  • Resource geopolitics is all about who gets what, when, where and how.
  • Balance of power in the contemporary world is determined on the basis of geopolitics of natural resources.
  • The most important natural resource is Oil in contemporary world. The immense wealth associated with oil generates political struggles to control it and the history of petroleum is the history of war. Different countries of Asia and Central Asia, specifically the Gulf region, determine the balance of power on the basis of their mutual relations as per their interest.
  • Fresh water is another crucial resource that is a basis of balance of power. There have been struggles to protect/seize fresh water resources.
  • In Contemporary World Politics, control over natural resources not only ensures economic growth but also shapes international relations, and hence geopolitics of resources a key determinant of the contemporary balance of power.

(The candidate is expected to be examine the statement with the help of any three points/arguments/examples.)

Q56.2026 Main 59/5/1 · Q28(a)6 marks

Explain the concept of ‘common but differentiated responsibilities’ to conserve, protect and restore the health of the environment.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/5/1
  • This argument was accepted in Rio Declaration at the Earth Summit in 1992 and is called the Principle of ‘common but differentiated responsibilities’.
  • The developed countries of the North want to discuss the environmental issue as it stands now and want everyone to be equally responsible for ecological conservation.
  • The developing countries of the south feel that much of the ecological degradation in the world is the product of industrial development under taken by the developed countries.
  • If they have caused more degradation , they must also take more responsibility for undoing the damage now.
  • The developing countries are in the process of industrialization and they must not be subjected to the same restrictions , which applied to the developed countries.
  • Developing countries were given some exemptions for industrialization.

(Any other points)

(Any three points to be explained )

Q57.2026 Main 59/5/1 · Q28(b)6 marks

Explain any four steps taken by the Government of India to save the environment from degradation.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/5/1

Four steps taken by Govt. of India.

(i) Participating in global efforts through a number of programmes.

(ii) National Auto fuel policy for cleaner fuel has been implemented.

(iii) The Energy Conservation Act 2001 was passed.

(iv) The Electricity Act of 2003

(v) Importing Natural gas and clean coal.

(vi) The government is also keen to launch a National Mission on Bio-diesel, using about 11 million hectares if land to produce Bio diesel.

(vii) India ratified the Paris Climate Agreement on Oct. 2016.

(Any other)

(Any four points to be explained )

Q58.2025 Main 59/6/1 · Q28(a)6 marks

“Despite common but differentiated responsibilities, the environmental problems are increasing day-by-day challenging human existence.” Analyse any four reasons responsible for this situation.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/6/1

Causes :

  1. Developed and developing countries are not compulsorily implementing all the rules set in conferences for the protection of Global environment.
  2. Needs of the nations are unlimited, therefore they are unable to follow all the conditions as laid down in the conferences.
  3. Population of the world is increasing day by day.
  4. Developed countries think that developing nations are responsible for environmental challenges as their population is more as compared to developed nations. While developing countries are of the opinion that developed countries had already achieved high levels growth. Now its their turn to be accountable for environmental challenge.
  5. Use of chemicals in factories are increasing day by day, which contributes in Ozone’s holes to grow.
  6. Nature is exploited by humans to fulfill their needs.

or any other relevant point (Any four) (4 × 1½ = 6)

Q59.2025 Main 59/6/1 · Q28(b)6 marks

Assess India’s role to protect the global environment on the basis of any four steps taken by it.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/6/1

India’s role :

  1. India’s National Auto Fuel Policy mandates cleaner fuels for vehicles.
  2. The Energy Conservation Act, passed in 2001, outlines initiatives to improve energy efficiency.
  3. The Electricity Act of 2003 encourages the use of renewable energy.
  4. The government is also keen to launch a National Mission on Bio diesel.
  5. India ratified the Kyoto Protocol Agreement in August 2002.
  6. India has one of the largest renewable energy programmes in the world.
  7. A review of the implementation of the agreements at the Earth Summit in Rio was undertaken by India in 1997.

or any other relevant point (Any four) (4 × 1½ = 6)

Q60.2025 Supp. 59/S/1 · Q28(a)6 marks

Explain the principle of “Common but Differentiated Responsibilities” as an approach to environment.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/S/1
  • This principle emerged at the ‘Earth Summit’ in 1992. There is a difference in the approach to environment between the countries of the North and the South. The developed countries of the North want everyone to be equally responsible for ecological conservation.
  • Whereas the developing countries of the South feel that ecological degradation in the world is the product of industrial development undertaken by the developed countries. Hence-
    1. Developed countries are responsible for degradation & should pay for that.
    2. Developing countries should not be restricted as industrialisation is their need for development.
  • In view of the different contributions to the global environmental degradation, states have common but differentiated responsibilities.
  • Developed countries acknowledge their responsibility and provide services and technology to the developing countries to prevent or reduce the pollution.

(3 × 2 = 6)

Q61.2025 Supp. 59/S/1 · Q28(b)6 marks

Explain any three international environmental movements to protect the environment from degradation.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/S/1

Three Environmental movements –

  1. The forest movements of the South, in Mexico, Chile, Brazil, Malaysia, Indonesia, Continental Africa and Asia. These movements are against deforestation.
  2. The mineral industry has become an important cause of pollution – as clearance of forests, extraction from the earth, use of chemicals, use of waterways and land ,all contribute to degradation. In Philippines a vast network campaigned against the Western Mining Corporation. It was a big movement.
  3. Another movement is against mega dams. These movements are pro-river movements. For example Campaign to save the Franklin river and its surrounding forests. Example of such movement in India is Narmada Bachao Aandolan.

any other relevant point (3 × 2 = 6)

Q62.2024 Main 59/1/1 · Q28(a)6 marks

Explain any three environmental concerns in global politics which no single government can address.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/1/1

Global concerns related to environment :

(i)

  • Throughout the world, cultivable area is barely expanding any more.
  • Existing land is losing fertility.
  • Grasslands have been overgrazed and fisheries, overharvested.
  • Water bodies have suffered extensive depletion and pollution.

– All this has severely restricted food production.

  • (ii) According to the Human Development Report 2016 by UNDP, 663 million people in developing countries have no access to sanitation resulting in the death of more than three million children every year.
  • (iii) Natural forests are being cut down and people are being displaced. The loss of biodiversity continues due to the distruction of habitat in areas which are rich in species.
  • (iv) A steady decline in the total amount of ozone in the Earth’s stratosphere(commonly known as Ozone hole) poses a real threat to ecosystems and human health.
  • (v) Coastal pollution too is increasing globally due to land-leased activities.

(Any three)

Q63.2024 Main 59/1/1 · Q28(b)6 marks

Explain the principle of ‘common but differentiated responsibilities’.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/1/1
  • There was a differences in the approach to environment between the countries of the North and the South.
  • The developed countries of the North want to discuss the environmental issue as it stands now and want everyone to be equally responsible for ecological conservation.
  • The countries of South felt that degradation in the environment is the creation of developed countries. So, they should take more responsibility.
  • This argument was accepted in the Rio Declaration of 1992.
  • As per this principle, all countries should act to protect the climate on the basis of equality and in accordance with their common but differentiated responsibility.

(Assess as a whole)

Q64.2024 Main 59/3/1 · Q27(a)6 marks

In what ways has the principle of ‘common but differentiated responsibilities’ helped in addressing and overcoming the differences between the ‘Global North’ and ‘Global South’ over environmental issues ? Explain.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/3/1
  • (i) The countries of the North wanted everyone to be equally responsible for ecological conservation. The developing countries of the south feel that much of the ecological degradation of the world is the product of industrial development undertaken by the developed world.
  • (ii) The special needs of the developing countries must be taken into account in the development, application and interpretation of rules of International Environment Law. This argument was accepted in the Rio Declaration of 1992.
  • (iii) Developing countries were exempted from the requirements of the Kyoto Protocol , an international agreement setting targets for industrialised countries to cut the greenhouse gas emissions.
  • (iv) The developed countries acknowledge the responsibility that they bear in the international pursuit of sustainable development.

( or any other relevant point) (any three points )

Q65.2024 Main 59/3/1 · Q27(b)6 marks

Explain any three programmes initiated by the Government of India to protect and conserve the environment.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/3/1
  • (i) It initiated the National Auto Fuel policy for cleaner fuels for vehicles.
  • (ii) The energy conservation Act was passed in 2001 to improve energy efficiency.
  • (iii) The Electricity Act of 2003 was implemented to encourage the use of renewable energy.
  • (iv) India signed and ratified the Kyoto Protocol.

Or any other intiative.

(or any other relevant point) (any three)

Q66.2023 Main 59/3/1 · Q28(a)6 marks

Highlight any four environmental concerns that have become important in global politics.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/3/1
  1. Decreasing cultivable area.
  2. No access to safe drinking water resulting in the death of more than 3 million children every year.
  3. Speedy deforestation and elimination of natural forests.
  4. Decline in the total amount of ozone in the Earth’s Stratosphere.
  5. Increase in coastal pollution.
  6. Global Warming

(Points to be explained) (Any four), (or any other relevant point) 4×1½=6

Q67.2023 Main 59/4/1 · Q28(a)6 marks

Highlight any three environmental concerns significant to global politics.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/4/1

Environmental concerns:

  1. Cultivable area is barely expanding, agricultural land is losing fertility, grasslands have been overgrazed and fisheries, overharvested.
  2. Access to safe drinking water is not available in many area. Billions have no access to sanitation resulting in the death of more than 3 million children every year.
  3. Natural forests are being cut and people are being displaced. It has caused climate disturbances and loss of biodiversity.
  4. Decline in total amount of ozone in the earth stratosphere is posing a real danger to the ecosystem human health.
  5. Coastal pollution is increasing globally. It is adding to the deterioration in the quality of marine environment.
  6. Global warming is a global concern as it affects the weather/climate of different nations, changing the physical conditions on earth.

Any other relevant point (any three) 3×2=6

Q68.2023 Main 59/4/1 · Q28(b)6 marks

Highlight any three international environmental movements and their importance.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/4/1

Environmental movements:

  1. The forest movement started in different parts of the world such as Mexico, Chile, Brazil, Malaysia, Africa and India. It aimed at saving forest from deforestation and felling of trees.
  2. Movement against mining started in Philippines to oppose Western Mining Corporation. It aims at stopping the extraction of earth, use of chemicals and pollution of waterways, lands.
  3. Anti Dam movements or pro -river movements are meant for more sustainable and equitable Management of river systems and valley’s

any other environmental movements (Any three) 3×2=6

Q69.2023 Supp. 59/C/1 · Q30(b)6 marks

Highlight any three issues of environmental concern that have become part of global politics.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/C/1

The issues which have made environment a concern for world politics.

  • (i) Cultivable land is hardly expanding and existing agriculture land is losing fertility.
  • (ii) Water bodies have suffered extensive depletion and pollution.
  • (iii) In developing countries most of the people do not have access to safe drinking water.
  • (iv) Deforestation is causing global warming.
  • (v) Decline in the total amount of ozone in the atmosphere.
  • (vi) Coastal pollution is increasing globally.

Or any other (Any three)

Part A · Contemporary World Politics

7. Globalisation

Q1.2026 Main 59/1/1 · Q51 mark

Given below are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read these statements carefully and choose the correct answer from the options (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below :

Assertion (A): All over the world, the old ‘welfare state’ is getting more importance.

Reason (R): Due to globalisation, the state withdraws from many of its earlier welfare functions and the market has become the prime determinant of economic and social priorities.

Options:

  1. Both the Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  2. Both the Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) are true, but the Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
  4. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/1/1

(C) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

Q2.2026 Main 59/1/1 · Q101 mark

Choose the statement that best describes the concept of globalisation.

  1. The process of rapid integration or inter-connection among countries of the world through the flow of goods, capital, people and ideas.
  2. Globalisation has increased states capabilities in the political field.
  3. Globalisation has given freedom to consumers to choose from limited alternatives.
  4. Globalisation has reduced the various opportunities of employment to the people.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/1/1

(A) The process of rapid integration or inter connection among countries of the world through the flow of goods, Capital, people and ideas.

Q3.2025 Main 59/1/1 · Q51 mark

Institutional safeguards to minimize the negative effects of globalization on those who are economically weak are known as ________.

  1. Welfare measures
  2. Social safety nets
  3. Economic liberalization
  4. Voluntary services
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/1/1

(B) Social safety nets

Q4.2025 Main 59/1/1 · Q61 mark

In the following question, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Choose the correct option as answer.

Assertion (A): The entry and the increased role of multinational companies all over the world leads to a reduction in the capacity of governments to take decisions on their own.

Reason (R): The state continues to discharge its essential functions and consciously withdraws from certain domains from which it wishes to.

Options:

  1. Both the Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) are correct and the Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  2. Both the Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) are correct, but the Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  3. The Assertion (A) is incorrect, but the Reason (R) is correct.
  4. The Assertion (A) is correct, but the Reason (R) is incorrect.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/1/1

(B) Both the Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) are correct, but the Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).

Q5.2025 Main 59/4/1 · Q51 mark

For Question number 5, two statements are given — one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Read these statements carefully and choose the correct option as the answer from the options (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below.

Assertion (A): Resistance to globalisation in India has come from Trade Unions and workforce representing farmers’ interests.

Reason (R): Multinational Corporations have damaged the interests of small scale industries and agriculture.

Options :

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/4/1

(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).

Q6.2025 Main 59/4/1 · Q61 mark

Globalisation is related to the flow of which of the following ?

  1. Rivers
  2. Ideas
  3. Air
  4. Pollution
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/4/1

(B) Ideas

Q7.2025 Main 59/5/1 · Q51 mark

Which one of the following options is not a cause of globalisation ?

  1. Flow of capital
  2. Technological advancement
  3. Poverty of the underdeveloped countries
  4. Flow of ideas
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/5/1

(C) Poverty of the underdeveloped countries

Q8.2025 Main 59/5/1 · Q61 mark

In which country was the first meeting of the World Social Forum (WSF) held in 2001 ?

  1. Brazil
  2. South Africa
  3. Japan
  4. Italy
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/5/1

(A) Brazil

Q9.2025 Main 59/7/1 · Q51 mark

Given below are two statements :

Statement I : Globalization is a multidimensional concept.

Statement II : Globalization leads to the rise of cultural homogenisation.

In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
  2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
  3. Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.
  4. Statement I is false, but Statement II is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/7/1

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

Q10.2025 Main 59/7/1 · Q61 mark

In India, the resistance to globalization has not come from :

  1. Left wing
  2. Right wing
  3. Trade unions
  4. Multinational companies
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/7/1

(D) Multinational companies

Q11.2025 Supp. 59/S/1 · Q51 mark

For Question number 5, two statements are given — one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Read these statements carefully and choose the correct option as the answer from the options (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below.

Assertion (A): The cultural consequences of globalisation are always negative.

Reason (R): Sometimes globalisation enlarges our choice, and sometimes modifies our culture.

Options :

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/S/1

(D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

Q12.2025 Supp. 59/S/1 · Q61 mark

Which one of the following statements is true about globalisation ?

  1. Globalisation was promoted by the United Nations.
  2. Globalisation is an economic phenomenon only.
  3. Globalisation is against the rich people.
  4. Globalisation is caused by advanced technology.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/S/1

(D) Globalisation is caused by advanced technology.

Q13.2023 Main 59/1/1 · Q61 mark

Which one of the following is the main cause of Globalisation ?

  1. The formation of United Nations
  2. The development of new technology
  3. The establishment of the World Bank
  4. The rise of economy in India and China
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/1/1

(b) The Development of new technology

Q14.2023 Main 59/2/1 · Q61 mark

Which of the following statements is TRUE about globalisation ?

  1. Globalisation is westernisation.
  2. Globalisation is industrialisation.
  3. Globalisation is economic growth.
  4. Globalisation is a multidimensional phenomenon.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/2/1

(d) Globalisation is multidimensional phenomenon

Q15.2023 Main 59/5/1 · Q21 mark

Identify the main reason behind the investments of MNCs in developing countries.

  1. For the welfare of the underprivileged people.
  2. To increase their own assets and earn profits.
  3. For the benefit of other countries.
  4. To provide financial support to the developing countries.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/5/1

(b) To increase their own assets and own assets and earn profits.

Q16.SQP 2026-27 · Q51 mark

In the following question, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

Assertion (A): Globalisation has strengthened the cultural influence of Western countries.

Reason (R): The spread of multinational companies promotes local cultures over global cultures.

Options:

  1. Both the Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) are correct and the Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  2. Both the Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) are correct, but the Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  3. The Assertion (A) is incorrect, but the Reason (R) is correct.
  4. The Assertion (A) is correct, but the Reason (R) is incorrect.
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 · Marking Scheme

(D) The Assertion (A) is correct, but the Reason (R) is incorrect.

Q17.SQP 2026-27 · Q111 mark

What is the core ideological objective of the World Social Forum (WSF) platform?

  1. To bring together opponents of neo-liberal globalisation.
  2. To promote unregulated corporate monopolies and free-market dominance globally.
  3. To coordinate structural adjustment programs for the IMF and World Bank.
  4. To establish a single global military alliance to police international trade.
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 · Marking Scheme

(A) To bring together opponents of neo-liberal globalisation

Q18.SQP 2026-27 · Q121 mark

Which one of the following statements about the 1991 New Economic Policy in India is false?

  1. The policy initiated a process of liberalisation and privatisation to address severe economic crisis.
  2. The reforms were necessitated by a severe balance of payments crisis where India’s foreign exchange reserves had dropped significantly.
  3. The policy aimed for a state-controlled economy with reduced foreign investment.
  4. The reforms marked a significant departure from the earlier mixed-economy model with a strong emphasis on self-reliance.
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 · Marking Scheme

(C) The policy aimed for a state-controlled economy with reduced foreign investment.

Q19.2026 Main 59/1/1 · Q162 marks

On what grounds can globalisation be considered a multi-dimensional concepts ? Explain with example.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/1/1

Globalisation is a multidimensional concept. It has political, economic and cultural manifestation. For example:

i) Political globalisation results in an erosion of state capacity that is the ability of government to do what they do.

*All over the world the old welfare state is now giving way to a more minimalist state. With enhanced technology the state collect the information about the citizens to do better rule.

ii) Economically, institutions like the IMF and the WTO are determining economic policies across the world.

* Economic flows among different countries of the world are increasing.

iii) Culturally globalisation leads to the size of a uniform culture (cultural homogenisation)

* Increase in the choices of new types of food, clothes and festivals has become a new phenomenon.

(or any other relevant example) (any two)

Q20.2026 Main 59/3/1 · Q142 marks

“Globalization has been a boon for the economy of India despite the resistance shown by certain groups.” Support the statement.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/3/1

Globalisation has been a boon for the economy of India despite the resistance by certain groups because:-

(i) More/New avenues of employment were available

(ii) Capacity of the state increased.

(iii) It enlarged the choices and modified the culture.

(iv) It has enhanced the foreign trade and investment.

(any other relevant point) (any two points to be explained)

Q21.2026 Main 59/3/1 · Q172 marks

How has Information Technology been responsible in accelerating globalization across the world ? Explain with two examples.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/3/1

Information Technology has been responsible in accelerating globalisation across the world in the following way:

(i) It revolutionised communication among different parts of the world.

(ii) It affected the way the people think of their personal or collective lines.

(iii) The ability of ideas, capital, commodities and people to move more easily from one part of the world to another has been made possible.

(iv) Increased use of social media

Examples- Bird flu ,Tsunami ,COVID-19 etc.

(or any other relevant point) (any two points to be explained with example)

Q22.2026 Main 59/5/1 · Q142 marks

Explain the meaning of globalisation.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/5/1

Globalization is the worldwide interconnectedness. It is flow of ideas, people, commodities and capital from one country to another country. Globalization is bringing the different parts of the world closer and to have knowledge about each other.

Q23.2026 Main 59/5/1 · Q152 marks

Analyse any two reasons for resistance to globalisation in India.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/5/1
  • Left wing protests to economic liberalization caused by Globalization.
  • Trade Unions resist globalisation to save jobs.
  • Big MNCs have got certain plants patent such as NEEM against the Indian interest.
  • Globalization is also resisted by Right wing organization as it is affecting our culture and living style.

(Any two)

Q24.2025 Main 59/1/1 · Q142 marks

Explain any two major causes of globalization.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/1/1

Causes :

  1. Advanced Technology
  2. Improved and faster means of transportation.
  3. Interconnectedness with the rest of the world due to availability of improved communication.
  4. Promotion and acceptance of western liberal capitalist ideology.
  5. Role of International institutions like IMF, World Bank and WTO in integrating their economics with the market oriented world economy.

or any other relevant cause (any two) (4x½=2)

Q25.2025 Main 59/4/1 · Q152 marks

Explain any two political consequences of Globalisation.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/4/1

Political Consequences of Globalisation :

  1. Erosion of the state authority
  2. Welfare state is giving way to a mere minimalist state
  3. Market is becoming the prime determinant of economic and social priorities.

or any other relevant point (Any two) (2 × 1 = 2)

Q26.2025 Main 59/5/1 · Q152 marks

How has globalisation impacted the markets near you ? Show with the help of any two examples.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/5/1
  1. Small shops are not able to face the challenge posed by big markets or malls.
  2. Markets are flooded with international brands from clothing to electronic goods.
  3. New eating giants are serving the popular food of various other countries like Momos, Pizza, Burgers, Chowmein etc.

or any other relevant point (any two) (1 + 1 = 2)

Q27.2025 Main 59/7/1 · Q152 marks

How does globalization impact your life ? Support your answer with the help of any two suitable examples.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/7/1

Impacts of Globalisation :

  • AI tools like Chat GPT, Gemini ,Gamma.AI etc. have enhanced our learning .It has increased opportunities of employment for youth like us.
  • As a consumer , my choices have increased.
  • Markets are changing at a fast pace.
  • International brands are easily available.
  • Cultural homogenisation is taking place.
  • Brain drain , small scale industries are suffering.

(Impact of globalisation may be positive and negative. Students may write any point and marks may be allotted accordingly.)

or any other impact (Any two) (1 + 1 = 2)

Q28.2025 Supp. 59/S/1 · Q152 marks

Explain any two economic consequences of globalisation.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/S/1

Economic Consequences of globalisation –

  1. Greater economic flow of money/capital among different countries of the world.
  2. Trade between countries increases.
  3. Restrictions on imports are reduced.
  4. Area of people’s choice increases.

any other relevant point (Any Two) (2 × 1 = 2)

Q29.2022 Main 59/1/1 · Q52 marks

Analyse any two causes of ‘Globalisation’.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 59/1/1

Causes of globalisation:

  1. Fast means of Transport
  2. Fast means of communication.
  3. Rise of digital technology.

(Any other valid reason)

(Any two)

Q30.2022 Main 59/2/1 · Q32 marks

Highlight any two political consequences of globalisation.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 59/2/1

Political consequences are both positive and negative

Negative aspects

  1. Globalisation results in an erosion of state capacity that is the ability of the government to do what they do.
  2. The markets becomes a prime determinant to settle down social and economic priorities in place of welfare.

Positive aspects

  1. The primary status remains the unchallenged basis of political community
  2. To some extent developing countries have received a boost to become more powerful and strong.

Any one point from each of the above

Q31.2022 Main 59/2/1 · Q42 marks

Analyse any two reasons for the resistance to globalisation.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 59/2/1

Reasons for resistance to Globalisation—

  1. Globalisation is taken as pro-capitalism and against the ideology of socialism.
  2. Globalisation is also resulting in the weakening of the State.
  3. It is against the old concept of welfare State.
  4. It is also affecting the local culture.
  5. People are worried that globalisation will harm traditional culture and old age values.

(Any two reasons)

Q32.2022 Main 59/2/1 · Q52 marks

Highlight any two advantages of globalisation to India.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 59/2/1

Advantages of globalisation to India—

  1. Foreign Direct Investment in India has increased.
  2. Digitalisation is getting importance.
  3. Consumer choices have increased.
  4. Many local industries have grown into multinational companies (MNCs).
  5. Job opportunities have increased

(Any two)

Q33.2022 Main 59/4/1 · Q1(a)2 marks

“Cultures are not static things.” Justify.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 59/4/1
  • All cultures accept outside influences all the time. Culture is dynamic, always in process. It gets influenced or influences other cultures.
  • Uniform culture all around the world leads to cultural Homogenisation. Eg McDonalisation of the world.
  • Culture enlarges our choices and leads to cultural hetrogenisation.
  • Culture modifies our traditions.

Example :

Burger / Pizza is no substitute for Masala Dosa. Blue jeans go well with Khadi Kurta.

(Any two points or evaluate as a whole)

Q34.2022 Main 59/4/1 · Q1(b)2 marks

“States have become more powerful as a result of globalisation.” Support the statement.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 59/4/1
  • State capacity has received a boost as a consequence of globalisation with enhanced technologies, the States can collect information about its citizens.
  • Technology has brought citizens and Government closer to each other.

Any Other relevant point (Evaluate as a whole)

Q35.2022 Main 59/4/1 · Q62 marks

Highlight any two negative effects of globalisation.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 59/4/1
  1. Sovereignty of the States is threatened
  2. Local industries get affected
  3. Local traditions and values get endangered

(Or Any other relevant point or examples may be given) (Any two)

Q36.2022 Main 59/4/1 · Q72 marks

Describe any two flows related to globalisation.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 59/4/1

Two flows related to Globalisation :

  1. Flow of Ideas
  2. Flow of Capital
  3. Flow of commodities
  4. Flow of people

(Any two to be described)

Q37.2022 Main 59/4/1 · Q82 marks

Why have different organisations in India protested against the entry of multinational companies ? Give any two reasons.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 59/4/1

Different organisations in India have protested against the entry of MNCs because -

  1. Multinational companies have got patented the Indian herbs and medicinal trees like neem
  2. Local industries face a set back
  3. Cultural influence like availability of foreign TV channels, celebration of Valentines day, change in dress styles.

Or any other relevant point (Any two)

Q38.2022 Supp. 59/6/1 · Q82 marks

Write any four examples of change in food items available in India due to globalisation.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/6/1

Examples of change in food items in India due to globalization are –

  1. Momos
  2. Pizza
  3. Burgers
  4. Soft drinks
  5. Noodles

(or any other example) 4×½=2

Q39.SQP 2026-27 · Q132 marks

State any two arguments put forward by the advocates of economic globalisation.

Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 · Marking Scheme
  1. Globalisation is a positive and inevitable force that leads to greater economic growth and well-being for a larger section of the population, primarily through deregulation and increased trade.
  2. Greater trade among countries allows each economy to specialise in producing what it does best. It would benefit the whole world.
  3. It has led to increased momentum towards interdependence and integration between governments, business and ordinary people in different parts of the world.

(Any two or any other relevant point/s)

Q40.2026 Main 59/2/1 · Q254 marks

Study the given cartoon carefully and answer the questions that follow :

Figure from the paper

(i) Which change does the cartoon reflect ?

(ii) What kind of shift is shown in America’s attitude towards developing countries ?

(iii) Mention any one positive and any one negative impact of globalization in reference to the cartoon.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/2/1

(i) The cartoon reflects the economic consequences of Globalisation. Earlier India and China were in need of food but now are in need of jobs resulting in flow of people- migration of workers. Shift in attitude of developed countries towards China and India.

(or any other relevant point) (Any one)

(ii) There is a change in attitude of developed countries towards developing countries. Developed countries like US have carefully guarded their borders with visa policies to ensure that the citizens of other countries cannot take away the jobs of their own citizens.

(or any other relevant point) (Any one)

(iii) Positive –

Choices have increased for the consumer.

Due to globalization, many opportunities are available to all the educated and skilled people in different countries.

(or any other relevant point) (any one )

Negative –

Globalization may pose danger to the economy of the developed countries

Scarcity of jobs for their youth.

(or any other relevant point) (any one point)

Q41.2026 Main 59/2/1 · Q25 (VI)4 marks

(i) In which year did India embark on reforms for economic growth ?

(ii) In which year and at what place was the first meeting of World Social Forum (WSF) organized ?

(iii) State any two cultural consequences of globalization.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/2/1

(i) 1991

(ii) 2001 in Porto Alegre (Brazil)

(iii)

  • Choices have increased for consumers.
  • Cultural homogenization and heterogenization has taken place.
  • There is amalgamation of various cultures in the world, with western culture becoming dominant.

(or any other relevant point) (Any two)

Q42.2026 Main 59/4/1 · Q214 marks

Show with the help of examples that flows of ideas, capital, commodities and people are instrumental for globalisation.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/4/1

Globalisation is the truth of today. It is the interconnectedness between the different countries. This interconnectedness is strengthened by –

(i) Flow of people- People are going to get education and employment in different countries. This flow of people strengthened the relationship between countries and their connectedness.

(ii) Flow of ideas – Thinking & ideologies travel through people or media and affects each other.

(iii) Flow of capital – Globalisation has encouraged MNCs to establish industries in different parts of the world so the flow of capital increased.

(iv) Flow of Commodities – Markets are full of products of different international brands which again are instrumental to strengthen the interconnectedness so it increased the alternatives for the consumers.

(All flows to be included)

Q43.2026 Supp. 59/7/1 · Q204 marks

Explain any two reasons for resistance to globalisation in India.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/7/1

Resistance to globalisation in India –

  1. Left wing resists globalisation due to its policy against the economic liberalisation.
  2. Trade unions oppose because of the entry of MNCs and loss of local industries.
  3. Multinations have patented plants like ‘Neem’ which are part of Indian Culture.
  4. Many of the social organisation oppose globalisation due to cultural influences.

(Any other) (Any two)

Q44.2025 Main 59/2/1 · Q214 marks

Describe the impact of globalisation on the Indian culture.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/2/1

Impact of Globalisation-

  1. Our choices have enlarged and modified with respect to -music, dance, food, clothing
  2. Inclination towards Western culture
  3. New festivals got added.
  4. Outlook towards traditional institutions like marriage and family has changed.

or any other relevant impact (evaluate as a whole) (4x1=4)

Q45.2025 Main 59/6/1 · Q214 marks

Explain any two major causes of globalisation.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/6/1

Causes of Globalisation :

  1. Advanced Technology is a critical element of globalization.
  2. Invention of telegraph, the telephone, and the microchip in more recent times has revolutionized communication between different parts of the world.
  3. Interconnectedness of ideas, people etc. helped in the spread of globalization.
  4. The ability of ideas, capital, commodities and people to move more easily from one part of the world has been made possible by technological advancement. Example, fast and advanced means of transport.

or Any other relevant point (any two ) (2 × 2 = 4)

Q46.2024 Main 59/1/1 · Q244 marks

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow :

Globalisation is a multi-dimensional concept. It has various manifestations, and these must be adequately distinguished. It is wrong to assume that globalisation has only one dimension, just as it would also be mistaken to assume that it is a purely cultural phenomenon. The impact of globalisation is multi-dimensional; it affects some societies more than others and it is important to avoid drawing general conclusions about the impact of globalisation without paying sufficient attention to specific contexts.

(i) Which one of the following is not a dimension of globalisation ?

  1. Political
  2. Ethical
  3. Cultural
  4. Economic

(ii) Which one of the following statements related to globalisation is not correct ?

  1. The technological advances do help a lot in the flow of ideas, capital, commodities and people.
  2. Globalisation affects the cultures of different countries.
  3. It affects all over the world equally.
  4. When major economic events take place, their impact is felt at the global level.

(iii) Globalisation as a concept does not deal with which one of the following ?

  1. Flow of ideas
  2. Flow of capital
  3. Flow of rivers
  4. Flow of people

(iv) The impact of globalisation is vastly ___________.

  1. even
  2. uneven
  3. discriminatory
  4. regional
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/1/1

(24.1) (B) Ethical

(24.2) (C) It affects all over the world equally

(24.3) (C) Flow of rivers

(24.4) (B) Uneven

Q47.2024 Main 59/2/1 · Q22(a)4 marks

Highlight any two causes of globalisation.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/2/1

Causes of globalization -

  • (i) The advanced communication technology, i.e. invention of the telegraph, telephone and the microchips, internet, smartphone etc.
  • (ii) Advanced means of transport helped the ideas, capital, commodities and people move in a quicker and wider way from one part of the world to another.
  • (iii) Facility of easy flow of commodities, people and capital from one place to another.
  • (iv) Interdependence of nations.
  • (v) Policy of liberalisation.

(Or any other relevant point) (Any Two)

Q48.2024 Main 59/2/1 · Q22(b)4 marks

Highlight any two positive effects of globalisation.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/2/1

Positive effects of globalization-

  • (i) It enhances interconnectedness.
  • (ii) Facilitate transfer of knowledge and technology.
  • (iii) Increase the consumers’ choices.
  • (iv) FDI in poor countries is easy.
  • (v) Increase in economic development.
  • (vi) Efficiency of state increases.
  • (vii) Cultural homogenisation increases.

(Or any other relevant point) (Any Two)

Q49.2024 Main 59/3/1 · Q214 marks

Write any two political consequences of globalisation.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/3/1

Political consequences of globalization:

  • (i) It results in an erosion of state capacity.
  • (ii) Structure of state is changed from welfare to minimalist state.
  • (iii) Maintenance of law and order and the security have become the core functions of the state.
  • (iv) Markets become the prime determinant of economic and social priorities.

(Any two)

Q50.2024 Main 59/4/1 · Q22(a)4 marks

Explain the difference between cultural homogenisation and cultural hetrogenisation.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/4/1
  • According to some observers, globalisation leads to rise of a uniform culture or what is called Cultural homogenisation. The culture of the politically and economically dominant society leaves its imprint on a less powerful society.
  • On the other hand, all cultures accept outside influences all the time. Sometimes external influences only enlarge our choices and modify our culture without overwhelming the traditional culture. Thus, each culture becomes more different and distinctive. This phenomenon is called Cultural hetrogenisation.

(or any other relevant point of difference) (2+2=4)

Q51.2024 Main 59/4/1 · Q22(b)4 marks

Explain any two economic consequences of globalisation.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/4/1

Economic consequences of Globalisation

  1. It involves many international institutions like IMF, WTO, etc, that determine economic policies across the world.
  2. It involves greater economic flows from different countries of the world.
  3. It involves greater trade in commodities.
  4. Restrictions on imports and exports are reduced.
  5. Restrictions on movement of capital across countries have been reduced.
  6. It has led to the flow of ideas across national boundaries – eg spread of internet and computer related services.
  7. It had encouraged avenues for jobs and flow of people.
  8. Economic globalisation has created division of opinion all over the world. Those concerned about social justice are worried about the extent of state withdrawal caused by economic globalisation as it benefits only a small section of the population. It impoverishes those who are dependent on government jobs and welfare schemes. They support ‘Social Safety Nets’ as protection from negative effects of globalisation on economically weaker sections.
  9. Some economists have described economic globalisation as recolonisation of the world.
  10. Advocates of globalisation believe that it generates gretater economic growth and wellbeing for larger sections of population due to deregulation, as greater trade among countries allows each economy to do what it does best.
  11. Moderate supporters claim that globalisation increases interdependence, integration between governments, interaction businesses, ordinary people in different parts of the world.

(any two points) (2x2=4)

Q52.2024 Main 59/5/1 · Q194 marks

Explain any four consequences of Globalisation.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/5/1

Consequences of globalisation:-

  1. The old welfare state is now giving way to a more minimalist state to perform functions.
  2. The entry and the increased role of multinational companies all over the world has led to a reduction in the capacity of government to take decision on their own.
  3. Globalisations has involved greater trade in commodities across the globe.
  4. Cultural effect of globalisation leads to the rise of a uniform culture.

Or any other relevant consequence.

(any four consequences) (4x1=4)

Q53.2024 Supp. 59/S/1 · Q22(a)4 marks

Explain India’s role in resisting globalisation.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/S/1

India’s role in resisting globalisation –

  1. Resistance to globalisation in India has come from different quarters. There have been left wing protests to economic liberalisation voiced through left political parties as well as through forums like the Indian Social Forum.
  2. Trade unions of industrial workforce as well as those representing farmer interests have organised protests against the entry of multinationals in India.
  3. The patenting of certain plants like Neem by American and European firms has also generated considerable opposition.
  4. Resistance to globalisation has also come from the political rightists.
  5. Resistance is also due to cultural influence of globalisation on Indian people, festivals, foods and dresses.

(any four) (4x1=4)

Q54.2024 Supp. 59/S/1 · Q22(b)4 marks

Explain the changing role of states in the light of globalisation.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/S/1

Changing role of states-

  1. All over the world, the old ‘welfare state’ is now giving way to a more minimalist state.
  2. Now states perform only certain core functions such as the maintenance of law and order and the security of its citizens.
  3. In place of the welfare state, market has become the prime determinant of economic and social priorities.
  4. At the same time, globalisation does not always reduce state capacity. The primacy of the state continues to be the unchallenged basis of political community.
  5. In some respects state capacity has received a boost as a consequence of globalisation, with enhanced technologies available at the disposal of the state to collect information about its citizens.
  6. States become more powerful than they were earlier as an outcome of the new technology.

Or any other relevant point (any four) (4x1=4)

Q55.2023 Main 59/1/1 · Q204 marks

Analyse any two effects of globalisation on your daily life.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/1/1

Every candidate may give different effects

  1. More job opportunities are available at the international level.
  2. Standard of living has risen.
  3. Markets have lot of choices for the customers.
  4. New brands have flooded the international Market.
  5. New Gadgets have changed the life style.
  6. Food of Different nations is available for consumption.
  7. Films/Music of different nations is available in the market.

Or any other relevant point (any two) 2×2=4

Q56.2023 Main 59/2/1 · Q204 marks

“Globalisation is the outcome of developed technology.” Support the statement with two examples.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/2/1

Globalisation is the outcome of developed technology as:

  1. Better communication technology has promoted the flow of ideas by smartphones, internet, telephone, etc.
  2. The flow of ideas, capital, commodities and people to move more easily from one part of the world to another with the help of developed technology.

2×2=4

Q57.2023 Main 59/3/1 · Q234 marks

Highlight any four effects of globalization on the culture of India.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/3/1

Effects of globalization on the Culture of India:-

  1. Many festivals have entered and added to our culture like Valentines Day, Christmas and Halloween etc.
  2. New dressing sense and style like Jeans, Tops, T-shirts etc. have invaded our traditional dresses like Kurta, Pyjama and Dhoti etc.
  3. Cinema, Music and Dance forms have also been affected by Globalization.
  4. Food habits and items have changed. Pizza, Burger, Noodles are popular now.
  5. Markets have also changed and Mall culture/ Online shopping has entered and became popular.

(Or any other relevant point) (Any four) 4×1=4

Q58.2023 Main 59/4/1 · Q194 marks

“Globalisation has shifted power from nation-states to global consumers.” Support the statement with two arguments.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/4/1
  1. Globalisation results in an erosion of state capacity that is, the ability of government to do what they want to do.
  2. All over the world, the concept of welfare state is now giving way to a more minimalistic state.
  3. The increased role of MNC’s all over the world leads to a reduction in the capacity of government to take decisions on their own.
  4. As an outcome of new technology, states have become more powerful than they were earlier. But the emphasis now lies on the Global consumers.
  5. Now it is the market that becomes the prime determinant of social and economic priorities.

Any other relevant point (any two) 2×2=4

Q59.2023 Main 59/5/1 · Q244 marks

Read the passage given below carefully and answer the questions that follow :

Globalisation as a concept fundamentally deals with flows. These flows could be of various kinds – ideas moving from one part of the world to another, capital shunted between two or more places, commodities being traded across borders and people moving in search of better livelihoods to different parts of the world. The crucial element is the ‘worldwide interconnectedness’ that is created and sustained as a consequence of these constant flows.

(i) ‘Worldwide interconnectedness’ is also known as _____.

  1. Globalisation
  2. Liberalisation
  3. Socialisation
  4. Privatisation

(ii) Dimensions of globalisation are _____.

  1. political, social and spiritual
  2. social, economic and geographical
  3. political, economic and environmental
  4. political, social and economic

(iii) Which among the following increases economic activities ?

  1. Decline in employment
  2. Increase in the index of poverty
  3. Strong global economic growth
  4. Great decline in the trade

(iv) Which one of the following is an impact of globalisation ?

  1. The power of the states has increased.
  2. New trade barriers have been imposed.
  3. Choice of the customer has increased.
  4. It has given a boost to local industries.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/5/1

(i) (a) Globalisation

(ii) (d) Political, Social and Economic

(iii) (c) Strong global economic growth

(iv) (c) Choice of the customer has increased.

Q60.2023 Supp. 59/C/1 · Q214 marks

Analyse any two effects of globalisation on the culture of India.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/C/1

Cultural effects of globalization on India:

  • (i) Impact on festivals of India.
  • (ii) Food habits got changed.
  • (iii) Emergence of new festivals from the Western culture.
  • (iv) New international brands have entered in the market that affected our cultural values.

Or any other effect (any two effects)

Q61.2022 Main 59/1/1 · Q94 marks

Explain any two economic consequences of Globalisation.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 59/1/1

Economic Consequences–

  1. Greater economic flows among different countries.
  2. Restrictions imposed by different countries on imports from other countries were reduced or removed.
  3. Investors of the developed countries could invest in the developing or underdeveloped countries.
  4. Somewhere new avenues were created for the jobs.

Or any other (Any two)

Q62.2022 Supp. 59/6/1 · Q94 marks

Identify and explain any two factors responsible for the emergence of globalisation.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/6/1

Factors responsible for the emergence of globalisation:-

  1. Globalisation is not caused by any single factor, technology remains a critical element.
  2. The invention of telegraph, the telephone, internet and the microchip in the more recent times has revolutionized communication between different parts of the world.
  3. It increased interconnectedness among people in the world.

(Any two) (or any other point) 2×2=4

Q63.SQP 2025-26 · Q22(A)4 marks

Analyse any two causes of globalisation.

Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 · Marking Scheme

Globalisation means the flows of ideas, capital, commodities and people across different parts of the world. It is a multidimensional concept. It has political, economic and cultural manifestations and these must be adequately distinguished.

  1. Globalization is caused by new modern technology both communication and transport. It facilitates the easy flow of ideas, commodities and people from one country to other country.
  2. Inter-Connectedness: Nowadays the happenings in one part of the World are not limited to that part only but affects the people of to their countries. Inter-Connectedness enhances globalisation.

(Or Any other relevant point/s)

Q64.SQP 2025-26 · Q22(B)4 marks

“Welfare State is getting replaced by market.” Analyse the reasons for this change.

Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 · Marking Scheme
  1. Globalisation results in erosion of state capacity, that is, the ability of government to do what they do.
  2. The old ‘welfare state’ is now giving way to a more minimalist state that performs certain core functions such as the maintenance of law and order and the security of its citizens.
  3. It is the market that becomes prime determinant of economic and social priorities.
  4. The entry and the increased role of multinational companies all over the world lead to a reduction in the capacity of governments to take decisions on their own.

(Or Any other relevant point/s)

Q65.2023 Main 59/3/1 · Q28(b)6 marks

Highlight any four economic consequences of globalisation.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/3/1
  1. Greater economic flows among different countries of the world. This flow or exchange may be in the forms like commodities, capital, people and ideas.
  2. Increase in the trade of commodities.
  3. Restrictions on movement of capital across the countries have been reduced.
  4. The choices of customers have multiplied.
  5. The job avenues have increased.
  6. Developed countries have carefully guarded their borders with visa policies to ensure that citizens of other countries can not take away the jobs of their own citizens.
  7. It has increased the gap between the developed and developing countries.
  8. It has widened the gap between rich and the poor, skilled and unskilled within a country.

(or any other relevant point) (Any four) 4×1½=6

Q66.2023 Supp. 59/C/1 · Q30(a)6 marks

Highlight any three political consequences of globalisation.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/C/1

Political consequences of globalisation:-

  • i) Globalisation results in erosion of State capacity, that is, the ability of the government to do what they do.
  • ii) The old ‘Welfare State’ is now giving way to a move minimalist state that perform certain core functions such as the maintenance of law and order and the security of its citizens.
  • iii) The entry and the increased role of multinational companies all over the world leads to a reduction in the capacity of governments to take decision on their own.
  • iv) State capacity has received a boost as a consequence of globalisation, with enhanced technologies available at the disposal of the stated to collect information about its citizens.

Or any other (any three)

Q67.2022 Main 59/3/1 · Q13(a)6 marks

Evaluate any three benefits of globalisation.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 59/3/1

Benefits of globalisation—

  1. Flow of capital to developing countries.
  2. Creation of jobs and flow of labourers.
  3. Choice of the people have increased.
  4. Digitalization became the new system.
  5. Standard of living got raised.

Or any other appropriate answer.

(Any three with elaboration)

Q68.2022 Main 59/3/1 · Q13(b)6 marks

Evaluate any three effects of globalisation on the role of state in developing countries.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 59/3/1
  1. Globalisation affects state sovereignty to some extent because the state government has to follow the international decisions on various global issues. It has eroded the capacity of the state by reducing the ability of government to do what it wants to do. The concept of welfare state has reduce to a more minimalist state that performs certain core functions such as the maintenance of law and order and the security of its citizens.
  2. At the same time, It does not always reduce state capacity. The primacy of the state continues to be unchallenged basis of political community. The old jealousies and rivalries between countries have not ceased to matter in world politics.
  3. In some respects, state capacity has received a boost due to enhancement of technologies available at the disposal of the state to collect information about its citizens.

