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Geography (029) · Class XII · Chapter-wise Board Questions

CBSE Board papers 2022 to 2026, plus CBSE Sample Question Papers. Chapters as per CBSE Curriculum 2026-27. 1002 questions. Click Reveal answer under any question to see the official marking scheme.

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Part A · Fundamentals of Human Geography

1. Human Geography: Nature and Scope

Q1.2026 Main 64/2/1 · Q11 mark

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both statements carefully and choose the correct option : 1

Assertion (A) : There is a strong dichotomy between physical elements and human beings.

Reason (R) : Nature and human are intricately interwined.

Options :

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  2. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  3. (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.
  4. (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/2/1

(C) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct

Q2.2026 Main 64/2/1 · Q21 mark

“Neither there is absolute necessity nor there is absolute freedom.” The given statement is related to which one of the following concepts ? 1

  1. Determinism
  2. Neo-determinism
  3. Possibilism
  4. Individualism
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/2/1

(B) Neo- Determinism

Q3.2026 Main 64/2/1 · Q31 mark

Read the following sub-fields of social geography carefully and choose the correct option : 1

  1. Resource Geography
  2. Leisure Geography
  3. Gender Geography
  4. Marketing Geography

Options :

  1. I and III are correct.
  2. I and IV are correct.
  3. II and III are correct.
  4. II and IV are correct.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/2/1

(C) II and III are correct.

Q4.2025 Main 64/2/1 · Q11 mark

“Human geography is the synthetic study of relationship between human societies and earth’s surface.” This definition of human geography is given by __________. 1

  1. Vidal-de-la-Blache
  2. Richard Hartshorne
  3. Ritter
  4. Ratzel
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/2/1

(D) Ratzel

Q5.2025 Main 64/2/1 · Q21 mark

Which one of the following is the core concern of geography as a discipline ? 1

  1. To understand population distribution and the factors affecting the same.
  2. To understand the relationship between resource distribution and its utilisation.
  3. To understand the earth as the home of human beings and its sustainability.
  4. To understand the earth as the home of natural resources and their estimation.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/2/1

(C) To understand the earth as the home of human beings and its sustainability.

Q6.2025 Main 64/2/1 · Q31 mark

The concept of ‘Neodeterminism’ was introduced by __________. 1

  1. Ehrlich
  2. C. Semple
  3. Griffith Taylor
  4. Humboldt
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/2/1

(C) Griffith Taylor

Q7.2025 Main 64/6/1 · Q151 mark

Read the passage carefully and answer the questions no. 15 to 17.

Relation Between Humans and their Physical Environment

You are already aware of the fact that the core concern of geography as a discipline is to understand the earth as home of human beings and to study all those elements, which have sustained them. Thus, emphasis is on study of nature and human beings. You will realise that geography got subjected to dualism and the wide-ranging debates started whether geography as a discipline should be a law making/theorising (nomothetic) or descriptive (idiographic).

Human beings interact with their physical environment with the help of technology. It is not important what human beings produce and create but it is extremely important ‘with the help of what tools and techniques do they produce and create’.

Technology indicates the level of cultural development of society. Human beings were able to develop technology after they developed better understanding of natural laws.

To understand the earth surface in geography, which one of the following is inseparable ?

  1. Regional and Systematic
  2. Nature and Human
  3. Determinism and Possibilism
  4. Possibilism and Neo-determinism
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/6/1

(B) Nature and Human

Q8.2025 Main 64/6/1 · Q161 mark

Read the passage carefully and answer the questions no. 15 to 17.

Relation Between Humans and their Physical Environment

You are already aware of the fact that the core concern of geography as a discipline is to understand the earth as home of human beings and to study all those elements, which have sustained them. Thus, emphasis is on study of nature and human beings. You will realise that geography got subjected to dualism and the wide-ranging debates started whether geography as a discipline should be a law making/theorising (nomothetic) or descriptive (idiographic).

Human beings interact with their physical environment with the help of technology. It is not important what human beings produce and create but it is extremely important ‘with the help of what tools and techniques do they produce and create’.

Technology indicates the level of cultural development of society. Human beings were able to develop technology after they developed better understanding of natural laws.

The core concern of geography as a discipline is which one of the following ? Choose the most appropriate option.

  1. Earth as home of human beings
  2. Earth as home of plant kingdom
  3. Earth as home of animal world
  4. Earth as home of landforms
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/6/1

(A) Earth as home of human beings

Q9.2025 Main 64/6/1 · Q171 mark

Read the passage carefully and answer the questions no. 15 to 17.