(Evaluate as a whole)

Q69.2022 Main 59/5/1 · Q13(a)6 marks

Analyse that globalisation is about world wide inter-connectedness.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 59/5/1

Globalisation is all about worldwide interconnectedness.

Interconnectedness signifies interlinking of the world through free movement of capital, goods, technology, ideas and people across the globe.

  • Flow of ideas and concepts
  • Flow of services
  • Flow of goods
  • Flow of capital
  • Flow of people
  • Flow of diseases: Ebola, HIV, small viruses like Covid-19.

Or any other relevant answer

Q70.2022 Main 59/5/1 · Q13(b)6 marks

Evaluate the role of technology in globalisation.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 59/5/1

Globalisation is not caused by any single factor, technology remains a critical element.

  • The invention of telegraph, the telephone, internet and the microchip in the more recent times has revolutionised communication between different parts of the world.
  • Effects of Technology
    1. Cultural - Cultural Homogenisation and Hetrogenisation and flow of ideas.
    2. Economic- Flow of goods, trade New Technology and rapid transportation.
    3. Political -More information and data regarding their citizens for good governance.
  • The ability of ideas, capital, commodities and people to move more easily from one part of the world to another has been made possible largely by technological advancements.
  • Globalisation does have some negative impacts also. The MNCs have affected the local industries introducing modern technology.

On evaluation, it is established that technology (Communication, Transportation and in other sectors) has brought the countries closer and provided new inventions and implements for development

Or any other relevant role

Part B · Politics in India since Independence

1. Challenges of Nation Building

Q1.2026 Main 59/1/1 · Q21 mark

Which one of the following is the reason that led to the formation of Andhra state in 1952 ?

  1. Realising the need to reorganise the internal boundaries of Indian states at the end of colonial rule.
  2. Reorganisation of the Indian National Congress on the basis of linguistic principle after Nagpur session in 1920.
  3. Death of the Congress leader, Potti Sriramulu which caused great unrest and led to resignation of several legislators of Madras in protest.
  4. The Tamil speaking people of old Madras province demanding the reorganisation of state on the basis of language.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/1/1

(C) Death of the congress leader, Potti Sriramulu which caused great unrest and led to resignation of several legislators of Madras in protest

Q2.2026 Main 59/1/1 · Q61 mark

Which one of the following statements is NOT correct about the princely states ?

  1. Princely states were ruled by the princes.
  2. All the princely states had accepted to be an integral part of India after the end of British rule.
  3. The princes of princely states accepted British supremacy and enjoyed some form of control over their internal affairs.
  4. After the end of British paramountcy, the provinces were free to join either India or Pakistan or remain independent.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/1/1

(B) All the princely States accepted to be an integral part of India after the end of British rule.

Q3.2026 Main 59/3/1 · Q41 mark

Match the States given in List-I with the States from which these were carved out given in List-II correctly. Choose the correct answer from the codes given below :

List-IList-II
1. Gujarat(i) Assam
2. Haryana(ii) Bombay
3. Meghalaya(iii) Madhya Pradesh
4. Chhattisgarh(iv) Punjab

Codes :

  1. 1-(i), 2-(iii), 3-(iv), 4-(ii)
  2. 1-(ii), 2-(iv), 3-(i), 4-(iii)
  3. 1-(iii), 2-(iv), 3-(i), 4-(ii)
  4. 1-(ii), 2-(i), 3-(iv), 4-(iii)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/3/1

(B) 1-(ii), 2-(iv), 3-(i), 4-(iii)

Q4.2026 Main 59/3/1 · Q61 mark

The States Reorganisation Commission was appointed in 1953 :

  1. to ensure administrative efficiency.
  2. to end complexities regarding demarcation of the provinces’ boundaries during colonial rule.
  3. to ensure process of nation building.
  4. for demarcation of states’ boundaries on the basis of language.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/3/1

(D) for demarcation of states boundaries on the basis of language

Q5.2026 Main 59/4/1 · Q71 mark

Match the Leaders in the Column ‘A’ with the Facts listed in the Column ‘B’ correctly.

Column AColumn B
1. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel(i) Tryst with Destiny
2. Bodhchandra Singh(ii) First Deputy Prime Minister
3. Potti Sriramulu(iii) Vishalandhra Movement
4. Jawaharlal Nehru(iv) Maharaja of a Princely State

Options :

  1. 1-(iii), 2-(iv), 3-(ii), 4-(i)
  2. 1-(ii), 2-(iv), 3-(iii), 4-(i)
  3. 1-(ii), 2-(iii), 3-(iv), 4-(i)
  4. 1-(iv), 2-(iii), 3-(i), 4-(ii)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/4/1

(B) 1-ii, 2-iv, 3-iii, 4-i

Q6.2026 Main 59/4/1 · Q81 mark

Given below are two statements :

Statement I : During colonial period, the state boundaries were drawn on the administrative convenience.

Statement II : After independence, redrawing of the boundaries of the states was based on different languages.

In the light of the above given statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
  2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
  3. Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.
  4. Statement I is false, but Statement II is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/4/1

(A) Both statement I & II are true

Q7.2026 Main 59/5/1 · Q71 mark

Who among the following advanced the ‘Two-nation theory’ ?

  1. British Government
  2. Muslim League
  3. Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan
  4. Lord Mountbatten
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/5/1

(B) Muslim League

Q8.2026 Main 59/5/1 · Q81 mark

For Question number 8, two statements are given — one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Read these statements carefully and choose the correct option as the answer from the options (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below.

Assertion (A): There were killings and atrocities on both sides of the border of India in 1947.

Reason (R): The planned transfer of the population had failed.

Options :

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/5/1

(C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.

Q9.2025 Main 59/6/1 · Q61 mark

For Question number 6, two statements are given — one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Read these statements carefully and choose the correct option as the answer from the options (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below.

Assertion (A): The first challenge after getting independence was to keep India united.

Reason (R): India’s Deputy Prime Minister and the Home Minister, Sardar Patel played an important role in the unification of India.

Options :

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
  4. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/6/1

(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).

Q10.2025 Main 59/6/1 · Q81 mark

On the basis of which language was Andhra Pradesh formed ?

  1. Telugu
  2. Malayalam
  3. Tamil
  4. Kannada
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/6/1

(A) Telugu

Q11.2025 Supp. 59/S/1 · Q71 mark

Identify the state which was created in 1952.

  1. Gujarat
  2. Andhra Pradesh
  3. Goa
  4. Orissa
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/S/1

(B) Andhra Pradesh

Q12.2025 Supp. 59/S/1 · Q81 mark

For Question number 8, two statements are given — one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Read these statements carefully and choose the correct option as the answer from the options (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below.

Assertion (A): The Central Government appointed the States Reorganisation Commission in 1953 to look into the question of redrawing the boundaries of states.

Reason (R): Many people were struggling for the formation of states on linguistic basis.

Options :

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/S/1

(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).

Q13.2024 Main 59/5/1 · Q31 mark

Which one of the following Princely States of India initially opposed joining the Indian Union ?

  1. Baroda
  2. Hyderabad
  3. Mysore
  4. Gwalior
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/5/1

(B) Hyderabad

Q14.2024 Main 59/5/1 · Q121 mark

Name the state from which Chhattisgarh was carved out.

  1. Uttar Pradesh
  2. Bihar
  3. Jharkhand
  4. Madhya Pradesh
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/5/1

(D) Madhya Pradesh

Q15.2023 Main 59/2/1 · Q71 mark

Who advanced the ‘Two Nation Theory’ that led to the partition of British India ?

  1. Abdul Gaffar Khan
  2. Muslim League
  3. British Government
  4. Congress Party
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/2/1

(b) Muslim League

Q16.2023 Main 59/3/1 · Q121 mark

Which one of the following Princely States initially opposed joining the Indian Union ?

  1. Baroda
  2. Hyderabad
  3. Mysore
  4. Gwalior
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/3/1

(b) Hyderabad

Q17.2023 Supp. 59/C/1 · Q71 mark

Who was the first Deputy Prime Minister of India ?

  1. Sardar Patel
  2. Morarji Desai
  3. Ch. Charan Singh
  4. C. Rajgopalachari
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/C/1

(a) Sardar Patel

Q18.2023 Supp. 59/C/1 · Q81 mark

The States Reorganisation Commission was appointed in 1953 to ______.

  1. recommend the formation of Union Territories
  2. redraw the boundaries of States
  3. merge the Princely States with India
  4. reorganise only the provinces under the British control
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/C/1

(b) Redraw the boundaries of States

Q19.SQP 2025-26 · Q121 mark

Arrange the following in chronological order of their creation:

I) Arunachal Pradesh
II) Punjab
III) Nagaland
IV) Tripura

Select the correct option:

  1. (III), (II), (IV), (I)
  2. (II), (IV), (I), (III)
  3. (IV), (I), (III), (II)
  4. (I), (II), (III), (IV)
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 · Marking Scheme

(A) (III), (II), (IV), (I)

Q20.2025 Main 59/1/1 · Q152 marks

Explain the two commonly agreed upon goals of the national movement which were achieved after independence.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/1/1

Goals :

  1. Democratic system.
  2. Freedom and equality without any discrimination.
  3. The upliftment of the socially backward and disadvantaged groups (social justice).

or any other relevant goal/example (any two) (2x1=2)

Q21.2025 Main 59/5/1 · Q162 marks

Explain the ‘Two-Nation theory’ as advanced by the Muslim League.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/5/1

Two-Nation theory :

Two-Nation theory advanced by the Muslim League advocates that India has two people – Hindus and Muslims. Hence it demanded Pakistan, a separate country for the Muslims.

Q22.2023 Supp. 59/C/1 · Q162 marks

Explain the ‘Two-Nation Theory’ advanced by the Muslim League.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/C/1

‘Two nation theory’ was advanced by the Muslim League. According to it, India consisted of not one but two ‘people’ i.e. Hindus and Muslims. That is why it demanded Pakistan as a separate country for Muslims.

Q23.SQP 2026-27 · Q162 marks

Highlight any two reasons for the redrawing of state boundaries on linguistic basis after India's independence.

Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 · Marking Scheme
  1. To reflect linguistic divisions: The national movement had promised that states would be formed on the basis of language, as the old colonial boundaries were seen as artificial divisions made for administrative convenience or British annexation. The States Reorganisation Commission (SRC) accepted that the boundaries of states should largely reflect the boundaries of different languages to accommodate linguistic diversity.
  2. To enhance democratic practice and administration: The accommodation of regional demands through linguistic states was seen as a more democratic approach. It was hoped that accepting regional and linguistic claims would strengthen national unity, rather than leading to disintegration as some leaders initially feared, and would provide a more uniform and manageable basis for administration.

(To be assessed as a whole)

Q24.2026 Main 59/1/1 · Q254 marks

Study the given cartoon carefully and answer the questions that follow :

Figure from the paper

(i) Name the leader talking to the Prince in this cartoon.

(ii) What does the Prince sitting on the back of a poor man indicate ?

(iii) What message is being conveyed by the cartoon ?

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/1/1

(i) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

(ii) People are shown as exploited and in suppressed conditions. Rulers used to supress the ordinary people.

(iii) Sardar Patel preferred to get ‘the instrument of accession’ signed by the rulers. It helped to unify the country as one unit.

Q25.2026 Main 59/1/1 · Q25 (VI)4 marks

(i) Name the speech given by Jawaharlal Nehru at the hour of midnight on 14-15 August 1947.

(ii) Name the first Deputy Prime Minister of India.

(iii) Explain the two nation theory.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/1/1

(i) ‘Tryst with Destiny’.

(ii) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

(iii) Two nation theory was given by Muslim League. According to this theory India consists of two ‘People’ – Hindu and Muslim so after independence it should be divided into two nations.

Q26.2026 Main 59/3/1 · Q194 marks

Explain any two major concerns of Indian government regarding the reorganisation of states on the basis of language after the end of colonial rule.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/3/1

Concerns :

(i) National Leadership felt that carving out states on the basis of language might lead to disruption and disintegration.

(ii) It was also felt that this would draw attention away from other social and economic challenges that the country faced.

(iii) The central leadership decided to postpone these matters. The need for postponement was also felt because the fate of the princely states had not been decided. Also, the memory of Partition was still fresh.

(or any other relevant point) (any two to be explained)

Q27.2026 Main 59/4/1 · Q22(a)4 marks

Describe any four consequences of the partition of British India.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/4/1

Four Consequences of Partition.

(i) Abrupt and unplanned transfer of large population.

(ii) People on both sides killed on the basis of their religious affiliations.

(iii) Two provinces Punjab and West Bengal were bifurcated.

(iv) Assets and liabilities were also divided.

(v) Great loss of people and property was recorded on both the sides.

(vi) Religious hatred spread between Hindus and Muslims.

( any other relevant point) (Any four)

Q28.2026 Main 59/4/1 · Q22(b)4 marks

Describe any four problems of the process of partition of British India.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/4/1

Problems of the Partition

(i) There was no single belt of Muslim majority areas in British India.

(ii) Not all Muslim majority areas wanted to be in Pakistan.

(iii) Two of the Muslim majority Provinces of British India Punjab and Bengal had very large areas where the non-Muslim were in majority .

(iv) The problem of minorities on both sides of the border.

( any other relevant point) (Any four)

Q29.2026 Main 59/5/1 · Q254 marks

In the given political outline map of India (on page 15), four States have been marked as Ⓐ, Ⓑ, Ⓒ and Ⓓ. Identify these States on the basis of the information given below and write their correct names in your answer-book along with the respective serial number of the information used and the concerned alphabets given in the map as per the following format :

Serial number of the information usedConcerned alphabet given in the mapName of the State
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

(i) The state which was bifurcated between India and Pakistan at the time of the partition.

(ii) The state which was created in 1966.

(iii) The state to which the first Deputy Prime Minister Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel belonged.

(iv) The state to which Maharaja Bodhchandra Singh belonged.

Figure from the paper

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/5/1
Sr. no. of the information usedConcerned Alphabet given in the mapName of Countries/State
(i)DWest Bengal
(ii)CHaryana
(iii)BGujrat
(iv)AManipur
Q30.2026 Main 59/5/1 · Q25 (VI)4 marks

(25.1) Name the first Home Minister of India.

(25.2) In which year was Andhra state formed after independence ?

(25.3) Name the theory that led to the partition of British India.

(25.4) In which year was the Jharkhand state created ?

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/5/1

25.1 Sardar Patel

25.2 December 1952

25.3 Two Nation Theory

25.4 2000

Q31.2025 Main 59/1/1 · Q254 marks

In the given Political outline map of India, four states have been marked as (A), (B), (C) and (D). Identify these states on the basis of the information given below and write their correct names in your answer book along with the respective serial numbers of the information used and the concerned alphabets shown in the map as per the format that follows :

Sr. Number of the information usedAlphabet concernedName of the States
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
  1. The Princely State whose ruler resisted its merger with India.
  2. The State that was most affected by the partition of the country.
  3. The State carved out from Madhya Pradesh.
  4. The State that was formed in 1952.

Figure from the paper

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/1/1
Sr. no. of the information usedConcerned Alphabet given in the mapName of Countries/State
(i)CJammu and Kashmir
(ii)APunjab
(iii)DChhattisgarh
(iv)BAndhra Pradesh

(1+1+1+1=4)

Q32.2025 Main 59/1/1 · Q25 (VI)4 marks

Note : The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of Q. No. 25.

(25.1) Name the Union Territory which earlier was a state.

(25.2) Name any one state that was most affected by the partition of the country.

(25.3) Which state was carved out from Madhya Pradesh ?

(25.4) Which state was formed in 1952 ?

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/1/1

(25.1) Jammu and Kashmir / Ladakh

(25.2) Punjab or West Bengal (any one)

(25.3) Chhattisgarh

(25.4) Andhra Pradesh

(1+1+1+1=4)

Q33.2025 Main 59/5/1 · Q254 marks

In the given political outline map of India (on page 15), four States have been marked as (A), (B), (C) and (D). Identify these States on the basis of the information given below and write their correct names in your answer-book along with the respective serial number of the information used and the concerned alphabets given in the map as per the following format :

Serial number of the information usedConcerned alphabet given in the mapName of the State
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
  1. The State to which Maharaja Bodhchandra Singh belonged
  2. The State which was created in 1966
  3. The State which earlier was a part of Madhya Pradesh
  4. The State which was created in June 2014

Figure from the paper

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/5/1
Sr. no. of the information usedConcerned Alphabet given in the mapName of Countries/State
(i)DManipur
(ii)CHaryana
(iii)BChhattisgarh
(iv)ATelengana

(4 × 1 = 4)

Q34.2025 Main 59/5/1 · Q25 (VI)4 marks

Note : The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates only, in lieu of Q. No. 25 :

(25.1) Name the state that was carved out of Madhya Pradesh.

(25.2) Name the state to which Maharaja Bodhchandra Singh belonged.

(25.3) Name the first Home Minister of India.

(25.4) Name any two princely states that initially were not ready to become a part of the Union of India.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/5/1

25.1 Chhattisgarh

25.2 Manipur

25.3 Sardar Patel

25.4 Hyderabad, Travancore, Junagarh, Jammu and Kashmir, Manipur (Any two)

(4 × 1 = 4)

Q35.2025 Main 59/6/1 · Q204 marks

Explain the role of Mahatma Gandhi in reducing communal tension and violence which erupted in some parts of the country at the time of partition.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/6/1

Gandhiji’s role was :

  1. Gandhiji persuaded the Hindus and Muslims to give up violence. His presence in Kolkata greatly improved the situation in Kolkata.
  2. Gandhiji resorted to fast unto death. His fast also had a dramatic effect in Delhi too.
  3. In Delhi, he ensured that Muslims should be allowed to stay in India with dignity as equal citizens. Muslims of Delhi and surrounding areas could safely return to their homes.
  4. The Government of India agreed to give Pakistan its dues.

All these steps were taken by Mahatma Gandhi to pacify the people and create harmony among the two communities.

or any other relevant point (Evaluate as a whole)

Q36.2025 Supp. 59/S/1 · Q254 marks

In the given political outline map of India (on page 15), four States have been marked as (A), (B), (C) and (D). Identify these states on the basis of the information given below and write their correct names in your answer-book along with the respective serial number of the information used and the concerned alphabets given in the map as per the following format :

Serial number of the information usedConcerned alphabet given in the mapName of the State
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
  1. The state which was divided during partition and one part remained with India.
  2. The state which was carved out of Assam.
  3. The state to which Sardar Patel belonged.
  4. The state which was created in 1966.

Figure from the paper

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/S/1
Sr. no. of the information usedConcerned Alphabet given in the mapName of Countries/State
(i)CPunjab
(ii)DTripura
(iii)AGujarat
(iv)BHimachal Pradesh

(4 × 1 = 4)

Q37.2025 Supp. 59/S/1 · Q25 (VI)4 marks

Note : The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates only, in lieu of Q. No. 25 :

(25.1) Name the state which was carved out of Assam in 1972.

(25.2) Name the first Deputy Prime Minister of India.

(25.3) How many princely states were in existence in India just before independence ?

(25.4) Name the leader who undertook fast unto death demanding a separate state of ‘Andhra’.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/S/1

25.1 Meghalaya

25.2 Sardar Patel

25.3 565

25.4 Potti Sriramulu

(4 × 1 = 4)

Q38.2024 Main 59/5/1 · Q244 marks

Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow :

The interim government took a firm stance against the possible division of India into small principalities of different sizes. The Muslim League opposed the Indian National Congress and took the view that the States should be free to adopt any course they liked. Sardar Patel played a historic role in negotiating with the rulers of princely states firmly but diplomatically and bringing most of them into the Indian Union.

(24.1) Which principle was followed for the division of British India at the time of partition in 1947 ?

  1. Principle of administrative control
  2. Principle of ethnic composition
  3. Principle of religious majorities
  4. Principle of equality

(24.2) Who was the first Deputy Prime Minister of free India ?

  1. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
  2. Sardar Patel
  3. V.K. Menon
  4. Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan

(24.3) How many princely states were there in British India at the time of independence ?

  1. 556
  2. 566
  3. 655
  4. 565

(24.4) Which of the following statements about the princely states is NOT correct ?

  1. The Indian government was ready to give autonomy to some regions.
  2. The ruler of Junagadh had decided to be part of independent India.
  3. Princely states covered one third of the land area of British Indian empire.
  4. Some of the princely states clearly wanted to become part of the Indian Union.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/5/1

(24.1) (C) Principal of religious majorities

(24.2) (B) Sardar Patel

(24.3) (D) 565

(24.4) (B) The ruler of Junagadh had decided to be part of independent India.

(4x1=4)

Q39.2023 Main 59/3/1 · Q254 marks

In the given political outline map of India (on page 17), four States have been marked as (A), (B), (C) and (D). Identify these States on the basis of the information given below and write their correct names in your answer-book along with the respective serial number of the information used and the concerned alphabets given in the map as per the following format :

Serial number of the information usedConcerned alphabet in the mapName of the State
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
  1. The State which was called ‘Madras’ at the time of Independence.
  2. The State formed on the basis of imbalanced development.
  3. The State which was partitioned in 1947.
  4. The first State created in 1952.

Figure from the paper

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/3/1
Serial number of the information usedConcerned alphabet given in the mapName of the State
(i)BTamil Nadu
(ii)AChhattisgarh
(iii)DPunjab
(iv)CAndhra Pradesh

4×1=4

Q40.2023 Main 59/3/1 · Q25 (VI)4 marks

Note : The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates only, in lieu of Q. No. 25 :

  1. Which two States were created by dividing ‘Bombay’ State ?
  2. What is the present name of former ‘Madras’ State ?
  3. Uttarakhand was carved out of which State ?
  4. Name the State which was carved out of Madhya Pradesh.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/3/1

25.1 Gujarat and Maharashtra

25.2 Tamil Nadu

25.3 Uttar Pradesh

25.4 Chhattisgarh

4×1=4

Q41.2023 Main 59/4/1 · Q244 marks

Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow :

The leaders of the Indian national struggle did not believe in the two-nation theory. And yet, the partition on religious basis had taken place. The Muslim League was formed to protect the interests of the Muslims in colonial India. It was in the forefront of the demand for a separate Muslim nation.
  1. At the time of partition, which one of the following States was divided on the basis of religious majority ?
    1. Uttar Pradesh
    2. Gujarat
    3. Bengal
    4. Jammu and Kashmir
  2. Which one of the following Princely States was the first to announce to remain independent and not to join the Union of India ?
    1. Hyderabad
    2. Manipur
    3. Junagarh
    4. Travancore
  3. Why was the Muslim League formed ?
    1. To propose ‘two-nation theory’
    2. To form a new nation named Pakistan
    3. To prepare the constitution of Pakistan
    4. To protect the interests of the Muslims in colonial India
  4. What was the stand of the Interim Indian Government on partition ?
    1. It was against partition.
    2. It wanted peace, harmony and equality of religion.
    3. It wanted India to become a Hindu nation.
    4. It was in favour of treating people on religious basis.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/4/1

(i) (c) Bengal

(ii) (d) Travancore

(iii) (d) To protect the interest of the Muslims in colonial India.

(iv) (a) It was against partition

4×1=4

Q42.2023 Main 59/5/1 · Q234 marks

Evaluate Sardar Patel’s role in the integration of princely states with Indian Union.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/5/1

Role of Sardar Patel

  • (i) Sardar Patel was India's First Deputy Prime Minister and Home Minister.
  • (ii) He played a historic role in negotiating with the rulers of Princely States and bringing most of them into the Indian Union.
  • (iii) Under his leadership the government’s approach for integrating the princely states was adhered to.
  • (iv) It was under his leadership that Indian forces compelled Hyderabad and Junagadh to merge with India.
  • (v) Keeping well-versed with Pakistan's intentions ,Sardar Patel’s opinion on Kashmir was different from other leaders.
  • (vi) Like Hyderabad, he also wanted Kashmir’s integration with India through military operations. But due to political decisions, could not succeed in integrating Kashmir fully with India.

or any other relevant point (any four)

Q43.2023 Supp. 59/C/1 · Q224 marks

Highlight any two challenges faced by free India after partition in 1947.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/C/1

India faced the following challenges at the time of independence in 1947:

  • (i) To shape a united nation : The first challenge was to shape a nation that was united, yet accommodative of the diversity in our society. There were different cultures, religions and languages in the country. It was a very serious question of unity and integration.
  • (ii) To establish democracy : The second challenge was to establish democracy. The constitution had granted fundamental rights and right to vote to every citizen. The challenge was to develop democratic practices in accordance with the constitution.
  • (iii) To ensure development : The third challenge was to ensure the development and well-being of the entire society and not only of some sections. The constitution had adopted the principle of equality and provide special protection to socially disadvantaged groups and religious and cultural minorities.

(any two challenges)

Q44.SQP 2026-27 · Q264 marks

In the given outline political map of India on page number 9, four States have been marked as (A), (B), (C) and (D). Identify these states on the basis of the information given below and write their correct names in your answer book along with the respective serial number of the information used and the concerned alphabets given in the map as per the format that follows:

  1. The State that was carved out of Bombay.
  2. After a popular agitation, this state was created in 1960.
  3. The State which was created in 2000.
  4. Potti Sriramulu played an important role in the formation of this State.
Serial Number of the information usedConcerned alphabet given in the mapName of the State
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

Figure from the paper

Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 · Marking Scheme
Serial Number of the information usedConcerned alphabet given in the mapName of the State
(i)CGujarat
(ii)AMaharashtra
(iii)DChhattisgarh
(iv)BAndhra Pradesh
Q45.SQP 2026-27 · Q26 (VI)4 marks

NOTE: Following questions are for Candidates with Visual impairment, in lieu of Question No. 26.

  1. Name the princely state whose issue was resolved after a plebiscite confirmed people’s desire to join India.
  2. Name the State whose formation was announced in 1952.
  3. Name India’s first Deputy Prime Minister and the Home Minister after Independence?
  4. Name the para- military forces appointed by the Nizam of Hyderabad.
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 · Marking Scheme
  1. Junagarh
  2. Andhra Pradesh
  3. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
  4. Razakars
Q46.2026 Main 59/2/1 · Q30(a)6 marks

How did Princely states posed a threat to the National Security of India ? Explain.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/2/1

Challenges for national security –

  • British India was divided into British Indian Provinces and Princely states. The Princely states enjoyed some form of control over their internal affairs and accepted British supremacy. Princely states covered one-third of the land area of the British Indian Empire and one out of four Indians lived under princely rule.
  • Just before independence British declared that with the end of their rule, their control over princely states would also lapse. This meant that all these 565 states would become legally independent.
  • The British government declared that these states were free to join either India or Pakistan or remain independent if they so wished. This decision was left not to the people but to the princely rulers of these states.
  • This was a very serious problem and threatened the very existence of a united India.
  • Some states refused to merge and decided to remain independent such as Hyderabad, Jammu and Kashmir, Manipur etc. may be given.

The challenges stated above posed a threat to National Security.

( or any other relevant point ) ( any three points)

Q47.2026 Main 59/2/1 · Q30(b)6 marks

Explain any four problems faced during the process of partition of India.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/2/1

(i) There was no single belt of Muslim majority areas in British India.

(ii) Not all Muslim majority areas wanted to be in Pakistan.

(iii) Two of the Muslim majority provinces of British India, Punjab and Bengal, had very large areas where the non-Muslims were in majority.

(iv) Problems of minorities on the both sides of the border.

(v) It was an unplanned transfer of population.

(or any other problems) (Any four)

Q48.2026 Supp. 59/7/1 · Q29(a)6 marks

Describe any three challenges faced by India just after its independence.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/7/1

Three challenges –

  1. To shape a nation that was united and accommodative of the diversity in our society (Religion, language, culture, regional differences etc).
  2. To establish and deepen democracy. Development of democratic practices in accordance with the constitution of India.
  3. To ensure development and well being of the entire society. To evolve effective policies for economic development and eradication of poverty.

(Any other) (Any three to be described)

Q49.2026 Supp. 59/7/1 · Q29(b)6 marks

Describe the process and approach adopted by the interim government to bring all the princely states into the Indian Union.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/7/1
  1. The interim government took a firm stance against the possible division of India into small principalities of different sizes.
  2. Negotiation was started with all the princely states firmly and diplomatically before the independence to make them agree to join the union of India.
  3. Government was prepared to be flexible in giving autonomy to some regions.
  4. The idea was to accommodate plurality and adopt a flexible approach in dealing with the demands of the regions.
  5. Priority was for the integration and consolidation of the territorial boundaries of the nation.
  6. Government even used force to get the merger of princely states for example – Hyderabad.

(Any other point) (Any three points)

Q50.2025 Main 59/2/1 · Q30(a)6 marks

Describe any three circumstances under which the State Reorganisation Commission was constituted.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/2/1

Circumstances :

  1. At that time the challenge was to draw the internal boundaries of the Indian states.
  2. The boundaries had to be drawn in a way so that the linguistic and cultural plurality of the country could be reflected without affecting the unity of the nation.
  3. Our national movement leaders had rejected division as artificial and had promised the linguistic principle as the basis of formation of states.
  4. Our leaders thought that formation of states on the basis of language and culture may lead to separatism.
  5. Protests began in the Telugu speaking areas and nearly all the political forces in Andhra region were in favour of linguistic reorganisation of the then Madras Province.
  6. The formation of Andhra Pradesh spurred the struggle for making of other states on linguistic lines in other parts of the country.
  7. These movements forced the central government into appointing a State Reorganisation Commission in 1953.

(any three points to be described) (3x2=6)

Q51.2025 Main 59/2/1 · Q30(b)6 marks

Describe the circumstances and events that led to Manipur’s accession to India in 1949.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/2/1

Manipur’s accession :

Circumstances:

  • A few days before independence, the Maharaja of Manipur, Bodhachandra Singh, signed the Instrument of Accession with the Indian government on the assurance that the internal autonomy of Manipur would be maintained.
  • Under the pressure of Public opinion, the Maharaja held elections in Manipur in June 1948 and the state became a constitutional monarchy.
  • In the Legislative Assembly of Manipur there were sharp differences over the question of merger of Manipur with India.

Events:

  • While the state Congress wanted the merger, other political parties were opposed to this.
  • The Government of India succeeded in pressurising the Maharaja into signing a Merger Agreement in September 1949, without consulting the popularly elected Legislative Assembly of Manipur. This caused a lot of anger and resentment in Manipur, the repercussions of which are still being felt.

(3+3=6)

Q52.2025 Main 59/4/1 · Q29(a)6 marks

Describe any four consequences of the partition of British India in 1947.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/4/1

Consequences of Partition

  1. It was the most abrupt and unplanned transfer of population – It caused a lot of trouble for the ordinary people.
  2. Lakhs of people were killed on both sides because of religious hatred.
  3. Women became the targets of violence and humiliation.
  4. The partition was not merely a division of properties, liabilities, assets. Even the financial assets were divided. It was a partition which encouraged hatred.

or any other relevant point (Any three) (4 × 1½ = 6)

Q53.2025 Main 59/4/1 · Q29(b)6 marks

Describe any four events related to the princely state of Hyderabad prior to its accession to India.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/4/1
  1. Nizam wanted an independent status for Hyderabad.
  2. In the meantime, movement of the people gathered force against the Nizam’s rule. The communists and the Hyderabad Congress were in the forefront against the oppressive rule of Nizam.
  3. The Nizam responded to the movement by unleashing a para-military force known as Razakars on the people. They murdered, raped and looted the people.
  4. In Sept. 1948, Indian army moved in to control the Nizam’s forces.

After a few days Nizam surrendered. This led to the accession of Hyderabad to India.

or any other relevant detail (Evaluate as a whole) (4 × 1½ = 6)

Q54.2025 Main 59/7/1 · Q29(a)6 marks

Explain any two reasons responsible for the establishment of the States Reorganization Commission and highlight the basis on which new states were created.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/7/1

Two reasons:-

  1. After getting independence, the challenge was to draw the internal boundaries of the Indian states. The boundaries had to be drawn in a way so that the linguistic and cultural plurality of the country could be reflected without affecting the Unity of the Nation.
  2. During colonial rules, the state boundaries were drawn either on administrative convenience or simply coincided with the territories annexed by the British government or the territories ruled by the princely powers. But these divisions were rejected by our national movements . After the Nagpur Session of Congress in 1920 the Principle was recognised as the basis of the reorganisation of the Indian National Congress party itself.

(1½ + 1½ = 3)

Basis of the formation of new states :

Things changed after independence and partition. Our leaders felt that carving out states on the basis of language might lead to disruption and disintegration.

But a local level, protests began in the Telugu speaking areas of the old madras province. The movement gathered momentum as a result of the central govt’s vacillation. Potti Sriramulu, a Congress leader and a veteran Gandhian, went on an indefinite fast that led to his death after 56 days. This caused great unrest and resulted in violent outbursts in Andhra region. Consequently, the Prime Minister announced the formation of a separate Andhra State in December 1952. Due to above said reasons, state recognisation commission was setup in 1953.

(3 + 3 = 6)

Q55.2025 Main 59/7/1 · Q29(b)6 marks

Explain any three challenges which India faced at the time of independence.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/7/1

Three challenges were :

  1. To shape a nation that was united, yet accommodative of the diversity in our society.
  2. The second challenge was to establish and deepen democracy.
  3. To ensure the development and well-being of the entire society.
  4. To rehabilitate the displaced people.
  5. To maintain peace among the two religious groups.

(any three with explanation) (3 × 2 = 6)

Q56.2024 Main 59/1/1 · Q29(a)6 marks

Describe any three major challenges that independent India faced immediately after independence.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/1/1

Basic challenges India faced after independence :

  • (i) To shape a nation that was united yet accommodative of the diversity of the country. The partition of the country appeared to prove everyone’s worst fear. There were serious questions about the future of India. Would India survive as a unified country ? How was integration of the territory of India to be achieved ?
  • (ii) The second challenge was to establish democracy. India has adopted representative democracy based on the parliamentary form of government. The challenge was to develop democratic practices in accordance with the Constitution.
  • (iii) Another challenge was to ensure the development and well being of the entire society and not only of some sections. This development has to be based on the principle of equality and special protection to socially disadvantaged groups and religious and cultural communities.
Q57.2024 Main 59/1/1 · Q29(b)6 marks

Describe the role played by Mahatma Gandhi to reduce communal violence that erupted in many parts of India at the time of the partition in 1947.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/1/1

Role played by Mahatma Gandhi to reduce communal violence :

  • Mahatma Gandhi did not participate in any of the Independence Day celebrations because of the riots and violence between the Hindus and Muslims.
  • Gandhiji’s principle of Satya and Ahimsa failed to bind the people in troubled times. So, his presence in Calcutta greatly improved the situation. As a result, Independence Day in Calcutta was celebrated in a spirit of communal harmony.
  • As the communal harmony was short lived, the riots between the Hindus and the Muslim erupted again, Gandhiji had to resort to a fast to bring peace.
  • Since large scale violence had erupted in Delhi also, Gandhiji shifted to Delhi. Various factors and policies of the government made Gandhiji sad and depressed. So, once again, he went on a fast which proved to be his last fast in January 1948. But the effect was dramatic. Communal tension and violence reduced. Muslims could now safely returned to their homes.
  • Although some people did not like Gandhiji’s actions, he continued to meet everyone during his prayer meetings. He continued with his struggle for non-violence justice and tolerance.

(To be assessed as a whole)

Q58.2024 Main 59/2/1 · Q29(a)6 marks

Describe the difficulties faced by India to get the merger of all the Princely States into the Union of India.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/2/1

Difficulties faced by India to get the merger of all the Princely States into the Union of India-

  • Just before independence, it was announced by the British that with the end of their rule over India, the paramountcy of the British Crown over Princely States would also lapse. This meant that all these states, as many as 565 in all, would become legally independent. All these states were free to join either India or Pakistan or remain independent if they so wished. This was a very serious problem and could threaten the very existence of a United India.
  • The rulers of Travancore, Hyderabad and some other states had decided to be independent.
  • The people of most of the Princely States wanted to become a part of the Indian Union.
  • The government was prepared to be more flexible and give autonomy to some regions.
  • In the backdrop of partition, the integration and consolidation of territorial boundaries of the nation had assumed supreme importance.

(Any three points)

Q59.2024 Main 59/2/1 · Q29(b)6 marks

Describe the events that led to the accession of Hyderabad into the Union of India.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/2/1
  • The Nizam of Hyderabad wanted an independent status for Hyderabad.
  • He entered into a stand still agreement with India in November 1947.
  • Meanwhile a people’s movement against the Nizam’s rule gathered force. The communist and the Hyderabad Congress were in the forefront.
  • The Nizam unleashed Razakars on the people. They murdered, looted, raped and maimed particularly the non-muslims.
  • The central government ordered the army to tackle the situation.
  • In September 1948, the Indian Army moved into control of the Nizam’s forces.
  • After a few days of intermittent fighting, the Nizam surrendered and this led to Hyderabad accession to India.

(Assess as a whole)

Q60.2024 Main 59/3/1 · Q30(a)6 marks

Describe any three major challenges faced by India at the time of independence in 1947.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/3/1

Major challenges-

  • (i) To shape a nation that is united yet accommodative of the diversity of the society.
  • (ii) To establish and deepen democracy by ensuring fundamental rights, reperesentative democracy based on Parlimentary form of government.
  • (iii) To ensure the development and well being of the entire society.

(To be explained)

Q61.2024 Main 59/3/1 · Q30(b)6 marks

Describe any three major difficulties that came in the way of the partition of British India in 1947.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/3/1

Major difficulties-

  • (i) No single belt of Muslim majority.
  • (ii) All muslims did not want to be in Pakistan.
  • (iii) Non muslims were also in large numbers in the two Muslim majority provinces of Punjab and Bengal.
  • (iv) Minority on both the sides found themselves trapped.

(any three to be explained)

Q62.2024 Main 59/4/1 · Q29(a)6 marks

Describe any four consequences of the partition of British India in 1947.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/4/1

Consequences of the partition of British India in 1947:

  1. The year 1947 was the year of one of the largest, most abrupt, unplanned and tragic transfer of population that human history has known.
  2. There were killings and atrocities on both sides of the border.
  3. Cities like Lahore, Amritsar and Kolkata became the ‘Communal Zones’.
  4. Minorities on both sides secured temporary shelter in ‘Refugee Camps’.
  5. Women were abducted, made to convert to the religion of the abductor and were forced into marriage.
  6. In many cases, women were killed by their own family members to preserve the ‘family honour’.
  7. Children were separated from their parents or orphaned.
  8. The financial assets and things like tables, Chairs, typewriters, paper-clips, books and also musical instruments of the police band were divided.
  9. The employees of the government and the railways were also ‘divided’.
  10. The ideal of secular nation was enshrined in the Indian Constitution.

(any four points) (4x1½=6)

Q63.2024 Main 59/4/1 · Q29(b)6 marks

Describe any three problems that were faced during the process of partition of British India.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/4/1

The principle of religious majority was to be followed for the partition of India. Following problems were faced during the process of partition of British India.

  1. There was no single belt of Muslim majority area in British India.
  2. Not all Muslim majority areas wanted to be in Pakistan.
  3. The partition of Punjab and Bengal caused the deepest trauma of partition.
  4. The problem of ‘Minorities’ on both sides of the border, made them easy targets of attack.

(any three points to be explained) (3x2=6)

Q64.2024 Supp. 59/S/1 · Q29(a)6 marks

Analyse any four consequences of the partition of British India in 1947.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/S/1

Consequences of the partition of British India in 1947 are:-

  1. It was the largest, unplanned, most abrupt and tragic transfer of people.
  2. Killings and atrocities on both sides of the border, in the name of religion and community.
  3. Cities like Lahore, Amritsar and Kolkata got divided in communal zones.
  4. People were forced to abundant their home and move across border with immense sufferings.
  5. Minorities on both side had to secure temporary shelter in refugee camps. Refugees had to suffer great loss and ill effects of violence.
  6. Lakhs of people were killed, women were killed, abducted and raped on both the sides of border.
  7. People were forced to convert religion.
  8. Many women were killed by their family members to preserve the ‘family honour’. Children got separated from parents and become homeless.

(To be anaylsed) (any four) (4x1½=6)

Q65.2024 Supp. 59/S/1 · Q29(b)6 marks

Analyse the events that led to the merger of Manipur into the Union of India.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/S/1

The events that led to the merger of Manipur into the Union of India are:-

  1. A few days before Independence, the Maharaja of Manipur, Bodhachandra Singh, signed the Instrument of Accession with the Indian government on the assurance that Internal autonomy of Manipur would be maintained.
  2. Under the pressure of public opinion the Maharaja held elections in Manipur in June 1948 and the state became a constitutional monarchy.
  3. Manipur was the first part of India to hold an election based on universal adult franchise.
  4. The government succeded in pressurising the Maharaja into signing a Merger Agreement in Sept 1949, without consulting the popularly elected legislative Assembly. Thus Manipur was merged into the Union of India.

(Assess as a whole) (6)

Q66.2023 Main 59/1/1 · Q28(a)6 marks

Highlight any three challenges faced by India after independence.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/1/1

Three challenges:

  1. To shape the nation that was united and also accommodative of the diversity found in our society & India.
  2. To establish democracy maintain and sustain is to establish equality and end of discrimination.
  3. To ensure development & well – being of the society – protection for the socially disadvantaged groups, religion and cultural minorities.

(To be explained) 3×2=6

Q67.2023 Main 59/1/1 · Q28(b)6 marks

Highlight the role of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel to bring the Princely States into the Indian Union. Support your answer with the help of any three examples.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/1/1
  1. Sardar Patel known as the ‘Iron Man’ of India approached all the Princley states, negotiated with them convinced them to join the Union of India.
  2. Sardar Patel faced challenge in three states – Hyderabad, Junagarh & Kashmir.
  3. He used the Indian forces to face this challenge in Hyderabad and won merger with India.
  4. Junagarh was also pressurised & compelled to join Union of India.
  5. Manipur was divided on the issue of merger. The Government of India succeeded in pressurising the Maharaja of Manipur to sign the Merger Agreement in Sept 1949.
  6. Sardar Patel also had the intention to use tough measures in Jammu & Kashmir, but due to different reasons could not act as per his plans. Still he remain an astounding leader to combine in himself the features of ‘Nationalist, catalyst and Realist.’

3×2=6

Q68.2023 Main 59/2/1 · Q28(b)6 marks

Highlight any three problems faced by Government of India immediately after independence related to the displaced population.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/2/1

Problems:

  1. Rehabilitation of the displaced population.
  2. To maintain peace in the areas that witnessed communal violence.
  3. To settle the problems of minorities.
  4. To build confidence among the displaced who had suffered mentally, physically, emotionally.

Or any other relevant problem (any three to be explained) 3×2=6

Q69.SQP 2025-26 · Q29(A)6 marks

“The accommodation of regional demands and the formation of linguistic states were seen as more democratic.” Justify the statement with suitable arguments.

Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 · Marking Scheme
  1. After Independence and partition, our leaders felt that carving out states on the basis of language might lead to disruption and disintegration. It was also felt that this would draw attention away from other social and economic challenges that the country faced
  2. The formation of Andhra Pradesh spurred the struggle for making of other states on linguistic lines in other parts of the country.
  3. These struggles forced the Central Government into appointing a States Reorganization Commission in 1953 to look into the question of redrawing of the boundaries of states. The Commission in its report accepted that the boundaries of the state should reflect the boundaries of different languages.
  4. Linguistic states and the movements for the formation of these states changed the nature of democratic politics and leadership in some basic ways.
  5. The path to politics and power was now open to people other than the small English-speaking elite.
  6. Linguistic reorganization also gave some uniform basis to the drawing of state boundaries. It strengthened national unity. Above all, the linguistic states underlined the acceptance of the principle of diversity.
Q70.SQP 2025-26 · Q29(B)6 marks

What was the approach of the Government of India towards the princely states immediately after the partition of India in 1947? Describe how the princely state of Manipur acceded to India.

Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 · Marking Scheme

At the time of India’s independence, there were 565 princely states. Immediately after partition communal violence was at its culmination. In this environment, the government’s approach towards princely states was guided by following three considerations:

  1. Firstly, the people of most of the princely states clearly wanted to become part of the Indian union.
  2. Secondly, the government was prepared to be flexible in giving autonomy to some regions. The idea was to accommodate plurality and adopt a flexible approach in dealing with the demands of the regions.
  3. Thirdly, in the backdrop of partition which brought into focus the contest over demarcation of territory, the integration and consolidation of the territorial boundaries of the nation had assumed supreme importance.

Accession of Manipur:

  1. After the independence in 1947, Maharaja of Manipur Bodhachandra Singh, signed the Instrument of Accession with Indian Union on the assurance that the internal autonomy of Manipur would be maintained. Under the pressure of people of Manipur, Maharaja held the election in June, 1948 and state became a constitutional monarchy.
  2. Thus, Manipur was the first state to hold an election on the basis of adult franchise. The Government of India succeeded in pressurising the Maharaja into signing a merger agreement in September 1949 without consulting the Legislative Assembly of Manipur This led to lot of anger and resentment in Manipur.
Part B · Politics in India since Independence

2. Era of One-Party Dominance

Q1.2026 Main 59/4/1 · Q91 mark

In which state was a coalition government formed in 1957 under the leadership of Communist Party of India ?

  1. West Bengal
  2. Kerala
  3. Assam
  4. Andhra Pradesh
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/4/1

(B) Kerala [Democratic Left Front]

Q2.2026 Main 59/4/1 · Q101 mark

To which political party did Rafi Ahmed Kidwai belong ?

  1. Muslim League
  2. Indian National Congress
  3. Communist Party of India
  4. Socialist Party
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/4/1

(B) Indian National Congress

Q3.2026 Supp. 59/7/1 · Q71 mark

Who amongst the following leaders was the founder of Bharatiya Jana Sangh ?

  1. Deendayal Upadhyaya
  2. Balraj Madhok
  3. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee
  4. Atal Bihari Vajpayee
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/7/1

(C) Shyama Prasad Mukherjee

Q4.2026 Supp. 59/7/1 · Q81 mark

Choose from the following, the name of the Communist leader from Kerala who was also a Member of Parliament in 1952.

  1. P.C. Joshi
  2. Ajay Ghosh
  3. P. Sundarayya
  4. A.K. Gopalan
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/7/1

(D) A K Gopalan

Q5.2025 Main 59/2/1 · Q91 mark

Which political party won 16 Lok Sabha seats and was at second place in the first General Election of India ?

  1. Communist Party of India
  2. Bharatiya Jan Sangh
  3. Socialist Party
  4. Swatantra Party
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/2/1

(A) Communist Party of India

Q6.2025 Main 59/2/1 · Q101 mark

Choose the correct full form of the EVM.

  1. Electric Voting Machine
  2. Easy Voting Machine
  3. Electronic Voting Machine
  4. Election Voting Machine
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/2/1

(C) Electronic Voting Machine

Q7.2025 Main 59/4/1 · Q71 mark

In which year were the first General Elections held in India ?

  1. 1948
  2. 1949
  3. 1950
  4. 1952
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/4/1

(D) 1952

Q8.2025 Main 59/4/1 · Q81 mark

Which one of the following political leaders belonged to the Communist Party of India ?

  1. C. Rajagopalachari
  2. A.K. Gopalan
  3. Acharya Narendra Dev
  4. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/4/1

(B) A.K. Gopalan

Q9.2025 Main 59/5/1 · Q71 mark

Choose the name of the political party that ruled Jammu and Kashmir from 1952 to 1957.

  1. Indian National Congress
  2. National Conference
  3. Swatantra Party
  4. People’s Democratic Front
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/5/1

(B) National Conference

Q10.2025 Main 59/5/1 · Q81 mark

Who was the founder of Bharatiya Jana Sangh ?

  1. Atal Bihari Vajpayee
  2. Deen Dayal Upadhyaya
  3. Balraj Madhok
  4. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/5/1

(D) Shyama Prasad Mukherjee

Q11.2025 Main 59/6/1 · Q91 mark

On which date was the Constitution of India adopted ?

  1. 24th November, 1949
  2. 26th November, 1949
  3. 24th January, 1950
  4. 26th January, 1950
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/6/1

(B) 26th November, 1949

Q12.2025 Main 59/6/1 · Q101 mark

Which one of the following statements is not true about the Bharatiya Jana Sangh ?

  1. Reunion of India and Pakistan in Akhand Bharat.
  2. Hindi should be the official language of India.
  3. It advocated that India should develop nuclear weapons.
  4. It advocated limited cooperation with the Congress.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/6/1

(D) It advocated limited cooperation with the Congress.

Q13.2025 Supp. 59/S/1 · Q91 mark

Who among the following was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly ?

  1. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
  2. Dr. Bhim Rao Ambedkar
  3. Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
  4. C. Rajagopalachari
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/S/1

(B) Dr. Bhim Rao Ambedkar

Q14.2025 Supp. 59/S/1 · Q101 mark

Match the given Leaders in Column ‘A’ with the Political Parties listed in Column ‘B’ and choose the correct option :

Column ‘A’Column ‘B’
(a)Deendayal Upadhyay(i)Communist Party of India
(b)Ashok Mehta(ii)Congress Party
(c)Sardar Patel(iii)Socialist Party
(d)A.K. Gopalan(iv)Bharatiya Jana Sangh

Options :

  1. a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(i), d-(iv)
  2. a-(iii), b-(ii), c-(iv), d-(i)
  3. a-(iv), b-(i), c-(iii), d-(ii)
  4. a-(iv), b-(iii), c-(ii), d-(i)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/S/1

(D) a-(iv), b-(iii), c-(ii), d-(i)

Q15.2024 Main 59/2/1 · Q81 mark

In which year was the Election Commission of India set up ?

  1. 1949
  2. 1950
  3. 1951
  4. 1952
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/2/1

(B) 1950

Q16.2024 Main 59/3/1 · Q91 mark

Which political party was at the second place in winning the Lok Sabha seats in the first general elections of India ?

  1. Socialist Party
  2. The Communist Party of India
  3. Bharatiya Jana Sangh
  4. Swatantra Party
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/3/1

(B) The Communist Party of India

Q17.2024 Main 59/3/1 · Q101 mark

For Question number 10, two statements are given — one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Read these statements carefully and choose the correct option as the answer from the options (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below.

Assertion (A): The first general elections in India had to be postponed twice and were finally held from October 1951 to February 1952.

Reason (R): It was no longer possible to argue that democratic elections could not be held in conditions of poverty or lack of education.

Options :

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/3/1

(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).

Q18.2024 Main 59/4/1 · Q71 mark

For the first time the communist party came to power through democratic elections in which state of India ?

  1. W. Bengal
  2. Kerala
  3. Tripura
  4. Manipur
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/4/1

(B) Kerala

Q19.2024 Main 59/4/1 · Q81 mark

The first Chief Election Commissioner of India was ________.

  1. S.L. Shakdhar
  2. Sukumar Sen
  3. K.V.K. Sundaram
  4. R.K. Trivedi
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/4/1

(B) Sukumar Sen

Q20.2024 Supp. 59/S/1 · Q71 mark

Which one of the following political parties was the main opposition party in the first Lok Sabha ?

  1. Communist Party of India
  2. Bharatiya Jana Sangh
  3. Socialist Party
  4. Congress Socialist Party
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/S/1

(A) Communist Party of India

Q21.2024 Supp. 59/S/1 · Q81 mark

In which year did India start using the Electronic Voting Machines (EVM) throughout the entire country ?

  1. 2001
  2. 2002
  3. 2003
  4. 2004
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/S/1

(D) 2004

Q22.SQP 2025-26 · Q101 mark

Match the names of the leaders given below with the political parties with the help of codes given below:

LeadersPolitical Parties
I Acharya Narendra Devi Communist Party of India
II A. K. Gopalanii Bhartiya Jana Sangh
III Rafi Ahmed Kidwaiiii Praja Socialist Party
IV Shyama Prasad Mukherjeeiv Indian National Congress

Codes:

  1. I-(ii), II-(iv), III-(iii), IV-(i)
  2. I-(iii), II-(i), III-(iii), IV-(iv)
  3. I-(ii), II-(i), III-(iv), IV-(iii)
  4. I-(iii), II-(i), III-(iv), IV-(ii)
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 · Marking Scheme

(A) (III), (II), (IV), (I)

Q23.2026 Main 59/4/1 · Q162 marks

Why did the Communist Party of India abandon the path of violent revolution in 1951 ? Explain.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/4/1

Because –

  • The CPI had failed to generate popular support for their position and were crushed by the armed forces.
  • The CPI had decided to participate in the approaching General elections held in 1951-52.

(any other relevant point)

Q24.2026 Main 59/5/1 · Q162 marks

Show the ideology of the Jana Sangh that makes it different from other parties.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/5/1

The following points of the Ideology of Jana Sangh made it a different party from others–

  • It was the only party that emphasized the idea of the one country, one culture and one nation.
  • It also believed that the country could become modern, progressive and strong on the basis of Indian culture and tradition.
  • The party also called for a reunion of India and Pakistan as Akhand Bharat.

(Any two)

Q25.2026 Main 59/5/1 · Q172 marks

Highlight any two features of the nature of the Congress party as a social and ideological coalition.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/5/1
  • Congress was like a social and ideological coalition. There were members who continued to exist within the congress as groups and individuals having different beliefs.
  • It accommodated the revolutionaries and pacifist, conservative and radical extremist and moderate and the right , left and all shades of the centre.
  • At the same it had peasants and industrialists, urban dwellers and village workers and owners, middle class, lower and upper class members and castes.

(Any two)

Q26.2026 Supp. 59/7/1 · Q162 marks

Explain the nature of Congress dominance in India during the initial years of independence.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/7/1
  1. Dominance of Congress Party was under democratic conditions.
  2. Congress Party did not try to use this dominance for remaining in power, but encouraged democratic system.
  3. Multiparty system and Free and fair elections supported the democratic nature of the Congress dominance.

(Any two)

Q27.2025 Main 59/2/1 · Q142 marks

‘During the period of dominance of the Congress Party, its leaders never showed any desire to form new parties.’ Analyse any one reason for this.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/2/1

Reasons :

  1. There was always a scope for rivalries among the various parties within the Congress organisation.
  2. The leaders representing the different interests and ideology worked within the Congress party without any problem.
  3. Most of internal differences and ambitions of various groups and leaders were accommodated.

or any other relevant reason (any one reason to be analysed) (2)

Q28.2025 Main 59/4/1 · Q162 marks

Highlight any two reasons for the dominance of Congress Party in the first three general elections.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/4/1

Reasons of the dominance of Congress Party :

  1. it had inherited the legacy of the national movement.
  2. It was only party that had an organisation spread all over the country.
  3. It had popular and charismatic leaders like Jawahar Lal Nehru.

or any other relevant point (Any two) (2 × 1 = 2)

Q29.2025 Main 59/5/1 · Q172 marks

Explain any two differences between the Jana Sangh and other parties in terms of ideology.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/5/1
  1. Jana Sangh was the party which emphasised the idea of one country, one culture and one nation and believed that country can become modern, progressive and strong on the basis of Indian culture.
  2. The party called for a reunion of the India and Pakistan as akhand bharat.
  3. It was for replacement of English with Hindi as the official language of India.
  4. It was against the concessions being given to religious minorities. No other party had such thinking.
  5. The party was a consistent advocate of India developing nuclear weapons.

Or any other relevant point ( any two differences) (2 × 1 = 2)

Q30.2025 Main 59/6/1 · Q182 marks

Explain any two reasons for the dominance of the Congress Party in the first three general elections.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/6/1

Reasons :

  1. Congress party inherited the legacy of the national movement.
  2. It was the only party then to have an organisation spread all over the country.
  3. The party had the most popular and charismatic leaders like J.L. Nehru in Indian politics.
  4. Due to first-past-the-post method of elections.

or any other relevant point (any two) (2 × 1 = 2)

Q31.2025 Main 59/7/1 · Q162 marks

Highlight any two reasons for the dominance of Congress Party in the first three general elections.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/7/1

Reasons for the dominance of Congress party in the first three general elections are :-

  1. The Congress party , as it was popularly known had inherited the legacy of national movement.
  2. It was the only party then to have an organization spread all over the country.
  3. The party has the most popular charismatic leader in Indian politics like Jawahar Lal Nehru.

(any two) (2 × 1 = 2)

Q32.2025 Supp. 59/S/1 · Q162 marks

Why was Congress known as a rainbow-like social coalition ? Explain.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/S/1

Congress Party during the period of freedom movement brought diverse groups together – whose interests were often contradictory. Peasants and industrialists, urban dwellers and villagers, workers and owners, middle, lower and upper classes and castes – all found space in the Congress. Similarly upper class professionals, agriculture based leaders – all were the members of the Congress Party. Hence it was called a rainbow like coalition.

Q33.2024 Main 59/2/1 · Q162 marks

Why did India’s general elections of 1952 become a landmark in the history of democracy all over the world ? Explain.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/2/1

General elections of 1952 became a landmark:-

  • Due to the size of the Indian electorate and the country, the election was unusual. No election on this scale had ever been conducted in the world before.
  • To prepare the electoral rolls, or the list of all the citizens eligible to vote was a challenging task.
  • Moreover, it was the first big test of democracy in a poor and illiterate country with narrow loyalties in terms of caste, religion, language etc.
  • Experiment of universal adult franchise at a very large scale in the world.
  • Preparation for the election was a mammoth exercise but done successfully.
  • Trained over one lakh officers for polling and the effort made was successful.
  • More than 50% of voters used their votes, which silenced the critics all over the world over this grand achievement, which was a landmark in history.

(Evaluate as a whole)

Q34.2024 Main 59/3/1 · Q172 marks

Explain the nature of the Congress party as an ideological coalition during the freedom movement.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/3/1

The Congress as an ideological coalition-

  • (i) It accommodated the revolutionary and pacifist, conservative and radical, extremist and moderate and the right, left and all shades of the centre.
  • (ii) It was a platform for numerous interests groups and even political parties to take part in the national movement.
  • (iii) In pre independence days many organisations and parties with their own constitutions and organizational structure were allowed to exist within the congress.

(or any other relevant point) (Any two)

Q35.2024 Main 59/4/1 · Q162 marks

Why was India’s experiment with universal adult franchise described as “bold and risky” ? Explain.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/4/1

India’s experiments with Universal Adult Franchise was “bold and risky” because of the following reasons:

  1. Holding of the first general election in India was the first big test of democracy in a poor and illiterate country.
  2. Although democracy had existed only in prosperous countries, mainly in Europe and North America, where nearly everyone was literate, yet everyone had not being given the voting rights.
  3. Independent India gave a right to vote to all eligible citizen under Universal Adult Franchise.

(Or Any other relevant point) (Any Two Points) (2x1=2)

Q36.2024 Supp. 59/S/1 · Q162 marks

Why was holding of the first general elections in 1952 a great challenge for the Election Commission of India ? Explain.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/S/1

Challenges for the Indian Election Commission were :

  1. Big size of the country and electorate-17 crores voters.
  2. Most of the voters were poor and illiterate. It was not easy to hold a free and fair election.
  3. Till then democracy had existed only in prosperous countries and many countries had not given voting rights to all women. In this context India’s experiment with universal adult franchise appeared very bold and risky.
  4. Preparation of electoral roll was a mammoth exercise.
  5. The Election Commission had to train over one lakh officers for polling.

(any other) (any two) (2x1=2)

Q37.2023 Supp. 59/C/1 · Q182 marks

When and in which State did a non-Congress political party form the Government after Independence for the first time ? Name the political party also.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/C/1

It was in Kerala in 1957 when a non-congress political party CPI formed the government after independence for the first time. The Political party was Communist Party (CPI) of India. It formed a coalition government in Kerala.

Q38.2022 Main 59/3/1 · Q42 marks

Highlight any two major problems faced by the Election Commission of India for holding the first General Election in 1952.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 59/3/1
  1. Delimitation or drawing of boundaries of the electoral constituencies for the first time.
  2. Time required to prepare electoral rolls was inadequate.
  3. Names of women were not recorded initially which created a problem.
  4. Other arrangements also needed time.
  5. Most of the voters were illiterate and a suitable method was to be put into practice.

(Any two)

Q39.2022 Main 59/3/1 · Q52 marks

Explain any two reasons for the dominance of the Congress Party in the first three general elections.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 59/3/1
  1. The Congress Party had inherited the legacy of the National Movement.
  2. It was the only party that had its organisation spread all over the country.
  3. It had the most popular and charismatic leader like Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru for campaigning.

(Any two)

Q40.2022 Supp. 59/6/1 · Q52 marks

Describe any two changes made in the methods of voting in India since Independence.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/6/1
  1. Introduction of common ballot papers with symbols of all the candidate.
  2. Introduction of electronic voting machine at the end of 1990s by the Election Commission.

(or any other relevant point) 2×1=2

Q41.SQP 2025-26 · Q172 marks

What is the difference between one-party dominance and a one-party system?

Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 · Marking Scheme

One-party dominance means one party remains politically dominant in a competitive democratic system, while a one-party system refers to a system where only one legal political party exists, with no competition (e.g., China).

Q42.2026 Main 59/1/1 · Q194 marks

Highlight any two differences between the ideologies of Socialist party and Communist party of India.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/1/1

Ideology of Socialist Party :

(i) It believed in the ideology of democratic Socialism.

(ii) Party opposed the interests of Capitalists and landlords.

(iii) It was to support the interests of workers and the peasants.

Ideology of Communist Party of India.

(i) Transfer of power after independence was not true freedom.

(ii) It encourage violence for political matters.

(iii) Failed to generate proper support and abandoned the path of violence and decided to participate in the first general elections.

( any two differences)

Q43.2026 Main 59/2/1 · Q224 marks

The ideology of ‘Bharatiya Jana Sangh’ party was to make India a progressive and strong nation. Do you agree with the statement ? Support your answer with any four suitable arguments.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/2/1

The ideology of Bhartiya Jana Sangh Party was progressive due to the following reasons.

(i) It emphasised the idea of one country, one culture and one nation.

(ii) It believed in the reunion of India and Pakistan as Akhand Bharat.

(iii) The party promoted Hindi as the official language.

(iv) The party was a consistent advocate of India developing nuclear weapons.

(or any other relevant point)

A candidate may answer in ‘Yes’ or ‘No’ but the answer must be supported with suitable arguments.

Q44.2026 Main 59/3/1 · Q214 marks

Analyse any two major challenges faced by the Election Commission before conducting the first General Elections in India after independence.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/3/1

(i) The challenge of preparing electoral rolls.

(ii) In the first roll, names of 40 lakh women were not recorded.

(iii) The challenge of renew these entries.

(iv) The challenge of training more than 3 lakh electoral staff.

(v) Illiteracy level was high.

(vi) A new method of voting was to be devised.

(vii) Delimitation or drawing the boundaries of the electoral constituencies was required.

(or any other relevant point) (any two points to be analyzed)

Q45.2025 Main 59/1/1 · Q224 marks

“One party dominance did not affect the very essence of Indian democracy.” Justify the statement with any two arguments.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/1/1
  1. Dominance of one party in India has been different from the dominance of one party system in other countries like Cuba, China, Mexico etc.
  2. Congress, inspite of being a dominant party, always ensured free, fair and regular elections.
  3. The dominance of the Congress party happened under democratic conditions and ensured the maintenance of democratic institutions.
  4. In the 1957 Assembly elections in Kerala the CPI won the largest number of seats. Even though the Congress was the dominant party at the centre.
  5. In India, multi party system existed and continuous participation of many parties in elections justify that the essence of Indian democracy was not affected.

or any other relevant point (any four points) (2x2=4)

Q46.2025 Main 59/7/1 · Q254 marks

In the given political outline map of India (on page 15), four States have been marked as (A), (B), (C) and (D). Identify these States on the basis of the information given below and write their correct names in your answer-book along with the respective serial number of the information used and the concerned alphabets given in the map as per the following format :

Serial number of the information usedConcerned alphabet given in the mapName of the State
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
  1. The state associated with the communist leader A.K. Gopalan.
  2. The state to which Rafi Ahmed Kidwai, first Minister for Communications belonged.
  3. The state where Congress Party was dominant from 1952 to 1967.
  4. The state where National Conference came into power in 1952.

Figure from the paper

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/7/1
Sr. no. of the information usedConcerned Alphabet given in the mapName of Countries/State
(i)BKerala
(ii)DUttar Pradesh
(iii)CMadhya Pradesh
(iv)AJammu &Kashmir

(1 + 1 + 1 + 1 = 4)

Q47.2025 Main 59/7/1 · Q25 (VI)4 marks

Note : The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates only, in lieu of Question No. 25 :

(25.1) Name the founder of the Bharatiya Jana Sangh Party.

(25.2) In which year did the Communist Party of India split ?

(25.3) Name the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution.

(25.4) Name any one North-Eastern State where the Congress Party was dominant from 1952 – 1967.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/7/1

(25.1) Sh. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee

(25.2) 1964

(25.3) Dr. Bhimrao Ambedkar

(25.4) Tripura, Assam, Manipur (Any one)

(1 + 1 + 1 + 1 = 4)

Q48.2024 Main 59/1/1 · Q224 marks

Keeping in mind the crucial role of politics in a democracy, which route did our national leaders decide to take in the newly independent India ? Explain any two points.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/1/1
  • (i) Our leaders were very conscious of the critical role of politics.
  • (ii) They did not see politics as a problem; they saw it as a way of solving the problems.
  • (iii) Every society needs to decide how it will govern and regulate itself.
  • (iv) There are always different policy alternatives to choose from.
  • (v) There are different groups with different and conflicting aspirations.
  • (vi) How do we resolve these differences? Democratic politics is an answer to these questions.
  • (vii) While competition and power are the two most visible things about politics, the purpose of political activity is, and should be, deciding and pursuing public interest .

This is the route our leaders decided to take.

(Any two points)

Q49.2024 Main 59/5/1 · Q254 marks

In the given Political outline map of India, four states have been marked as (A), (B), (C) and (D). Identify these states on the basis of the information given below and write their correct names in your answer book along with the respective serial numbers of the information used and the concerned alphabets shown in the map as per the format that follows :

Sr. Number of the information usedAlphabet concernedName of the State
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
  1. The state where the first non-Congress government was formed by E.M.S. Namboodiripad.
  2. The state that belongs to Syama Prasad Mookerjee, founder of Bharatiya Jana Sangh.
  3. The state to which former Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru belonged.
  4. The state related to former Health Minister Rajkumari Amrit Kaur.

Figure from the paper

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/5/1
Serial number of the information usedConcerned alphabet given in the mapName of the State
(i)BKerala
(ii)DWest Bengal
(iii)AUttar Pradesh
(iv)CPunjab

(4x1=4)

Q50.2024 Main 59/5/1 · Q25 (VI)4 marks

Note : The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of Q. No. 25.

(25.1) Name the state where the first non-Congress government was formed by E.M.S. Namboodiripad.

(25.2) Who was the first Chief Election Commissioner of India ?

(25.3) Name the political party formed by the former first Indian Governor General of independent India.

(25.4) Name the state which is related to Rajkumari Amrit Kaur, the former Health Minister of India.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/5/1

For Visually Impaired Candidates

(25.1) Kerala

(25.2) Sukumar Sen

(25.3) Swatantra Party

(25.4) Punjab

(4x1=4)

Q51.2022 Main 59/1/1 · Q114 marks

In the given political outline map of India, four states have been marked as (A), (B), (C) and (D). Identify these states on the basis of the information given below and write their correct names in your Answer Book along with the respective serial number of the information used and the concerned alphabet as per format that follows :

Figure from the paper

S. No. of the Information usedConcerned AlphabetName of the State
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
  1. The State which was not under the rule of the Congress Party in 1952.
  2. The State where the Congress Party could not win majority in 1957.
  3. The State from where K. Kamraj, a Veteran leader of the Congress Party, lost election in 1967.
  4. The State from where the phrase ‘Aaya Ram, Gaya Ram’ originated.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 59/1/1
Sr. No. of the Information usedConcerned alphabetName of the state
(i)CJ&K
(ii)DKerala
(iii)BTamil Nadu
(iv)AHaryana
Q52.2022 Main 59/1/1 · Q11 (VI)4 marks

Note : The following question is for visually impaired candidates only in lieu of Q. No. 11.

Answer the following questions.

11.1 In which year was the first general election completed in India ?

11.2 In which State had the Congress Party not won majority in 1957 ?

11.3 From which State did the phrase ‘Aaya Ram, Gaya Ram’ originate ?

11.4 Which political party remained in power at the centre from 1952 to 1967 ?

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 59/1/1

11.1 1952 (May also write 1951 to 1952)

11.2 Kerala

11.3 Haryana

11.4 The Congress Party

Q53.2022 Main 59/5/1 · Q11 (VI)4 marks

Note : The following question is for visually impaired candidates only in lieu of Q. No. 11.

11.1 When was the Constitution of India enforced ?

11.2 Name the first Indian Governor General of India.

11.3 Name the first Health Minister of free India.

11.4 Name the state where the Communist Party of India formed the Government in 1957.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 59/5/1

11.1 On 26 Jan, 1950

11.2 C. Rajagopalachari

11.3 Rajkumari Amrit Kaur

11.4 Kerala

Q54.SQP 2026-27 · Q22(A)4 marks

‘India’s general elections of 1952 became a landmark in the history of democracy all over the world’. Justify the statement.

Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 · Marking Scheme

India’s first general election was the biggest test of democracy in a poor and illiterate country.

  1. Democracy is possible in a poor and illiterate Nation Before 1952; many critics believed that democratic elections were only possible in prosperous, educated countries like North America. India proved this wrong by successfully conducting the world's largest democratic exercise under conditions of poverty and widespread illiteracy.
  2. Universal Adult Franchise: The election was based on universal adult franchise, granting voting rights to all citizens over 21, including women, at a time when many European countries still hadn't given voting rights to women. India’s experiment with universal adult franchise appeared very bold and risky.
  3. Participation: The level of participation was encouraging more than half the eligible voters turned out to vote on the day of election.
  4. Peaceful and Fair Conduct: The elections were competitive, peaceful, and the results were accepted as fair even by the losing parties. Its success inspired many other nations that democracy could be practiced successfully in diverse conditions.
Q55.SQP 2026-27 · Q22(B)4 marks

Explain any four difficulties faced by the Election Commission of India while holding the first general election of 1952.

Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 · Marking Scheme

Four major challenges faced by the Election Commission of India were:

  1. Massive Scale of Illiteracy: Out of 17 crore (170 million) eligible voters, only 15 per cent were literate. This low literacy rate meant the Election Commission had to think of a special method of voting, such as using visual symbols for candidates and separate ballot boxes for each party.
  2. Massive Electoral Size and Delimitation: The sheer size of the electorate was unprecedented. The country had to be divided into electoral constituencies, and a comprehensive voters' list (electoral roll) had to be prepared from scratch for millions of people, many of whom lived in remote, inaccessible areas.
  3. Problem of Missing Names of Women Voters: When the first draft of the electoral roll was prepared, the names of nearly 40 lakh (4 million) women were missing. They were simply listed as "wife of..." or "daughter of...". The Election Commission refused to accept these entries and ordered a revision, which led to a massive effort to get their proper names registered.
  4. Lack of Trained Personnel: Holding a free and fair election on such a vast scale required a massive administrative machinery. Over 3 lakh (300,000) polling staff and officers had to be specially trained to conduct the polling process, manage booths, and handle ballot boxes.

(To be assessed as a whole or other relevant point/s)

Q56.2023 Main 59/1/1 · Q30(a)6 marks

Analyse any three reasons for the dominance of the Congress Party in Indian politics during the initial twenty years after independence.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/1/1

Reasons for dominance of Congress Party

  1. The Congress party had inherited a Legacy of the national movement.
  2. It had wide organizational base spread all across the country. It enjoyed national popularity even when other regional parties contested elections.
  3. The Congress party was very accommodative of different ideologies in the first two decades. Most of the other Non-Congress parties today have their origin in the Indian National Congress.

or any other relevant point (any three point) 3×2=6

Q57.2023 Main 59/3/1 · Q29(a)6 marks

How is ‘one party dominance’ in India different from the ‘one party dominance system’ of other countries ? Analyse with the help of examples.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/3/1

India is not the only country who has experienced the dominance of one party. Many other examples are there of one party dominance. But there is a crucial difference between these and the Indian experience. In other countries, dominance of one-party was ensured by compromising democracy.

  1. In some countries like China, Cuba, Syria, the Constitution permits only a single party to rule the country. But in India, the constitution does not mention any provision regarding one party system.
  2. In some countries like Myanmar, Belarus, Egypt and Eritrea are effectively one party dominant states due to legal and military measures. But India is a democratic country and there is a multi-party system.
  3. Until a few years ago Mexico, South Korea and Taiwan were also effectively one party dominance states. But in India, one party dominance is under democratic conditions. In India, many parties have contested elections in conditions of free and fair elections and yet the Congress managed to win election after election.

3+3=6

Q58.2023 Supp. 59/C/1 · Q28(a)6 marks

Analyse the problems faced by the Election Commission of India in holding free and fair elections for the first time after Independence.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/C/1

Problems faced by the Election Commission:-

  • i) In a country like India's size, preparation of electoral rolls was a very huge and difficult task.
  • ii) Drawing the boundaries of the electoral constituencies was problematic due to India's size and many complications.
  • iii) When the first draft of the rolls was published it was published, it was discovered that names of 40 lakh women were not included.
  • iv) Preparing for the first general election was a mammath exercise. No election on this scale had ever been conducted in the world before.
  • v) only 15% of the eligible voters were literate. Therefore the election commission had to think some special method of voting.
  • vi) It was the first big test of democracy in a poor illiterate country.
  • vii) The election commission had to train over 3 lakh officers and polling staff to conduct the elections.

(Any six)

Q59.2023 Supp. 59/C/1 · Q28(b)6 marks

Assess the role played by the opposition parties in the politics of India during the first two decades after Independence.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/C/1

Role played by the opposition parties :-

  • i) India had a large number of diverse and vibrant opposition parties than many other multi-party democracies.
  • ii) Inspite of only a token representation in Lok Sabha and State Assemblies , the opposition parties played a crucial role in maintaining the democratic character of the system.
  • iii) These parties offered a sustained and often principled criticism of the policies and practices of the ruling party i.e. Congress.
  • iv) The healthy criticism by the opposition parties kept the ruling party under check and often changed the balance of power within the congress.
  • v) By keeping democratic political alternative alive, the opposition parties prevented the resentment with the system from turning anti-democratic.
  • vi) These parties (opposition) also groomed the leader who were to play a crucial role in the shaping of our country.

(Assess as a whole)

Part B · Politics in India since Independence

3. Politics of Planned Development

Q1.2026 Main 59/2/1 · Q11 mark

Given below are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read these statements and choose the correct answer from the given options :

Assertion (A): The idea of Five Year Plans (FYP) in India was inspired by the USSR.

Reason (R): Due to acute economic crisis, the Indian Government started ‘Plan Holiday’ in 1966.

Options:

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
  4. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/2/1

(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).

Q2.2026 Main 59/2/1 · Q31 mark

Which one of the following statements is NOT correct about the first two Five Year Plan ?

  1. The first Five Year Plan was drafted by K.N. Raj and the second Five Year Plan was drafted by P.C. Mahalnobis.
  2. The first Five Year Plan focussed on agriculture and the second Five Year Plan focussed on industries.
  3. The first Five Year Plan emphasized on the active role of the public sector and the second Five Year Plan made huge allocations for large scale projects.
  4. The aim of first Five Year Plan was to raise the industrial production and in the second Five Year Plan, the government imposed substantial tariffs on imports in order to protect both public and private sector industries.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/2/1

(D) The aim of First Five Year plan was to raise the industrial production and in the second five year plan, the government imposed substantial tariffs on imports in order to protect both public and private sector industries.

(C) The first Five Year Plan emphasized on the active role of the public sector and the second Five Year Plan made huge allocations for large scale projects.

Both (C) & (D) are not correct and one mark is to be awarded for any one of these options.

Q3.2026 Main 59/4/1 · Q111 mark

Choose the correct full form of ‘NITI’ of NITI Aayog.

  1. National Improvement Trust of India
  2. National Institution for Technology Improvement
  3. National Institute for Transformed India
  4. National Institution for Transforming India
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/4/1

(D) National Institution for transforming India

Q4.2026 Main 59/4/1 · Q121 mark

The focus of the Second Five Year Plan was :

  1. Agriculture
  2. Atomic Energy
  3. Heavy Industries
  4. Small Scale Industries
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/4/1

(C) Heavy Industries.

Q5.2026 Main 59/5/1 · Q91 mark

‘NITI Aayog’ came into existence on :

  1. 1st January, 2015
  2. 26th January, 2015
  3. 15th August, 2015
  4. 1st November, 2015
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/5/1

(A) 1st January 2015

Q6.2026 Main 59/5/1 · Q101 mark

Arrange the following events in chronological order :

  1. P.C. Mahalanobis led a Five-Year Plan.
  2. K.N. Raj was involved in drafting the First Five-Year Plan.
  3. The ‘Bombay Plan’ was drafted.
  4. The Planning Commission was set up.

Options :

  1. (iii), (iv), (ii), (i)
  2. (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
  3. (iii), (iv), (i), (ii)
  4. (iv), (iii), (i), (ii)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/5/1

(A) iii, iv, ii, i

Q7.2026 Supp. 59/7/1 · Q91 mark

Choose the name of the plan drafted by a section of the big industrialists in 1944 for setting up a planned economy in India.

  1. Grand Plan
  2. Bombay Plan
  3. Economic Plan
  4. Development Plan
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/7/1

(B) Bombay Plan

Q8.2026 Supp. 59/7/1 · Q101 mark

Which one of the following ideas was never a part of planning in the early phase ?

  1. Cooperative farming
  2. Self-sufficiency
  3. Capitalism
  4. Five-Year plans
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/7/1

(C) Capitalism

Q9.2025 Main 59/1/1 · Q71 mark

Which one among the following statements is not the objective of NITI Aayog ?

  1. Provide a critical directional and strategic input to the development process of India.
  2. Serve as a think tank of the government both at the centre and state level.
  3. Arrange funds for the implementation of developmental programs.
  4. Seek to put an end to the slow and tardy implementation of the policies.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/1/1

(C) Arrange funds for the implementation of developmental programs.

Q10.2025 Main 59/1/1 · Q81 mark

Which statement among the following is correct about the planning ideology of left wing ?

  1. The Left supports a free-market economy.
  2. They support government policies which are for the benefit of poor sections.
  3. They do not want unnecessary intervention of government in the economy.
  4. They advocate for progressive policies.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/1/1

(B) They support government policies which are for the benefit of poor sections.

Q11.2025 Main 59/4/1 · Q91 mark

Choose the correct statement about ‘Planning Commission’ :

  1. It had a constitutional status.
  2. Planning Commission was set up in 1952.
  3. Its recommendations were binding on the State Governments.
  4. It had an advisory role to make recommendations.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/4/1

(D) It had an advisory role to make recommendations.

Q12.2025 Main 59/4/1 · Q101 mark

One of the basic aims of the planners in the initial years was to _______ .

  1. Raise the level of national income
  2. Raise the military power of the country
  3. Raise the political awareness
  4. Raise the standard of education
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/4/1

(A) Raise the level of national income

Q13.2025 Main 59/5/1 · Q91 mark

Which one of the following is the correct full form of NITI Aayog ?

  1. National Institute of Technological Innovation
  2. National Institution for Transforming India
  3. New Institution of Technology and Information
  4. National Institute of Training India
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/5/1

(B) National Institution for Transforming India

Q14.2025 Main 59/5/1 · Q101 mark

Who among the following was the Chairperson of the Planning Commission ?

  1. President of India
  2. Prime Minister of India
  3. Minister of Planning
  4. Home Minister
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/5/1

(B) Prime Minister of India

Q15.2025 Main 59/7/1 · Q31 mark

For Question number 3, two statements are given — one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Read these statements carefully and choose the correct option as the answer from the options (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below.

Assertion (A): Modernisation is associated with the ideas of growth, material progress and scientific rationality.

Reason (R): The Government of India replaced the Planning Commission with a new institution named NITI Aayog.

Options :

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
  4. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/7/1

(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).

Q16.2025 Main 59/7/1 · Q81 mark

Who among the following was associated with the preparation of the draft of the First Year Plan ?

  1. K.N. Raj
  2. P.C. Mahalanobis
  3. Jawaharlal Nehru
  4. Charan Singh
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/7/1

(A) K.N. Raj

Q17.2025 Supp. 59/S/1 · Q111 mark

Complete the sentence with the correct option.
The First Five Year Plan focused on ___________.

  1. Agriculture
  2. Technology
  3. Industries
  4. Education
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/S/1

(A) Agriculture

Q18.2025 Supp. 59/S/1 · Q121 mark

Which one of the following statements about ‘NITI Aayog’ is correct ?

  1. It is a constitutional body.
  2. It is an international organisation.
  3. It was established on 1st January, 2015.
  4. It has been formed to frame education policy.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/S/1

(C) It was established on 1st January, 2015

Q19.2024 Main 59/5/1 · Q21 mark

Which one of the following was formed for the planned development of India, just after independence ?

  1. Election Commission
  2. Planning Commission
  3. Shah Commission
  4. NITI Aayog
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/5/1

(B) Planning Commission

Q20.2024 Main 59/5/1 · Q81 mark

Planning Commission of India was replaced with NITI Aayog because ________

  1. it had become very old.
  2. it was becoming irrelevant to face the new challenges of development.
  3. it was totally based on Socialist model.
  4. many states were not in favour of Planning Commission.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/5/1

(B) It was becoming irrelevant to face the new challenges of development.

Q21.2023 Main 59/1/1 · Q81 mark

Choose the correct option to complete the sentence :

Five Year Plans were adopted by the Government of India as a policy of ___________.

  1. planned development
  2. mixed economy
  3. socialism
  4. industrialisation
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/1/1

(a) Planned development

Q22.2023 Main 59/2/1 · Q81 mark

Planning Commission was set up by _______.

  1. Constitution of India
  2. President of India
  3. a resolution of Government of India
  4. the Constituent Assembly
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/2/1

(c) A resolution of Government of India

Q23.2023 Main 59/3/1 · Q111 mark

Which of the following are the common features for both, the Planning Commission and NITI Aayog ?

  1. Both are non-constitutional bodies.
  2. Both have significant roles of states.
  3. Both have the Prime Minister as chairperson.
  4. Both have the power to allocate funds.

Choose the correct options :

  1. (ii) and (iv) only
  2. (ii) and (iii) only
  3. (i) and (iv) only
  4. (i) and (iii) only
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/3/1

(d) (i) and (iii) only

Q24.2023 Main 59/4/1 · Q21 mark

Who among the following is the ex-officio Chairman of NITI Aayog ?

  1. The President
  2. The Vice President
  3. The Speaker of Lok Sabha
  4. The Prime Minister
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/4/1

(d) The Prime Minister

Q25.2023 Main 59/4/1 · Q31 mark

Which of these statements about the political decisions taken after independence related to development are correct ?

  1. Almost everyone agreed that the development of India should mean both economic growth and social-economic justice.
  2. It was also agreed that this matter cannot be left to businessmen, industrialists and farmers.
  3. Only the government should play a key role to ensure growth with justice.
  4. It was necessary to consult all political parties and get public approval.

Choose the correct option :

  1. (i), (ii) and (iii)
  2. (i), (ii) and (iv)
  3. (ii), (iii) and (iv)
  4. (i), (iii) and (iv)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/4/1

(b) (i), (ii) and (iv)

Q26.2023 Main 59/5/1 · Q71 mark

Which one among the following was expected from the Second Five Year Plan ?

  1. Industrialisation
  2. Economic equality
  3. Rural development
  4. Eradication of poverty
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/5/1

(a) Industrialisation

Q27.2023 Main 59/5/1 · Q81 mark

Which one of the following is not the objective of NITI Aayog ?

  1. To provide strategic input to the development process of India.
  2. To serve as a Think Tank of the Union government.
  3. To arrange funds for the developmental programmes.
  4. To put an end to the tardy implementation of the policies.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/5/1

(c) To arrange funds for the implementation of developmental programmes

or

(d) To put an end to the tardy implementation of the policies.

Note: (c) or (d) can be taken as the correct answer

Q28.SQP 2026-27 · Q61 mark

Which one of the following ideas was not a part of the early phase of India’s development policy?

  1. Co-operative Farming
  2. Planning
  3. Liberalization
  4. Self sufficiency
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 · Marking Scheme

(C) Liberalisation

Q29.SQP 2026-27 · Q101 mark

Arrange the following planning initiatives in chronological order:

  1. Formation of NITI Aayog.
  2. Bombay Plan.
  3. Plan Holidays period.
  4. Beginning of the First Five-Year Plan.

Choose the correct option:

  1. (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
  2. (iii), (i), (iv), (ii)
  3. (iv), (iii), (i), (ii)
  4. (ii), (iv), (iii), (i)
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 · Marking Scheme

(D) (ii), (iv), (iii), (i)

Q30.2026 Main 59/1/1 · Q132 marks

Highlight any two objectives of establishing Planning Commission.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/1/1

Objectives to achieve:-

(i) Planned development

(ii) Modernisation

(iii) Poverty allevation

(iv) Industrialisation

(v) Welfare of common goods by distributing material resources.

(vi) Goal of reducing the concentration of wealth in few hands.

(or any other relevant objective) (any two objectives)

Q31.2026 Main 59/3/1 · Q152 marks

Highlight any two fundamental differences between the First Five Year Plan and the Second Five Year Plan.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/3/1

(i) The draft for the first five year plan was prepared by K.N. Raj while the draft for the second five year plan was prepared by P.C. Mahalanobis.

(ii) Focus of The First FYP was on agriculture while the focus of the second FYP was on industries.

(iii) First five year plan was based on savings and slow change, while the second plan wanted to bring about quick structural transformation.

(or any other point) (Any two)

Q32.2025 Main 59/2/1 · Q152 marks

Explain any two differences between the First Five Year Plan and Second Five Year Plan.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/2/1

Differences :

  1. The FFYP addressed mainly the agriculture sector whereas SFYP stressed on heavy industries.
  2. The FFYP had preached to hasten the development slowly but SFYP wanted to bring about quick structural transformation.
  3. The FFYP focused on land reform as the key to the country’s development. The SFYP declared that the ‘socialist pattern of society’ was its goal.

or any other relevant differences (Any two differences to be explained) (2x1=2)

Q33.2025 Main 59/6/1 · Q132 marks

Did the First Five Year Plan help in the development of India ? Support your opinion with the help of two examples.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/6/1

Yes, because following points can be noticed in the development of India:-

  1. Huge allocations were made for large-scale projects like the Bhakra Nangal Dam.
  2. First Five Year Plan identified the pattern of land distribution in the country as the principal obstacle in the way of agricultural growth.
  3. It focused on land reforms as the key to the country’s development.

or any other relevant point (any two) (2 × 1 = 2)

Q34.2024 Main 59/1/1 · Q162 marks

Who was the main architect of the Second Five Year Plan ? What did the Second Five Year Plan stress upon ?

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/1/1
  • (i) The Second Five Year Plan was drafted under the leadership of P.C.Mahalanobis.
  • (ii) It stressed on heavy industries.
Q35.2024 Main 59/2/1 · Q152 marks

Highlight any two features of the First Five Year Plan.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/2/1

Features of the First Five year plan are:-

  • (i) It mainly addressed the agrarian sector including investment in dams and irrigation.
  • (ii) It sought to get the country’s economy out of the cycle of poverty.
  • (iii) It aimed to raise the level of national income.
  • (iv) It focused on Land Reforms.

(Or any other relevant point) (Any Two)

Q36.2024 Main 59/3/1 · Q162 marks

In which year was ‘NITI Aayog’ constituted and which organisation did it replace ?

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/3/1

NITI AYOG was constituted in 2015 and it replaced Planning commission of India.

(1+1=2)

Q37.2024 Main 59/4/1 · Q152 marks

Name the two models of development before India on the eve of independence.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/4/1

The two models of development before India on the eve of independence were:

  1. Liberal capitalist model as in much of Europe and the US.
  2. Socialist model as in the USSR.

(2x1=2)

Q38.2024 Supp. 59/S/1 · Q152 marks

Highlight any two factors that contributed towards the development of consensus around the need for planned development in India.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/S/1

Concensus developed around the need of planned development on the following factors-

  1. Most of the stakeholders agreed that development could not be left only to private actors.
  2. Even industrialists agreed that the task of poverty alleviation, social and political redistribution was the main responsibility of the government which should plan a road map for the development.
  3. Industrialists gave the ‘Bombay plan’ which supported planned development.
  4. Most of the political leaders favoured planned development.

(any two) (2x1=2)

Q39.2023 Main 59/3/1 · Q152 marks

State any two main functions of the NITI Aayog.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/3/1

Functions of NITI Aayog:-

  1. It provides the necessary and technical advice to the Union government regarding policy making.
  2. It harmonizes the interest of national security and economic policy.
  3. It prepares a strategic and long-term framework of policy and programme.
  4. It acts as a think tank of the Union government.

(Any two) 2×1=2

Q40.2023 Main 59/4/1 · Q142 marks

Evaluate any two functions of NITI Aayog.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/4/1

Functions of Niti Aayog

  • It harmonizes the interest of national security and economic unity.
  • It prepares strategic and long -term framework of policy and program.
  • It provides necessary and technical advice to the union government.
  • It acts as a think tank of the union government.

Any other relevant point (any two) 2×1=2

Q41.2023 Main 59/5/1 · Q172 marks

Explain any two reasons for the formation of the NITI Aayog in place of the Planning Commission by the Union Government.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/5/1

Reasons:

  • i) In the era of globalisation the planning commission was becoming ineffective and irrelevant.
  • ii) The planning commission was no longer effective in dealing with the difficulties and challenges of development.
  • iii) To provide necessary technical advice to the union government regarding policy making at the central and state levels.
  • iv) to harmonise the interest of national security and economic policy.
  • v) To prepare strategic and long term framework of policy and program.
  • vi) To adopt a bottom-up approach in the spirit of cooperative federalism as it ensures equal participation of all states in the country.

Or any other relevant point (Any two points)

Q42.SQP 2025-26 · Q132 marks

What were the early initiatives taken by the Planning Commission (now NITI Aayog) for building a new India?

Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 · Marking Scheme

First Five Year Plan: The First Five Year Plan emphasised on agricultural sector, dams and irrigation facilities. It also focused to increase the literacy rate. It focused on saving; therefore, the per capita income was increased.

Candidates may include the steps taken in the Second Five Year Plan also.

(OR Any Other relevant point/s)

Q43.2023 Main 59/2/1 · Q28(a)6 marks

Highlight any three features of the First Five Year Plan.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/2/1

Features of First Five Year Plan:

  1. The First Five year Plan addressed mainly the agriculture sector – investment in dams and irrigation.
  2. The First Five year Plan had preached that India should ‘hasten slowly’. It focused on land reforms as the key to the country’s development.
  3. One of its basic aim was to raise the level of national income.
  4. The planners sought to push savings up.

Or any other relevant feature (any three to be explained) 3×2=6

Part B · Politics in India since Independence

4. India’s External Relations

Q1.2026 Main 59/3/1 · Q81 mark

Arrange the following events in a chronological order :

  1. Atomic test conducted by China
  2. First nuclear explosion conducted by India
  3. Implementation of Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty
  4. Initiation of the atomic programme in India under the guidance of Homi Jehangir Bhabha

Choose the correct option :

  1. (ii), (iii), (i), (iv)
  2. (iv), (i), (iii), (ii)
  3. (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)
  4. (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/3/1

(B) (iv), (i), (iii), (ii)

Q2.2026 Main 59/3/1 · Q121 mark

In which city was the first Summit of the Non-Aligned Movement (NAM) held ?

  1. Belgrade
  2. Bandung
  3. Tokyo
  4. Delhi
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/3/1

(A) Belgrade

Q3.2025 Main 59/2/1 · Q71 mark

Choose the correct statement about India’s nuclear policy from the statements given below :

  1. India’s nuclear programme was started in 1952 under the guidance of Homi J. Bhabha.
  2. India was in support of the NPT.
  3. Now India has made it clear that the policy of ‘no first use’ can be reviewed.
  4. Nehru was not against nuclear weapons.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/2/1

(C) Now India has made it clear that the policy of ‘no first use’ can be reviewed.

Q4.2025 Main 59/2/1 · Q81 mark

Which political party of India wanted India to follow a pro-US foreign policy ?

  1. Bharatiya Jan Sangh
  2. Communist Party
  3. Socialist Party
  4. Congress Party
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/2/1

(A) Bharatiya Jan Sangh

Q5.2025 Main 59/7/1 · Q91 mark

Arrange the following in chronological order :

  1. Indo-China War
  2. Establishment of Bangladesh
  3. First summit of the NAM
  4. Pakistan launched armed attacks in the Rann of Kutch area of Gujarat

Choose the correct option :

  1. (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
  2. (ii), (iii), (i), (iv)
  3. (iii), (i), (ii), (iv)
  4. (iv), (i), (ii), (iii)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/7/1

Note :- As the given options do not include the correct option so every candidate who attempts this question should be awarded 1 mark.

Q6.2025 Main 59/7/1 · Q121 mark

Who among the following had created the Indian National Army (INA) during the Second World War ?

  1. Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose
  2. Jawaharlal Nehru
  3. Mahatma Gandhi
  4. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/7/1

(A) Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose

Q7.2024 Main 59/1/1 · Q71 mark

There was considerable unease in Indo-US relations during the 1950s because :

  1. India had a growing partnership with the Soviet Union.
  2. The Soviet Union invaded Hungary.
  3. India was not a member of NATO.
  4. India was a founder member of NAM.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/1/1

(A) India had a growing partnership with the Soviet Union.

Q8.2024 Main 59/1/1 · Q81 mark

Which one of the following was not a major objective of Jawaharlal Nehru’s foreign policy ?

  1. To preserve the hard-earned sovereignty of India.
  2. To protect the territorial integrity of India.
  3. To make India a nuclear power.
  4. To promote rapid economic development.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/1/1

(C) To make India a nuclear power.

Q9.2024 Main 59/2/1 · Q91 mark

In which of the following countries did Dalai Lama obtain political asylum ?

  1. Nepal
  2. Bhutan
  3. India
  4. Myanmar
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/2/1

(C) India

Q10.2024 Main 59/2/1 · Q111 mark

The first summit of NAM was held in :

  1. Cairo
  2. Belgrade
  3. India
  4. Indonesia
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/2/1

(B) Belgrade

Q11.2024 Main 59/4/1 · Q91 mark

In which year did China annex Tibet ?

  1. 1950
  2. 1954
  3. 1960
  4. 1962
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/4/1

(A) 1950

Q12.2024 Main 59/4/1 · Q111 mark

India made earnest effort for the early realisation of freedom of Indonesia from the colonial regime of the ________.

  1. British
  2. French
  3. Portugese
  4. Dutch
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/4/1

(D) Dutch

Q13.2024 Supp. 59/S/1 · Q91 mark

In which year did India and China sign the Panchsheel Agreement ?

  1. 1950
  2. 1952
  3. 1954
  4. 1956
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/S/1

(C) 1954

Q14.2024 Supp. 59/S/1 · Q111 mark

Where was the Afro-Asian Conference held in 1955 ?

  1. Jakarta
  2. Bandung
  3. Bali
  4. Java
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/S/1

(B) Bandung

Q15.2023 Main 59/3/1 · Q61 mark

Two statements are given below — one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Read these statements carefully and choose the correct option as the answer from the options (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below.

Assertion (A): India pleaded with the superpowers for comprehensive nuclear disarmament, yet India opposed the indefinite extension of the NPT and also refused to sign the CTBT.

Reason (R): These treaties were selectively applicable to the non-nuclear powers and legitimised the monopoly of the five nuclear weapon powers.

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/3/1

(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).

Q16.2023 Main 59/3/1 · Q101 mark

Choose the incorrect statements about India’s relationship with China.

  1. Indian and Chinese leaders visited each other’s countries and were greeted by large and friendly crowds.
  2. A boundary dispute had surfaced between India and China in 1949.
  3. China claimed two areas within the Indian territory.
  4. After a very long correspondence and discussion among top leaders, these differences were resolved.

Select the correct option :

  1. (ii) and (iv) only
  2. (iii) and (iv) only
  3. (i) and (ii) only
  4. (i) and (iii) only
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/3/1

(a) (ii) and (iv) only

Q17.2023 Main 59/4/1 · Q41 mark

Which one of the following statements, related to the Chinese invasion in 1962, is correct ?

  1. A boundary dispute surfaced between India and China.
  2. Dalai Lama obtained political asylum in India after 1962.
  3. China took the boundary issue to the United Nations.
  4. China used atomic weapons during this war.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/4/1

(a) A boundary dispute surfaced between India and China

Q18.2023 Main 59/4/1 · Q61 mark

Two statements are given below — one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Read these statements carefully and choose the correct option as the answer from the options (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below.

Assertion (A): There was a large-scale migration of refugees into India during the 1971 war with Pakistan.

Reason (R): Pakistan had planned the migration to disturb the Indian economy.

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/4/1

(c) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.

Q19.2023 Main 59/4/1 · Q71 mark

Who played the role of mediator in the Tashkent Agreement between India and Pakistan ?

  1. UNO
  2. USA
  3. USSR
  4. China
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/4/1

(c) USSR

Q20.2023 Supp. 59/C/1 · Q91 mark

Where was the first summit of the NAM held in September 1961 ?

  1. New Delhi
  2. Cairo
  3. Jakarta
  4. Belgrade
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/C/1

(d) Belgrade

Q21.2023 Supp. 59/C/1 · Q101 mark

In which year did China take over the control of Tibet ?

  1. 1950
  2. 1956
  3. 1962
  4. 1968
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/C/1

(a) 1950

Q22.SQP 2025-26 · Q71 mark

What is the primary purpose of India’s foreign policy?

  1. Pursuing Territorial expansion
  2. Promoting Economic exploitation
  3. National security and economic development
  4. Building exclusive military alliances
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 · Marking Scheme

(C) National security and economic development

Q23.SQP 2025-26 · Q81 mark

External affairs minister to visit China in 1979 was:

  1. Rajiv Gandhi
  2. Atal Bihari Vajpayee
  3. P.V. Narsimha Rao
  4. Manmohan Singh
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 · Marking Scheme

(B) Atal Behari Vajpayee

Q24.2026 Main 59/4/1 · Q172 marks

Highlight any two steps taken by India for Asian and Afro-Asian Unity.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/4/1

Steps taken by India for Asian and Afro-Asian Unity -

(i) Adopted the policy of Non-alignment.

(ii) Establishment of contacts and cooperation between India and other newly independent countries in Asia and Africa.

(iii) India made earnest efforts for the early realisation of freedom of Indonesia from the Dutch colonial power.

(iv) India supported the process of decolonisation in Asia & Africa.

(v) India encouraged the Afro – Asian conferences.

(any other relevant point) (Any two)

Q25.2026 Supp. 59/7/1 · Q172 marks

Highlight any two principles of the Indian foreign policy.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/7/1

Two Principles of India’s Foreign Policy are –

  1. Non-Alignment
  2. Panchsheel
  3. Having good relations with all the neighbouring countries
  4. Support to United Nations
  5. Promotion to world peace and security.
  6. Disarmament

(Any other) (Any two)

Q26.2025 Main 59/4/1 · Q172 marks

Analyse the impact of Chinese invasion on India in 1962.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/4/1
  1. It strained the relations.
  2. Some parts of the Indian territory were captured by China, which created a sense of enimety with China.
  3. It dented the image of India at home and abroad.
  4. Defence Minister V.K. Menon had to resign.
  5. No confidence motion was moved against the Nehru Cabinet.

or any other relevant point (Any two)

Q27.2025 Main 59/6/1 · Q172 marks

Describe any two features of India’s foreign policy.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/6/1

Two features are :

  1. Policy of Non-alignment. Its first summit was held in the year in 1961 in Belgrade. Its aim was to maintain distance from the two power blocs.
  2. Friendly relations with the neighbouring countries.
  3. It is based on the constitutional principles, as laid down in the Article 51 of the Indian Constitution.
  4. Respect for the United Nations.
  5. Following the Principles of Panchsheel.

or any other relevant point (any two) (2 × 1 = 2)

Q28.2025 Supp. 59/S/1 · Q182 marks

Explain any two consequences of the Bangladesh war of 1971.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/S/1

Consequences of Bangladesh war of 1971:-

  1. Bangladesh emerged as an Independent country.
  2. Shimla agreement was signed between Indira Gandhi and Zulfikar Ali Bhutto to formalize the return of peace.
  3. After the end of war the popularity of Prime Minister Indira Gandhi soared high and many state elections were won with vast majority.
  4. Due to war the five year plans got derailed.
  5. India had to face economic crisis.

any other relevant point (any two consequences) (2 × 1 = 2)

Q29.2024 Main 59/3/1 · Q152 marks

Analyse any two differences between India and China which led to a military conflict in 1962.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/3/1

Differences between India and China that led to military conflict in 1962.

  • (i) China took over Tibet in 1950.
  • (ii) Disagreement over final settlement of the sino Indian border.
  • (iii) Competing territorial claims over AksaiChin & region of Ladakh.

(or any other relevant point) (Any two)

Q30.2023 Main 59/3/1 · Q142 marks

Why was the period of India’s first nuclear test a difficult period in its domestic politics ? Explain.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/3/1

It was a difficult period in India’s democratic politics because:-

  1. Prices were rising due to the Arab-Israel war of 1973.
  2. There was a hike in oil prices.
  3. India was facing difficulties on the economic front.
  4. Many agitations were going on in the country.
  5. India faced a railway strike in May 1974.

(Any two)

Q31.2023 Main 59/5/1 · Q152 marks

Analyse the India’s policy of Non-alignment.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/5/1

The policy of non- alignment helped in reducing cold war tensions.

  • India wanted to keep away from military alliances led by the US and Soviet Union which was a difficult balancing act.
  • It took an independent stand on various international uses.
  • It advocated unity amongst third world countries.
  • It helped India to develop and get help from both blocs.

(Or any other relevant point) (any two)

Q32.2023 Main 59/5/1 · Q182 marks

Why did India not sign the nuclear treaties like NPT and CTBT ? Explain any two reasons.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/5/1

India has refused to sign and opposed the CTBT and NPT because:

  • i) They were selectively applicable to the non nuclear powers.
  • ii) The legitimised the monopoly of the five nuclear weapon powers.
  • iii) India considered NPT as discriminatary.
  • iv) India was committed to the policy of using nuclear power only for peaceful purposes.
  • v) It was in the interest of our national security as our neighbours China and Pakistan are nuclear power States.
  • vi) It is important for our defence and deterrence purpose.

(any other relevant point) (Any 2)

Q33.2023 Supp. 59/C/1 · Q172 marks

Explain the cause of split in the Communist Party of India in 1964.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/C/1

The growing rift between India and China due to the Sino-Indian conflict, created irreconcilable differences within the Communist Party of India (CPI). The pro-USSR faction remained within the CPI and moved closer to the Congress Party whereas the other faction was close to China. This caused a split in the communist party into CPI and CPI -M.

Q34.2026 Main 59/3/1 · Q244 marks

Read the passage given below carefully and answer the questions based on it :

India made earnest efforts for the early realisation of freedom of Indonesia from the Dutch colonial regime by convening an international conference in 1949 to support its freedom struggle. India was a staunch supporter of the decolonisation process and firmly opposed racism, especially apartheid in South Africa. The Afro-Asian Conference held in the Indonesian city of Bandung in 1955, commonly known as the Bandung Conference, marked the zenith of India’s engagement with the newly independent Asian and African nations. The Bandung Conference later led to the establishment of the NAM.

(i) Which Indian leader played an important role in manifesting the Afro-Asian unity ?

  1. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
  2. Jawaharlal Nehru
  3. Mahatma Gandhi
  4. Lal Bahadur Shastri

(ii) In which year did the Non-Alignment Movement become the symbol of Afro-Asian unity ?

  1. 1959
  2. 1960
  3. 1961
  4. 1962

(iii) Identify the main intention behind the strengthening Afro-Asian unity.

  1. To gain economic support from the USA bloc
  2. To co-operate with the USSR bloc in enhancing its global policies
  3. To form military alliances in the era of Cold War
  4. To maintain distance from both the superpowers (USA and USSR) in order to protect its freedom

(iv) The first summit of the Non-Aligned Movement (NAM) was held in which year ?

  1. 1961
  2. 1962
  3. 1963
  4. 1964
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/3/1

(i) (B) Jawahar Lal Nehru

(ii) (C) 1961

(iii) (D) To maintain distance from both the superpowers (USA and USSR) in order to protect its freedom.

(iv) (A) 1961

Q35.2026 Main 59/4/1 · Q244 marks

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions based on it :

“After the Chinese revolution, India was one of the first countries to recognise the communist government. Nehru felt strongly for this neighbour and helped the new government in international fora. A joint enunciation of peaceful coexistence was signed by Indian Prime Minister and the Chinese premier in 1954. But two developments strained this relationship. China annexed Tibet and removed a historical buffer between the two countries. A little earlier, a boundary dispute had surfaced between India and China.”

(i) In which year was Tibet annexed by China ?

  1. 1949
  2. 1950
  3. 1951
  4. 1952

(ii) Choose the name of the Tibetan spiritual leader who had obtained political asylum in India.

  1. Dalai Lama
  2. Kazi Dorzi
  3. Zhou Enlai
  4. V.K.S. Menon

(iii) Which one of the following was jointly signed by India and China in 1954 ?

  1. Non-Alignment Agreement
  2. Panchsheel
  3. Agreement on Apartheid
  4. Principles of Socialism

(iv) The reason of the Chinese invasion in 1962 was :

  1. Boundary dispute
  2. India’s interference in Tibet
  3. India’s policy of non-alignment
  4. India’s good relations with USA
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/4/1

(i) (B) – 1950

(ii) (A) – Dalai Lama.

(iii) (B) – Panchsheel

(iv) (A) – Boundary dispute.

Q36.2026 Supp. 59/7/1 · Q244 marks

Read the passage given below carefully and answer the questions based on it :

‘‘The first Prime Minister, Jawaharlal Nehru, exercised a profound influence in the formulation and implementation of India’s foreign policy. The major objectives of his foreign policy were to preserve the hard-earned sovereignty, protect territorial integrity and promote rapid economic growth. Nehru wished to achieve these objectives through his foreign policy.’’
  1. Choose the name of the first Foreign Minister of India.
    1. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
    2. Jawaharlal Nehru
    3. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
    4. Rafi Ahmad Kidwai
  2. Which one of the following was not a principle of India’s foreign policy ?
    1. Non-alignment
    2. Panchsheel
    3. Respect for the United Nations
    4. Capitalism
  3. Which political party was in favour of a pro-US foreign policy ?
    1. Indian National Congress Party
    2. Communist Party of India
    3. Bharatiya Jana Sangh
    4. Socialist Party
  4. In which of the following cities was the first NAM summit held ?
    1. New Delhi
    2. Cairo
    3. Belgrade
    4. Jakarta
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/7/1
  1. B – Jawaharlal Nehru
  2. D – Capitalism
  3. C - Bhartiya Jana Sangh
  4. C - Belgrade
Q37.2025 Main 59/2/1 · Q234 marks

Highlight any four important features of the Nuclear Policy of India.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/2/1

Four important features :

  1. India wanted to generate nuclear energy for peaceful purposes.
  2. Initially India was against nuclear weapons.
  3. Earlier India was for ‘No first use.’
  4. India is against NPT and CTBT as these are considered discriminatory.
  5. Now India has changed its ‘no first use’ policy.

or any other relevant feature (any four features) (4x1=4)

Q38.2025 Main 59/4/1 · Q244 marks

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions based on it :

“Tibet is one of the major issues that historically caused tension between India and China. From time to time in history, China had claimed administrative control over Tibet and from time to time, Tibet was independent too. In 1950, China took over the control of Tibet. Large sections of the Tibetan population opposed this takeover. The Tibetan leader accompanied the Chinese Premier during his official visit to India in 1956.”
  1. Where is the plateau of Tibet situated ?

    1. Central Asia
    2. East Asia
    3. In the East of China
    4. In the West of India
  2. Choose the name of the Chinese leader that came to India in 1956 as the Chinese Premier.

    1. Mao
    2. Dalai Lama
    3. Zhou Enlai
    4. Hu-Zintao
  3. In which year was the ‘Panchsheel agreement’ signed between India and China ?

    1. 1952
    2. 1953
    3. 1954
    4. 1955
  4. From which country did Dalai Lama ask for asylum ?

    1. Nepal
    2. Bhutan
    3. India
    4. China
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/4/1

(i) (A) Central Asia

(ii) (C) Zhou Enlai

(iii) (C) 1954

(iv) (C) India

(4 × 1 = 4)

Q39.2025 Main 59/6/1 · Q244 marks

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions based on it :

India advocated non-alignment as the ideal foreign policy approach. This was a difficult balancing act and sometimes the balance did not appear perfect. In 1956 when Britain attacked Egypt over the Suez Canal issue, India led the world protest against this neo-colonial invasion. But in the same year when the USSR invaded Hungary, India did not join its public condemnation. Despite such a situation, by and large India did take an independent stand on various international issues and could get aid and assistance from members of both the blocs.
  1. Who among the following leaders had played a crucial role in the formulation and implementation of India’s foreign policy ?

    1. Jawaharlal Nehru
    2. Sardar Patel
    3. Mahatma Gandhi
    4. Subhas Chandra Bose
  2. In which city was the first summit of NAM held in September 1961 ?

    1. New Delhi
    2. Belgrade
    3. Cairo (Kahira)
    4. Bombay (Mumbai)
  3. Identify the two blocs from whom India wanted to keep a distance.

    1. USA and France
    2. USSR and France
    3. USA and USSR
    4. USA and China
  4. Which one of the following countries was a supporter of the Non-Aligned Movement ?

    1. Pakistan
    2. China
    3. Japan
    4. Egypt
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/6/1

(i) (A) Jawaharlal Nehru

(ii) (B) Belgrade

(iii) (C) USA and USSR

(iv) (D) Egypt

(1 + 1 + 1 + 1 = 4)

Q40.2025 Main 59/7/1 · Q22(a)4 marks

Describe any four contributions made by India to promote international peace and security.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/7/1

Four contributions are-

  1. India declared that “No first use of Atomic weapons” while declaring its Nuclear Policy.
  2. It will always take first step to build good relations with neighbouring countries.
  3. It obeyed international laws and treaties.
  4. It always in favour of settling International disputes by arbitration.
  5. Article 51 of the Indian constitution is a big contribution on promotion of International peace and security.

(any four) (4 × 1 = 4)

Q41.2025 Main 59/7/1 · Q22(b)4 marks

Describe any four important principles of India’s foreign policy.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/7/1
  1. NAM- Non Alignment Movement
  2. Panchsheel
  3. Good relations with neighbours
  4. National Interests first

or any other relevant point (any four with explanation) (4 × 1 = 4)

Q42.2025 Supp. 59/S/1 · Q22(a)4 marks

Explain any two features of the ‘Policy of Non-alignment’.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/S/1

Policy of Non-alignment –

  1. It is a policy that advocates peace and not war.
  2. It is to keep distance from both the military alliances to be able to take independent stand on various international issues.
  3. It is not neutrality but active participation in the international issues.

any other relevant point (Any two to be explained) (2 × 2 = 4)

Q43.2025 Supp. 59/S/1 · Q22(b)4 marks

Explain the Nuclear Policy of India.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/S/1

Nuclear Policy of India –

  1. To use atomic energy for peaceful purposes.
  2. India is against nuclear weapons.
  3. India did not sign – the two most important treaties like NPT and CTBT – as it treated these treaties discriminatory.
  4. Earlier it had the policy of ‘No first use’. But now it has been changed.
  5. It acquired weapons for self-defense as neighbouring countries Pakistan and China have nuclear weapons.

any other relevant point (2 × 2 = 4)

Q44.2024 Main 59/1/1 · Q234 marks

Highlight the role of Jawaharlal Nehru in the foreign policy of India.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/1/1

Role of Jawaharlal Nehru in the foreign policy of India.

Jawaharlal Nehru played a very important role in making the foreign policy of India. All his efforts were aimed at:

  • (i) protecting territory integrity
  • (ii) promoting rapid economic development
  • (iii) preserving the hard earned sovereignty
  • (iv) achieving the objectives through the strategy of non-alignment.

Or any other relevant point (Any four points)

Q45.2024 Main 59/4/1 · Q194 marks

Explain the challenging and difficult conditions prevailing in the world at the time of India’s independence.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/4/1

Challenges and difficult conditions prevailing in the world at the time of India's Independence:

  1. The world had witnessed the devastating world war II and was grappling with issues of reconstruction.
  2. Attempts to establish an international body (UNO) was underway.
  3. Many new countries were emerging as a result of the collapse of colonialism.
  4. The British left a legacy of international disputes.
  5. Partition of India created its own problems and the task of poverty alleviation was awaiting fulfillment.
  6. India's Independence coincided with the beginning of the cold war.

(or any other relevant point) (Any Four Points) (4x1=4)

Q46.2024 Supp. 59/S/1 · Q194 marks

Analyse the impact of the Chinese Invasion of 1962 on the political situation in India.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/S/1
  1. It dented the India's image at home and abroad.
  2. The Defence Minister V Krishna Menon had to resign from the cabinet. Some top army commanders were removed.
  3. For the first time a no-confidence motion was moved against the government and debated in Lok Sabha.
  4. Congress Party lost some key By-elections to Lok Sabha.
  5. Sino-Indian conflict affected the opposition parties in India. Differences developed within the Communist Party of India.
  6. Indian leadership got alerted to the volatile situation in Northeast region.

(any two) (2x2=4)

Q47.2023 Main 59/1/1 · Q244 marks

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow :

“The war with China alerted the Indian leadership to the volatile situation in the North-East region. Apart from being isolated and extremely under-developed, this region also presented India with the challenge of national integration and political unity.”
  1. Which one of the following States is not a North-Eastern State ?
    1. Arunachal Pradesh
    2. Uttarakhand
    3. Meghalaya
    4. Tripura
  2. Which one of the following States was affected the most due to Sino-Indian conflict ?
    1. Assam
    2. Nagaland
    3. Arunachal Pradesh
    4. Sikkim
  3. Which one of the following States was created in the North-East just after the end of Indo-China War ?
    1. Nagaland
    2. Assam
    3. Sikkim
    4. Arunachal Pradesh
  4. Which political party got split just after the Indo-China War due to internal differences ?
    1. Swatantra Party
    2. Congress Party
    3. Communist Party of India
    4. Jana Sangh
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/1/1

(i) (b) Uttarakhand

(ii) (c) Arunachal Pradesh

(iii) (a) Nagaland

(iv) (c) Communist Party of India

4×1=4

Q48.2023 Main 59/2/1 · Q244 marks

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow :

India conducted a series of nuclear tests demonstrating its capacity to use nuclear energy for military purposes. After this, Pakistan also conducted tests. International Community imposed sanctions on both India and Pakistan which were subsequently waived. India opposed the international treaties aimed at non-proliferation.

(24.1) In which year did India conduct series of nuclear tests ?

  1. 1971
  2. 1985
  3. 1992
  4. 1998

(24.2) Identify the treaty that India refused to sign.

  1. Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty
  2. Shimla Agreement
  3. Panchsheel Agreement
  4. Indus waters Treaty

(24.3) In the beginning, India wanted to generate nuclear energy for ______

  1. peaceful purpose.
  2. making atomic bombs.
  3. competing with the super powers.
  4. ensuring its security.

(24.4) Under whose guidance did India initiate its nuclear programme ?

  1. C.V. Raman
  2. Homi J. Bhabha
  3. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
  4. K. Kasturirangan
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/2/1

(24.1) (d) 1998

(24.2) (a) Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty

(24.3) (a) peaceful purpose

(24.4) (b) Homi J. Bhabha

4×1=4

Q49.2023 Main 59/3/1 · Q244 marks

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow :

The first Prime Minister of India played a crucial role in setting the national agenda. He was foreign minister also and exercised profound influence in the formulation and implementation of India’s foreign policy. The three major objectives of his foreign policy were to preserve the hard-earned sovereignty, protect territorial integrity and promote rapid economic development. He wished to achieve these objectives through the strategy of non-alignment. There were parties and groups in the country that believed that India should be more friendly with the bloc led by the US because that bloc claimed to be pro-democracy.
  1. Who was the main architect of India’s foreign policy ?
    1. B.R. Ambedkar
    2. Mahatma Gandhi
    3. Jawaharlal Nehru
    4. Sardar Patel
  2. Which one of the following is an objective of India’s foreign policy ?
    1. To pursue its national interest
    2. To preserve democracy
    3. To strengthen its Armed forces
    4. To become a superpower
  3. Non-alignment means _______.
    1. to remain neutral
    2. non-interference
    3. to remain isolated
    4. not joining any power bloc
  4. Who believed that India should be more friendly with the bloc led by the US ?
    1. Bharatiya Jana Sangh
    2. Swatantra Party
    3. B.R. Ambedkar
    4. All of the above
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/3/1

(i) (c) Jawaharlal Nehru

(ii) (a) To pursue its national interest

(iii) (d) not joining any power bloc

(iv) (d) All of the above

4×1=4

Q50.2023 Main 59/5/1 · Q254 marks

In the given political outline map of India, four countries / states have been marked as A, B, C and D. Identify these on the basis of the information given below and write their correct names in your answer book along with their respective serial number of the information used and the concerned alphabet as per format that follows :

  1. The country with which India fought a battle in 1962.
  2. The country with which India has a dispute on Kashmir.
  3. The country which came into existence after the 1971 war.
  4. The Indian state which shares its border with China.
Sr. No. of the information usedConcerned alphabet in the mapName of the countries/states
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

Figure from the paper

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/5/1
Serial number of the information usedConcerned alphabet given in the mapName of the State
(i)CChina
(ii)DPakistan
(iii)ABangladesh
(iv)BArunachal Pradesh
Q51.2023 Main 59/5/1 · Q25 (VI)4 marks

Note : The following questions are for Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of Q. No. 25 :

(25.1) Name the country with which India fought a battle in 1962.

(25.2) With which country did India have conflict over Kashmir issue since independence ?

(25.3) Name the country related to Sheikh Mujibur Rahman.

(25.4) Which Indian state in the North East shares its border with China ?

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/5/1

25.1 China

25.2 Pakistan

25.3 Bangladesh

25.4 Arunachal Pradesh

Q52.2023 Supp. 59/C/1 · Q244 marks

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow :

The Janata Party Government that came to power in 1977 announced that it would follow genuine non-alignment. Since then, all Governments, (Congress or non-Congress) have taken initiatives for restoring better relations with China and entering into close ties with US. In Indian politics and in popular mind, India’s foreign policy is always very closely linked to two questions. In the post-1990 period, the ruling parties have often been criticised for their pro-US foreign policy.

(i) What did the Janata Party Government decide to change in the foreign policy of India to follow genuine non-alignment ?

  1. Pro-Soviet tilt would be corrected.
  2. India would form its own power bloc.
  3. India would have a pro-US tilt in its foreign policy.
  4. India would remain isolated.

(ii) Who among the following was the Prime Minister of India when the Janata Party came into power in 1977 ?

  1. Ch. Charan Singh
  2. Morarji Desai
  3. Ch. Devi Lal
  4. Chandra Shekhar

(iii) The pro-US strategy in India’s foreign policy during 1990s was mainly due to its _______.

  1. economic interests
  2. military interests
  3. nuclear interests
  4. cultural interests

(iv) Which one of the following issues has always been closely linked to India’s foreign policy ?

  1. India’s trade relations with Sri Lanka
  2. India’s relations with Pakistan
  3. India’s cultural relations with China
  4. India’s nuclear relations with Japan
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/C/1

(i) (a) Pro-Soviet tilt would be corrected

(ii) (b) Morarji Desai

(iii) (a) Economic interests

(iv) (b) India’s relations with Pakistan

Q53.SQP 2025-26 · Q194 marks

Explain the role played by India under Jawaharlal Nehru in maintaining Afro-Asian Unity.

Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 · Marking Scheme
  1. Due to India’s size, location and power potential, Nehru dreamt of major role for India world affairs, especially in Asia.
  2. Under Nehru’s leadership, India made contact with other newly emerged Independent nations of Asia and Africa.
  3. During the 1940s and 1950s, Nehru advocated with great enthusiasm to support the Asian unit /. Under his leadership, India hosted the Asian relations conference in March 1947, five months before India’s independence.
  4. India even made efforts to support the liberation movement of Indonesia to free it from the clutches of Dutch colonial rule by convening an international conference in 1949.
  5. Afro-Asian meeting held in the Indonesian city of Bandung in 1955 commonly known as the Bandung Conference was a watershed in India’s engagement with the newly liberated nations of Asia and Africa.

(Or Any other relevant point/s)

Q54.2026 Main 59/1/1 · Q29(a)6 marks

“India’s Foreign Policy has been successful in saving its ‘National Interests’.” Support the statement with three arguments.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/1/1

(i) Indian foriegn policy was based on NAM , Panchsheel, respect for UN, disarmament and world peace. India by adopting NAM was able to save it sovereignty by pursuing its independent foreign policy.

(ii) India could muster support from both the military blocks .

(iii) India could pursue the peaceful and cordial relations with all the neighbouring countries. Good relation with Nepal, Bhutan, Sri Lanka are two of the examples.

(or any other point) ( any three arguments to be explained)

Q55.2026 Main 59/1/1 · Q29(b)6 marks

“India’s Foreign Policy is as per the principles of International Peace and Security as laid down in Article 51 of the Indian Constitution.” Justify the statement with three examples.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/1/1

Article 51 of the constitution lays down some directive Principles of state policy on promotion of international peace and security.

(i) It promotes international peace and security. India’s atomic tests are the testimony that India is developing nuclear programme for peaceful purposes. To combat challenges like terrorism, Global warming India is ready to extend co-operation with other countries.

(ii) To maintain just and honourable relations among nations India tried its best to do various treaties with its neighbouring countries like Pakistan and China etc.

(iii) To encourage settlement of international dispute by arbitration. India sent its troops through UN to establish peace. It also sent its army in Sri-Lanka to settle racial conflict.

(or any other point) (any three with examples)

Q56.2026 Main 59/2/1 · Q29(a)6 marks

Analyse any three principles of India’s foreign policy which you would like to alter in the present international scenario.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/2/1

(i) Principle of NAM as the world has become unipolar.

(ii) ‘No First Use’ of atomic weapons concept may be changed, keeping in view safety and security of the nation.

(iii) India’s approach towards problems like terrorism and global warming through determination of foreign policy.

(iv) Change in the policy of Panchsheel.

(v) India must support other developing countries through well-defined foreign policy and form a strong organization.

(vi) Review of Neighbourhood First Policy.

(vii) Review of Act East Policy.

(viii) SAARC /SAFTA to be reviewed.

(ix) Strengthening the UN.

(or any other relevant point) (Any three principles to be analysed)

Q57.2026 Main 59/2/1 · Q29(b)6 marks

“India’s nuclear policy is a blend of strategic autonomy and a commitment to global disarmament.” Justify the statement with any three suitable arguments.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/2/1

India's nuclear policy is a blend of strategic autonomy and commitment to global disarmament as -

(i) It has refused to sign the treaties like NPT and CTBT because these are discriminatory in nature.

(ii) Our leadership went for nuclear programmes for peaceful purposes and also to be a nuclear power.

(iii) India has declared to review the ‘No first use’ policy- as its strategic autonomy.

(iv) India is keen to be a member of Nuclear Suppliers Group.

(v) India has signed different treaties on disarmament.

(or any other relevant point) ( any three arguments)

Q58.2026 Main 59/5/1 · Q29(a)6 marks

Explain any three reasons that are responsible for the strained relations between India and China.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/5/1

Reasons for strained relations between India and China :

  • Annexation of Tibet.
  • Invasion in 1962 by China.
  • Border dispute, and Recent developments on the border
  • Strategic partnership of China with Pakistan and supports Pakistan at the International Forums.

(Any other relevant point)

(Any three to be explained )

Q59.2026 Main 59/5/1 · Q29(b)6 marks

Explain any three important features of India’s Nuclear Policy.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/5/1

Important features of India’s Nuclear Policy.

  • Use of Atomic Energy for peaceful purpose.
  • India opposed the indefinite extension of the NPT in 1995 and refused to sign CTBT as it considered them as discriminatory.
  • India conducted a series of Nuclear tests in May 1998, demonstrating its capacity to use nuclear energy for military purpose.
  • India’s nuclear doctrine of credible minimum nuclear deterrence professes “No first Use”.
  • India’s commitment to Global , verifiable and non discriminatory nuclear disarmament leading to Nuclear weapons free world.

(Any other relevant point)

(Any three to be explained )

Q60.2025 Main 59/1/1 · Q29(a)6 marks

“The foreign policy of Independent India has pursued the dream of a peaceful world.” Support the statement with three suitable arguments.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/1/1

The foreign policy of independent India pursued the dream of peaceful world by-

  1. India advocated the policy of Non- Alignment which reduces the enemity.
  2. Reducing the cold war tensions and by contributing human resources to the UN peace keeping operations and supporting the UN
  3. India maintained a distance from the military alliances led by US and USSR such as NATO and Warsaw Pact.
  4. To foster Afro-Asian Unity, India convened the Asian relation conference in March 1947.
  5. Supporting of the decolonisation process and making efforts for early realization of freedom of Indonesia from the Dutch colonial regime.
  6. India firmly opposed racism, especially Apartheid in South Africa
  7. The Afro-Asian conference held in Bandung, Indonesia, in 1955, marked the zenith of India's engagement with the newly independent Asian and African Nations. The Bandung Conference later led to the establishment of NAM.

Or any other relevant argument (any three) (3x2=6)

Q61.2025 Main 59/1/1 · Q29(b)6 marks

“India played an important role in maintaining Afro-Asian Unity.” Support the statement with three suitable examples.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/1/1

Role played by India :

  1. Nehru had been an ardent advocate of Asian Unity.
  2. India conveyed the Asian relation conference in March 1947.
  3. India was a staunch supporter of the decolonisation process and firmly opposed racism, especially apartheid in South Africa.
  4. India made earnest efforts for the early realisation of freedom of Indonesia from the Dutch colonial regime by convening an international conference in 1949 to support its freedom struggle.
  5. The Afro-Asian conference held in the Indonesian city of Bandung in 1955, marked the zenith of India’s engagement with newly independent Asian and African nations.

(any three points) (3x2=6)

Q62.2025 Main 59/5/1 · Q29(a)6 marks

Describe any three important features of India’s Foreign Policy.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/5/1

Important features of India’s foreign policy :

  1. National interests are the top priority.
  2. To have friendly relations with all the neighbouring countries.
  3. NAM – Policy of Non-aligned movement.
  4. Respecting the sovereignty of other countries.
  5. Against terrorism in all parts of the world.
  6. Respect for UN.

or any other relevant point (Any three to be explained) (3 × 2 = 6)

Q63.2025 Main 59/5/1 · Q29(b)6 marks

Describe any three important events just before and after the India-Pakistan war in 1971.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/5/1

Three important happening before and after the India – Pakistan war in 1971.

Happening before:

  1. Liberation of East Pakistan and birth of a new country Bangladesh.
  2. Thousands of refugees entered India’s territory which put a lot of burden on Indian economy.

Happening after

  1. Shimla Agreement in 1972 between India and Pakistan.
  2. Sheikh Mujib-ur-Rahman became the Prime Minister of Bangladesh.
  3. To counter the US-Pakistan-China axis India signed a 20 year treaty of peace and friendship with the Soviet Union in 1971.

or any other relevant happening (Any three to be explained) (3 × 2 = 6)

Q64.2024 Main 59/3/1 · Q29(a)6 marks

Justify the ‘policy of Non-Alignment’ adopted by India, by giving any three arguments.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/3/1

Non-alignment policy of India-

  • (i) India chose the policy of NAM as it desired to be independent and sovereign in keeping and maintaining its independent foreign policy.
  • (ii) The policy of NAM helped in reducing the Cold War tensions and allowed India to contributing human resources to the UN peace keeping operations.
  • (iii) The policy of NAM also helped India to keep the Balance of Power to avoid entanglement in power politics.
  • (iv) India adopted NAM to get help from both the super powers.

(or any other relevant point) (any three )

Q65.2024 Main 59/3/1 · Q29(b)6 marks

“Foreign policy of independent India has pursued the dream of a peaceful world.” Support the statement with three suitable arguments.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/3/1

Suitable arguments –

  • (i) The foreign policy of Independent India rigorously pursued the dream of a peaceful world by advocating the policy of NAM; by reducing the cold war confrontations and by contributing the human resources to the UN peace keeping operations.
  • (ii) India did not join either of the two camps as it wanted to keep distance from the military alliances led by US and USSR against each other.
  • (iii) In 1956 , Britain attacked Egypt over the Suez canal issue, India led the world protest against this neo colonial invasion.

( or any other relevant point)

Q66.2024 Main 59/5/1 · Q30(a)6 marks

“The foreign policy of independent India has pursued the dream of a peaceful world.” Support the statement with any three suitable arguments.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/5/1

Suitable arguments for this are:

  1. The foreign policy of independent India vigorously pursued the dream of a peaceful world by advocating the policy of non-alignment, by reducing the Cold War confrontations and by contributing human resources to the UN peacekeeping operations.
  2. India did not join either of the two camps during the Cold War era. It advocated the policy of NAM as the ideal foreign policy approach.
  3. In 1956 when Britain attacked Egypt over the Suez Canal issue, India led the world protest against this neo-colonial invasion.
  4. India provided human resources for the peace initiative of the United Nations.

Or any other relevant argument.

(any three to be explained) (3x2=6)

Q67.2024 Main 59/5/1 · Q30(b)6 marks

“India was a staunch supporter of the decolonization process and firmly opposed racism.” Support the statement with any three suitable arguments.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/5/1

Supporting arguments:

  1. Under the leadership of Nehru, India convened the Asian Relation conference in March 1947.
  2. India was a staunch supporter of the decolonization process and firmly opposed racism, especially apartheid in South Africa.
  3. India made earnest efforts for the early realization of freedom of Indonesia from the Dutch colonial regime by convening an international conference in 1949 to support its freedom struggle.
  4. The Afro-Asian conference of 1955, known as Bandung Conference, marked the zenith of India’s engagement with newly independent Asian and African nations. The Bandung Conference later led to the establishment of the NAM.

Or any other relevant argument.

(any three to be explained) (3x2=6)

Q68.SQP 2026-27 · Q27(A)6 marks

‘The conduct of foreign affairs is an outcome of a two-way interaction between domestic compulsions and prevailing international climate’. Support your answer with one example from India’s external relations in the 1960s.

Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 · Marking Scheme

‘Sino-Indian Conflict of 1962’ dented India’s image at home and international level, India had to approach the Americans and the British for military assistance to tide over the issues. The Soviet Union remained neutral during the conflict:

(Assess the answer as a whole or other relevant point)

Q69.SQP 2026-27 · Q27(B)6 marks

Analyse the major objectives of India’s foreign policy.

Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 · Marking Scheme

Objectives of India’s foreign policy:

  1. Preservation of Sovereignty and Territorial Integrity: The foremost goal was to protect India's hard earned sovereignty and territorial boundaries. This was reflected in India's refusal to join any military alliance during the Cold War, thereby ensuring the nation's capacity for independent decision-making in world affairs.
  2. Promotion of International Peace and Security: India's Constitution, in Article 51, outlines the Directive Principles of State Policy for the promotion of international peace and security. India actively participated in UN peacekeeping missions and advocated for global disarmament efforts.
  3. Panchsheel (Five Principles of Peaceful Coexistence): Nehru formulated these five principles with China in 1954. These included mutual respect for territorial integrity and sovereignty, mutual non-aggression, mutual non-interference in internal affairs, equality and mutual benefit, and peaceful coexistence.
  4. Advocacy for Afro-Asian Unity: India played a significant role in fostering solidarity among newly independent nations in Asia and Africa. The Afro Asian conference held in the Indonesian city of Bandung in 1955, commonly known as the Bandung Conference, marked the zenith of India’s engagement with the newly independent Asian and African nations. The Bandung Conference later led to the establishment of the NAM.
  5. Rapid Economic Development: The foreign policy also aimed to secure economic and technological assistance from both superpower blocs (the US and USSR), which was crucial for its early industrial development
  6. Independent Nuclear Policy: India opposed the discriminatory nature of treaties like the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT) and the Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty (CTBT). This independent stance culminated in India conducting its first nuclear test in 1974, framed as a "peaceful nuclear explosion."

(Assess the answer as a whole or other relevant point)

Part B · Politics in India since Independence

5. Challenges to and Restoration of the Congress System

Q1.2026 Main 59/1/1 · Q41 mark

Identify the State with which the phrase ‘Aaya Ram, Gaya Ram’ is related to.

  1. Uttar Pradesh
  2. Madhya Pradesh
  3. Haryana
  4. Rajasthan
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/1/1

(C) Haryana

Q2.2026 Main 59/1/1 · Q91 mark

Choose the name of the Prime Minister who abolished ‘Privy Purse’.

  1. Morarji Desai
  2. Lal Bahadur Shastri
  3. Rajiv Gandhi
  4. Indira Gandhi
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/1/1

(D) Indira Gandhi

Q3.2025 Main 59/1/1 · Q91 mark

Identify the main reason for the split in Congress Party in 1969.

  1. Change in the ideology of Congress Party
  2. Dominance of the Congress Syndicate
  3. Difference of opinion among the opposition parties
  4. Opposition parties came together
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/1/1

(B) Dominance of the Congress Syndicate.

Q4.2025 Main 59/1/1 · Q101 mark

Identify and choose the incorrect pair :

  1. Lal Bahadur Shastri – Jai Jawan Jai Kisan
  2. Indira Gandhi – Garibi Hatao
  3. Syndicate – A group of powerful opposition leaders against Indira Gandhi
  4. Grand Alliance – Formed by all Non-Congress Parties
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/1/1

(C) Syndicate - A group of powerful opposition leaders against Indira Gandhi

Q5.2025 Main 59/7/1 · Q41 mark

Match List-I with List-II correctly and choose the correct answer from the codes given below :

List-IList-II
1.S. Nijalingappa(i)Chief Minister of Madras (Tamil Nadu)
2.K. Kamaraj(ii)Chief Minister of Mysore (Karnataka)
3.Gaya Lal(iii)Chief Minister of Bihar
4.Karpoori Thakur(iv)Member of Legislative Assembly of Haryana

Codes :

  1. 1-(ii), 2-(i), 3-(iv), 4-(iii)
  2. 1-(iii), 2-(i), 3-(iv), 4-(ii)
  3. 1-(iv), 2-(iii), 3-(ii), 4-(i)
  4. 1-(i), 2-(ii), 3-(iii), 4-(iv)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/7/1

(A) 1-(ii), 2-(i), 3-(iv), 4-(iii)

Q6.2025 Main 59/7/1 · Q111 mark

Before which Lok Sabha elections was the slogan ‘Garibi Hatao’ given ?

  1. 3rd
  2. 4th
  3. 5th
  4. 6th
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/7/1

(C) 5th

Q7.2024 Main 59/1/1 · Q91 mark

Identify the false statement from the following related to Lal Bahadur Shastri.