Relation Between Humans and their Physical Environment

You are already aware of the fact that the core concern of geography as a discipline is to understand the earth as home of human beings and to study all those elements, which have sustained them. Thus, emphasis is on study of nature and human beings. You will realise that geography got subjected to dualism and the wide-ranging debates started whether geography as a discipline should be a law making/theorising (nomothetic) or descriptive (idiographic).

Human beings interact with their physical environment with the help of technology. It is not important what human beings produce and create but it is extremely important ‘with the help of what tools and techniques do they produce and create’.

Technology indicates the level of cultural development of society. Human beings were able to develop technology after they developed better understanding of natural laws.

Which one of the following helped human beings to develop high order of technology ? Choose the most appropriate option.

  1. Invention of fire
  2. Invention of wheel
  3. Better understanding of natural laws
  4. Better interaction with nature by advanced technology
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/6/1

(C) Better understanding of natural laws

Q10.2025 Supp. 64/S/1 · Q11 mark

“Human geography is the study of the changing relationship between the unresting man and the unstable earth.” This definition of human geography was given by __________.

  1. Paul Vidal-de-la Blache
  2. Ratzel
  3. Ellen C. Semple
  4. Richard Hartshorne
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/S/1

(C) Ellen C. Semple

Q11.2025 Supp. 64/S/1 · Q21 mark

Which of the following statements indicate non-environmental determinism ?

  1. Adoption to the dictates of nature
  2. Harmonious relation with nature
  3. Creation of cultural landscapes
  4. Naturalisation of humans
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/S/1

(C) Creation of cultural landscapes

Q12.2025 Supp. 64/S/1 · Q31 mark

Which of the following metaphors do not describe the relation of humans with nature ? Choose the correct option.

  1. Eye of a cyclone
  2. Neck of the isthmus
  3. Body of moving water
  4. Face of the earth
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/S/1

(C) Body of the moving water

Q13.2023 Main 64/2/1 · Q11 mark

“Human Geography is the synthetic study of relationship between human societies and earth’s surface.” Who among the following geographers has given this definition ?

  1. Ellen C. Semple
  2. Ratzel
  3. George B. Cressey
  4. Paul Vidal de la Blache
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/2/1

(B) Ratzel

Q14.2023 Main 64/2/1 · Q21 mark

Read the following approaches of human geography and choose the correct option of the chronological order :

  1. Exploration and description
  2. Spatial organisation
  3. Areal differentiation
  4. Regional analysis

Options :

  1. I, II, III, IV
  2. I, III, II, IV
  3. I, IV, III, II
  4. I, IV, II, III
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/2/1

(C) I, IV, III, II

Q15.2023 Main 64/2/1 · Q31 mark

Which one of the following is the sub-field of ‘social geography’ ?

  1. Behavioural Geography
  2. Geography of Resources
  3. Electoral Geography
  4. Geography of Tourism
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/2/1

(A) Behavioural Geography

Q16.2026 Main 64/1/1 · Q203 marks

Examine the relationships between the ‘unresting man’ and ‘unstable earth’. 3

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/1/1

i) The earth is dynamic in nature.
ii) Man is also not static but very dynamic on the earth.
iii) Their relationship keeps on changing.
iv) Man cultivates, build houses, roads, etc. on the earth.
v) Human beings use the resources provided by the physical environment and greatly modify it. It has also in turn impacted human lives.
vi) Any other relevant point.

(Any three points to be examined) 3×1=3

Q17.2026 Main 64/3/1 · Q203 marks

Explain the concept of ‘neo-determinism’. 3

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/3/1

i. Griffith Taylor introduced the concept of Neo-determinism.
ii. It reflects a middle path (Madhyam Marg) between the two ideas of environmental determinism and possibilism.
iii. He termed it as Neo-determinism or stop and go determinism.
iv. The concept shows that neither is there a situation of absolute necessity (environmental determinism) nor is there a condition absolute freedom (possibilism).
v. It means that human beings can conquer nature by obeying it.
vi. They have to respond to the red signals and can proceed in their pursuits of development when nature permits the modifications.
vii. It means that possibilities can be created within the limits.
viii. Any other relevant point.

(Any three points to be explained) 3×1=3

Q18.2026 Main 64/4/1 · Q203 marks

‘‘Human beings directly depend on nature for resources.’’ Justify the statement with an example. 3

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/4/1

i) There is direct relationship between households and their environment.
ii) It belongs to primitive societies.
iii) Complete harmony with natural environment.
iv) Nature is powerful force, worshiped, revered and conserved.
v) Any other relevant point.

(Any three points to be explained) 3×1=3

Q19.2026 Main 64/5/1 · Q203 marks

Explain the inter-relationship between physical and socio-cultural environment. 3

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/5/1
  1. The inter-relationship between the physical environment and socio-cultural environment is created by human beings through mutual interaction with each other.
  2. Human beings use the resources provided by the physical environment to create socio-cultural landscape.
  3. Houses, villages, cities, industries etc. and other elements of material culture have been created by human beings by various resources provided by physical environment.
  4. Physical environment has been greatly modified by human beings; it has also in turn impacted human lives.
  5. Any other relevant point.