  1. He worked as the General Secretary of the Congress Party till 1966.
  2. He was in the Union Cabinet for a short period of three years.
  3. He resigned from the Union Cabinet taking responsibility for a Railway accident.
  4. He gave the famous slogan ‘Jai Jawan Jai Kisan’.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/1/1

(A) Or (B) Both be taken as correct answer.

Q8.2024 Main 59/1/1 · Q101 mark

Which of the following problems did India face before the 4th general elections ?

  1. Failure of monsoon
  2. Food crisis
  3. Heavy rainfall
  4. Depletion of foreign exchange reserves

Choose the correct option.

  1. (i), (ii)
  2. (iii), (iv)
  3. (i), (ii), (iv)
  4. (ii), (iii), (iv)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/1/1

(C) (i), (ii), (iv)

Q9.2024 Main 59/5/1 · Q61 mark

In the following question, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Choose the correct option as answer.

Assertion (A): People started protesting against the increase in prices of essential commodities, food scarcity and growing unemployment before the fourth General elections in India.

Reason (R): Failure of monsoons, widespread drought, decline in agricultural production and serious food shortage caused the problem.

Options:

  1. Both the Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) are correct and the Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  2. Both the Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) are correct, but the Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  3. The Assertion (A) is correct, but the Reason (R) is incorrect.
  4. The Assertion (A) is incorrect, but the Reason (R) is correct.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/5/1

(A) Both the Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) are correct and the Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).

Q10.2024 Main 59/5/1 · Q91 mark

After the death of Lal Bahadur Shastri, there was an intense competition for the post of Prime Minister between Indira Gandhi and which one of the following ?

  1. Morarji Desai
  2. K. Kamraj
  3. S. Nijalingappa
  4. V.V. Giri
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/5/1

(A) Morarji Desai

Q11.2023 Main 59/2/1 · Q91 mark

In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion(A) and Reason (R).

Read these statements and choose one correct answer from the given options.

Assertion (A): In 1969 the Congress Party faced a split.

Reason (R): Factional rivalry existed between the Congress Syndicate and Indira Gandhi.

Options :

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason of (A).
  2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct reason of (A).
  3. (A) is true, but (R) is wrong.
  4. (A) is wrong, but (R) is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/2/1

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason of (A)

Q12.2023 Main 59/4/1 · Q101 mark

Arrange the following in chronological order :

  1. Split in Congress Party
  2. Imposition of Emergency by Indira Gandhi
  3. Fifth General Elections
  4. Appointment of Lal Bahadur Shastri as Prime Minister

Choose the correct option :

  1. (i), (iv), (ii), (iii)
  2. (ii), (iv), (i), (iii)
  3. (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
  4. (iv), (i), (iii), (ii)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/4/1

(d) (iv), (i), (iii), (ii)

Q13.2023 Main 59/4/1 · Q111 mark

Which two major crises were faced by India during the tenure of Lal Bahadur Shastri ?

  1. Political and economic crisis
  2. War and food crisis
  3. War and communalism
  4. Failed monsoon and political crisis
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/4/1

(b) War and food crisis

Q14.2023 Main 59/5/1 · Q91 mark

Arrange the following in the chronological order :

  1. Appointment of Lal Bahadur Shastri as Prime Minister.
  2. Tashkent Agreement
  3. The fourth General Elections.
  4. Election of V.V. Giri as the President of India.

Choose the correct option :

  1. (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
  2. (ii), (iii), (iv), (i)
  3. (iii), (iv), (i), (ii)
  4. (ii), (iv), (i), (iii)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/5/1

(a) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

Q15.SQP 2026-27 · Q21 mark

The fifth general election to Lok Sabha were held in ______________.

  1. 1969
  2. 1970
  3. 1971
  4. 1972
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 · Marking Scheme

(C) 1971.

Q16.SQP 2026-27 · Q81 mark

With reference to Indian Politics after the 1967 General Elections, which one of the following statements is Incorrect?

  1. The idea of Non-Congressism advocated unity of all non-congress parties against Congress.
  2. The 1967 elections led to the rise of coalition governments and strong regional parties in many states.
  3. After the split, Congress(R) was referred to as the ‘Old Congress’.
  4. DMK came to power in Tamil Nadu in 1967.
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 · Marking Scheme

(C) After the split, Congress(R) was referred to as the ‘Old Congress’.

Q17.2026 Main 59/1/1 · Q172 marks

Describe any two challenges faced by India during the term of Prime Minister Lal Bahadur Shastri.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/1/1

Challenges

(i) The economic implications caused due to Indo-China war.

(ii) Failed monsoon

(iii) Problem of drought

(iv) Serious food crisis

(v) India faced a war with Pakistan in 1965

(any two challenges)

Q18.2025 Main 59/1/1 · Q172 marks

State the severe economic crisis prior to the fourth general elections of 1967.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/1/1
  1. Failure of monsoon and widespread drought.
  2. Decline in agriculture production.
  3. Serious food shortage.
  4. Depletion of foreign exchange reserves.
  5. Drop in industrial production and exports.
  6. Sharp rise in military expenditure due to the wars in 1962 with China and in 1965 with Pakistan.

To be evaluated as a whole with any four reasons responsible for the economic prices. (any four points) (2x1=2)

Q19.2025 Main 59/7/1 · Q182 marks

Justify the abolition of Privy Purses by Indira Gandhi.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/7/1

Reasons to abolish Privy Purse are : -

  1. To achieve the objective of Garibi Hatao. Indira Gandhi made it an election issue and after winning the majority, amended the constitution to abolish it.
  2. It was supposed that hereditary privileges were not consonant with the principles of equality and social and economic justice laid down in the constitution of India.
  3. It was discriminatory hence needed to be abolished.

(any two) (2 × 1 = 2)

Q20.2024 Main 59/1/1 · Q172 marks

Explain the meaning of the term ‘defection’ in politics.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/1/1

If an elected representative leaves the party on whose symbol he/she was elected and joins another party, it is called defection.

Q21.2024 Main 59/5/1 · Q162 marks

Explain any two reasons to consider the year 1967 as a landmark year in India’s political and electoral history.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/5/1

Reasons :

  1. The country witnessed major changes.
  2. Opposition parties were in the forefront organizing public protests and pressurizing the government.
  3. The results of 1967 elections jolted the Congress both at the centre as well as in some of the states.
  4. The elections of 1967 brought into picture the phenomenon of coalitions.
  5. Another important feature of this period was the role played by defections in the making and unmaking of governments.

Or any other relevant reason.

(any two reasons to be analysed) (2x1=2)

Q22.2022 Main 59/1/1 · Q62 marks

Analyse any two reasons for the split of the Congress Party in 1969.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 59/1/1

Reasons for the split of the Congress Party–

  1. Conflict between Indira Gandhi and the Syndicate.
  2. Presidential Election of 1969 where Indira Gandhi’s wishes were neglected and N. Sanjeeva Reddy was declared the official candidate. Indira Gandhi opposed him and supported V. V. Giri, an independent candidate. V. V. Giri won the election and it led to formal split in Congress.
Q23.2022 Main 59/3/1 · Q62 marks

Highlight the importance of the strategy of ‘Non-Congressism’ forwarded by Ram Manohar Lohia in 1967 general election.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 59/3/1

The strategy of Non-Congressism was to bring together all the opposition parties who had different ideologies to stop the division of votes and keep the Congress Party out of power. Ram Manohar Lohia gave an argument that the Congress rule was undemocratic and opposed to the interest of the ordinary poor people. Hence, the coming together of the non-congress parties i.e. “Non-Congressism” was necessary for reclaiming democracy for the people.

(Evaluate as a whole)

Q24.2022 Main 59/4/1 · Q22 marks

“Despite the existence of anti-defection law, ‘Aya Ram Gaya Ram’ is popular in Indian Politics.” Support this statement with any two examples.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 59/4/1
  • Defection is still prevalent inspite of the anti-defection law been passed in 1985.
  • The practice of frequent floor crossing by Legislators, (MPs and MLAs.) is still prevalent.

Any one example of Goa, Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka, West Bengal etc or any particular leader.

(Assess the answer as whole)

Q25.2022 Main 59/5/1 · Q62 marks

Why is the Presidential election in 1969 in India considered ‘Historical’ ? Highlight any two reasons.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 59/5/1
  1. The 1969 Presidential election is considered as the most controversial election.
  2. The internal differences within the Syndicate members of Congress Party created a conflict between the two groups.
  3. V. V. Giri contested as an independent candidate and was supported by Indira Gandhi to defeat the official candidate of the Congress Party, N. S. Reddy.
  4. It led to split in the Congress Party.

Or any other point (Any Two)

Q26.2022 Supp. 59/6/1 · Q32 marks

Examine any two reasons for the defeat of the Congress Party in the State Assembly elections of 1967.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/6/1

Reasons for the defeat of Congress Party:-

  1. There was an increase in alliances and coalitions against the Congress Party.
  2. Internal differences increased within the Congress party.

(or any other point) 2×1=2

Q27.2022 Supp. 59/6/1 · Q42 marks

Explain the term “Congress Syndicate”.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/6/1

Congress Syndicate was the informal name given to a group of Congress leaders who were in control of the party organisation. It was led by K. Kamaraj and included powerful state leaders like S. K. Patil, S. Nijalingappa, N. Sanjeeva Reddy and Atulya Ghosh.

Q28.SQP 2026-27 · Q182 marks

Highlight any two major economic challenges faced by India on the eve of the fourth general election of 1967.

Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 · Marking Scheme
  1. Severe Food Crisis: Widespread drought and failure of monsoons in 1965–1966 led to a drastic decline in agricultural production, resulting in acute food shortages and depletion of food reserves across several states (particularly Bihar).
  2. Devaluation of the Rupee: Under economic pressure from external forces like the United States, the Indian government devalued the Indian rupee in 1966 (the value of the US dollar shifted from rupees 5 to over rupees 7), which triggered public discontent.
  3. Inflation and Price Rise: There was a steep increase in the prices of essential commodities, food grains, and everyday consumer items, creating huge economic hardships for the general public.
  4. Diversion of resources to defence spending: Due to military conflicts with China (1962) and Pakistan (1965), a huge portion of India's development budget had to be diverted toward national security and military expenditures, stagnating five-year planning goals.

(Any two or other relevant point point/s)

Q29.2026 Main 59/2/1 · Q234 marks

During the decade of 1960, how did the Congress Party resolve the challenge of political succession ? Explain.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/2/1

(i) After the death of Nehru, Lal Bahadur Shastri was chosen unanimously as the leader of the party and became the country’s next Prime Minister. He was a non-controversial leader and had been a minister in Nehru’s cabinet for many years.

(ii) After the death of Shastri ji in 1966, there was an intense competition between Morarji Desai and Indira Gandhi. This time senior leaders of the party decided to back Indira Gandhi through secret ballot. She won with two – third majority and formed the government.

Q30.2026 Main 59/3/1 · Q264 marks

In the given political outline map of India (on page 17), four States have been marked as Ⓐ, Ⓑ, Ⓒ and Ⓓ. Identify these States on the basis of the information given below and write their correct names in your answer-book along with their respective serial number of the information used and the concerned alphabet given in the map as per the following format :

(i) The state related to Prime Minister Lal Bahadur Shastri.

(ii) The state for which K. Kamaraj initiated Mid-day Meal programme to increase enrolment in education.

(iii) The state in which the Congress Party did not get majority in the Assembly Elections of 1967, but formed a government with the support of other parties.

(iv) The state where Non-Congress coalition government was formed after the Assembly Elections of 1967.

Serial number of the information usedConcerned alphabet given in the mapName of the States
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

Figure from the paper

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/3/1
Serial number of the information usedConcerned alphabet given in the mapName of the States
(i)BUttar Pradesh
(ii)CTamil Nadu
(iii)DRajasthan
(iv)ABihar
Q31.2026 Main 59/3/1 · Q26 (VI)4 marks

(26.1) State the famous slogan coined by Lal Bahadur Shastri.

(26.2) In which year did the Congress Party split ?

(26.3) Who was the second Prime Minister of India after Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru ?

(26.4) Describe the ‘Kamaraj Plan’ of 1963.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/3/1

(i) Jai Jawan Jai Kisan

(ii) 1969

(iii) Lal Bahadur Shastri

(iv) He proposed that all senior Congressmen should resign from office to make way for young party workers.

Q32.2026 Main 59/4/1 · Q254 marks

In the given political outline map of India (on page 15), four States have been marked as Ⓐ, Ⓑ, Ⓒ and Ⓓ. Identify these States on the basis of the information given below and write their correct names in your answer-book along with the respective serial number of the information used and the concerned alphabets given in the map as per the following format :

Serial number of the information usedConcerned alphabet given in the mapName of the State
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

(i) The State from where Indira Gandhi got elected in the 1971 elections.

(ii) The State to which Chief Minister C. Natrajan Annadurai belonged.

(iii) The State with which the phrase ‘Aya Ram, Gaya Ram’ is related.

(iv) The State where Karpoori Thakur was the Chief Minister.

Figure from the paper

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/4/1
Sr. no. of the information usedConcerned Alphabet given in the mapName of Countries/State
(i)DUttar Pradesh
(ii)CTamilnadu
(iii)AHaryana
(iv)BBihar
Q33.2026 Main 59/4/1 · Q25 (VI)4 marks

(25.1) In which year was the fifth Lok Sabha election held in India.

(25.2) Name the President of India who was elected in 1969.

(25.3) From which state did the phrase ‘Aya Ram, Gaya Ram’ originate ?

(25.4) Name the leader who gave the slogan ‘Garibi Hatao’.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/4/1

25.1 – 1971

25.2 – V.V. Giri

25.3 – Haryana

25.4 – Indira Gandhi

Q34.2026 Main 59/5/1 · Q22(a)4 marks

Explain any two major reasons for the split in the Congress party after the 1967 elections.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/5/1

Reasons for split in the congress party -

  • Rift between Indira Gandhi and the syndicate.
  • Economic reforms and programme launched by PM Indira Gandhi were not appreciated by the syndicate but opposed.
  • Presidential election,1969
  • Defeat of the official candidate of congress party for the post of President.

(Any two to be explained)

Q35.2026 Main 59/5/1 · Q22(b)4 marks

Explain any four reasons for the popularity of Prime Minister Indira Gandhi before the fifth general elections.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/5/1
  • A positive programme captured in the famous slogan Garibi Hato.
  • Focus on growth of public sector, imposition of ceiling rural land holding and urban property , removal of disparities in income and opportunity.
  • Abolition of princely privileges.
  • Steps like Bank Nationalization, 10 points program .
  • She imitated some steps to show her commitment for welfare of the landless laborers, dalits and advasis , minorities , women and unemployed youth.

(Any four)

Q36.2026 Supp. 59/7/1 · Q22(a)4 marks

Analyse any two consequences of the split in the Congress Party in 1969.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/7/1
  1. The Congress President expelled the Prime Minister (Indira Gandhi) from the party.
  2. Indira Gandhi claimed that her group was real Congress.
  3. The Congress group lead by ‘Syndicate’ came to be referred to as the Congress (O) and the group led by Indira Gandhi came to be called the Congress (R) .
  4. Indira Gandhi projected the split as an ideological divide between socialists and conservatives, between the pro-poor and the pro-rich.

(Any two to be analysed)

Q37.2026 Supp. 59/7/1 · Q22(b)4 marks

Analyse any two reasons for the popularity of Prime Minister Indira Gandhi immediately after the 1971 elections.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/7/1
  1. The Congress party led by Indira Gandhi established its claim to being the ‘real’ Congress and restored to it the dominant position in Indian politics.
  2. The crisis in East Pakistan and Indo-Pak War led to the creation of Bangladesh and added to the popularity of Indira Gandhi.
  3. Her party swept through all the State Assembly elections held in 1972.
  4. She was seen not only as the protector of the poor and the underprivileged, but also a strong nationalist leader.

(Any two to be analysed)

Q38.2025 Main 59/2/1 · Q204 marks

“The 1960s were labelled as the ‘dangerous decade’ in India.” Explain any two reasons for this.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/2/1
  1. Problems like poverty, inequality, communal and regional division were still unresolved.
  2. Congress faced the challenges of political succession for the second time in two years.
  3. Economic crisis due to the India-China War of 1962 and Indo-Pak War of 1965.
  4. Due to failure of monsoon, drought occurred and this created a serious food crisis in India during 1960s.
  5. During 60s, congress faced debacle in the fourth general elections.

or any other relevant argument (any two reasons to be explained) (2x2=4)

Q39.2025 Main 59/4/1 · Q224 marks

Analyse any two important political happenings in India before the fifth general elections.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/4/1
  1. Indira Gandhi proved herself a tough leader who fought against the Syndicate.
  2. Took several steps to reduce poverty.
  3. Raised a slogan ‘Garibi Hatao’ before the elections.
  4. Took revolutionary steps like :
    • Nationalization of banks
    • Ten point programme.
    • Abolition of Privy Purse.

or any other relevant point (Any two) (2 × 2 = 4)

Q40.2025 Main 59/5/1 · Q22(a)4 marks

Describe any two events that led to the split in the Congress Party in 1969.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/5/1

Two events :

  1. Left orientation of Congress by Indira Gandhi
  2. Presidential Election in 1969.
  3. Opposition to the Economic reforms of Indira Gandhi by the Syndicate.
  4. After the defeat of N. Sanjeeva Reddy Indira Gandhi was expelled from the Congress Party which led to a split.

(Any two to be described) (2 × 2 = 4)

Q41.2025 Main 59/5/1 · Q22(b)4 marks

Describe any four steps taken by Indira Gandhi to eradicate poverty (Garibi Hatao) in India.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/5/1
  1. Nationalisation of Banks.
  2. Abolition of Privy Purse.
  3. Imposition of ceiling on rural land holidings.
  4. Focussed on the growth of public sector.
  5. Ten point programs introduced by Indira Gandhi.

or any other relevant step (Any four) (4 × 1 = 4)

Q42.2025 Main 59/6/1 · Q254 marks

In the given political outline map of India (on page 15), four States have been marked as (A), (B), (C) and (D). Identify these States on the basis of the information given below and write their correct names in your answer-book along with the respective serial number of the information used and the concerned alphabets given in the map as per the following format :

Serial number of the information usedConcerned alphabet given in the mapName of the State
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
  1. The state where K. Kamaraj was Chief Minister and introduced Mid-day Meal Scheme for school children.
  2. The state associated with Karpoori Thakur who introduced reservations for the Backward Classes.
  3. The state where V.V. Giri was a renowned labour leader.
  4. The state related to Prime Minister Lal Bahadur Shastri.

Figure from the paper

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/6/1
Sr. no.Concerned AlphabetName of the State
(i)BTamil Nadu
(ii)DBihar
(iii)CAndhra Pradesh
(iv)AUP

(1 + 1 + 1 + 1 = 4)

Q43.2025 Main 59/6/1 · Q25 (VI)4 marks

Note : The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates only, in lieu of Q. No. 25 :

(25.1) Name the second Prime Minister of India.

(25.2) In which year was the fourth General Election held in India ?

(25.3) Name the President who was elected in 1969.

(25.4) In how many states was the Congress Party not able to win the majority in 1967 elections ?

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/6/1

(25.1) Lal Bahadur Shastri

(25.2) 1967

(25.3) V.V. Giri

(25.4) In Seven States

(1 + 1 + 1 + 1 = 4)

Q44.2025 Supp. 59/S/1 · Q234 marks

Describe any four reasons for the popularity of Indira Gandhi in the early 1970s.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/S/1

Reasons for the popularity of Indira Gandhi.

  1. Gave the popular slogan of Garibi Hatao.
  2. Took steps like Nationalisation of Banks – and loans to poor people.
  3. Indira faced the Congress syndicate strongly.
  4. Took steps to remove and reduce the poverty – 10 point programme, abolition of Privy Purse, ceiling on the rural land etc.
  5. Victory in Bangladesh war in1971.
  6. Victory of V.V. Giri in Presidential election raised the image and popularity.

(Any four) (4 × 1 = 4)

Q45.2024 Main 59/2/1 · Q254 marks

In the given political outline map of India (on page 17), four States have been marked as (A), (B), (C) and (D). Identify these States on the basis of the information given below and write their correct names in your answer-book along with the respective serial number of the information used and the concerned alphabets given in the map as per the following format :

Serial number of the information usedConcerned alphabet given in the mapName of the State
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
  1. The State to which the former Prime Minister Lal Bahadur Shastri belonged.
  2. The State to which former Chief Minister S. Nijalingappa belonged.
  3. The State where DMK (Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam) came to power in 1967.
  4. The State where the Congress Party did not get majority in 1967 Assembly elections.

Figure from the paper

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/2/1
Serial number of the information usedConcerned alphabet given in the mapName of the State
(i)BUttar Pradesh
(ii)AKarnataka
(iii)DTamil Nadu
(iv)CRajasthan
Q46.2024 Main 59/2/1 · Q25 (VI)4 marks

Note : The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates only, in lieu of Q. No. 25 :

(25.1) Name the state to which the former Chief Minister Karpoori Thakur belonged.

(25.2) Name the state to which the political party DMK (Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam) belongs.

(25.3) Name the state to which the former Prime Minister Lal Bahadur Shastri belonged.

(25.4) Name the state to which the former President of India V.V. Giri belonged.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/2/1

(25.1) Bihar

(25.2) Tamil Nadu

(25.3) Uttar Pradesh

(25.4) Andhra Pradesh

Q47.2024 Main 59/3/1 · Q254 marks

In the given political outline map of India (on page 19), four States have been marked as (A), (B), (C) and (D). Identify these States on the basis of the information given below and write their correct names in your answer-book along with the respective serial number of the information used and the concerned alphabets given in the map as per the following format :

Serial number of the information usedConcerned alphabet given in the mapName of the State
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
  1. The State where the Congress party did not secure majority in 1967 elections.
  2. The State where Congress party did not secure majority in 1967 elections but formed the government with the support of other parties.
  3. The State related to Samajwadi leader, Ram Manohar Lohia.
  4. The State related to the former President of India, V.V. Giri.

Figure from the paper

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/3/1
Serial number of the information usedConcerned alphabet given in the mapName of the State
(i)DPunjab
(ii)ARajasthan
(iii)BUttar Pradesh
(iv)CAndhra Pradesh
Q48.2024 Main 59/3/1 · Q25 (VI)4 marks

Note : The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates only, in lieu of Q. No. 25 :

(25.1) Which popular slogan was given by Lal Bahadur Shastri ?

(25.2) Which decade of Indian politics has been referred to as the ‘dangerous decade’ ?

(25.3) Which candidate was supported by Indira Gandhi for the post of President in 1969 ?

(25.4) Which State is related to the phrase ‘Aya Ram, Gaya Ram’ ?

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/3/1

(25.1) Jai Jawan Jai Kissan

(25.2) 1960s

(25.3) V.V.Giri

(25.4) Haryana

Q49.2024 Main 59/4/1 · Q254 marks

In the given outline Map of India, four states have been marked as (A), (B), (C) and (D). Identify the States on the basis of the information given below and write their correct names in the answer book alongwith the respective serial numbers of the information used and the concerned alphabet as per the format that follows :

Sr. No. of the information usedAlphabet concernedName of the State
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
  1. The State to which the former Congress President K. Kamraj belonged.
  2. The State from where the phrase ‘Aya Ram, Gaya Ram’ originated.
  3. The State to which former Prime Minister Lal Bahadur Shastri belonged.
  4. The State where the Congress Party did not get majority in 1967 assembly elections.

Figure from the paper

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/4/1
Sr. No. of the information usedAlphabet concernedName of the State
(i)CTamil Nadu
(ii)DHaryana
(iii)AUttar Pradesh
(iv)BRajasthan
Q50.2024 Main 59/4/1 · Q25 (VI)4 marks

Note : The following questions are only for the Visually Impaired Candidates in lieu of question number 25.

(25.1) Name the State where the Congress Party did not get majority in the 1967 assembly elections.

(25.2) Name the State to which the former Prime Minister Lal Bahadur Shastri belonged.

(25.3) The phrase ‘Aya Ram, Gaya Ram’ originated from which State ?

(25.4) The former Congress President K. Kamraj belonged to which State ?

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/4/1

Note : For Visually Impaired students in lieu of question no. 25

  1. Uttar Pradesh, Kerala, Rajasthan, Madras (Tamil Nadu), Punjab, Bihar, West Bengal, Orissa (Any one)
  2. Uttar Pradesh
  3. Haryana
  4. Madras (Tamil Nadu)

(4x1=4)

Q51.2024 Supp. 59/S/1 · Q254 marks

In the given political outline map of India (on page 17), four States have been marked as A, B, C and D. Identify these States on the basis of the information given below and write their correct names in your answer-book along with the respective serial number of the information used and the concerned alphabets given in the map as per the following format :

Serial number of the information usedConcerned alphabet given in the mapName of the State
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
  1. The State to which the former Prime Minister Lal Bahadur Shastri belonged.
  2. The State to which the former Chief Minister Karpoori Thakur belonged.
  3. The State to which the former Chief Minister C. Natarajan Annadurai belonged.
  4. The State to which the former President of India V.V. Giri belonged.

Figure from the paper

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/S/1
Serial number of the information usedConcerned alphabet given in the mapName of the State
(i)CUttar Pradesh
(ii)DBihar
(iii)BTamil Nadu
(iv)AAndhra Pradesh

(4x1=4)

Q52.2024 Supp. 59/S/1 · Q25 (VI)4 marks

Note : The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates only, in lieu of Q. No. 25 :

(25.1) Name the State to which the former President of India V.V. Giri belonged.

(25.2) Name the State to which the former Chief Minister K. Kamaraj belonged.

(25.3) Name the State to which the former Chief Minister Karpoori Thakur belonged.

(25.4) Name the State to which the former Prime Minister Lal Bahadur Shastri belonged.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/S/1

25.1 Andhra Pradesh

25.2 Tamil Nadu

25.3 Bihar

25.4 Uttar Pradesh

(4x1=4)

Q53.2023 Main 59/1/1 · Q234 marks

Highlight any four steps taken by Indira Gandhi to remove poverty.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/1/1

Steps taken by Indira Gandhi to remove poverty.

  1. Nationaliation of Banks.
  2. Abolition of Privy Purse.
  3. Nationalisation of General Insurance.
  4. Ceiling on Urban property
  5. Land Reform
  6. Public distribution of food grains

Or any other relevant point 4×1=4

Q54.2023 Main 59/4/1 · Q254 marks

In the given political outline map of India (on page 17), four States have been marked as (A), (B), (C) and (D). Identify these States on the basis of information given below and write their correct names in your answer-book along with the respective serial number of the information used and the concerned alphabets given in the map as per the following format :

  1. The State related to V.V. Giri, the former President of India.
  2. The State related to the Congress leader, K. Kamaraj.
  3. The State from where the phrase, “Aya Ram, Gaya Ram” originated.
  4. The State which faced the most acute food crisis in 1965 – 1967.
Sr. no. of the information usedConcerned alphabet in the mapName of the State
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

Figure from the paper

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/4/1
Serial number of the information usedConcerned alphabet given in the mapName of the State
(i)DAndhra Pradesh
(ii)CTamil Nadu
(iii)AHaryana
(iv)BBihar

4×1=4

Q55.2023 Main 59/4/1 · Q25 (VI)4 marks

Note : The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates only, in lieu of Q. No. 25.

(25.1) Name the State related to the former President of India, V.V. Giri.

(25.2) Name the State to which the Congress leader K. Kamaraj belonged.

(25.3) Name the State from where the famous phrase, “Aya Ram, Gaya Ram” originated.

(25.4) Which State faced the most acute food crisis in 1965 – 67 ?

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/4/1

25.1 Andhra Pradesh

25.2 Tamil Nadu

25.3 Haryana

25.4 Bihar

4×1=4

Q56.2023 Main 59/5/1 · Q204 marks

Highlight any two reasons for the split in the Congress Party in 1969.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/5/1

Reasons for the split in Congress:

  • i) Differences between Indira Gandhi and the Syndicate.
  • ii) Revolutionary steps (Ten Point programme) taken by Indira Gandhi were not welcomed by the old Congress leaders.
  • iii) The abolition of privy purse or special provisions given to former princess led to the differences among the Congress party members.
  • iv) Nomination of N. Sanjiva Reddy by the Syndicate as the official candidate for the post of the President of India in 1969 but Indira Gandhi supported VV Giri as an independent candidate.
  • (v) The defeat of the official candidate led to the split of the Congress party to two parts.

( any two)

Q57.2023 Supp. 59/C/1 · Q234 marks

Highlight the apprehensions responsible for labelling the decade of 1960s in India as the ‘dangerous decade’.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/C/1

The 1960s was labelled as a dangerous decade because:

  • (i) Country faced the challenge of political succession for the two times in two years.
  • (ii) Problems like poverty, inequality, communal and regional division were still prevalent.
  • (iii) There was speculation that all these could lead to a failure of the democratic process or even the disintegration of the country.
  • (iv) Economic crisis due to the Indo–China war of 1962 and Indo-Pak war of 1965.
  • (v) Due to failure of monsoons, drought occurred and created a serious food crisis in India during 1960s.

(any two with explanation)

Q58.2022 Main 59/4/1 · Q114 marks

In the given political outline map of India (on page 7), four States have been marked as (A), (B), (C) and (D). Identify these States on the basis of the information given below and write their correct names in your answer-book along with the respective serial number of the information used and the concerned alphabets given in the map as per the following format :

Serial number of the information usedConcerned alphabet in the mapName of the State
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
  1. The State with the largest number of seats in its Legislative Assembly.
  2. The State to which the first Indian Governor General (1948 – 1950) belonged.
  3. The State where the Congress Party did not get majority in 1967 Assembly polls, but formed a government with the help of others.
  4. The region which is a Union Territory now.

Figure from the paper

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 59/4/1
Sl. Number of the information usedAlphabet ConcernedName of the State
(i)DUttar Pradesh
(ii)ATamil Nadu /Madras State
(iii)BRajasthan
(iv)CJammu and Kashmir
Q59.2022 Main 59/4/1 · Q11 (VI)4 marks

Note : The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates only, in lieu of Q. No. 11 :

(11.1) Name the first Chief Election Commissioner of India.

(11.2) Name the State where Congress Party did not get majority in 1967 Assembly polls, but formed a government with the help of others.

(11.3) Name the State to which the first Indian Governor General (1948 – 1950) belonged.

(11.4) Name the State with the largest number of seats in its Legislative Assembly.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 59/4/1

11.1 Sukumar Sen

11.2 Rajasthan

11.3 Tamil Nadu / Madras State

11.4 Uttar Pradesh

Q60.2022 Main 59/5/1 · Q114 marks

In the given political map of India, four states have been marked as A, B, C, D. Identify these states on the basis of the information given below and write their correct names in your answer book along with the respective serial number of the information used and the concerned alphabet as per the format that follows.

  1. The state to which Raj Kumari Amrit Kaur, Health Minister in Nehru’s Cabinet, belonged.
  2. The state to which former Congress President, S. Nijalingappa, belonged.
  3. The state where Karpoori Thakur was the Chief Minister.
  4. The state to which political party DMK belongs.
Sr. No. of the Information usedConcerned alphabetName of the state
i
ii
iii
iv

Figure from the paper

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 59/5/1
Sr. Number of the information usedAlphabet concernedName of the State
(i)CPunjab
(ii)DKarnataka
(iii)ABihar
(iv)BTamil Nadu
Q61.SQP 2025-26 · Q254 marks

In the given outline political map of India, four states have been marked as (A), (B), (C) and (D). Identify these states on the basis of the information given below and write their correct names in your answer book along with the respective serial numbers of the information used and the concerned alphabets as per the format that follows:

Sr. Number for the Information usedConcerned alphabet given in the mapName of the State
I
II
III
IV
  1. The state where a coalition called the SVD with the two socialist parties SSP and the PSP came to power after 1967 election.
  2. The state where Congress did not get the majority but formed government with the help from others.
  3. The state associated with the defection in 1967 election.
  4. K.Kamraj was the Chief Minister of this state.

Figure from the paper

Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 · Marking Scheme
Sr. Number for the Information usedConcerned alphabet given in the mapName of the State
ICBihar
IIDRajasthan
IIIAHaryana
IVBMadras(Tamil Nadu)
Q62.SQP 2025-26 · Q25 (VI)4 marks

Note: Following questions are for the Visually Challenged Candidates in lieu of question number 25.

Name the following:

  1. Name the leader who gave the call for a ‘Total Revolution’?
  2. Alliance formed by non-congress, non-communist parties.
  3. The leader who is regarded as the maker of modern Karnataka.
  4. Name the official Congress candidate for the 1969 Presidential election.
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 · Marking Scheme
  1. Jayaprakash Narayan (JP)
  2. Grand Alliance
  3. S.Nijalingappa
  4. N.Sanjeeva Reddy
Q63.2023 Main 59/3/1 · Q29(b)6 marks

Analyse the various aspects of the Presidential election of 1969, which led to the formal split in the Congress Party.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/3/1

Various aspects of Presidential election 1969:-

  1. Despite Indira Gandhi’s resentment, the Syndicate nominated N. Sanjeeva Reddy as the official congress candidate for ensuring presidential elections.
  2. Indira Gandhi retaliated the situation by encouraging V.V.Giri, the then Vice President to be nominated as an independent candidate.
  3. During elections, the then Congress President S. Nijlingappa issued a ‘whip’, asking all congress MPs and MLAs to vote for N. Snjeeva Reddy.
  4. On the other hand, PM Indira Gandhi openly called for a conscience vote to vote the way they want.
  5. Elections went in favour of V.V.Giri and the defeat of N. Sanjeeva Reddy formalized the split of congress party into two:- Congress(O) and Congress(R).

6

Q64.2022 Main 59/2/1 · Q13(a)6 marks

Explain any three factors that influenced the results of 1971 election in India.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 59/2/1

Factors that affected the result of 1971 election—

  1. Pro-poor steps taken by Indira Gandhi, i.e., ‘Garibi Hatao Programme’ and land ceiling legislation.
  2. Dissolution of the Lok Sabha in December, 1970 which was taken as a bold move by Indira Gandhi. She was being taken as a strong political leader able to solve the problems.
  3. Indira Gandhi had an agenda and a positive slogan which opposition was lacking.
  4. She changed the election as personality based and not on party or ideology. She alone was taken as party against all others.
  5. She tried to abolish the princely privileges. (Privy Purse)
  6. Social and economic reforms like nationalisation of Banks.

(Any three)

Q65.2022 Main 59/2/1 · Q13(b)6 marks

Explain any three reasons that led to the split in the Congress Party in 1969.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 59/2/1

Reasons for split in the Congress Party in 1969—

  1. Conflict between Indira Gandhi and the Syndicate. Syndicate was neglecting the position and personality of Indira Gandhi.
  2. The Syndicate nominated N. Sanjeeva Reddy as the official candidate for Presidential election in 1969 against the wish and choice of Indira Gandhi. She openly supported the independent candidate V. V. Giri who become victorious. It made the Syndicate annoyed and Indira Gandhi was ousted from the party.
  3. Indira Gandhi could muster the support of most of the Members of the Parliament and of the Legislatures. She was taken as the real Congress Party.
  4. Her economic policies and reforms were not in tune with the Syndicate. So, the rivalry between the two grew and Syndicate was projected as an hindrance for economic reforms.

Or any other valid arguments (Any three)

Part B · Politics in India since Independence

6. The Crisis of Democratic Order

Q1.2026 Main 59/2/1 · Q91 mark

Match List-I with List-II correctly and choose the correct answer from the codes given below :

List-IList-II
(a) Congress for democracy(i) Gujarat
(b) Garibi Hatao(ii) Jay Prakash Narayan
(c) Student movement led by Morarji Desai(iii) Jagjeevan Ram
(d) Total Revolution(iv) Indira Gandhi

Codes :

  1. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
  2. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
  3. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
  4. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/2/1

(C) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

Q2.2026 Main 59/2/1 · Q111 mark

Arrange the following events in chronological order :

  1. Declaration of National Emergency on the basis of internal disturbances.
  2. Railway strike by government employees under the leadership of George Fernandes.
  3. Sixth General Election held in India.
  4. Declaration of the doctrine of ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution in the ‘Keshavananda Bharti’ case by the Supreme Court.

Choose the correct option :

  1. (iv), (ii), (i), (iii)
  2. (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)
  3. (iii), (ii), (i), (iv)
  4. (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/2/1

(A) iv, ii, i, iii

Q3.2026 Main 59/3/1 · Q91 mark

In which year did the largest public sector undertaking, Railways, go on a strike ?

  1. 1974
  2. 1973
  3. 1972
  4. 1971
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/3/1

(A) 1974

Q4.2026 Main 59/3/1 · Q101 mark

Which one of the following was the decision of the Supreme Court given on 24 June, 1975 about the Indira Gandhi case ?

  1. Election of Indira Gandhi was invalid.
  2. Indira Gandhi used the services of the government officials in her election campaign which is against the concept of ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution.
  3. Indira Gandhi was ordered to resign from her post immediately.
  4. Indira Gandhi was granted a partial stay on the High Court order, allowing her to remain a member of the Parliament, but could not take part in the Lok Sabha proceedings.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/3/1

(D) Indira Gandhi was granted a partial stay on the High Court order, allowing her to remain a member of parliament but could not take part in the Lok Sabha proceedings.

Q5.2025 Main 59/2/1 · Q61 mark

In the following question, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Choose the appropriate option as correct answer :

Assertion (A): The government suspended the freedom of press and implemented press censorship during emergency in 1975.

Reason (R): Newspapers protested against censorship by showing the cartoons only.

Option :

  1. Both the Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) are correct, and the Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  2. Both the Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) are correct, but the Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  3. The Assertion (A) is incorrect, but the Reason (R) is correct.
  4. The Assertion (A) is correct, but the Reason (R) is incorrect.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/2/1

(D) The Assertion (A) is correct, but the Reason (R) is incorrect.

Q6.2025 Main 59/2/1 · Q111 mark

On which one of the following basis was emergency declared in 1975 ?

  1. Internal disturbances
  2. External threat
  3. Armed rebellion
  4. External Aggression
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/2/1

(A) Internal disturbances

Q7.2024 Main 59/3/1 · Q31 mark

Who led the ‘Peoples’ March’ to the Parliament in 1975 ?

  1. Jagjivan Ram
  2. S.K. Patil
  3. Charu Majumdar
  4. Jayaprakash Narayan
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/3/1

(D) Jayaprakash Narayan

Q8.2024 Main 59/3/1 · Q41 mark

Students of which two states started an agitation against the rising food prices in 1974 ?

  1. Uttar Pradesh and Bihar
  2. Rajasthan and Bihar
  3. Bihar and Gujarat
  4. Bihar and Madhya Pradesh
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/3/1

(C) Bihar and Gujarat

Q9.2023 Main 59/1/1 · Q91 mark

Who gave a call for a nationwide Railway Strike in 1974 ?

  1. Jayaprakash Narayan
  2. George Fernandes
  3. Ram Manohar Lohia
  4. Morarji Desai
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/1/1

(b) George Fernandes

Q10.2023 Main 59/1/1 · Q121 mark

For Question number 12, two statements are given — one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Read these statements carefully and choose the correct option as the answer from the options (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below.

Assertion (A): In May 1977, the Janata Party government appointed a Commission of Inquiry headed by Justice J.C. Shah.

Reason (R): The Commission was appointed to inquire into the reasons for declaring Emergency, by the Indira Gandhi Government.

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/1/1

(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is wrong

Q11.2023 Main 59/2/1 · Q101 mark

Who among the following had announced a nationwide satyagraha on 25th June, 1975 for the resignation of Prime Minister Indira Gandhi ?

  1. Morarji Desai
  2. Jayaprakash Narain
  3. George Fernandes
  4. Atal Bihari Vajpayee
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/2/1

(b) Jayaprakash Narain

Q12.2023 Main 59/3/1 · Q11 mark

In which pair of states did the Congress Party manage to win the General Election of 1977 after Emergency ?

  1. Uttar Pradesh and Jammu and Kashmir
  2. Gujarat and Karnataka
  3. Orissa and Assam
  4. Karnataka and Tamil Nadu
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/3/1

(d) Karnataka and Tamil Nadu

Q13.2023 Main 59/3/1 · Q81 mark

Which among the following political parties was not a part of the Jayaprakash Narayan (JP) led peoples’ march to Parliament in 1975 ?

  1. Bharatiya Jana Sangh
  2. Communist Party of India (M)
  3. Bharatiya Lok Dal
  4. Socialist Party
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/3/1

(b) Communist Party of India (M)

Q14.2023 Main 59/5/1 · Q101 mark

What was the time period of ‘First Democratic Upsurge’ in India ?

  1. From 1950s to 1970s
  2. From 1960s to 1970s
  3. From 1960s to 1980s
  4. From 1970s to 1980s
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/5/1

(a) From 1950s to 1970s

Q15.SQP 2025-26 · Q91 mark

Identify the leader who initiated the concept of integral humanism:

  1. Ram Manohar Lohia
  2. S.P Mukherjee
  3. Deen Dayal Upadhyaya
  4. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 · Marking Scheme

(C) Deen Dayal Upadhyaya

Q16.2026 Main 59/2/1 · Q172 marks

Name any four political parties that had merged to form Janata Party in 1977.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/2/1

(i) Bhartiya Jana Sangh

(ii) Congress for Democracy

(iii) Bhartiya Kranti Dal

(iv) Congress (O)

(v) Socialist Party

(vi) Swatantra Party

(vii) Bhartiya Lok Dal

(or any other relevant point) (any Four)

Q17.2026 Main 59/3/1 · Q162 marks

Which two reasons were given by the Government for declaring the National Emergency in 1975 ?

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/3/1

Reasons for the declaration of emergency in 1975 :-

(i) Threat of Internal disturbances.

(ii) Grave crisis of law and order.

(iii) To stabilise the disturbed scenario

(any other relevant point) (any two points)

Q18.2025 Main 59/2/1 · Q162 marks

Explain any two reasons for the split in the Janta Party in 1979.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/2/1

Causes :

  1. Tension among three leaders Morarji Desai, Charan Singh and Jagjivan Ram for leadership in 1979.
  2. Janata Party lacked direction, leadership and a common programme.
  3. The Janta Party government could not bring about a fundamental change in policies from those pursued by the Congress.

or any other relevant cause (any two causes) (2x1=2)

Q19.2024 Main 59/3/1 · Q182 marks

State any two effects of imposing national emergency.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/3/1

Effects of imposing national emergency-

  • (i) All the powers get concentrated with the Union Government.
  • (ii) Some Fundamentals Rights get suspended.
  • (iii) The federal distribution of powers remains practically suspended.

Any other (Any two)

Q20.2023 Main 59/3/1 · Q162 marks

Why is the period around Emergency of 1975 known as the period of constitutional crisis ? Highlight any one reason.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/3/1

Constitutional crisis between Legislature and Judiciary was focussed on the followings:-

  1. Can Parliament abridge the Fundamental Rights?
  2. Can the Parliament curtail the right to property?
  3. The Parliament amended the constitution saying that it can abridge the Fundamental Rights for giving effect to directive principles but the Supreme Court rejected it.
  4. In June 1975, election of Indira Gandhi as MP was declared null and void by the Allahabad High Court but after her appeal in the Supreme Court, she could remain an MP but could not take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha.
  5. There was no coordination among Legislature, Executive and Judiciary.

(Or any other relevant point) (Any one)

Q21.2023 Main 59/3/1 · Q182 marks

Highlight any two principles of Integral Humanism advocated by Deen Dayal Upadhyaya.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/3/1

Principles of Integral Humanism are:-

  1. Primacy of whole and non-part (not of the part)
  2. Supremacy of Dharma
  3. Autonomy of Society

(Any two) 2×1=2

Q22.2023 Main 59/4/1 · Q182 marks

Explain any two reasons for the victory of Congress in the Southern States in the general election of 1977.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/4/1

Reasons :-

  1. The impact of emergency was not felt equally in all states.
  2. The forced relocations and displacements and the force sterilization were mostly concentrated in the Northern States.
  3. North India had experienced some long term changes in the nature of political competition.

Any other relevant point (Any two) 2×1=2

Q23.2022 Main 59/1/1 · Q72 marks

Analyse the concept of ‘Total Revolution’ as visualized by Jai Prakash Narayan in 1975.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 59/1/1

Total Revolution as advocated by Jayaprakash Narayan was for—

  1. Transformation of individual, society and State.
  2. It sought to encompass moral, cultural, economic, political and ecological transformations.
  3. It included the right to recall, importance of village/mohalla samities and call for ‘upper ke log’ to join political struggle for a clean politics in India.

(Any two)

Q24.2022 Main 59/2/1 · Q62 marks

Explain the meaning of ‘Integral Humanism’ as propounded by Deendayal Upadhyaya.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 59/2/1
  1. Integral humanism keeps human at the centre of development.
  2. It intends to present an indigenous socio-economical model of development.
  3. Its aim is to ensure a dignified life for every human being whole balancing the needs of the individual and society. It is based on pure human soul.
  4. It stands for Chhitti (Pure common soul) and economic democracy.
  5. This philosophy is based on three principles :
    1. Primacy of the whole, not part
    2. Supremacy of Dharma
    3. Autonomy of society
    4. Spiritual needs of the individual

(Any two points)

Q25.2022 Main 59/2/1 · Q72 marks

Assess the impact of national emergency, declared in 1975, on the people of India.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 59/2/1

Impact—

  1. People became more aware about their rights.
  2. Importance of the Free Press was realised.
  3. Democracy became more important than any other form of governance.
  4. The opposition parties joined hands to save democracy.
  5. People suffered relocation, compulsory sterilisation and custodial deaths.

Or Any other (Any two)

Q26.2022 Main 59/2/1 · Q82 marks

Analyse any two reasons that led to the economic crisis after the 1971 election.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 59/2/1

Reasons for Economic Crisis in 1971—

  1. Bangladesh crisis put a heavy strain on India’s economy. About 8 million people crossed over to India from East Pakistan as refugees.
  2. A lot of money and resources were used in 1971 War with Pakistan.
  3. Industrial growth was low and unemployment was very high.
  4. Pro-poor programmes of the Government under ‘Garibi Hatao’ put a lot of pressure in the economy.
  5. Monsoons failed in 1972-73.
  6. Food grains production declined.

Any other reason (Any two)

Q27.2022 Main 59/3/1 · Q72 marks

Analyse any two effects of Emergency declared in 1975 on the politics of India.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 59/3/1
  1. Opposition parties came together to form a new party to oust Indira Gandhi.
  2. Weaknesses and some ambiguities regarding the Emergency provision in the Constitution came to light.
  3. Importance of the Fundamental Rights and value of Civil liberties were realised by the people.
  4. Importance of the ‘Free Press’ was also realised.

Or any other relevant point. (Any two)

Q28.2022 Main 59/5/1 · Q12 marks

Highlight any two excesses made by the Government during emergency of 1975.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 59/5/1
  1. Thousands of people were arrested and put in jails/Preventive detention
  2. Forced Family Planning Programmes
  3. Forced removal of encroachment
  4. Freedom of Press was curtailed/Censorship

Or any other relevant point (Any Two)

Q29.2022 Main 59/5/1 · Q4(a)2 marks

Who opposed the concept of ‘Capitalist Individualism’ and why ?

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 59/5/1

Pandit Deendayal Upadhyaya opposed the concept of Capitalist Individualism. (1)

  1. According to him capitalist ideologies i.e., the needs of the human body and mind are based on materialistic purpose.
  2. Spiritual development is considered equally important for the complete development of human being which is missing in this theory.

(Any one) (1)

Q30.2022 Main 59/5/1 · Q4(b)2 marks

Explain the concept of ‘Chouburja Rajneeti’ as advocated by Ram Manohar Lohia.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 59/5/1

Ram Manohar Lohia advocated Chauburja Rajneeti that is based on four pillars of politics—Centre, Region, District and Village and all are linked with each other.

Q31.2022 Main 59/5/1 · Q82 marks

Explain the concept of ‘Total Revolution’ advocated by Jai Prakash Narain.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 59/5/1

Jayaprakash Narayan’s concept of Total Revolution means the transformation of individual and society and he sought to encompass moral, cultural, economic, political, educational and ecological transformations.

Q32.2026 Main 59/1/1 · Q264 marks

In the given political outline map of India, four states have been marked as A, B, C and D. Identify these on the basis of the information given below and write their correct names in your answer book along with their respective serial number of the information used and the concerned alphabet as per format that follows :

(i) The state related to student movement against inflation and corruption in 1974.

(ii) The state related to the farmer’s leader Chaudhary Charan Singh.

(iii) The state related to Congress leader Jag Jeevan Ram.

(iv) The state where Congress could not win even a single Lok Sabha seat in 1977 elections.

Sr. No. of the information usedConcerned alphabet in the mapName of the state
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

Figure from the paper

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/1/1
Sr. no. of the information usedConcerned Alphabet given in the mapName of Countries/State
(i)(B)Gujarat
(ii)(A)Uttar Pradesh
(iii)(D)Bihar
(iv)(C)Haryana
Q33.2026 Main 59/1/1 · Q26 (VI)4 marks

(i) Write the name of first Prime Minister of Janta Party Government.

(ii) In which year, was the National Emergency imposed in India by Indira Gandhi government ?

(iii) Name the leader who announced a nationwide Satyagraha at Ram Lila Maidan before the declaration of National Emergency.

(iv) Name the political party that won the Lok Sabha Election in 1977.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/1/1

(i) Morari Ji Desai

(ii) 25 June 1975/1975

(iii) Jai Prakash Narayan

(iv) Janta Party

Q34.2026 Main 59/4/1 · Q234 marks

Explain any four steps taken by the government to control the opposition to Emergency imposed in 1975.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/4/1

(i) People were arrested to control the opposition to the emergency.

(ii) Press censorship was imposed.

(iii) Strikes and movements were banned.

(iv) ‘MISA’ was enacted and misused.

(v) Some fundamental rights were also suspended

(any other relevant point) (Any four)

Q35.2026 Main 59/5/1 · Q234 marks

Was the Emergency declared in 1975 necessary ? Support your answer with two arguments.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/5/1

A Candidate may answer in ‘Yes or No;. Candidate must support the opinion with two arguments –

‘Yes’ then arguments can be –

i. Large number of movements had crippled the government and the government was not able to work.

ii. JP Narayan has asked the police, military and the government employees not to accept the unconstitutional orders of the government. It was just a call to rise against the government.

iii. Government was having lack of resources due to war, natural calamities etc.

So it was necessary –

If No –

i. Against the rights of the people.

ii. It was to save the Chair of PM for the Indira Gandhi.

iii. Agitation and movements are the parts of democratic process.

Any other (Any two)

Q36.2026 Supp. 59/7/1 · Q234 marks

Why did the Janata Party fail to provide a stable government after the 1977 elections ? Explain with reasons.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/7/1
  • Janata party lacked direction, leadership and a common programme.
  • The Janata party could not bring about a fundamental change in policies from those pursued by the Congress.
  • Differences between the leaders of the Janta party and their desire to be the Prime Minister.

(Any other) (Any two)

Q37.2025 Main 59/1/1 · Q23(a)4 marks

Describe the role of Jaya Prakash Narayan in Indian National Politics.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/1/1

Role of Jaya Prakash Narayan :

  1. He led Bihar movement in 1974, when Bihar students invited him to lead.
  2. He accepted the invitation on the condition that the movement should be non-violent and not to be limited only to Bihar territory.
  3. On his appeal people from all walks of life joined the movement.
  4. He demanded the dismissal of the Congress Government in Bihar and gave a call for total revolution.
  5. In 1975, J.P. Narayan led a peoples’ march to the Parliament. That was one of the largest political rallies ever held in the capital.
  6. He opposed the emergency and became the symbol of restoration of democracy.
  7. He was supported by most of the non-Congress opposition parties as a leader to save demo

or any other relevant point (Assess as a whole) (4)

Q38.2025 Main 59/1/1 · Q23(b)4 marks

Describe any two reasons for the victory of Janata Party in 1977 Lok Sabha elections.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/1/1

Reasons :

  1. The Janta party made that election a referendum on the emergency.
  2. The Janata Party adopted the slogan ‘‘save democracy’’ against imposition of emergency.
  3. The Janata Party campaigned against the non-democratic character of the Congress rule.
  4. The Janata Party highlighted the various excesses such as preventive detention and press censorship, to get a favourable public opinion.
  5. Janata Party was a coalition of opposition parties. It ensured that non-congress votes were not divided.
  6. Middle class people of North India were moving away from Congress and Janata Party became a platform for them.

or any other relevant reason (any two reasons) (2x2=4)

Q39.2025 Main 59/4/1 · Q23(a)4 marks

Explain any two lessons learnt from the emergency imposed in 1975.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/4/1

Any two Lessons of Emergency

  1. In India democracy can not be compromised. People have respect and habit for the democracy.
  2. It brought out ambiguities regarding the emergency provisions.
  3. Emergency made everyone more aware about their rights.
  4. Importance of free press was experienced.

or any other relevant point (Any two) (2 × 2 = 4)

Q40.2025 Main 59/4/1 · Q23(b)4 marks

Explain any two reasons that the government gave for imposing national emergency in 1975.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/4/1
  1. Number of agitations had started to destabilase the government.
  2. It became difficult for the government to work peacefully and control the situation.
  3. The call given by Jai Parkash Narain was going to paralyse. The whole administrative system.
  4. Railway strike given jolt to the government.

or any other relevant point (Any two) (2 × 2 = 4)

Q41.2025 Main 59/5/1 · Q244 marks

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions based on it :

“For the first time since independence, the Congress Party was defeated in the Lok Sabha elections. The Congress could win only 154 seats in the Lok Sabha. The Janata Party and its allies won 330 seats in the Lok Sabha. It was a massive electoral wave against the Congress in North India. The Congress lost in every constituency in Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Delhi, Haryana and Punjab.”
  1. The above passage refers to which general elections to the Lok Sabha ?

    1. 4th
    2. 5th
    3. 6th
    4. 7th
  2. For how many total seats of the Lok Sabha are the elections held ?

    1. 540
    2. 541
    3. 542
    4. 543
  3. Who among the following was the Deputy Prime Minister of India after the victory of the Janata Party ?

    1. Ch. Charan Singh
    2. Atal Bihari Vajpayee
    3. L.K. Advani
    4. Chandra Shekhar
  4. Name the state from where the Congress Party could win only one seat in the above said elections.

    1. Gujarat
    2. West Bengal
    3. Rajasthan
    4. Jammu and Kashmir
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/5/1

(i) (C) 6th

(ii) (D) 543

(iii) (A) Ch. Charan Singh

(iv) (C) Rajasthan

(4 × 1 = 4)

Q42.2025 Main 59/6/1 · Q194 marks

Explain any two reasons that led to the mid-term elections to the Lok Sabha in 1980.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/6/1
  1. Stiff competition among the three leaders for the post of the Prime Minister- Morarji Desai, Jagjivan Ram, Ch. Charan Singh.
  2. The Janta Party government lacked direction ,Leadership and a common programme.
  3. It could not bring any fundamental change in policies from those pursued by the Congress and got split in 1979.
  4. In 1980 – Congress Party withdrew the support given to Ch. Charan Singh and he lost the majority – which led to mid-term elections.

Or any other relevant point (any two ) (2 × 2 = 4)

Q43.2025 Main 59/7/1 · Q194 marks

Describe the objectives and means of the student movement in Bihar under the leadership of Jayaprakash Narayan in 1974.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/7/1

Objectives of students in Bihar Movement under the leadership of Jayaprakash Narayan :

  • In March 1974, students came together in Bihar to protest against rising prices.
  • Students involved Jayaprakash Narayan to lead the movement and he accepted it on the condition that the movement will remain non-violent and will not limit itself to Bihar.
  • This resulted in making the movement assuming political character and of national appeal.
  • People from all walks of life entered the movement.
  • Jayaprakash Narayan demanded the dismissal of the Congress Govt. in Bihar and gave a call for total revolution in the social, economic and political sphere.
  • Means like bandhs, gehrao, strikes and demonstrations were used against the Bihar Govt.

(3 + 1 = 4)

Q44.2025 Supp. 59/S/1 · Q244 marks

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below :

“The opposition political parties led by Jayaprakash Narayan pressed for Indira Gandhi’s resignation and organised a massive demonstration in Delhi’s Ramlila grounds on 25 June 1975. Jayaprakash announced a nationwide satyagraha for her resignation and asked the army, the police and government employees not to obey “illegal and immoral orders.”
  1. Which one of the following parties had not joined the demonstration led by Jayaprakash Narayan at Ramlila Ground on 25 June 1975 ?

    1. Bharatiya Jana Sangh
    2. Bharatiya Lok Dal
    3. Socialist Party
    4. Indian National Congress
  2. Why were the parties asking for the resignation of Indira Gandhi ?

    1. Indira Gandhi had changed her Cabinet.
    2. Indira Gandhi’s election to the Lok Sabha was declared invalid by Allahabad High Court.
    3. Indira Gandhi had a conflict with Morarji Desai.
    4. Indira Gandhi had lost majority in the Lok Sabha.
  3. What happened on 26 June 1975 ?

    1. Internal Emergency was declared.
    2. The Lok Sabha was dissolved.
    3. The Judges of the Allahabad High Court were transferred.
    4. The Home Minister of India resigned.
  4. Why had the mood of people turned against the Congress Party in 1975 ?

    1. The Congress was preparing for an early election.
    2. The Congress could not control terrorism.
    3. Indira Gandhi did not resign after the decision of the Allahabad High Court.
    4. The Congress Syndicate had become stronger.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/S/1

(i) (D) Indian National Congress.

(ii) (B) Indira Gandhi’s election to the Lok Sabha was declared invalid by Allahabad High Court.

(iii) (A) Internal emergency was declared

(iv) (C) Indira Gandhi did not resign after the decision of the Allahabad High Court.

Q45.2024 Main 59/1/1 · Q254 marks

In the given political outline map of India (on page 17), four States have been marked as (A), (B), (C) and (D). Identify these States on the basis of the information given below and write their correct names in your answer-book along with the respective serial number of the information used and the concerned alphabets given in the map as per the following format :

Serial number of the information usedConcerned alphabet given in the mapName of the State
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
  1. The State related to former Prime Minister Chaudhary Charan Singh.
  2. The State to which former Deputy Prime Minister Jagjivan Ram belonged.
  3. The State where the Naxalites were very active.
  4. A State where the Congress party could not win even a single seat in the Lok Sabha elections in 1977.

Figure from the paper

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/1/1
Sr. no. of the information usedConcerned Alphabet given in the mapName of Countries/State
(i)DUttar Pradesh
(ii)BBihar
(iii)CWest Bengal
(iv)AHaryana
Q46.2024 Main 59/1/1 · Q25 (VI)4 marks

Note : The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates only, in lieu of Q. No. 25 :

(25.1) Name the State where the Naxalites were very active.

(25.2) Name the State to which former Prime Minister Chaudhary Charan Singh belonged.

(25.3) Name a State from where the Congress Party could win only one seat in the 1977 Lok Sabha elections.

(25.4) Name the State where Morarji Desai led the Students’ Movement in 1974 – 75.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/1/1

25.1 West Bengal

25.2 Uttar Pradesh

25.3 Rajasthan Or Madhya Pradesh (any one)

25.4 Gujarat

Q47.2024 Main 59/2/1 · Q264 marks

Study the cartoon given below and answer the questions that follow :

Figure from the paper

(i) Identify and name the leader who toppled the Janata Government.

(ii) Identify and name the Prime Minister of the Janata Party Government shown in the cartoon.

(iii) Highlight any two reasons for the defeat of the Janata Party in 1980.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/2/1

(i) Indira Gandhi

(ii) Morarji Desai

(iii)

  • Infighting in Janata Party
  • Charan Singh left Janata Party and became Prime Minister with the support of the Congress Party which later withdrew its support.
  • The failure of the Janata Party to provide a stable government.

(Any Two)

(1+1+2=4)

Q48.2024 Main 59/2/1 · Q26 (VI)4 marks

Note : The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates only, in lieu of Q. No. 26 :

(26.1) Highlight any two reasons for the defeat of the Congress Party in the general elections of 1977.

(26.2) Name the political party that won the general elections in 1977.

(26.3) Name the Prime Minister of India before the Congress Party won the elections in 1980.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/2/1

26.1 Reasons of defeat-

  • (i) Excesses done during Emergency
  • (ii) Censorship of Press
  • (iii) Negation of Fundamental Rights
  • (iv) Whole of opposition was united against the Congress Party.

(Or any other relevant point) (Any Two)

26.2 Janata Party

26.3 Ch. Charan Singh

(2+1+1=4)

Q49.2024 Main 59/4/1 · Q21(a)4 marks

Highlight any two lessons learnt from the imposition of Emergency in India in 1975.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/4/1

Lessons learnt from the imposition of emergency :

  1. It is extremely difficult to do away with democracy in India.
  2. It brought some ambiguities regarding some emergency provisions in the constitution that have been rectified since then.
  3. Emergency made everyone more aware of the value of civil liberties.
  4. Need to maintain a balance between the functioning of a democratic government and the continuous political protest by parties and groups.
  5. Institutions like the police and the administration can be turned into political instruments of the ruling party.

(or any other relevant point) (Brief explanations of any two points) (2x2=4)

Q50.2024 Main 59/4/1 · Q21(b)4 marks

Highlight any four consequences of the imposition of Emergency in India in 1975.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/4/1

Consequences of imposition of emergency in India in 1975:

  1. It brought the agitation to an abrupt stop; strikes were banned; many opposition leaders were put in jail; the political situation became very quiet though tense.
  2. The government suspended the freedom of press. Newspaper were asked to get prior approval for all material to be published. This was known as press censorship.
  3. Apprehending social and communal disharmony, the government banned Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh (RSS) and Jamait-e-Islami.
  4. The various Fundamental Rights of the citizens were suspended, including the right to move the court for restoring Fundamental rights.
  5. Using Preventive Detention Act, the government mad large scale arrests.
  6. In support of the government, the doors of the courts were closed for the citizens.
  7. Many writers returned their National Awards such as Padma Bhushan and Padma Shri, in protest against the suspension of democracy.
  8. The parliament made many amendments to the constitution.

(or any other relevant point) (any four points) (4x1=4)

Q51.2024 Main 59/5/1 · Q224 marks

Describe any four circumstances that led to protests against the Congress Government during 1974-1975.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/5/1

Factors:

  1. Price rise.
  2. High inflation rate and low industrial growth
  3. Freezing of salaries which caused dissatisfaction among government employees
  4. Gujarat and Bihar Movement
  5. Railway strike of 1974.
  6. Conflict with judiciary.

Or any other relevant point

(any four points) (4x1=4)

Q52.2023 Main 59/2/1 · Q234 marks

Explain any four effects of the Emergency declared in 1975.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/2/1

Effects of Emergency:

  1. Thousand of people and leaders were arrested under Preventive Detention Act.
  2. The Parliament brought in many new changes in the Constitution. For example an amendment declaring that elections of Prime Minister, President and Vice-President as non-justiciable was made.
  3. Political Parties of opposition joined hands to form a new party ‘Janta Party’.
  4. People became more aware about their Fundamental Rights and liberty.
  5. People became aware about the freedom of press.

Or any other relevant effect (any four) 4×1=4

Q53.2023 Main 59/4/1 · Q234 marks

Explain any four reasons for the grand victory of the Janata Party in the 1977 general elections.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/4/1
  1. Janata Party converted the 1977 elections into referendum on the experience of emergency.
  2. All the opposition parties joined hands against Congress and gave a choice to the people to choose any one out of two.
  3. Janata Party advocated the cause of democracy and called the period of emergency as the absence of democracy.
  4. J.P. Narayan became the icon of the opposition.
  5. Janata Party asked voters to choose between democracy and dictatorship.

Any other relevant point (Any Four) 4×1=4

Q54.2022 Main 59/1/1 · Q104 marks

Describe any four excesses made by the Union Government during the period of emergency imposed in 1975.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 59/1/1

The Excesses–

  1. Preventive detentions on a large scale.
  2. Restrictions were imposed on Press without proper legal sanctions.
  3. Forced Family Planning.
  4. Demolition drives.
  5. Torture and custodial deaths.

(Any four)

Q55.2022 Main 59/3/1 · Q114 marks

In the given outline political map of India, four states have been marked as (A), (B), (C) and (D). With the help of the information given below, identify them and write their correct names in your answer book along with the serial number of the information used and the related alphabet in the map as per the format given below :

Figure from the paper

  1. The State to which Jai Prakash Narain belonged.
  2. The State where Indian National Congress won most of the Lok Sabha seats in 1977 elections.
  3. The State from where Raj Narain contested the Lok Sabha seat against Indira Gandhi in 1977 election.
  4. The State where Janata Party won all the Lok Sabha seats in 1977 election.
S. No. of the information usedRelated alphabet given in the MapName of the State
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 59/3/1
Serial number of the information usedConcerned alphabet in the mapName of the State
(i)DBihar
(ii)CJammu and Kashmir
(iii)BUP
(iv)AHaryana
Q56.2022 Main 59/3/1 · Q11 (VI)4 marks

Note : The following questions are for visually impaired candidates only in lieu of Q. No. 11.

11.1 Who was the first Prime Minister of the Janata Party Government ?

11.2 From which State did Indian National Congress not win even a single Lok Sabha seat in 1977 general election ?

11.3 Name the Commission appointed by Janata Party Government to enquire into the excesses made during emergency.

11.4 In which year was emergency imposed in 1975 removed ?

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 59/3/1

For visually impaired candidates–

  1. Morarji Desai
  2. Haryana, UP, Bihar, Delhi, Punjab
  3. Shah Commission
  4. 1977
Q57.2022 Supp. 59/6/1 · Q11 (VI)4 marks

Note : The following question is for the Visually Impaired Candidates only, in lieu of Q. No. 11 (map question) :

Analyse any two factors that led to the protests against the Congress Government before the declaration of Emergency in 1975.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/6/1
  1. Rising prices of food grain, cooking oil and other essential commodities.
  2. People protest against corruption in high places.
  3. Industrial growth was low and unemployment was very high particularly in the rural areas.

(Any two) 2×2=4

Q58.SQP 2025-26 · Q234 marks

Explain any four outcomes of Lok Sabha elections of 1977.

Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 · Marking Scheme
  1. In March 1977 elections, for the first time, Congress lost elections with winning 154 seats only.
  2. Janata Party and its allies won 330 seats out of 542 seats.
  3. Congress lost from all the States of Bihar, U.P., Haryana, Delhi and Madhya Pradesh.
  4. Janata Party was formed The Government.
  5. Opposition party realized the use of not to divide the votes to enjoy the power.

(Any four or Any other relevant point/s)

Q59.SQP 2026-27 · Q234 marks

Explain the conflict between the judiciary and the executive that emerged during the early 1970 s in India and became a reason for the constitutional crisis.

Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 · Marking Scheme

The major conflicts between the Judiciary and the executive in 1973:

  1. On the issue of Fundamental Right and right to property, the Supreme Court denied the amendment to Constitution. While on the issue of Fundamental Right giving effect to Directive principles, Parliament amended the Constitution, but later Supreme Court rejected it.
  2. Court gave a decision that there are some basic features of the Constitution and the Parliament cannot amend these basic features. This created tension between parliament and judiciary.
  3. Tension between judiciary and executive further expanded, when a vacancy arose of the post of Chief Justice of India. As per the constitutional practice, senior-most judge of the Supreme Court should be appointed as Chief Justice of India in case of vacancy. But in 1973 government ignored the seniority of three judges and appointed A.N. Ray as Chief Justice of India.
  4. The appointment became politically controversial because all the three judges who were superseded had given rulings against the stand of the government. Thus, constitutional interpretations and political ideologies were getting mixed up rapidly. Highest point in controversy came when Allahabad High Court declared Indira Gandhi’s election invalid.

(To be assessed as a whole or other relevant point/s)

Q60.2023 Main 59/1/1 · Q30(b)6 marks

Analyse any three reasons for the declaration of Emergency in 1975.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/1/1

Reasons for declaring Emergency in 1975

  1. Tensions in the relationship between the government and Judiciary. Congress advocated parliamentary supremacy and alleged judiciary a conservative institution.
  2. After Bangladesh war -Prices were rising and expectations of the people were raised by the slogan ‘Garibi hatao’. So people were unsatisfied and agitated when these were not fulfilled.
  3. Gujarat and Bihar movements -Students unrest and participation of leaders like Morariji Desai and Jayaprakash Narayan put government into trouble.
  4. Judgement of Allahabad High Court on 12th June 1975- which declared the election of Indira Gandhi (PM) invalid. Accordingly, she was no more a member of Lok Sabha which was threat to her Prime ministership.
  5. Combined opposition parties demanded her resignation -Ramlila Maidan rally- where JP give a call and had asked the army, the police and the Government employees not to obey the illegal and immoral order -all these reasons combined together let to the declaration of emergency.

Or any other reasons (any three) 3×2=6

Q61.2023 Main 59/2/1 · Q29(a)6 marks

Assess any three effects of Emergency imposed in 1975 in strengthening the democracy in India.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/2/1

Effects of emergency in strengthening the democracy:

  1. Democracy in India was strengthened.
  2. People became aware about their rights and importance of the liberty.
  3. People also realised the importance of the ‘Freedom of Press’.
  4. People understood the value of their ‘Voting Rights’ and used the right to get the Government of their choice.
  5. People did not become violent against emergency but waited for the right moment to use their democratic rights.
  6. The elections in 1977 were a silent revolution against the excesses but in favour of democracy.

Or any other relevant problem (any three to be explained) 3×2=6

Q62.2023 Main 59/2/1 · Q29(b)6 marks

Assess the impact of three democratic upsurges in post independent India.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/2/1

Three democratic upsurges:

  1. First Democratic Upsurge could be attributed from 1950s - 1970s which was based on the participation of Indian adult voters to the democratic politics both at the centre and in states. Falsifying the western myth that the success of democracy requires modernization, urbanization, education and access to media.
  2. During the 1980’s, the increasing political participation of the lower classes of the society such as SCs, STs and OBCs has been interpreted as ‘Second Democratic Upsurge’
  3. The Third Democratic Upsurge represents a competitive electoral market which is based not on the principle of survival of the fittest but rather the survival of the ablest. It underlines three shifts in India’s electoral market: from State to Market, from Government to Governance, from State as Controller to State as Facilitator. It seeks to promote the participation of the youth. Period of this uprising is attributed to 1990s.

3×2=6

Q63.2023 Main 59/5/1 · Q29(a)6 marks

Why is the emergency imposed in 1975 considered the most controversial episode in Indian politics ? Highlight any three reasons.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/5/1

Reasons:

  • i) Democracy was negated for the first time.
  • ii) Fundamental Rights were openly violated.
  • iii) Freedom of press was curtailed.
  • iv) Misuse of the preventive detention Law
  • v) Excesses were committed all over the country- e.g custodial death.
  • vi) Abuse of authority- exercise of governmental power by people who held no official position- for example demolitions and forced sterilization in Delhi became very controversial.
  • vii) Controversy over Parliament’s power to amend basic features of the constitution.
  • viii) Political controversy regarding super seeding of three judges to the supreme court.

(Or any other relevant points) (any three points)

Q64.2023 Main 59/5/1 · Q29(b)6 marks

Highlight any three factors which were responsible for the downfall of the Congress Party in the 1977 elections.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/5/1

Factors responsible for the downfall of the congress:

  • i) Emergency imposed in 1975 -The 1977 elections turned into a referendum on the experience of emergency.
  • ii) The experience of emergency brought forth that governments that are perceived to be anti- democratic are severely punished by the voters.
  • iii) Unification of the opposition parties against the Congress; formation of Janata Party, to ensure that non-Congress votes would not be divided.
  • iv) Some leaders of the Congress were also opposed to the emergency . They joined the new party.
  • v) The Janata Party made this election into a referendum on the emergency.
  • vi) The opposition fought the election on the slogan 'Save Democracy'
  • vii) Janata Party focused it's campaign on the non-democratic character of the rule and on the various excesses that took place during this period.
  • viii) In the backdrop of arrests of thousands of persons and the censorship of press ,the public opinion was against the Congress.
  • ix) Jaya Prakash Narayan became the popular symbol of restoration of democracy.

(Any other relevant points) ( any 3 points)

Q65.2022 Main 59/4/1 · Q13(a)6 marks

Highlight any three reasons for the opposition parties to come together to form Janata Party in 1977.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 59/4/1

Reasons behind emergence of Janta Party in 1977 -

  1. The non - democratic character of the Congress Government.
  2. Various excesses committed during the period of emergency (Eg – Preventive detention, Censorship of press etc)
  3. To ensure that the non - Congress votes would not be divided.
  4. By giving the slogan of Save Democracy, the Janta Party made this election into a referendum on Emergency
  5. Jaya Prakash Narayan became the symbol of restoration of democracy.
  6. Middle sections of North India was moving away from Congress for whom Janata Party became a platform.

(Any other relevant reason)

Any three reasons

Q66.2022 Main 59/4/1 · Q13(b)6 marks

Was the declaration of emergency in 1975 necessary ? Support your answer with any three suitable arguments.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 59/4/1

Emergency in 1975 — If the answer is ‘yes’ then the candidate may write -

  • Opposition must allow the elected ruling party to govern according to its policies.
  • Frequent changes in Government could hamper development.
  • It was seen as personal attack on Indira Gandhi and not on the party and an attempt to remove her from power through extra-constitutional means.
  • In a democracy one cannot continuously have extra-parliamentary politics targeting the Government.
  • CPI supporting Congress felt it was an international conspiracy against the unity of India.

If a candidate writes ‘No’ then the following arguments may be given —

  1. Agitations and protests are the rights of the people.
  2. Bihar & Gujarat movement and other protests were mostly peaceful & non - violent.
  3. Those who were arrested were never tried for any anti-national activity. No cases were registered against most of the detainees.
  4. The Home Ministry did not express any concern about the law and order in the country.
  5. Government should have been able to deal with the people’s aspiration.
  6. No Government can be allowed to suppress or negate the Fundamental Rights.
  7. Indira Gandhi misused a constitutional provision meant for saving the country to save her personal power.

(Or any other argument)

(Any three)

Q67.2022 Supp. 59/6/1 · Q13(a)6 marks

Highlight any three developments of 1970s which were the cause of confrontation between the Union Government and the Judiciary in India.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/6/1

Confrontation between Government and Judicary in 1970s.

  1. Regarding Fundamental Rights, the Supreme Court said that the parliament can neither abridge Fundamental Rights nor can amend the Constitution in such a manner that rights are curtailed. But the Parliament amended the constitution saying that it can abridge Fundamental rights for giving effect to Directive Principles of the State policy. Again the Supreme Court rejected this provision.
  2. In 1973, Chief Justice of India was appointed by violating the seniority criterion, by appointing A.N. Roy and ignoring seniority of three judges.
  3. Climax came when the High Court declared Indira Gandhi’s election as invalid on the ground that she had used the services of government servant in her election campaign.

3×2=6

Q68.2022 Supp. 59/6/1 · Q13(b)6 marks

Highlight any three lessons learnt from the Emergency imposed in 1975.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/6/1

Lessons learnt from Emergency:-

  1. After Emergency normal democratic functioning in India, resumed with in a short span of time. It proved, it is extremely difficult to do away with democracy in India.
  2. It brought out some ambiguities regarding the Emergency provision in the constitution that have been rectified since. Now internal emergency can be proclaimed only on the grounds of ‘armed rebellion’ and it is necessary that the advice to the President to proclaim Emergency must be given in writing by the Union Cabinet.
  3. The Emergency made everyone more aware of the value of civil liberties. The courts too, have taken role after the Emergency in protecting the civil liberties of the individual.

3×2=6

Part B · Politics in India since Independence

7. Regional Aspirations

Q1.2024 Main 59/2/1 · Q71 mark

Which political party came to power in Jammu and Kashmir in 1952 ?

  1. Indian National Congress
  2. Kashmir National Congress
  3. Communist Party of India
  4. National Conference
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/2/1

(D) National Conference

Q2.2024 Main 59/2/1 · Q101 mark

For Question number 10, two statements are given — one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Read these statements carefully and choose the correct option as the answer from the options (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below.

Assertion (A): In 1979, the All Assam Students’ Union (AASU) led an anti-foreigner movement.

Reason (R): The movement was against illegal migrations and against faulty voters’ lists.

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/2/1

(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).

Q3.2024 Main 59/2/1 · Q121 mark

In which state of India are the ‘Khasi Hills’ located ?

  1. Meghalaya
  2. Manipur
  3. Mizoram
  4. Tripura
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/2/1

(A) Meghalaya

Q4.2024 Main 59/3/1 · Q21 mark

Which region of India is referred to as the ‘Seven Sisters’ ?

  1. North-East region
  2. South-West region
  3. North-West region
  4. South-East region
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/3/1

(A) North-East region

Q5.2024 Main 59/3/1 · Q71 mark

Which one of the following movements was not started by the people of North-East to express their regional aspirations ?

  1. Movement against outsiders
  2. Movement for greater autonomy
  3. Movement to form a union of North-East States
  4. Movement for secession
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/3/1

(C) Movement to form a union of North-East States

Q6.2024 Main 59/4/1 · Q101 mark

In the following question, Statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a Statement of Reason (R). Choose the appropriate option as the answer.

Assertion (A): The Mizo National Front (MNF) started an armed campaign for independence.

Reason (R): After independence the Mizo Hill area was made an autonomous district within Assam.

Options:

  1. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  2. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  3. (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect.
  4. (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/4/1

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

Q7.2024 Main 59/4/1 · Q121 mark

‘Karbis’ community belongs to which State of India ?

  1. Manipur
  2. Assam
  3. Arunachal Pradesh
  4. Nagaland
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/4/1

(B) Assam

Q8.2024 Supp. 59/S/1 · Q101 mark

For this question, two statements are given - one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Read these statements carefully and choose the correct option as the answer from the options (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below.

Assertion (A): Instead of one tribal state, several states got carved out of Assam.

Reason (R): Leaders of the major tribal communities wanted to separate from Assam.

Options:

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/S/1

(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).

Q9.2024 Supp. 59/S/1 · Q121 mark

To which state of India does the Dimasa community belong ?

  1. Mizoram
  2. Tripura
  3. Assam
  4. Manipur
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/S/1

(C) Assam

Q10.2023 Main 59/1/1 · Q71 mark

From the following options, choose the set of States that belong to North-East India only.

  1. Assam, Manipur, Chhattisgarh
  2. Manipur, Tripura, Nagaland
  3. Jharkhand, Nagaland, Uttarakhand
  4. Manipur, Maharashtra, Mizoram
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/1/1

(b) Manipur, Tripura, Nagaland

Q11.2023 Main 59/1/1 · Q101 mark

Arrange the following in the chronological order :

  1. Pakistan sent tribal infiltrators to Kashmir.
  2. Sheikh Abdullah became Prime Minister of Jammu and Kashmir.
  3. The Punjab Accord was signed by Longowal and Rajiv Gandhi.
  4. Jammu and Kashmir was a Princely State.

Choose the correct option.

  1. (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
  2. (iv), (i), (ii), (iii)
  3. (iv), (ii), (i), (iii)
  4. (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/1/1

(b) (iv), (i), (ii), (iii)

Q12.2023 Main 59/3/1 · Q91 mark

In July 1985, “Punjab Accord” was signed between _________ to bring normalcy in Punjab.

  1. Rajiv Gandhi and Surjit Singh Longowal
  2. Rajiv Gandhi and Sant Singh Longowal
  3. Rajiv Gandhi and Tara Singh Longowal
  4. Rajiv Gandhi and Harchand Singh Longowal
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/3/1

(d) Rajiv Gandhi and Harchand Singh Longowal

Q13.2023 Main 59/5/1 · Q111 mark

‘Bodo’ community belongs to which state ?

  1. Arunachal Pradesh
  2. Assam
  3. Manipur
  4. Mizoram
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/5/1

(b) Assam

Q14.2023 Main 59/5/1 · Q121 mark

When was Article 370 related to Jammu and Kashmir abolished ?

  1. 26 January, 2019
  2. 15 August, 2019
  3. 9 August, 2019
  4. 19 August, 2019
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/5/1

(c) 9th August 2019

Q15.SQP 2025-26 · Q111 mark

Identify the leader of Indian National Congress who became the first Chief Minister of Jammu and Kashmir:

  1. Sheikh Abdullah
  2. Omar Abdullah
  3. Ghulam Mohammed Sadiq
  4. Mufti Mohammed Sayeed
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 · Marking Scheme

(C) Ghulam Mohammed Sadiq

Q16.2026 Main 59/1/1 · Q182 marks

“The demands of various regional aspirations during 1980s was a step towards nation building.” Support the statement with argument.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/1/1

India continuously adopted a democratic approach towards regional demands/ aspirations and does not look upon them as a anti – national. All the demands of regional aspirations were heard and solved by the Indian government. This step proved to be a step towards national integration.

(i) Regional movement of Punjab State was resolved through an agreement between Indian and Punjab government.

(ii) Issues related to outsiders in Assam was resolved diplomatically.

(or any other)

Q17.2026 Main 59/2/1 · Q152 marks

How does the geographical location of the North-East region has affected the expression of its regional demands ? Explain.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/2/1

(i) The geographical isolation of the region, its complex social character and its backwardness compared to the other parts of the country have resulted in the complicated sets of demands for different states of North East.

(ii) North – Eastern region has only four percent of the country’s population but about twice as much share of its areas. A small corridor of about 22 km connects the region to the rest of the country and makes it important geographically.

(iii) The partition of India reduced the North – East to a land locked region and affected its economy which created unrest.

(iv) Cut off from the rest of India, the region suffered neglect in terms of development, demands for autonomy and separation were raised.

(v) Its politics remained insulated.

(vi) Due to migrants, major demographic changes occurred. Vast international border and weak communication between the north-east and the rest of India added to its demands for autonomy, movement for succession and opposition to outsiders.

(Or any other relevant point) (any two)

Q18.2026 Supp. 59/7/1 · Q182 marks

Describe any two provisions of the Rajiv Gandhi-Longowal Accord.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/7/1
  1. It was agreed that Chandigarh would be transferred to Punjab.
  2. A separate commission would be appointed to resolve the border dispute between Punjab and Haryana.
  3. A tribunal would be set up to decide the sharing of Ravi-Beas river water among Punjab, Haryana and Rajasthan.
  4. Withdrawal of the application of Armed Forces Special Powers Act in Punjab.

(Any two)

Q19.2025 Main 59/1/1 · Q182 marks

“Regionalism is not as dangerous as communalism.” Justify the statement.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/1/1

Under regionalism, the set of demands raised by the people are for the development of that particular region within the country, which is key feature of democracy. Whereas, communalism represents the demands of a particular religious community for its own vested interests.

Communalism is based on hatred and is self-centered.

or any other relevant point (2x1=2)

Q20.2025 Main 59/4/1 · Q182 marks

Assess the result of Secessionist Movement in Mizoram.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/4/1

At the end of two decades of insurgency everyone was a loser.

  • The violence by MNF could not bring any change except the loss of life and property.
  • Laldenga came back from exile in Pakistan and started negotiation with the Indian Government.
  • MNF agreed to give up secessionist struggle and Laldenga took over as the Chief Minister of Mizoram.

It established that the violence could not lead to any positive results whereas negotiation can lead to solve the problems.

(Evaluate as a whole) (2 × 1 = 2)

Q21.2025 Main 59/5/1 · Q182 marks

Assess the democratic approach adopted in India in view of the regional aspirations.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/5/1

India’s democratic approach:

  1. Indian democracy allows the political expressions of regional aspirations and does not look upon them as anti national.
  2. Democratic politics allows parties and groups to address the people on the basis of their regional identity, aspirations and specific regional problems. In this way regional aspirations get strengthened.
  3. Democratic politics also means that regional issues and problems receive and adequate attention and accommodation in the policy making process.

Or any other relevant point ( Assessed as a whole)

Q22.2024 Main 59/5/1 · Q172 marks

Mention any two provisions of the Punjab Accord signed by Rajiv Gandhi and Harchand Singh Longowal in 1985.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/5/1

Provisions of Punjab Accord:

  1. Chandigarh would be transferred to Punjab.
  2. To appoint a separate commission to resolve border dispute between Punjab and Haryana.
  3. To set up a tribunal to settle down the sharing of Ravi-Beas river water among Punjab, Haryana and Rajasthan.
  4. The agreement also provided for compensation to better treatment to those affected by militancy in Punjab.
  5. To withdraw the Armed forces special power Act in Punjab.

(any two provisions) (2x1=2)

Q23.2023 Main 59/2/1 · Q182 marks

Identify any two states where the Central Government had to face separatist movements. Also name the leaders who led these movements.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/2/1
  1. Nagaland - Angami Zapu Phizo
  2. Mizoram - Laldenga

1+1=2

Q24.SQP 2026-27 · Q172 marks

Explain any two objectives of the Dravidian Movement led by the DMK in its early stages.

Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 · Marking Scheme

The Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam (DMK) movement had several objectives:

  1. Restoring the original name of the Kallakudi railway station which had been renamed Dalmiapuram.
  2. Emphasizing Tamil language and culture in school curricula.
  3. Agitation against making Hindi the country’s official language.

(Any two points)

Q25.2026 Main 59/1/1 · Q22(a)4 marks

“India has accepted expressions of regional aspirations to strengthen the national integrity.” Support the statement with two examples.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/1/1

(i) India adopted a democratic approach regarding the expressions of regional aspirations. It did not look upon the demands of regional aspirations. For example states of Haryana, Chhattisgarh, Uttarakhand and Jharkhand were created from their parent states. Thus the expression of regional aspiration strengthens the national intergrity.

(ii) India allows parties and groups to address the people on the basis of their regional aspirations .For example All Assam Students Union (AASU) in Assam and Mizo National Front (MNF)) in Mizoram tried to solve their regional issues.

(iii) In India peoples movements in Assam, Meghalaya Nagaland were not treated as against the unity of the nation but were heard and decided on the basis of negotiation and deliberation. Democratic process was adopted in all these cases.

(or any other relevant examples) (any two)

Q26.2026 Main 59/1/1 · Q22(b)4 marks

Do you agree that the Assam accord was successful in establishing peace and stability in the State ? Support your answer with any two arguments.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/1/1

Candidates may answer in ‘Yes’ or ‘No’. The answer of the candidate should be supported with the appropriate arguments.

If ‘Yes’

(i) In 1985, Rajiv Gandhi led government entered into negotiations with the AASU leaders. As per this accord, those foreigners who were migrated into Assam during and after Bangladesh war and since, were to be identified and deported.

(ii) With the successful completion of the movement, the AASU and the Asom Gana Sangram Parishad organised themselves as regional political party called Asom Gana Parishad (AGP). It came to power in 1985 with the promise of resolving the foreign national problem as well as to build a ‘Golden Assam’.

(iii) Assam accord brought piece and changed the face of politics in Assam.

(any two arguments )

If ‘No’

(i) It did not solve the problem of immigration.

(ii) The issue of the ‘outsiders’ continuous to be a live issue in the politics of Assam.

(iii) In many north-east states including Assam the original inhabitants have been reduced to being a minority in their own land.

(any two arguments)

Q27.2026 Main 59/2/1 · Q264 marks

In the given political outline map of India, four states have been marked as A, B, C and D. Identify these on the basis of the information given below and write their correct names in your answer-book along with their respective serial number of the information used and the concerned alphabet as per the format that follows :

(i) The state related to the leader of Dravidian Movement E.V. Ramasami Naicker.

(ii) The state whose formation was supported by Master Tara Singh.

(iii) The state where the movement against outsiders was started by students.

(iv) The state for which Rajiv Gandhi and Laldenga signed an agreement for peace.

Serial number of the information usedConcerned Alphabet in the mapName of the State
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

Figure from the paper

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/2/1
Sr. no. of the information usedConcerned Alphabet given in the mapName of State
(i)DTamil Nadu
(ii)BPunjab
(iii)CAssam
(iv)AMizoram
Q28.2026 Main 59/2/1 · Q26 (VI)4 marks

(i) State the article related to Jammu and Kashmir which was abolished in 2019.

(ii) Name any one regional political party of the Jammu & Kashmir.

(iii) In which year did Arunachal Pradesh become a separate state ?

(iv) Name the popular leader of Mizo National Front (MNF).

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/2/1

(i) Article – 370

(ii) National Conference/ PDP (People Democratic Party)/Jammu and Kashmir People’s Conference.

(iii) 1987

(iv) Laldenga

Q29.2026 Supp. 59/7/1 · Q254 marks

In the given political outline map of India (on page 19), four states have been marked as (A), (B), (C) and (D). Identify these States on the basis of the information given below and write their correct names in your answer-book along with the respective serial number of the information used and the concerned alphabet given in the map, as per the following format :

  1. The state which witnessed the Dravidian movement.
  2. The state to which Sant Harchand Singh Longowal belonged.
  3. The state which had Kazi Lhendup Dorji Khangsarpa as its popular leader.
  4. The state which witnessed a secessionist movement under the leadership of Laldenga.
Serial number of the information usedConcerned alphabet given in the mapName of the State
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

Figure from the paper

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/7/1
Sr. no. of the information usedConcerned Alphabet given in the mapName of Countries/State
(i)BTamil Nadu
(ii)APunjab
(iii)DSikkim
(iv)CMizoram
Q30.2026 Supp. 59/7/1 · Q25 (VI)4 marks

The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates only, in lieu of Q. No. 25 :

  • (25.1) Name the Prime Minister of Jammu and Kashmir who took over in March 1948 after its merger with India.
  • (25.2) Name the leader who had signed the Punjab Accord with Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi in 1985.
  • (25.3) Name the founder of the Mizo National Front.
  • (25.4) Name any two states of the North East.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/7/1

25.1 Sheikh Abdulla

25.2 Harchand Singh Longowal

25.3 Laldenga

25.4 Manipur, Tripura, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Arunachal.

Q31.2025 Main 59/1/1 · Q244 marks

Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow :

India adopted a democratic approach to the question of diversity. Democracy allows the political expressions of regional aspirations and does not look upon them as anti-national. Besides, democratic politics allows parties and groups to address the people on the basis of their regional identity, aspiration and specific regional problems. Thus, in the course of democratic politics, regional aspirations get strengthened. At the same time, democratic politics also means that regional issues and problems will receive adequate attention and accommodation in the policy making process.

(24.1) Which period in India is seen as a period of grooming regional aspirations for autonomy ?

  1. 1960s
  2. 1970s
  3. 1980s
  4. 1990s

(24.2) Which type of diversity is dominant in India ?

  1. Social diversity
  2. Political diversity
  3. Cultural diversity
  4. Regional diversity

(24.3) How does democracy deal with the regional problems ?

  1. Through regular negotiations
  2. Through strong steps
  3. Through elections
  4. Through economic measures

(24.4) Which one of the following joined Indian Union in 1975 ?

  1. Goa
  2. Sikkim
  3. Puducherry
  4. An Island
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/1/1

24.1 (C) 1980s

24.2 (A) Social diversity

24.3 (A) Through regular negotiations

24.4 (B) Sikkim

(1+1+1+1=4)

Q32.2025 Main 59/4/1 · Q254 marks

In the given political outline map of India (on page 15), four States have been marked as (A), (B), (C) and (D). Identify these States on the basis of the information given below and write their correct names in your answer-book along with the respective serial number of the information used and the concerned alphabets given in the map as per the following format :

Serial number of the information usedConcerned alphabet given in the mapName of the State
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
  1. The State related to Rajiv Gandhi – Longowal Accord
  2. The State which merged with India in May 1975
  3. The State to which social reformer E.V. Ramasami belonged
  4. The State to which Chief Minister Laldenga belonged

Figure from the paper

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/4/1
Sr. no. of the information usedConcerned Alphabet given in the mapName of Countries/State
(i)BPunjab
(ii)CSikkim
(iii)DTamil Nadu
(iv)AMizoram

(4 × 1 = 4)

Q33.2025 Main 59/4/1 · Q25 (VI)4 marks

Note : The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates only, in lieu of Q. No. 25 :

(25.1) Name the state to which the Rajiv Gandhi – Longowal Accord was related.

(25.2) Name the state which joined the Union of India in May 1975.

(25.3) Which state did Chief Minister Laldenga belong to ?

(25.4) Name the state to which social reformer E.V. Ramasami belonged.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/4/1

(25.1) Punjab

(25.2) Sikkim

(25.3) Mizoram

(25.4) Tamil Nadu

(4 × 1 = 4)

Q34.2025 Main 59/5/1 · Q234 marks

Suggest any two steps to strengthen the national integration and unity of India.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/5/1

Two steps to strengthen the National integration and unity of India.

  1. There should be even and balanced development in all the parts and regions of India.
  2. Regional aspirations and demands should be listened and government should try to pacify the people by paying heed to their demands.
  3. Laws and rules should not create discrimination and also not interfere in the culture and traditions of different regions.

or any other relevant step (Any two) (2 × 2 = 4)

Q35.2024 Main 59/2/1 · Q234 marks

“The best way to respond to regional aspirations is through democratic negotiations rather than through suppression.” Justify the statement with examples.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/2/1

The best way to respond to regional aspirations is through democratic negotiations. For example, during the 1980s, the Militancy had erupted in Punjab; there were problems in the North-East; students in Assam were agitating and the Kashmir Valley was boiling. Instead of treating them by simple law and order, the Government of India negotiated settlements with regional movements. This produced a reconciliation (through the Punjab Accord, Assam Accord etc.) that reduced the tensions existing in many states. The example of Mizoram shows that political settlement can resolve the problems of separatism effectively.

Q36.2024 Main 59/3/1 · Q194 marks

“Regional aspirations and their accommodation are an integral part of Indian democratic politics.” Support the statement with any two suitable arguments.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/3/1
  • (i) India is a union of states representing different regions. Every state or region has its own problems and needs. Hence in a democratic setup like India, every state/region/group/individual has the right to raise his/her problems.
  • (ii) Every region as a whole has some aspirations for their development or aspirations related to their culture/language etc.
  • (iii) So it becomes an integral part of India democratic politics to listen/address/accommodate their aspiration.

(Any two)

Q37.2024 Main 59/4/1 · Q234 marks

How did India address the regional aspirations of the people ? Explain with the help of any two examples.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/4/1

India has addressed the regional aspiration of the people in various ways:

India has adopted the democratic process of negotiations to address the conflicts, demands, economic development and regional aspirations of the people, rather than suppression. Adequate attention was paid to political expression, regional issues and problems in accommodation and policy making process.

The students may support the answer with any two examples –

  1. Punjab Accord
  2. Demand for antonomy in Assam.
  3. Movement against outsiders in Assam leading to signing of Assam Accord.
  4. Signing of Mizoram Accord.
  5. Kashmir issue.
  6. Creation of new states on linguistic basis.
  7. Creation of new states on the basis of separation regional culture or complains of regional imbalance in development.

(or any other two relevant point to be explained with examples) (2+2=4)

Q38.2024 Main 59/5/1 · Q234 marks

Describe the events that took place in Sikkim from the time of India’s independence to its merger with India.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/5/1

Sikkims merger with India

  • At the time of Independence, Sikkim’s was a ‘protectorate’ of India and not a fully sovereign country.
  • It was not a part of India. Sikkim’s defence and relations were looked after by India. The power of internal administration was with Chogyal, Sikkim’s monarch.
  • The first democratic election in Sikkim was held in 1974. Sikkim Congress swept the elections.
  • Sikkim Assembly passed a resolution in 1975 asking for integration with India.
  • It was followed by referendum, that stamped popular approval.
  • Indian Parliament immediately accepted it.
  • Sikkim became 22nd state of Indian Union.

(to be assessed as a whole) (4)

Q39.2024 Supp. 59/S/1 · Q234 marks

“Regional aspirations are very much a part of democratic politics.” Justify the statement.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/S/1
  • Regional aspirations are very much a part or democratic politics. Democracy in India allows the political expressions of regional aspirations and does not look upon these as anti-national.
  • Democratic politics among parties and groups addresses the people on the basis of their regional identity, aspirations and specific regional problems. The process strengthens regional aspirations.
  • Democratic politics means that any regional issue and problem would receive adequate attention and accommodation in policy making process. These arrangements may sometimes lead to tension and problems. Expression of regional aspirations and efforts to get them fullfilled is the process which reduces the chances of revolution and unrest.

Or any other relevant point (assess as a whole) (4)

Q40.2023 Main 59/2/1 · Q254 marks

In the given political outline map of India, four states have been marked as (A), (B), (C) and (D). Identify these states on the basis of the information given below and write their correct names in your answer book along with the respective serial number of the information used and the concerned alphabets given in the map as per the format that follows :

Sr. No. of the information usedConcerned AlphabetName of the State
i.
ii.
iii.
iv.
  1. The state which has been bifurcated in two Union Territories recently.
  2. The state where Rajiv Gandhi – Longowal Accord was signed.
  3. The state to which Laldenga belonged.
  4. The state from where the Dravidian Movement started.

Figure from the paper

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/2/1
Sr. No. of the information usedConcerned alphabet in the mapName of the state
(i)CJammu and Kashmir
(ii)APunjab
(iii)DMizoram
(iv)BTamil Nadu

4×1=4

Q41.2023 Main 59/2/1 · Q25 (VI)4 marks

Note : The following questions are only for the Visually Impaired Candidates in lieu of Q. No. 25.

(25.1) Article 370 has been abolished from which State ?

(25.2) In which State was the former Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi assassinated ?

(25.3) Which State was created on language basis in 1966 ?

(25.4) In which state did Laldenga lead a separatist movement ?

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/2/1

25.1 Jammu and Kashmir

25.2 Tamil Nadu

25.3 Punjab / Haryana (any one)

25.4 Mizoram

4×1=4

Q42.2023 Main 59/3/1 · Q204 marks

Highlight any two reasons of the separatist movement in Mizoram.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/3/1

Reasons for separatist movement in Mizoram:-

  1. Mizo people were of the opinion that they were never a part of British India.
  2. The Assam government failed to manage the famine of 1959. Therefore, Mizos’ anger led to the formation of Mizo National Front.
  3. Under the leadership of Laldenga MNF started an armed campaign demanding a separate state in 1966.

(Or any other relevant point) (Any two) 2×2=4

Q43.2023 Main 59/4/1 · Q204 marks

“All regional movements need not lead to separatist demands.” Justify the statement.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/4/1

The statement is justified:

  • Regional aspirations are part of democratic politics.
  • Expression of regional issues is not an abnormal phenomenon.
  • Regional movements are responded through democratic negotiations rather than supression.
  • The Government of India adopted democratic negotiations to resolve issues.
  • The following examples justify the statement For example there was militancy in Punjab, separatist movement for political autonomy in North East, students agitation in Assam and many other moments were resolved with the help of negotiations with agitating parties. This process of Democratic negotition and to fulfil regional aspirations solved the issues.

Any other relevant point (evaluate as a whole) 4

Q44.2023 Main 59/5/1 · Q224 marks

Assess the role played by Akali Dal, a regional party, in the politics of Punjab.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/5/1
  • (i) Akali Dal had led the movement for the formation of Punjabi Sabha.
  • (ii) In 1966, Punjabi -speaking areas were included in the newly created state of Punjab.
  • (iii) Akali Dal formed it's first government in Punjab in 1967.
  • (iv) After years of political disturbances, the Akali Dal signed an agreement called the Punjab Accord in 1985.

Or any other relevant point ( any four)

Q45.2023 Supp. 59/C/1 · Q254 marks

In the given political outline map of India (on page 15), four States have been marked as (A), (B), (C) and (D). Identify these States on the basis of the information given below and write their correct names in your answer-book along with the respective serial number of the information used and the concerned alphabets given in the map as per the following format :

Serial number of the information usedConcerned alphabet given in the mapName of the State
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
  1. The State to which the social reformer E.V. Ramaswamy Periyar belonged.
  2. The State where Rajiv Gandhi – Longowal Accord was signed.
  3. The State to which Laldenga belonged.
  4. The State to which former Prime Minister H.D. Deve Gowda belonged.

Figure from the paper

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/C/1
Serial number of the information usedConcerned alphabet given in the mapName of the State
(i)ATamil Nadu
(ii)DPunjab
(iii)BMizoram
(iv)CKarnataka
Q46.2023 Supp. 59/C/1 · Q25 (VI)4 marks

Note : The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates only, in lieu of Q. No. 25 :

(25.1) The Social reformer E.V. Ramaswamy Periyar belonged to which State ?

(25.2) Rajiv Gandhi – Longowal Accord was signed for which State ?

(25.3) Rajiv Gandhi signed an agreement with Laldenga to resolve the problems of which State ?

(25.4) Which two Union Territories were carved out of the State of Jammu and Kashmir ?

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/C/1

25.1 Tamil Nadu

25.2 Punjab

25.3 Mizoram

25.4 i) Jammu and Kashmir

ii) Ladakh

Q47.SQP 2025-26 · Q204 marks

Regional demands from different parts of India exemplify the principle of unity with diversity’. Do you agree? Support your answer with appropriate arguments.

Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 · Marking Scheme
  1. India is a big country where different parts have different culture and language. It is the diversity.
  2. Different demands are to be addressed in a democratic way.
  3. Union Government accommodates all such demands.

It reflects the unity in diversity – as people of different religion expect the Union Government to fulfill their demands.

(Or Any other relevant point/s)

Q48.SQP 2026-27 · Q254 marks

Read the passage and choose the most appropriate answer for the questions given below:

Sikkim’s Merger

At the time of independence, Sikkim was a ‘protectorate’ of India, it meant that while it was not a part of India, it was also not a fully sovereign country, while the power of internal administration was with the Chogyal, Sikkim’s monarch. This arrangement ran into difficulty as the Chogyal was unable to deal with the democratic aspirations of the people. An overwhelming majority of Sikkim’s population was Nepali. But the Chogyal was seen as perpetuating the rule of a small elite from the minority Lepcha- Bhutia community. The anti-Chogyal leaders of both the communities sought and got support from the government of India. The first democratic elections to Sikkim assembly in 1974 were swept by Sikkim Congress which stood for greater integration with India. The assembly first sought the status of ‘associate state’. This was followed by a hurriedly organised referendum that put a stamp of popular approval on the assembly’s request. The Indian Parliament accepted this request immediately and Sikkim became the 22nd State of the Indian union.

Source- NCERT Political Science textbook, Class XII — Politics in India Since Independence.

  1. How did the Chogyal and his supporters respond to the integration of Sikkim into the Indian Union in 1975?
    1. They peacefully abdicated their power and immediately joined the Indian political structure as elected members.
    2. They sought external intervention from European powers to reverse the popular referendum.
    3. The Chogyal did not accept the merger, and his supporters accused the Government of India of foul play and force.
    4. They successfully launched a massive local separatist movement that completely turned the integration into a highly divisive issue today.
  2. Before its full integration into India, what was the political status of Sikkim immediately after 1947?
    1. A full state of India
    2. A Union Territory
    3. A protectorate of India
    4. A sovereign province of China
  3. Through which method did the people of Sikkim approve the assembly’s request for full integration with India?
    1. General Election
    2. Referendum
    3. Public Protest
    4. Presidential Decree
  4. From 1947–1974, which specific responsibilities of Sikkim were handled by the Government of India?
    1. Defence, External Affairs, and Communications
    2. Internal Revenue and Policing
    3. Education and Health
    4. Agriculture and Trade
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 · Marking Scheme

I (C) The Chogyal did not accept the merger, and his supporters accused the Government of India of foul play and force.

II (C) A protectorate of India.

III (B) Referendum.

IV (A) Defence, External Affairs, and Communications.

Q49.2026 Main 59/3/1 · Q28(a)6 marks

Explain the efforts of the Punjab government and the Indian government to foster peace in the State of Punjab.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/3/1
  • Punjab Accord was executed in 1985 between the Central and Punjab government to foster peace in Punjab state.
  • This agreement was also known as the Rajiv Gandhi – Longowal Accord.
  • It was agreed that Chandigarh would be transferred to Punjab.
  • A separate commission would be appointed to resolve the border dispute between Punjab and Haryana.
  • A tribunal would be set up to decide the sharing of Ravi-Beas river water among Punjab, Haryana and Rajasthan.
  • The agreement also provided for compensation and better treatment of those affected by the military in Punjab and the withdrawal of the application of Armed Forces Special Power Act in Punjab.

(any other relevant point) (any 3 points to be explained)

Q50.2026 Main 59/3/1 · Q28(b)6 marks

Explain the main factors responsible for the demands of autonomy by the north-eastern states in India.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/3/1

At the time of independence the entire region of North-East except Manipur and Tripura comprised the state of Assam. Factors for demand of autonomy are -

  • The isolation of the region.
  • Its complex social character.
  • Its backwardness as compared to the other parts of the country.
  • Vast international border and weak communication between the North-east and the rest of India.
  • Assam government imposed Assamese language on non-Assamese people. Non-Assamese felt a threat from this imposition.
  • Communities like the Bodos, Karbis and Dimasas wanted separate states. They also worked for this demand by mobilising public opinion and popular movement as well as through insurgency.
  • Leaders of major tribunal communities wanted separation from Assam.
  • Some of them formed the Eastern India Tribal union to be carved out of Assam.
  • For government of India it was not possible to form smaller states.
  • Nagaland, Mizoram claimed that they had never been a part of the Indian union.

(any other relevant point) (any 3 points to be explained)

Q51.2026 Main 59/4/1 · Q29(a)6 marks

Describe any three major developments witnessed by Punjab that led to dissatisfaction and violence.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/4/1

(i) Movement by Akali Dal to form a separate state for Punjabi Suba on the basis of Punjabi language.

(ii) After the formation of Punjab, the Akali Dal government had to face dismissal many times under article 356.

(iii) In 1970s a section of Akali Dal begin to demand autonomy.

(iv) In 1980s – extremist elements spread violence and killed innocent people to push their points of demand.

(v) In 1984 (June) the Blue star operation was a major step against extremists which spread violence.

(vi) In Oct 1984 – the assassinations of Indira Gandhi lead to major violence.

(Any three)

Q52.2026 Main 59/4/1 · Q29(b)6 marks

Describe any three measures that can be taken by the Union government to address the regional movements and demands.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/4/1

(i) The Indian government approach is to considered regional aspirations are very much part of democracy.

(ii) The best way to respond to regional aspirations through democratic negotiations rather than separation.

(iii) To respect the process of power sharing.

(iv) India address the regional economic development in balanced manner.

(v) Indian approach is to accommodate the diversity and to build a strong nation.

(vi) The demands of different regions and political parties help the centre government to know and assess the aspirations of the people.

(any other relevant point) (Any three)

Q53.2026 Main 59/5/1 · Q30(a)6 marks

‘Regional aspirations and demands are part and parcel of democratic politics.’ Support the statement with three examples.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/5/1

Regional aspirations are not against the unity or democratic process. Expression of regional aspirations and demands lead the government to think about the issue raised and to take the steps to solve or fulfil the demands. For example :

  • Movements in Nagaland and Manipur led the government to address their problems and demands. Negotiations were initiated and efforts were made towards resolution.
  • The movement in Punjab before 1966 resulted in the creation of a Punjabi-speaking state, and later dissatisfaction was reduced through the Punjab Accord.
  • The movement against outsiders in Assam was resolved through negotiations with AASU in 1985, leading to satisfaction among a large section of the population

(Any other relevant point)

(Three points to be explained )

Q54.2026 Main 59/5/1 · Q30(b)6 marks

Suggest any three measures to strengthen ‘unity in diversity’ in India.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/5/1
  • The government should avoid suppressing movements through harsh measures and instead adopt a democratic approach.
  • It should carefully consider the demands and aspirations of the people and promote dialogue with regional leaders to arrive at a mutually acceptable solution.
  • The Union government should ensure balanced regional development so that all states and regions receive their due share.
  • It should respect cultural and linguistic diversity and refrain from imposing any particular language or culture on any region.
  • Interaction and visits by Union leaders should aim at understanding the concerns and aspirations of different regions.
  • The federal structure of India should be upheld and respected in both spirit and practice.

(Any other relevant point)

(Three points to be explained )

Q55.2025 Main 59/2/1 · Q29(a)6 marks

“Regional demands from different parts of India show that India has adopted a democratic approach to accommodate diversity.” Justify the statement.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/2/1
  1. India’s democratic politics allows people and groups to address the people on the basis of their regional identity, aspirations and specific regional problems.
  2. India’s democratic politics focuses on regional issues and problems to receive adequate attention and accommodation in the policy-making process, i.e, regional aspirations of Assam, Punjab and North-East, Kashmir, etc.
  3. Its examples are in eighties, military erupted in Punjab, problems persisted in the North-East, students agitated in Assam and Kashmir valley was on the boil.
  4. The government of India settled many regional issues through negotiations to reduce tensions in many regions.
  5. Mizoram is an example of a political settlement to resolve the problem of separation effectively.

(Evaluate as a whole) (6)

Q56.2025 Main 59/2/1 · Q29(b)6 marks

Examine any three problems related to the Jammu and Kashmir.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/2/1

Problems :

  1. Externally, Pakistan has always claimed that Kashmir valley should be a part of Pakistan due to its Muslim population majority.
  2. Pakistan sponsored a tribal invasion of the state in 1947 as a result of which one part of the state came under illegal occupation of the Pakistan control. Hence Kashmir has remained a major issue of conflict between India and Pakistan.
  3. Disscent to the abolishment of article 370 in some sections of the people.
  4. Sponsored Political unrest and terrorism in the state.
  5. The demand for restoration of autonomy resulted in Insurgency that led to the large scale migration of non-Muslim Kashmiri pandits.

(any three points to be explained) (3x2=6)

Q57.2025 Main 59/6/1 · Q29(a)6 marks

Analyse any three reasons for the movement against outsiders in Assam from 1979 to 1985.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/6/1

Three reasons :

  1. The Assamese suspected that there were huge number of illegal Bengali Muslims settlers from Bangladesh.
  2. They suspected that these outsiders would reduce the indigenous Assamese into minority.
  3. The outsiders are responsible for the exploitation of the natural resources.
  4. These outsiders would drain out the natural resources out of the state without any benefit to the local population.
  5. Assamese people also found the impact of outsiders on their culture also.

or any other relevant point (Any three) (3 × 2 = 6)

Q58.2025 Main 59/6/1 · Q29(b)6 marks

Analyse any three reasons for the unrest and violence in Punjab from 1967 to 1985.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/6/1
  1. Akalis formed government in 1967 and 1977. On both occasions, it was a coalition government, that were dismissed by the Union Government .
  2. They did not enjoy the strong support among Hindus.
  3. The Anandpur Sahib resolution was passed in 1973 which was for autonomy and wanted to redefine centre - state relationship.
  4. The resolution spoke of the aspirations of the Sikh community and declared its goal as attaining the dominance of Sikhs.
  5. Operation ‘Blue Star’ led to large-scale violence.
  6. Assassination of Indira Gandhi also sparked violence.

or any other relevant point ( any three) (3 × 2 = 6)

Q59.2025 Main 59/7/1 · Q30(a)6 marks

Assess the reasons for the Dravidian Movement and its outcomes.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/7/1

Dravidian Movement :

This movement was led by the Tamil Social reformer E.V. Ramasamy ‘Periyar’. This movement strongly opposed the Brahmins’ dominance and affirmed regional pride against the political, economic and cultural domination of North.

Political implications :

It led to the formation of Dravidan Kazhagam (DK). Later on, the DK split and the political legacy of the movement was transferred to Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam (DMK). The DMK made its entry into politics with a three pronged agitation in 1953 – 54.

Outcomes :

  1. Initially, it spoke in terms of the whole of South India, however lack of support from other states limited to only, Tamil Nadu.
  2. It strongly opposed Hindi language. This may be seen even today.

(or any other relevant point) (3 + 3 = 6)

Q60.2025 Main 59/7/1 · Q30(b)6 marks

Why is the period since 1980 known for the rise of regional aspirations ? Assess India’s response to these aspirations.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/7/1

Reasons for regional aspirations :

  1. Unbalanced development.
  2. Imposition of any particular language or culture and any region.
  3. Demand for autonomy.
  4. Against the repression by the government.
  5. These reflected dissatisfaction.

India’s response to regional aspirations :

  1. Indian democracy had a respect for diversity.
  2. Regional aspirations were addressed democratically and were seen as a part of democracy.
  3. Regional demands were fulfilled or tried to be addressed through balanced planned development.

(or any other relevant point) (with explanation) (3 + 3 = 6)

Q61.2025 Supp. 59/S/1 · Q29(a)6 marks

Analyse any three reasons for the movement against outsiders in Assam.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/S/1

Three reasons for Assam movement against outsiders –

  1. The indigenous people of Assam had a fear that the influx of foreign nationals may reduce them to minority.
  2. The resources like oil, tea and coal were being drained out without any benefit to the local people.
  3. Wide spread poverty in Assam was also caused by the large scale migrants or the outsiders.
  4. Local people also took it as a threat to their culture and festivals. Hence – movement was supported by all the people without any political backing.
  5. Assam movement from 1979 to 1985 is the best example of movement against outsiders.

(any three to be analysed) (3 × 2 = 6)

Q62.2025 Supp. 59/S/1 · Q29(b)6 marks

Analyse any three issues of tension immediately after independence that posed a threat to the unity and integration of India.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/S/1
  1. Partition, Displacement and the tension to integrate the princely states.
  2. The issue of Jammu & Kashmir and relations with Pakistan.
  3. Secessionist movements in Meghalaya & Nagaland.
  4. Reorganisation of states.

(any three to be analysed) (3 × 2 = 6)

Q63.2024 Main 59/1/1 · Q30(a)6 marks

Analyse any three reasons for the movement against outsiders in Assam from 1979 to 1985.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/1/1

Reasons for the movement against outsiders :

  • (i) The Assamese suspected that huge numbers of Bengali Muslims were affecting their culture.
  • (ii) They also suspected the outsiders as encroachers on resources like land, employment and political power.
  • (iii) The outsiders were being favoured by some politicians to get their votes to win election.

Or any other relevant point (any three)

Q64.2024 Main 59/1/1 · Q30(b)6 marks

“Regional aspirations are very much a part of democratic politics.” Justify the statement.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/1/1
  • (i) In a democracy it is very common to raise regional demands. Expression of regional issues is not an aberration or an abnormal phenomenon.
  • (ii) Agitation to get the demands fulfilled are also part of democracy.
  • (iii) It is the duty of the government to accommodate such demands and get them solved through negotiation.
  • (iv) A country like India has a lot of diversity and differences.
  • (v) The expression of the demands and differences pacifies the anger of the people.
  • (vi) In democracy, power-sharing is very significant. So, different regions may ask for a separate state or autonomy.

Therefore, efforts should be made to pacify and fulfill the justified needs of every region.

Or any other relevant point (Any three)

Q65.2023 Supp. 59/C/1 · Q29(a)6 marks

Highlight any three factors responsible for the controversial and conflict-ridden politics of Jammu and Kashmir since Independence.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/C/1

Controversial and Conflictive factors:-

  • (i) The status of Jammu and Kashmir within the Indian Union.
  • (ii) Special provision under Articles 370 and 371 did not allow full integration of the state with India.
  • (iii) The promise that accession of J&K would be referred to the people of the State after the situation was normalised.
  • (iv) There was a feeling that the special federal status guaranteed by article 370, had been eroded in practice therefore a demand for autonomy or ‘Greater Autonomy’ was raised.
  • (v) It was felt that democracy which is practised in the rest of India has not been similarly institutionalised in the state of Jammu and Kashmir.

Or any other relevant point (any three points)

Part B · Politics in India since Independence

8. Recent Developments in Indian Politics

Q1.2026 Main 59/1/1 · Q81 mark

Arrange the following events in chronological order :

  1. Assassination of former Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi.
  2. Formation of the First Non-Congress coalition government at the centre.
  3. Sixteenth Lok Sabha elections.
  4. The Mandal Commission gave its recommendations.

Choose the correct option :

  1. (ii), (iii), (i), (iv)
  2. (i), (iv), (iii), (ii)
  3. (iv), (ii), (i), (iii)
  4. (iii), (i), (ii), (iv)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/1/1

(C) (iv), (ii), (i), (iii)

Q2.2026 Main 59/1/1 · Q111 mark

Identify the political party which has had a continuous growth in its Lok Sabha seats in the General Elections from 2009 to 2019.

  1. Indian National Congress (INC)
  2. Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP)
  3. Shiv Sena (SS)
  4. Communist Party of India (CPI)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/1/1

(B) Bhartiya Janta Party (BJP)

Q3.2026 Main 59/2/1 · Q81 mark

Which was the last state toured by Rajiv Gandhi for his election campaign in May 1991 ?

  1. Tamil Nadu
  2. Karnataka
  3. Kerala
  4. Andhra Pradesh
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/2/1

(A) Tamil Nadu

Q4.2026 Main 59/2/1 · Q121 mark

The alliance that has formed the government at the centre the maximum number of times :

  1. United Progressive Alliance (UPA)
  2. National Front
  3. United Front
  4. National Democratic Alliance (NDA)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/2/1

(D) National Democratic Alliance (NDA)

Q5.2026 Main 59/5/1 · Q111 mark

The government of which political party/alliance decided to implement the recommendations of the Mandal Commission ?

  1. Indian National Congress
  2. National Front
  3. United Front
  4. Janata Party
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/5/1

(B) National Front

Q6.2026 Main 59/5/1 · Q121 mark

Choose the name of that political party which has Gandhian Socialism along with cultural nationalism as its ideology.

  1. Socialist Party
  2. Janata Party
  3. National Conference
  4. Bharatiya Janata Party
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/5/1

(D) Bhartiya Janata Party

Q7.2026 Supp. 59/7/1 · Q111 mark

Match the following correctly :

1. The Government of 2019(i) BJP
2. Implementation of the Recommendations of Mandal Commission(ii) NDA
3. Gandhian Socialism(iii) National Front
4. New Economic Reforms(iv) PV Narasimha Rao

Codes :

  1. 1-(ii), 2-(iv), 3-(i), 4-(iii)
  2. 1-(ii), 2-(iii), 3-(i), 4-(iv)
  3. 1-(iii), 2-(i), 3-(ii), 4-(iv)
  4. 1-(ii), 2-(iv), 3-(iii), 4-(i)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/7/1

(B) (1) - (ii), (2) - (iii), (3) - (i), (4) - (iv)

Q8.2026 Supp. 59/7/1 · Q121 mark

Who amongst the following worked as Prime Minister of India for the longest period ?

  1. P.V. Narasimha Rao
  2. V.P. Singh
  3. Atal Bihari Vajpayee
  4. Manmohan Singh
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/7/1

(D) Manmohan Singh

Q9.2025 Main 59/1/1 · Q111 mark

BJP led alliance of 2019 is known as :

  1. United Progressive Alliance
  2. United Front
  3. National Democratic Alliance
  4. Democratic Coalition
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/1/1

(C) National Democratic Alliance

Q10.2025 Main 59/1/1 · Q121 mark

Who led the Central Government after the 1999 Lok Sabha Elections ?

  1. P.V. Narasimha Rao
  2. Atal Bihari Vajpayee
  3. Manmohan Singh
  4. H.D. Deve Gauda
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/1/1

(B) Atal Bihari Vajpayee

Q11.2025 Main 59/4/1 · Q111 mark

During the tenure of which Prime Minister were the new economic reforms started ?

  1. V.P. Singh
  2. Atal Bihari Vajpayee
  3. Rajiv Gandhi
  4. I.K. Gujral
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/4/1

(C) Rajiv Gandhi

Q12.2025 Main 59/4/1 · Q121 mark

Choose the correct name of the alliance made by the Indian National Congress in the elections of 2004.

  1. National Democratic Alliance
  2. United Progressive Alliance
  3. National Front
  4. United Front
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/4/1

(B) United Progressive Alliance

Q13.2025 Main 59/5/1 · Q111 mark

Choose the correct name of the alliance made by the Indian National Congress in the elections of 2004.

  1. National Democratic Alliance
  2. United Progressive Alliance
  3. National Front
  4. United Front
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/5/1

(B) United Progressive Alliance

Q14.2025 Main 59/5/1 · Q121 mark

Which one of the following political parties embraced ‘Gandhian Socialism’ as its ideology ?

  1. Bharatiya Janata Party
  2. Communist Party of India
  3. National Conference
  4. Socialist Party
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/5/1

(A) Bharatiya Janata Party

Q15.2025 Main 59/6/1 · Q51 mark

Who among the following Prime Ministers radically changed the direction of the Indian economy ?

  1. Atal Bihari Vajpayee
  2. Chandra Shekhar
  3. V.P. Singh
  4. P.V. Narsimha Rao
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/6/1

(D) P.V. Narsimha Rao

Q16.2025 Main 59/6/1 · Q111 mark

Choose the name of the Prime Minister who led the National Front Government in 1989.

  1. Chandra Shekhar
  2. V.P. Singh
  3. P.V. Narsimha Rao
  4. H.D. Deve Gowda
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/6/1

(B) V.P. Singh

Q17.2024 Main 59/1/1 · Q111 mark

Arrange the following Prime Ministers of India in the chronological order as per their period of rule :

  1. H.D. Deve Gowda
  2. Chandra Shekhar
  3. P.V. Narsimha Rao
  4. V.P. Singh

Choose the correct option.

  1. (i), (ii), (iv), (iii)
  2. (iii), (iv), (ii), (i)
  3. (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
  4. (iv), (ii), (iii), (i)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/1/1

(D) (iv), (ii), (iii), (i)

Q18.2024 Main 59/1/1 · Q121 mark

Match List-I with the List-II and choose the correct option :

List-IList-II
1. Clear majority in the 17th Lok Sabha(i) National Front Government
2. Implementation of the recommendations of the Mandal Commission(ii) United Front Government
3. Prime Minister H.D. Deve Gowda(iii) United Progressive Alliance Government
4. Prime Minister Manmohan Singh(iv) National Democratic Alliance

Options :

  1. 1-(iv), 2-(i), 3-(ii), 4-(iii)
  2. 1-(i), 2-(ii), 3-(iii), 4-(iv)
  3. 1-(iv), 2-(iii), 3-(ii), 4-(i)
  4. 1-(i), 2-(iv), 3-(ii), 4-(iii)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/1/1

(A) 1-(iv), 2-(i), 3-(ii), 4-(iii)

Q19.2023 Main 59/1/1 · Q111 mark

Who among the following was the first Prime Minster to start economic reforms in India ?

  1. Indira Gandhi
  2. Rajiv Gandhi
  3. Manmohan Singh
  4. Inder Kumar Gujral
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/1/1

(b) Rajiv Gandhi

Q20.2023 Main 59/2/1 · Q111 mark

Arrange the following in chronological order :

  1. Implementation of recommendations of Mandal Commission.
  2. Appointment of Manmohan Singh as Prime Minister for the first time.
  3. Signing of the Punjab Accord with Longowal.
  4. Appointment of Rajiv Gandhi as Prime Minister.

Choose the correct option :

  1. (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)
  2. (iv), (iii), (i), (ii)
  3. (iii), (iv), (i), (ii)
  4. (iv), (i), (ii), (iii)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/2/1

(b) (iv), (iii), (i), (ii)

Q21.2023 Main 59/2/1 · Q121 mark

Who among the following introduced a policy of reservations for OBCs for the first time ?

  1. Karpoori Thakur
  2. B.P. Mandal
  3. Indira Gandhi
  4. Mayawati
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/2/1

(a) Karpoori Thakur

Q22.2023 Main 59/3/1 · Q31 mark

Which Prime Minister initiated new economic reforms in India ?

  1. Rajeev Gandhi
  2. Manmohan Singh
  3. V.P. Singh
  4. H.D. Deve Gowda
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/3/1

(a) Rajiv Gandhi

Q23.2023 Supp. 59/C/1 · Q111 mark

Rearrange the following events in a chronological order :

  1. Lok Sabha Elections after which United Progressive Alliance (UPA) came to power at the Centre.
  2. Bahujan Samaj Party achieved first breakthrough in Uttar Pradesh.
  3. The Mandal Commission gave its recommendations.
  4. H.D. Deve Gowda became the Prime Minister of India.

Choose the correct option.

  1. (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
  2. (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)
  3. (iii), (ii), (iv), (i)
  4. (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/C/1

(c) (iii), (ii), (iv), (i)

Q24.2023 Supp. 59/C/1 · Q121 mark

For Question number 12, two statements are given — one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Read these statements carefully and choose the correct option as the answer from the options (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below.

Assertion (A): A major change in Indian politics after 2014 is the shift from caste and religion-based politics to development and governance-oriented.

Reason (R): The NDA III government started several socio-economic welfare schemes for the masses.

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/C/1

(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).

Q25.SQP 2026-27 · Q91 mark

Match the items given in the Column-'A' correctly with the items given in the Column-'B' and choose the correct answer from the codes given below:

Column-'A'Column-'B'
IPolitics of ConsensusiStructural Adjustment Programme
IINew Economic PolicyiiH.D. Deve Gowda
IIIRise of Coalition PoliticsiiiA broad agreement among most parties on economic policies despite competition
IVThe United Front GovernmentivGrowing strength and importance of regional parties in national government formation

Choose the correct option:

  1. I-iii, II-i, III-iv, IV-ii
  2. I-iv, II-i, I-iii, IV-ii
  3. I-iv, II-iii, III-ii, IV-i
  4. I-ii, II-iv, III-iii, IV-i
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 · Marking Scheme

(A) I-iii, II-i, III-iv, IV-ii

Q26.2026 Main 59/2/1 · Q182 marks

Analyse the main reason responsible for the formation of Coalition Governments after 1989.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/2/1

After the decline of Congress dominance, no political party could get a clear majority to form the government after 1989. It was also a compulsion to avoid mid term elections and political instability.

Q27.2026 Main 59/3/1 · Q182 marks

Analyse any two factors responsible for the change in the nature of coalition governments at the Centre after the General Elections of 2014.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/3/1

Nature of coalition government after the General Elections of 2014-

(i) Coalition government with a party having clear majority.

(ii) Regional parties got dominance and became a part of decision making process.

(iii) Absence of strong leadership in opposition.

(iv) After 2014, coalition governments are not out of compulsion but for increasing the area of influence and winning the confidence of regional parties.

(or any other relevant point) ( any two points to be analysed)

Q28.2026 Main 59/4/1 · Q182 marks

Analyse any two major problems of Indian politics from 1989 to 1999.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/4/1

Problems of Indian Politics from 1989 to 1999

(i) Weak coalition governments - those could not make strong decisions.

(ii) Implementation of the recommendations of the Mandal Commission led to unrest and large scale violence.

(iii) The string of secularism had weakened.

(iv) No political party could get with clear majority to form a stable government.

(any other relevant point) (Any two)

Q29.2026 Main 59/5/1 · Q182 marks

Explain any two immediate consequences of the implementation of the recommendations of the Mandal Commission in August 1990.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/5/1
  • The decision sparked agitations and violent protest in many cities of North India.
  • The decision was also challenged in the Supreme Court and came to be known as ‘Indira Sawhney Case’.
  • There were some differences among political parties about the manner of implementation of this decision.

(Any two)

Q30.2025 Main 59/7/1 · Q172 marks

Name any four Prime Ministers of India who ruled for less than a year.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/7/1
  1. V.P. Singh
  2. Chandrashekhar
  3. H.D. Deve Gowda
  4. I.K. Gujral

(any two) (½ + ½ + ½ + ½ = 2)

Q31.2025 Supp. 59/S/1 · Q172 marks

Name any two Prime Ministers of India who were appointed as Prime Minister three times after 1989.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/S/1

(1) Atal Bihari Vajpayee

(2) Narendra Modi

(1 + 1 = 2)

Q32.2024 Main 59/1/1 · Q182 marks

Explain any two changes that came in Indian politics after 2014 as compared to the period 1989 to 2014.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/1/1
  • (i) 2014 onwards BJP alone got a clear majority. However, during 1989-2014 no single party got a clear majority on its own.
  • (ii) During period 1989-2014, regional parties played a crucial role in forming government at Centre but 2014 onwards regional parties continued to be in power at the Centre inspite of a clear majority by a single party. In this case it is BJP.
Q33.2024 Main 59/2/1 · Q182 marks

Assess any two advantages of coalition governments at the Centre.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/2/1

Advantages of coalition government-

  • (i) It gives an opportunity to regional parties to become a part of government at the centre.
  • (ii) Addresses the regional aspirations effectively.
  • (iii) It saves time and money.
  • (iv) On many crucial issues, a broad agreement emerges among the coalition government.
  • (v) It emphasizes pragmatic considerations rather than ideological positions and political alliances without ideological agreement.

(Or any other relevant point) (Any Two)

Q34.2024 Main 59/4/1 · Q182 marks

Highlight any two recommendations of the Mandal Commission.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/4/1

The Recommendation of the Mandal Commission:

  1. The commission advised that ‘backward classes’ should be understood to mean ‘backward castes’, since many castes, other than the scheduled castes, were also treated as low in the caste hierarchy.
  2. Reservation of 27% of seats in educational institutions and government jobs for these groups.
  3. To bring about land reforms, to improve the conditions of the OBCs.

(Any two points) (2x1=2)

Q35.2024 Main 59/5/1 · Q182 marks

Explain any two advantages of Coalition governments.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/5/1

Advantages of Coalition government:

  1. Helps to form stable governments.
  2. Regional parties get representation.

Or any other relevant advantage.

(any two advantages) (2x1=2)

Q36.2024 Supp. 59/S/1 · Q182 marks

Name any four Prime Ministers of India who remained in power for less than a year.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/S/1
  1. Gulzari Lal Nanda
  2. Charan Singh
  3. V. P. Singh
  4. Chandra Shekhar
  5. H.D. Deve Gowda
  6. Inder Kumar Gujral

(any four) (4x½=2)

Q37.2023 Main 59/1/1 · Q162 marks

Name any four regional parties which have ever formed their government in any State.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/1/1
  1. BSP- Bahujan Samajwadi Party-Uttar Pradesh
  2. AGP-Asom Gana Parishad-Assam
  3. Akali Dal-Punjab
  4. Shiv Sena-Maharashtra
  5. National Conference-J&K

Or any other (any four) 4×½=2

Q38.2023 Main 59/1/1 · Q172 marks

Highlight any two recommendations of the Mandal Commission.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/1/1

Recommendations of the Mandal Commission.

  1. Reservation of 27 percent of seats in educational institutions and govt jobs for backward classes.
  2. Backward classes should be understood as castes other than the Schedule Castes.
  3. Land Reforms to improve the condition of OBCs.

(Any two) 2×1=2

Q39.2023 Main 59/1/1 · Q182 marks

In which year was the first coalition government formed in India and why ?

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/1/1

First Coalition government was formed in the year 1989. As the Congress party could not win a clear majority of seats in Lok Sabha. V.P.Singh formed the Coalition government with the help of specific National Front and Janata Dal alliance of BJP and the Left Front.

Or

Even if a candidate mentions about a State govt, the marks should be award

For example

At state level, first coalition governments were formed in 1967 in states viz.

Because no single party could win the majority.

1+1=2

Q40.2023 Main 59/2/1 · Q162 marks

State any two programmes launched by the NDA government after 2014 for women’s help and progress.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/2/1
  1. Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana,
  2. Swachh Bharat Abhiyan,
  3. Jan-Dhan Yojana,
  4. Deendayal Upadhyaya Gram Jyoti Yojana,
  5. Kisan Fasal Bima Yojna, Beti Bachao Beti Padhao,
  6. Ayushman Bharat Yojana, etc.

Or any other (any two) 2×1=2

Q41.2023 Main 59/2/1 · Q172 marks

Identify and name of any two Prime Ministers of India who remained in power for less than a year.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/2/1
  1. H.D. Deve Gowda
  2. I.K. Gujral
  3. Chandra Shekhar
  4. Charan Singh
  5. V.P.Singh

(or any other relevant answer) (any two) 2×1=2

Q42.2023 Main 59/3/1 · Q132 marks

In what way are the coalition governments more democratic ? Assess.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/3/1

Coalition governments are more democratic in many ways:-

  1. They eliminate the fear of one party dominance.
  2. Different groups and regions get due representation in the government.
  3. Many parties come together on different issues.
  4. They keep in view the regional aspirations and interests.

(Or any other relevant point) (Any two)

Q43.2023 Main 59/4/1 · Q162 marks

Why is it necessary for coalition governments to accommodate and aggregate variety of interests ? Explain.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/4/1

It is necessary:

  • To fulfil the demands and aspirations of the people of different regions.
  • To accommodate different regional political parties.
  • To maintain the culture of ‘India’s unity in Diversity’ so that there should be no space for separatist movement in India.
  • To make the democratic system more inclusive and representative in nature.

Any other relevant point (any two)

Q44.2022 Main 59/1/1 · Q82 marks

Why did the first coalition government at the Centre in India not prove to be stable ? Analyse the major reason.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 59/1/1
  1. Due to differences in their ideologies.
  2. Regional political parties had their own interests.
  3. The implementation of recommendation Mandal Commission – Which led to large-scale opposition and violence.

(Any two)

Q45.2022 Main 59/3/1 · Q82 marks

Why are coalition governments formed ? Explain.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 59/3/1

When no single party is able to secure a clear majority to form the Government, two or more parties join together to attain majority in the legislature to be able to form the Government.

Q46.2022 Main 59/4/1 · Q32 marks

Mention any two recommendations of the Mandal Commission.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 59/4/1

Two recommendations of the Mandal Commission :

  1. Reserving 27% seats in educational institutions and Government jobs for OBCs.
  2. Land reforms to improve the conditions of the OBCs.
  3. The Commission also recommended backward classes should be that understood to mean backward ‘castes’.

(Any two points)

Q47.2022 Main 59/4/1 · Q52 marks

Why is National Democratic Alliance (NDA) III called a ‘Surplus Majority Coalition’ ? Explain.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 59/4/1

The NDA III coalition is a coalition of BJP with other regional parties in which BJP has absolute majority on its own. The support of other parties is additional. Hence it is called a ‘surplus majority coalition’.

(Assess as a whole)

Q48.2022 Main 59/5/1 · Q32 marks

Why was the judgement in the Shah Bano case challenged ? Explain.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 59/5/1

It was taken as an interference in the Muslim Personal Law.

Q49.2022 Supp. 59/6/1 · Q1(a)2 marks

In what way do the coalition governments prove to be more democratic than the one-party governments ?

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/6/1

Coalition government proved to be more democratic in many ways-

  • They eliminate the fear of one party dictatorship.
  • Different groups and regions get due representation in the government.
  • Due to Coalition government many parties come together on different issues.
  • The Regional aspirations are also fulfilled.

(or any other point)

Q50.2022 Supp. 59/6/1 · Q1(b)2 marks

Highlight the names of any four Prime Ministers of India who have led the coalition governments.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/6/1
  1. V.P. Singh
  2. Chandra Shekhar
  3. P.V. Narsimha Rao
  4. A.B. Vajpayee
  5. H.D. Deve Gowda
  6. I.K. Gujaral
  7. Manmohan Singh

(Any four) 4×½=2

Q51.2022 Supp. 59/6/1 · Q22 marks

Explain any two features of BAMCEF.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/6/1
  1. BAMCEF was not an ordinary trade union of government employees. It took a strong position in favour of political power to the ‘bahujan.’
  2. It addresses the problems of its members. Its principle concern was justice and social equality for the entire society.

2×1=2

Q52.SQP 2025-26 · Q162 marks

Why was Mandal Commission appointed? Explain the reason.

Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 · Marking Scheme
  1. Mandal Commission was appointed to investigate the extent of educational and social backwardness among various sections of Indian society.
  2. To recommend ways of identifying the backward classes and the ways to end this backwardness.

(or Any other relevant point/s)

Q53.2026 Main 59/2/1 · Q19(a)4 marks

Explain any four differences between the governments formed in the first three General Elections held in India after independence and the coalition governments formed after the year 1989.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/2/1
Governments formed in first three general electionsCoalition Governments formed after 1989
(1) Single party governance emerged.(1) Coalition governments were formed.
(2) Stable governments were formed.(2) Unstable governments emerged.
(3) Focus was on national issues.(3) Focus was on regional issues.
(4) Regional parties were not considered important.(4) Regional parties got an opportunity to participate in the central government.
(5) Role of opposition was nominal.(5) Opposition was stronger than before.
(6) Majority was the strength of the government.(6) Even a single seat became important for the government.

(or any other relevant point presented in a paragraph or tabular form) (Any four)

Q54.2026 Main 59/2/1 · Q19(b)4 marks

Explain any four advantages of coalition governments with reference to Indian politics.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/2/1

(i) Regional parties get an opportunity to participate in the central government

(ii) Governments became more democratic.

(iii) Saves money and time by not conducting mid-term elections.

(iv) Most of the parties and leaders have a say in political matters.

(v) Inclusion of regional interests.

(vi) Regional parties get a chance to be a part of national decision making process.

(vii) Representation of diversity.

(viii) Discourages dominance or dictatorship of a single party.

(or any other relevant point) (Any four)

Q55.2026 Main 59/5/1 · Q244 marks

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions based on it :

“The defeat of the Congress party in 1989 marked the end of Congress dominance over the Indian party system. It did not, however, mean the emergence of any other single party to fill in its place. Thus, began an era of multi-party system, in which regional parties played a crucial role in forming the alliances.”

(i) In which year did the Congress party face a setback for the first time and lose power in some states ?

  1. 1962
  2. 1967
  3. 1971
  4. 1977

(ii) Which political party/alliance formed the first coalition government in December 1989 ?

  1. National Conference
  2. National Front
  3. Indian National Congress
  4. United Front

(iii) Which one of the following regional parties never formed a government in any state ?

  1. Bahujan Samaj Party
  2. Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam
  3. Bharatiya Kranti Dal
  4. Shiromani Akali Dal

(iv) Which party was the largest party in the Lok Sabha after the 1989 elections ?

  1. National Front
  2. Indian National Congress
  3. Bharatiya Janata Party
  4. Janata Party
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/5/1

(i) (B) 1967

(ii) (B) National Front.

(iii) (C) Bhartiya Kranti Dal.

(iv) (B) Indian National Congress

Q56.2025 Main 59/2/1 · Q22(a)4 marks

Explain any two reasons for the beginning of a long phase of coalition politics in India since 1989.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/2/1

Reasons:-

  1. No single political party was able to get majority despite of Congress being the largest party in Lok Sabha elections in 1989. So the National Front formed a coalition government.
  2. Decline of the Congress dominance started since 1989 over the Indian Party system.
  3. Rise of Regional Parties in the Lok Sabha elections.
  4. Emergence of powerful parties and movements that represented The Dalits and backward castes.

or any other relevant point (two reasons to be explained) (2x2=4)

Q57.2025 Main 59/2/1 · Q22(b)4 marks

Explain the role of ‘Other Backward Classes’ in the Indian politics.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/2/1

Role of OBCs in Indian Politics:

  1. The support for the Congress among many sections of backward classes had declined. This created a space for non-congress parties that drew more support from these communities.
  2. These parties had first found expression at the national level in the form of the Janata Party government in 1977.
  3. Parties like the Bharatiya Kranti Dal and the Samyukta Socialist Party had a powerful rural base among some sections of the OBC.
  4. In the 1980s the Janata Dal brought together different political groups with strong support among the OBCs.
  5. The implementation of Mandal Commission further helped in shaping the politics of OBCs.

or any other relevant point. (any four points) (4x1=4)

Q58.2025 Main 59/2/1 · Q254 marks

In the given political outline map of India, four states have been marked as (A), (B), (C) and (D). Identify these states on the basis of the information given below and write their correct names in your answer-book along with the respective serial numbers of the information used and the concerned alphabets as per the format that follows :

Serial number for the information usedAlphabet concernedName of the States
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
  1. The state, where the assassination of Rajiv Gandhi took place.
  2. The state where Karpoori Thakur was a Chief Minister.
  3. The state where UPA won the majority of seats in Lok Sabha elections in 2004.
  4. The state where Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP) achieved a breakthrough in 1989 & 1991 elections.

Figure from the paper

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/2/1
Sr. no. of the information usedConcerned Alphabet given in the mapName of Countries/State
(i)DTamil Nadu
(ii)ABihar
(iii)BAndhra Pradesh
(iv)CUttar Pradesh

(4x1=4)

Q59.2025 Main 59/2/1 · Q25 (VI)4 marks

Note : The following questions are only for the Visually Impaired Candidates in lieu of question number 25. Name the following :

(25.1) Name the state where Rajiv Gandhi was assassinated.

(25.2) Name the state where Karpoori Thakur was a Chief Minister.

(25.3) Name the state where Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP) achieved a breakthrough in 1989 & 1991 elections.

(25.4) Name the alliance that formed government at the centre in 1989.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/2/1

(25.1) Tamil Nadu

(25.2) Bihar

(25.3) Uttar Pradesh

(25.4) National Front

(1+1+1+1=4)

Q60.2025 Main 59/7/1 · Q234 marks

Explain any two developments that took place in Indian politics after 1989 which made a long lasting impact on its politics.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/7/1

Development that took place in Indian politics after the year 1989 :

  1. Defeat of the Congress party in 1989
  2. Implementation of the Recommendations of the Mandal Comission.
  3. Implementation of New Economic Policies.
  4. Demolition of the disputed structure at Ayodhya
  5. Assassination of Rajiv Gandhi.

(Any two with explanation) (2 × 2 = 4)

Q61.2024 Main 59/1/1 · Q264 marks

The given cartoon is related to the era of coalition governments. Study the cartoon and answer the questions that follow :

Figure from the paper

(i) Identify and name the leader who is holding the placard ‘Rath Yatra’.

(ii) Which political party organised the ‘Rath Yatra’ ?

(iii) Identify and name any two Prime Ministers shown in the cartoon who led the coalition governments.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/1/1

(i) L.K. Advani

(ii) Bharatiya Janata Party

(iii) V.P.Singh and Chandra Shekhar

(1+1+2=4)

Q62.2024 Main 59/1/1 · Q26 (VI)4 marks

Note : The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates only, in lieu of Q. No. 26 :

(26.1) Which coalition government decided to implement the recommendations of the Mandal Commission and why ?

(26.2) Name the first Non-Congress Prime Minister of India.

(26.3) Name the Prime Minister who headed a coalition government from May 1996 to June 1996.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/1/1

26.1

  • National Front Government headed by V.P Singh
  • It decided to implement the recommendation of the Mandal Commission to shape the politics of OBCs.

26.2 Morarji Desai

26.3 H.D. Deve Gowda

(2+1+1=4)

Q63.2024 Main 59/3/1 · Q22(a)4 marks

How did the coalition governments prove to be a boon for democracy in India ? Explain.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/3/1

Coalition governments prove to be a boon as

  • (i) These led to pragmatic politics.
  • (ii) Coalition governments led to consensus on many conflicting issues.
  • (iii) Enhanced the participation and importance of regional parties in national politics.
  • (iv) Regional aspirations and demands came into the limelight and steps were taken to address those.
  • (v) Many disputed issues were put off due to minimum common program.

(Or any other relevant point) (any two)

Q64.2024 Main 59/3/1 · Q22(b)4 marks

In the 2014 elections, why were people in favour of a stable government at the Centre ? Explain any two reasons.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/3/1

Reasons

  • (i) People were fed up with the previous experience of coalition governments.
  • (ii) Many important decisions could not be taken due to varying interests of coalition partners.
  • (iii) Expectation for a corruption free government for economic growth.

(Any other relevant point) (any two)

Q65.2024 Main 59/3/1 · Q244 marks

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow :

The 1980s also saw the rise of political organisations of the Dalits. In 1978 the ‘BAMCEF’ was formed. This organisation was not an ordinary trade union of government employees. It took a strong position in favour of political power to the ‘bahujan’ – the SC, ST, OBC and minorities. It was out of this that the subsequent Dalit Shoshit Samaj Sangharsh Samiti and later the Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP) emerged.

(i) Choose the correct full form of BAMCEF :

  1. Bahujan and Minority Communities Employees Federation
  2. Bahujan and Minority Communities Employees Foundation
  3. Backward and Minority Communities Employees Federation
  4. Backward and Minority Communities Employees Foundation

(ii) In which year was the Bahujan Samaj Party formed ?

  1. 1981
  2. 1984
  3. 1989
  4. 1991

(iii) Who was the founder leader of Bahujan Samaj Party ?

  1. B.R. Ambedkar
  2. Mayawati
  3. Mulayam Singh
  4. Kanshi Ram

(iv) In which State did the Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP) form its first government ?

  1. Punjab
  2. Haryana
  3. Uttar Pradesh
  4. Rajasthan
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/3/1

(i) (C) Backward and Minority Communities Employees Federation

(ii) (B) 1984

(iii) (D) Kanshi Ram

(iv) (C) Uttar Pradesh

Q66.2023 Main 59/1/1 · Q254 marks

In the given political outline map of India (on page 15), four States/Union Territories have been marked as (A), (B), (C) and (D). Identify these States/Union Territories on the basis of the information given below and write their correct names in your answer-book along with the respective serial number of the information used and the concerned alphabets given in the map as per the following format :

Serial number of the information usedConcerned alphabet given in the mapName of the State
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
  1. The State to which the Chairman of the Mandal Commission, B.P. Mandal, belonged.
  2. The State where Bahujan Samaj Party formed its first government.
  3. The Union Territory which was constituted in 2019.
  4. The State from which the political party Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam originated.

Figure from the paper

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/1/1
Serial number of the information usedConcerned alphabet given in the mapName of the State
(i)BBihar
(ii)DUttar Pradesh
(iii)AJammu & Kashmir
(iv)CTamil Nadu

4×1=4

Q67.2023 Main 59/1/1 · Q25 (VI)4 marks

Note : The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates only, in lieu of Q. No. 25 :

(25.1) Name the founder leader of the Bahujan Samaj Party.

(25.2) Who was the first Non-Congress Prime Minister of India ?

(25.3) B.P. Mandal, the chairman of Mandal Commission belonged to which State of India ?

(25.4) Which Union Territory was constituted in 2019 ?

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/1/1

25.1 Kanshi Ram

25.2 Morarji Desai

25.3 Bihar

25.4 Jammu and Kashmir

4×1=4

Q68.2023 Main 59/3/1 · Q224 marks

Describe any four changes in Indian politics after the 2014 elections.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/3/1

Changes in Indian Politics after 2014:-

  1. End of Congress Party led coalition government (UPA).
  2. Rise of BJP with absolute majority in Lok Sabha.
  3. Continuation of coalition (NDA) with regional parties in spite of absolute majority.
  4. Regional Parties are being accommodated to respect diversity.
  5. Pre poll alliance is a new trend in Indian politics.
  6. Development and governance based politics is on the rise.

(Or any other relevant point) (Any four) 4×1=4

Q69.2022 Main 59/2/1 · Q104 marks

Describe any four important events of the Indian politics from 1989 to 1993.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 59/2/1

Events between 1989 to 1993—

  1. Defeat of the Congress Party in the elections held in 1989.
  2. The implementation of the Mandal Commission in 1990 which lead to large scale violence.
  3. New economic reforms started by Rajiv Gandhi and later by Narsimha Rao in 1991.
  4. The Assassination of Rajiv Gandhi in May, 1991 in Tamil Nadu.
  5. Demolition of the disputed structure at Ayodhya (knowns as Babri Masjid) in 1992.

Any other event (Any four)

Q70.2022 Main 59/2/1 · Q114 marks

In the given political outline map of India (on page 7), four States have been marked as (A), (B), (C) and (D). Identify these States on the basis of the information given below and write their correct names in your answer-book along with the respective serial number of the information used and the concerned alphabets given in the map as per the following format :

Serial number of the information usedConcerned alphabet in the mapName of the State
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
  1. The State to which B.P. Mandal, the Chairman of Mandal Commission, belonged.
  2. The State where Somnath Temple is situated.
  3. The State which was most concerned about the ethnic problems in Sri Lanka.
  4. The State where Bahujan Samaj Party formed the government.

Figure from the paper

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 59/2/1
Sl. No. of the information usedRelated Alphabet in the mapName of the States
(i)(c)Bihar
(ii)(a)Gujarat
(iii)(d)Tamil Nadu
(iv)(b)Uttar Pradesh
Q71.2022 Main 59/2/1 · Q11 (VI)4 marks

Note : The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates only, in lieu of Q. No. 11 :

(11.1) From which State was B.P. Mandal elected as Member of Parliament in 1967, who later chaired the Mandal Commission ?

(11.2) In which State did Bahujan Samaj Party achieve a breakthrough for the first time ?

(11.3) Name the Prime Minister who headed the first coalition government of National Front at the Centre.

(11.4) Karpoori Thakur, the Chief Minister who introduced the policy of reservation for OBCs, belonged to which State ?

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 59/2/1

11.1 Bihar

11.2 Uttar Pradesh

11.3 Sh. V.P Singh

11.4 Bihar

Q72.2022 Main 59/4/1 · Q94 marks

Why is the implementation of the recommendations of the Mandal Commission considered a step to eradicate social and economic backwardness ? Highlight any two reasons.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 59/4/1
  1. The Mandal Commission was set up in 1978 to look into the extent of educational and social backwardness among various sections of Indian society, to recommend ways in which the backwardness could be ended.
  2. The Commission surveyed and found that these backward castes had a very low presence in both educational institutions and in employment in public services.
  3. It recommended reserving 27% of seats in educational institutions and government jobs to improve the conditions of the OBCs.

Thus, the implementation of these recommendations was considered a step to eradicate social and economic backwardness of various sections of the Indian society.

(Any two reasons)

Q73.2022 Supp. 59/6/1 · Q114 marks

On the given political outline map of India (on page 7), four States have been marked as (A), (B), (C) and (D). Identify these States on the basis of the information given below and write their correct names in your answer-book along with the respective serial number of the information used and the concerned alphabets given in the map as per the following format :

Serial number of the information usedConcerned alphabet in the mapName of the State
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
  1. The State where Bahujan Samaj Party formed its first government.
  2. The State to which K. Kamaraj belonged.
  3. The latest Union Territory of the Indian Union.
  4. The State from where Bharatiya Janata Party began its Rath Yatra.

Figure from the paper

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/6/1
Serial number of the information usedConcerned alphabet in the mapName of the State
(i)BUttar Pradesh
(ii)CTamil Nadu
(iii)DJammu & Kashmir
(iv)AGujarat

4×1=4

Q74.2026 Main 59/1/1 · Q30(a)6 marks

Describe any four factors responsible for the rise of coalition governments at the centre after the year 1989.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/1/1

Factors :

(i) Rise of regional parties stopped the clear majority of national parties

(ii) Since 1980s regional movement helped the formation of coalition government.

(iii) No party would win clear majority and Congress lost its base.

(iv) Regional parties emerged and won seats which caused political instability.

(v) Coalition governments began to end political instability.

(or any other relevant factor) ( any four factors to be explained)

Q75.2026 Main 59/1/1 · Q30(b)6 marks

Describe any four issues on which a broad agreement has emerged among most political parties.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/1/1

Issues of agreement

(i) Agreement on new economic policies.

(ii) Acceptance of the political and social claims of the backward classes.

(iii) Acceptance of the role of state level parties in governance of the country.

(iv) Emphasis on pragmatic considerations rather than ideological position and political alliances without ideological agreement.

(or any other point) ( any four to be explained)

Q76.2026 Main 59/3/1 · Q29(a)6 marks

How did the Mandal Commission recommendations prove to be an effort to solve the problems of Other Backward Classes (OBCs) ? Analyse.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/3/1

(i) The primary objective to set up Mandal Commission was to investigate the extent of educational and social backwardness among various sections of Indian Society.

(ii) It recommended ways of identifying these ‘backward classes’.

(iii) The commission gave its recommendations in1980.

(iv) The commission found that backward classes had a very low presence in both educational institutions and in employment in public services.

(v) That is why, it recommended reserving 27% of seats in educational institutions and government jobs for these groups.

(v) The commission also made many other recommendations like land reforms, to improve the conditions of OBCs.

(vi) These recommendations definitely proved to be beneficial for OBCs and they got their identity in the society in true sense.

(any other relevant point) ( any three to be explained)

Q77.2026 Main 59/3/1 · Q29(b)6 marks

Examine any three grounds on which the regional parties support the various coalition governments formed at the Centre in India.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/3/1

Grounds are –

(i) To avoid the instability and midterm polls.

(ii) To be a part of National politics and Union government.

(iii) To get their regional demands and interest fulfilled.

(iv) All regional parties agreed in support of the new economic policies and believe that these policies would lead the country to prosperity and a status of economic power in the world.

(v) All regional parties support coalition government because they know that regional issues will be heard at national level.

(vi) These parties know that though many ideological differences may exist among coaliation government but there will be a power sharing arrangement in the coalition government.

(any other relevant point) (any three to be explained)

Q78.2026 Main 59/4/1 · Q30(a)6 marks

State any four major political happenings of the decade of the nineties which had a widespread impact.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/4/1

Four Happenings which had a widespread impact-

(i) Congress party lost its dominance in Indian politics.

(ii) Implementation of the recommendations of the Mandal Commission.

(iii) Adoption of New economic policies

(iv) Assassination of Rajiv Gandhi in 1991

(v) Politics of Hindutva gained momentum.

(vi) The era of coalition government began.

(vii) The importance of regional political parties increased.

(any other relevant point) (Any four with explanation)

Q79.2026 Main 59/4/1 · Q30(b)6 marks

Describe any four issues on which a broad agreement has emerged among most of the political parties in India.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 59/4/1

(i) Agreement on New economic policies.

(ii) Acceptance of the political and social claims of the backward castes (OBCs)

(iii) Acceptance of the role of regional political parties in government of the country.

(iv) Emphasis on pragmatic considerations rather than the ideological positions.

(any other relevant point (Any four with explanation)

Q80.2026 Supp. 59/7/1 · Q30(a)6 marks

Explain any three reasons for the political rise of Other Backward Classes (OBCs).

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/7/1

Reasons for the political rise of the OBCs

  1. Implementation of the recommendations of the Mandal Commission in 1990.
  2. The intense national debate for and against reservation in jobs made people from OBC communities more aware of their identity.
  3. Emergence of many parties that sought better opportunities for OBCs in education and employment and also raised the question of their share in power.
  4. Acceptance of the role of OBCs in politics by all the major political parties of India. No party was in a position to raise objection against reservation.

(Any other points) (Any three)

Q81.2026 Supp. 59/7/1 · Q30(b)6 marks

Explain any three reasons for the political rise of the Bharatiya Janata Party in Indian politics.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/7/1
  1. The BJP pursued the politics of’ Hindutva’ and adopted the strategy of mobilising the Hindus.
  2. Lok Sabha elections in 2014 led the Bhartiya Janata Party to win clear majority. But BJP formed the NDA government thus its strengthened its relations with the old partners.
  3. BJP projected itself as a party with difference, which worked for ‘Sabka Sath – Sabka Vikas.’
  4. It brought many new programmes to strengthen the poor – such as Jana Dhan Yojna and insurance for the poor and workers.
  5. It raised its voice against corruption.
  6. Won elections in many states and also Lok Sabha elections in 2019 and than in 2024.

(Any other point) (Any three)

Q82.2025 Main 59/1/1 · Q30(a)6 marks

Describe any three major developments that took place in Indian politics in the last decade of the 20th century.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/1/1

Major developments :

  1. Decline of Congress System
  2. Implementation of recommendations of Mandal Commmisson.
  3. New economic policy
  4. Demolition of the disputed structure of Babri Masjid
  5. Assassination of Rajiv Gandhi
  6. Emergence of the Era of coalitions

or any other relevant point (any three to be explained) (3x2=6)

Q83.2025 Main 59/1/1 · Q30(b)6 marks

Describe any three recommendations of the Mandal Commission to solve the problems of the other backward classes.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/1/1

Recommendation of Mandal Commission :

  1. The commission advised that backward classes should be understood to mean backward castes since many castes other than the SCs were also treated as low in caste hierarchy.
  2. Reservation of 27% seats in educational institutions and government jobs for other backward groups.
  3. It recommended land reforms to improve the conditions of OBCs.

Mandal Commission made recommendations for the economic and educational development of the backward classes/castes.

(Three points to be explained) (3x2=6)

Q84.2025 Main 59/4/1 · Q30(a)6 marks

“On many crucial issues, a broad agreement has emerged among most political parties in India.” Support the statement with any three examples.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/4/1

In the midst of severe competition and many conflicts, a consensus appears to have emerged among most parties on the following issues :

First-Agreement on new economic policies.

Second – Political and social claims of the backward castes and classes.

Third – acceptance of the role of state level or regional parties in governance of the country. The distinction between state level and National parties is becoming less important.

Fourth – Emphasis on pragmatic considerations rather than the ideological positions and political alliances without ideological agreements.

All these four can be seen in the present day politics.

(Any three points to be explained) (3 × 2 = 6)

Q85.2025 Main 59/4/1 · Q30(b)6 marks

“The decision of the National Front government to implement the recommendations of the Mandal Commission helped in shaping the politics of Other Backward Classes (OBCs).” Support the statement with three examples or arguments.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/4/1

OBC communities became more aware of their identity.

  1. It helped to mobolise OBC’s groups in politics.
  2. Emergence of many parties that sought better opportunities for OBC’s in education and in the employment.
  3. It raised the question of share of power enjoyed by OBC’s for adequate representation in administration and political power.

(or any other example/argument)

(any three example/argument to be explained ) (3 × 2 = 6)

Q86.2025 Main 59/5/1 · Q30(a)6 marks

Describe any four political developments in India that took place between 1988 to 1993.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/5/1

Political developments :

  1. Congress faced defeat in Lok Sabha elections in 1989.
  2. Implementation of Mandal Commission report in 1990 by National Front government.
  3. New economic reforms were initiated.
  4. Demolition of disputed structure of Babri Masjid.
  5. Assassination of Rajeev Gandhi and return of the Congress Party as single largest party in Parliament.
  6. Era of coalition started.

or any other relevant point (Any four to be expalined) (4 × 1½ = 6)

Q87.2025 Main 59/5/1 · Q30(b)6 marks

Describe any four consequences of the ‘Era of Coalition governments’ starting from 1989 to 2004.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/5/1

Consequences of Era of Coalition :

  1. Unstable governments came into power and could not take strong and bold steps.
  2. Regional parties got a chance to be a partner in decision making bodies for the whole country.
  3. Coalition era began a period of multiparty system in governance.
  4. Emergence of powerful participation of OBC’s in politics.
  5. Decline of Congress dominance.

or any other relevant point (Any four to be explained) (4 × 1½ = 6)

Q88.2025 Main 59/6/1 · Q30(a)6 marks

Describe any four new trends of Indian politics that can be noticed during the decade of 1990s.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/6/1

Trends :

  1. The Congress party was unable to get majority.
  2. No party was able to get clear mandate to form government at the centre.
  3. An era of coalition govt. started at the centre.
  4. Regional parties started emerging.
  5. Local level issues began to rise in the politics.
  6. Democracy could reach at the grassroot level.
  7. There was a rise of regional aspirations.

or any other relevant point (Any four points to be explained ) (4 × 1½ = 6)

Q89.2025 Main 59/6/1 · Q30(b)6 marks

Describe any four developments after 1989 that had a long lasting impact on Indian politics.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 59/6/1

Four developments after 1989-

  1. After the defeat of the Congress Party in 1989 – an era of coalition governments started.
  2. Political rise of the OBCs and rise of the Mandal Issue in National Politics.
  3. Assassination of Rajiv Gandhi lead to change in the leadership of Congress Party.
  4. Dr. Manmohan Singh ,the then FM, with PM Narasimha Rao, started New Economic Policy.
  5. Demolition of disputed structure of Babri Masjid.
  6. Rise of Bharatiya Janata Party.

or any other relevant point (Any four points to be explained) (4 × 1½ = 6)

Q90.2025 Supp. 59/S/1 · Q30(a)6 marks

Explain any three crucial issues on which a broad agreement has emerged among most political parties in India.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/S/1
  1. Agreement on new economic policies.
  2. Acceptance of the political and social claims of the other backward castes and classes.
  3. Acceptance of the role of state level parties in the National politics.
  4. Emphasis on pragmatic considerations rather than ideological position.
  5. On Foreign policy of India.

(any three to be explained) (3 × 2 = 6)

Q91.2025 Supp. 59/S/1 · Q30(b)6 marks

Explain the process of emergence of the Bharatiya Janata Party as a significant force in the Indian polity.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/S/1
  • After the fall of the Janata Party and its break up, the former leaders of Bharatiya Jana Sangh formed the Bharatiya Janata Party ( BJP) in 1980.
  • Initially, the BJP adopted a broader political platform and Gandhian Socialism as it's ideology, but didn't get much success in the elections held in 1980 and 1984.
  • After 1986, the party began to emphasize the Hindu nationalist element in its ideology and pursued the politics of 'Hindutva' and adopted the strategy of mobilizing the Hindus.
  • Two developments around 1986 became Central to the Politics of BJP. It gained popularity as 'Hindutva' party i.e the Shah Bano case in 1985 and order by the Faizabad District Court in February 1986.
  • BJP started the Rathyatra from Somnath to Ayodhya.
  • BJP continued to consolidate its position in the election of 1991 & 1996. It emerged as the largest party in 1996 and was invited to form the government. In 1999, it formed a coalition government under the leadership of Atal Bihari Vajpayee.
  • The sum total of all these movement turned the mood of the people to Pro BJP.
  • After two terms of UPA governments ,BJP won the elections in 2014 & 2019 and is in power for the third time.

(3 × 2 = 6)

Q92.2024 Main 59/2/1 · Q30(a)6 marks

Describe any four major developments in Indian politics since 1989.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/2/1

Major development in Indian politics since 1989-

  • (i) Defeat of Congress Party in the elections of 1989 marking the end of the Congress system.
  • (ii) Mandal issue in national politics.
  • (iii) The New Economic Policy- Liberalisation, Privation and Globalization (LPG).
  • (iv) Ayodhya Dispute.
  • (v) Assaniation of Rajiv Gandhi.

(or any other point) (Any four to be explained)

(4x1½=6)

Q93.2024 Main 59/2/1 · Q30(b)6 marks

Describe any three issues on which a general consensus has emerged among most of the political parties of India.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/2/1

Issues of general consensus-

  • (i) Agreement on New Economic Policies.
  • (ii) Acceptance of political and social clauses of the backward classes.
  • (iii) Acceptance of role of state level parties in governance of the country.
  • (iv) Emphasis on pragmatic consideration rather than ideologies.

(Explain any three points.)

Q94.2024 Main 59/4/1 · Q30(a)6 marks

Explain any three important issues on which a consensus has emerged among most political parties of India.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/4/1

Issues on which consensus has emerged among most political parties of India:

  1. Agreement on new economic policies.
  2. Acceptance of political and social claims of the backward castes.
  3. Acceptance of the role of state level parties in governance of the country.
  4. Emphasis on progamatic considerations rather than ideological positions and political alliances without ideological agreement.

(Any three points to be explained) (3x2=6)

Q95.2024 Main 59/4/1 · Q30(b)6 marks

Explain any three benefits of the coalition governments formed in India since 1989.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/4/1

Benefits of Coalition government formed in India since 1989:

  1. Opportunity to regional parties to become a part of government at centre.
  2. Regional aspirations are addressed effectively.
  3. Provide stability to government.

(Or any other relevant point) Brief explanations of any three points (3x2=6)

Q96.2024 Main 59/5/1 · Q29(a)6 marks

Explain any three major developments which took place in Indian politics during the last decade of the 20th century.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/5/1

Major developments:

  1. Decline of Congress System: The defeat of the Congress Party in the election of 1989 marked the end of Congress dominance over the Indian party system. It could win only 197 seats in Lok Sabha.
  2. Rise of Mandal Issue: The Mandal Issue started with the National Front Government’s decision to implement the recommendation of Mandal Commission the jobs in the Central government should be reserved for OBCs. This led to violent anti Mandal protests in different parts of the county.
  3. New Economic Policy: The government adopted new economic policy in 1991. It was started by Rajiv Gandhi. These changes first become visible in 1991. It radically changed the direction that the Indian economy had pursued since independence.
  4. Demolition of Babri Masjid or Ayodhya dispute: Ayodhya dispute started with the demolition of the disputed structure of Babri Masjid at Ayodhya in December 1992. It led to various changes in politics of the country. It raised the question about the nature of Indian nationalism and secularism.
  5. Assassination of Rajiv Gandhi: The assassination of Rajiv Gandhi in May 1991 led to change in the leadership of the Congress. In the election of 1991, Congress emerged as the single largest party. P.V. Narsimha Rao was elected as the Prime Minister of India.

(any three developments) (3x2=6)

Q97.2024 Main 59/5/1 · Q29(b)6 marks

In the midst of severe competition and many conflicts after 1989, a consensus appeared to have emerged among most parties. Explain any three points of consensus.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 59/5/1

This consensus consists of :

  1. Agreement on new economic policies : Most parties were in support of the new economic policies and believed that these policies would lead the country to prosperity and a status of economic power in the world.
  2. Acceptance of the political and social claims of the backward castes : Political parties had recognized that the social and political claims of the Backward Castes need to be accepted and supported reservation of seats for OBC in education and employment.
  3. Acceptance of the role of State level parties in governance of the country: State level parties were sharing power at the national level and had played a central role in the country’s politics.
  4. Emphasis on pragmatic considerations rather than ideological positions and political alliances without ideological agreement as most parties of the NDA did not agree with the ‘Hindutava’ ideology of the BJP. Yet, they came together to form a government and remained in power for a full term.

(any three consensus) (3x2=6)

Q98.2024 Supp. 59/S/1 · Q30(a)6 marks

Describe any four major political developments that took place in India from 1989 to 1999.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/S/1

Four major political developments that took place in India from 1989 to 1999 are:-

  1. Defeat of the Congress party in the Lok Sabha elections held in 1989.
  2. Rise of the ‘Mandal issue’ in national politics.
  3. New economic reforms or the structural adjustment programme
  4. Rise of the BJP and the politics of ‘Hindutava’.
  5. Assassination of Rajiv Gandhi in May 1991.

(Any Four with explanation) (4x1½=6)

Q99.2024 Supp. 59/S/1 · Q30(b)6 marks

Describe any four issues on which consensus has emerged among most political parties of India.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/S/1

Four issues on which consensus has emerged among most political parties of India-

  1. Agreement on new economic policies for the prosperity and status of economic power of India in the world.
  2. Acceptance of the political and social claims of the other backward classes (OBC).
  3. Acceptance of the State level parties in governance of the country.
  4. Emphasis on pragmatic considerations rather than ideological positions and political alliances without ideological agreement.

(Any Four with explanation) (4x1½=6)

Q100.2023 Main 59/4/1 · Q27(a)6 marks

Highlight any three major developments that took place in Indian politics during NDA III and NDA IV.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/4/1

Major developments:

  • NDA III led coalition of 2014 was largely different from its predecessor coalition governments. The previous coalitions were led by one of the national parties. The NDA III coalition was dominated by BJP with an absolute majority of its own in Lok Sabha and was referred to as ‘surplus Majority Coalition.’
  • The 2019 Lok Sabha elections once again brought back BJP led NDA IV to the Centre. The BJP on its own won 303 seats in Lok Sabha, the biggest number any single party has won in the lower house since 1984.
  • Shift from caste and religion based politics to development and good governance oriented politics
  • Several socio economic welfare schemes have been initiated to make development and governance accessible to masses such as:
    • Pradhanmantri Ujjwala Yojana
    • Swachh Bharat Abhiyan
    • Jan Dhan Yojana
    • Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Gram Jyoti Yojana
    • Kisan Fasal Beema Yojana
    • Beti Bachao Beti Padhao
    • Ayushman Bharat etc.
  • Abolition of Article 370 (to be explained)
  • Abolition of Triple Talaq (to be explained)
  • Demonetisation (to be explained)

Any other relevant point (Any three) 3×2=6

Q101.2023 Main 59/4/1 · Q27(b)6 marks

Highlight any three points of consensus that emerged among most political parties in India after the Lok Sabha Elections, 2004.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/4/1

Points of Consensus:

  • Agreement on new economic policies,
  • Acceptance of the political and social claims of the backward caste.
  • Acceptance of the role of regional parties in governance of the country.
  • Emphasis on pragmatic consideration rather than ideological position.

Any other relevant point (Any three with explanation) 3×2=6

Q102.2023 Main 59/5/1 · Q30(a)6 marks

How are the three recommendations of the Mandal Commission an effort to solve the problems of the ‘Other Backward Classes’ (OBCs) ? Analyse.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/5/1

The Mandal Commission recommended

  • i) Reservation of 27% of seats in educational institutions. It helped to enhance the opportunities of OBCs to get higher education.
  • ii) 27% seats reserved in government jobs which provided extra opportunities to the youth of OBCs to get employment and lead to respectful life.
  • iii) The Mandal Commission recommended land reforms to improve the living conditions of the OBCs.
  • iv) The commission advised that 'backward classes' should be understood to mean 'backward castes' , since many Castes, other than scheduled castes, were also treated as low in the caste hierarchy.
  • v) The National Front government decided to implement one of the recommendation of Mandal Commission pertaining to reservations for OBCs in jobs in the central government and its undertakings.
  • vi) The decision of National Front government was challenged in the Supreme Court and came to be known as 'Indira Sawhney' case. The Supreme Court upheld the decisions of the government.

(Or any other point) (any three points)

Q103.2023 Main 59/5/1 · Q30(b)6 marks

Analyse any three factors that led to the rise of ‘Other Backward Classes’ (OBCs) in Indian Politics ?

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 59/5/1

Three factors:

  • i) Support by Congress to many sections of Backwards Castes, weakened. This created space for non-Congress parties to support these groups.
  • ii) Janata Party government in 1977 provided opportunity of political expression national level to these parties like Bhartiya Kranti Dal and Samyukta Socialist Party.
  • iii) Decision of National Front government to implement the recommendations of the Mandal Commission helped in shaping the politics of other backward classes.The decision came to be known as Indira Sawhney case where Supreme Court upheld the decision of the government.
  • iv) OBC’s became more aware of their identity after intense national debate for and against reservation in jobs. In Uttar Pradesh Dalit Leader Mayawati became the Chief Minister.
  • v) This was a period of emergence of many parties that sought better opportunities for OBCs in education and employment for sharing power like BAMCEF and Bahujan Samaj party.

(Brief explanation of any three factors) or any other relevant point

Q104.2023 Supp. 59/C/1 · Q29(b)6 marks

Highlight any three major developments that India witnessed from 1980 to 1990 that had a long lasting impact on Indian politics.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 59/C/1

Major developments:-

  • (i) Congress Party restored its lost position after defecting Janta Party.
  • (ii) Operation Blue Star and Assassination of Indira Gandhi in 1984.
  • (iii) Rajiv Gandhi-Longowal Accord or the Punjab Accord in 1985.
  • (iv) In 1986 a peace agreement was signed between Rajiv Gandhi and Laldenga.
  • (v) The defeat of the Congress Party in the elections held in 1989 but it was the largest party in the Lok Sabha.
  • (vi) The Era of Coalition governments have been started because no one get a clear majority.

(Any three)

Q105.2022 Main 59/1/1 · Q13(a)6 marks

Highlight any three areas where consensus has emerged among most of the political parties in India after 1989.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 59/1/1

Emerging areas of Consensus:

  1. Agreement on new economic policies.
  2. Acceptance of the political and social claims of the backward castes (OBCs).
  3. Acceptance of the role of State level parties in governance of the country.
  4. Emphasis on pragmatic considerations rather than ideological positions.
  5. Foreign policy of India.

(Any three)

Q106.2022 Main 59/1/1 · Q13(b)6 marks

Highlight any two major changes that took place in Indian politics after 2014 and also name any two welfare programmes that made women the real beneficiaries.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 59/1/1
  • Change from caste and religion-based politics to development and governance oriented politics.
  • Economic welfare schemes were made accessible to the masses.

Examples

  1. Jan Dhan Yojana
  2. Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao Yojana
  3. PM Awas Yojana
  4. PM Suraksha Yojana
  5. Swachhata Abhiyan (Construction of Toilets)
  6. Mother and Child Tracking System
  7. PM Matritva Vandana Yojana
  8. Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
  9. STEP (Support for Training and Employment Programme)

Or any other programme which directly or indirectly benefits the women.

(Any two)

Q107.2022 Main 59/3/1 · Q12(a)6 marks

Highlight any three factors that you think are responsible for the victory of National Democratic Alliance (NDA) in 2019 election continuously for the second time.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 59/3/1

Candidates are free to write their logical answers regarding the different factors— like

  1. The working and strong decisions of the government were liked by the people (Demonetisation and Jan Dhan Yojana).
  2. Different pro-poor programmes (PM- Ujjwala Yojana, Kissan Samman Nidhi Yojana) were launched by the Government.
  3. Opposition parties could not put combined efforts against the ruling NDA.
  4. The leadership became popular for not having any selfish motive and for devoting 24×7 for the nation.
  5. The NDA govt. Worked with the motto of ‘Sabka Sath Sabka Vikas’ and governance oriented politics

Or any other relevant reason.

(Elaborate Any three)

Q108.2022 Main 59/3/1 · Q12(b)6 marks

Highlight any three issues that affected the Indian politics after 1989.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 59/3/1
  1. End of Congress system and Era of coalition Governments started.
  2. New Economic reforms changed the whole scenario. (Open economy and FDI are the examples.)
  3. Polarization of votes started and BJP gained popularity.
  4. The rise of BJP with ‘Hindutva’ politics.
  5. Polarization of OBC votes due to implementation of Mandal Commission recommendations.
  6. Issue of Ram Mandir led to polarization of votes.
  7. Regional parties became effective in the National Politics.

Or any other appropriate answer.

(Any three)

Q109.2022 Main 59/5/1 · Q12(a)6 marks

Highlight any three factors that led to a multi-party alliance system in Indian politics since 1989.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 59/5/1

The transition from one-party dominance to a multi-party alliance system in Indian Political System.

  1. The election of 1989 marked the end of Congress system of one-party dominance with its defeat.
  2. Then began the era of multi-party system. There was the emergence of several parties in such a way that one or two parties did not get most of the votes or seats.
  3. The party politics of India had to confront with challenges like emergence of powerful parties and movements which represented diverse interests and powerful regional assertions.
  4. One long term development in this coalition period was the rise of Other Backward Classes as a political force, different regional aspirations and new forms of vision arose.
  5. But nowadays, politics have become more competitive which is based on certain implicit agreements among main political actors.
  6. Role of regional parties enhanced.
  7. Pragmatic politics gained importance for power sharing.
  8. Few multiparty alliance after 1989-National front, United front, NDA, UPA etc.

Or any other relevant points/reasons (Any three)

Q110.2022 Main 59/5/1 · Q12(b)6 marks

Highlight any three factors that are responsible for the rise of Bhartiya Janata Party (BJP) as a strong political party after 1991.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 59/5/1

The emergence of BJP as a strong political party after 1991.

  1. BJP adopted a broader political platform than that of Jana Sangh and embraced ‘Gandhian Socialism’ as its ideology.
  2. After 1986, BJP began emphasizing the Hindu nationalist elements in its ideology and pursued the pro Hindutva politics.
  3. Ram Mandir issue and agenda to abolish article 370 helped BJP.
  4. BJP consolidated its position in 1991 and 1996 elections and emerged as a largest party in 1996, they were not able to secure a majority in Lok Sabha as other parties were opposed to its policies.
  5. BJP finally came to power by leading coalition government from May 1998 - 1999 (NDA-I) and 1999-2004 (NDA-II). BJP emerged as the largest party with surplus majority in 2014-2019 (NDA-III) & 2019-till date (NDA-IV).

Or any other relevant points/reasons (Any three)

Q111.SQP 2025-26 · Q28(A)6 marks

In spite of serious differences between major national political parties, emergence of new consensus is being viewed with interest’. In the light of this statement describe any three consensus.

Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 · Marking Scheme

Consensus in three Areas

  1. Acceptance of political and social claims of the backward castes: As a result, all political parties supported reservation for OBCs in education and employment.
  2. Role of state-level parties: The role of state-level parties in governance of the country has been recognised. The gap between centre and state level parties decreased. State level parties are sharing power at central level and has been playing central role in the politics of the country for the last two decades
  3. Focus on pragmatic consideration: Most of the political parties’ emphasis on practical considerations rather than ideological positions. The Coalition politics has shifted political alignments from ideological differences to power-sharing agreements.
  4. New economic policies: Most political parties came to support the new economic policies as they believed that these policies would lead the country to prosperity and a status of economic power in the world.

(Any three points)

Q112.SQP 2025-26 · Q28(B)6 marks

‘A two-party system is considered as the best form for a democratic system. India, on the other hand, has a multi-party system’. Assess the advantages of the multi-party system in India.

Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 · Marking Scheme

Multiparty system is better because of the following reasons: -

  1. No place for dictatorship: Even if a party enjoys full majority, it cannot function as dictator. The Parliamentary democracy has many provisions to discourage dictatorship.
  2. Multiple choices to voters: Since 1989 elections, voters have choices about whom they want to cast their votes.
  3. True reflection of public opinion: Parliament is the reflection of people. In case of multi-party systems. Parliament becomes a true reflector of people because diversity of culture, language is noticeable in Parliament.
  4. In case no single party gets majority then some parties may form a coalition Government.
  5. Every aspirant gets a chance to be a member of the Parliament.
  6. The gap between National and State parties reduces and mutual co-operation increases.

(Any four points)

Q113.SQP 2026-27 · Q30(A)6 marks

How has coalition politics transformed the nature of Indian democracy since 1989? Explain with examples.

Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 · Marking Scheme

Coalition politics since 1989 has transformed the nature of Indian democracy by: decentralizing power, empowering regional parties and fostering a system based on negotiation and consensus rather than single-party command.

  1. End of Single-Party Dominance and Rise of Multi-Party System: The most significant transformation was the end of the Congress dominance. Thus, began an era of multi-party system. For example
    In the 1989 general election, for the first time, no single party secured an absolute majority, leading to the formation of the National Front government an alliance of Janata Dal and some other regional parties.
  2. Empowerment of Regional Parties and Federalism: The nineties also saw the emergence of powerful parties and movements that represented the Dalit and backward castes (Other Backward Classes or OBCs). Many of these parties represented powerful regional assertion as well. These parties played an important role in the United Front government that came to power in 1996.
  3. The influence of the DMK and AIADMK in national coalitions in successive governments (e.g., UPA I and II, NDA) strengthened India's federal system, forcing the central government to be more responsive to diverse regional aspirations and demands.
  4. Shift towards Inclusive and Consensus-Based Governance: Stable coalitions have successfully implemented significant, accepted welfare policies. The economic liberalization reforms of 1991, initiated by a minority Congress government under P.V. Narasimha Rao, required negotiation and external support to pass, demonstrating how crucial reforms could proceed even without majority.

(Any three to be explained or other relevant point)

Q114.SQP 2026-27 · Q30(B)6 marks

‘Political equations in coalition governments are unstable’. How was this concept reflected in the formation of National Front Government in 1989 and United Front Government in 1996?

Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 · Marking Scheme
  1. Elections in 1989 led to the defeat of the Congress party but did not result in a majority for any other party. Though the Congress was the largest party in the Lok Sabha, it did not have a clear majority and therefore, it decided to sit in the opposition.
  2. The National Front (which itself was an alliance of Janata Dal and some other regional parties) lead by V.P. Singh received support from two opposite political groups: the BJP and the Left Front.
  3. On this basis, the National Front formed a coalition government, but the BJP represented by L.K Advani and the Left Front represented by Jyoti Basu did not join in this government but gave support from outside.
  4. These parties played an important role in the United Front government that came to power in 1996. The United Front was similar to the National Front of 1989 for it included Janata Dal and several regional parties. This time the BJP did not support the government.
  5. The United Front government was supported by the Congress. This shows how unstable the political equations were.
  6. In 1989, both the Left and the BJP supported the National Front Government because they wanted to keep the Congress out of power. In 1996, the Left continued to support the non-Congress government but this time the Congress, supported it, as both the Congress and the Left wanted to keep the BJP out of power. They did not succeed for long, as the BJP continued to consolidate its position in the elections of 1991 and 1996.

(Or other relevant point/s)