(Any three points to be explained) 3×1=3

Q20.2026 Supp. 64/7/1 · Q203 marks

“Human beings were able to develop technology after they developed a better understanding of natural laws.” Justify the statement with example. 3

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/7/1
  1. The understanding of concept of friction and heat helped us discover fire.
  2. Understanding the secrets of DNA and genetics enabled us to conquer many diseases.
  3. We use the law of aerodynamics to develop faster planes.
  4. Knowledge about nature is extremely important to develop technology and technology looses the shackles of environment on human beings.
  5. Any other relevant point.

(Any three points to be explained) 3×1=3

Q21.2025 Main 64/1/1 · Q203 marks

(a) “Nature and human are intricately inter-wined.” Analyse the statement.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/1/1
  1. Nature and humans are inseparable elements and should be seen holistically.
  2. Both physical and human phenomena are described in metaphors using symbols from the human anatomy.
  3. Face of the earth, eye of the storm, mouth of the river, snout of the glacier are some of the examples.
  4. Similarly, regions, villages, towns have been described as ‘Organism’. Networks of roads, railways and waterways have been described as arteries of circulation.
  5. Any other relevant point.

(Any three points to be analyzed) 3×1=3

Q22.2025 Main 64/1/1 · Q20 (OR)3 marks

(b) “Human beings utilize the opportunities provided by nature.” Analyse the statement.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/1/1
  1. Human create possibilities with resources obtained from the environment.
  2. Human move from the state of necessity to the state of freedom.
  3. Human activity creates a cultural landscape.
  4. The imprints of human activities are everywhere.
  5. Health resorts on highlands, huge urban sprawls, fields, orchards and pastures in plains and rolling hills, ports on the coasts, oceanic routes on the oceanic surface and satellites in the space.
  6. Any other relevant point.

(Any three points to be analyzed.) 3×1=3

Q23.2025 Main 64/4/1 · Q203 marks

“Human geography is a highly interdisciplinary subject.” Analyse the statement. 3

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/4/1
  1. Human Geography attempts to explain the relationship between all elements of human life and the space they occur over.
  2. It assumes a highly interdisciplinary nature.
  3. It develops close interface with other sister disciplines in social sciences in order to understand and explain human elements on the surface of the earth.
  4. With the expansion of knowledge, new sub-fields emerge, and it has also happened to human geography.
  5. For example, Urban Geography has an interdisciplinary connection with Urban Studies and Planning or Population Geography has an interdisciplinary connection with Demography.
  6. Any other relevant point.

(Any three points to be analysed) 3×1=3

Q24.2025 Main 64/4/1 · Q20 (OR)3 marks

“Human geography tries to explain the relationship of human beings with the physical environs of their occupance.” Analyse the statement. 3

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/4/1
  1. Human Geography studies the inter relationship between the physical environment and socio-cultural environment created by human beings through mutual interaction with each other.
  2. Physical environment like landforms, Soil, Flora and Fauna, Water, Climate etc. provide stage for different activities.
  3. Human beings have made houses, cities, villages, ports, farms, elements of daily uses and other elements of material culture by using the resources provided by the physical environment.
  4. While physical environment has been greatly modified by human beings in turn human lives also have been impacted.
  5. Any other relevant point.

(Any three points to be analysed) 3×1=3

Q25.2025 Main 64/5/1 · Q203 marks

Examine the concept of naturalisation of humans. 3

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/5/1
  1. In early stages of their interaction with their natural environment, humans were greatly influenced by it.
  2. They adapted to the dictates of nature.
  3. Human beings used to live in complete harmony with their natural environment.
  4. Human beings are directly dependent on nature for their sustenance.
  5. The level of technology was very low, and the stage of human’s social development was primitive.
  6. The interaction between primitive human society and strong forces of nature is called environmental determinism.
  7. Human being listened to Nature and was completely naturalised.
  8. Human being was afraid of nature’s fury and worshipped it.
  9. Nature is considered as a powerful force, worshipped, revered and conserved.
  10. Any other relevant point.

(Any three points to be examined.) 3×1=3

Q26.2025 Main 64/5/1 · Q20 (OR)3 marks

Examine the humanistic approach of human geography. 3

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/5/1
  1. It is also known as the welfare school of thought.
  2. This new school emerged in the 1970s as a result of discontentment with the quantitative revolution.
  3. It was mainly concerned with the different aspects of social well-being of the people.
  4. Housing, health and education are its main aspects.
  5. It is taught at Postgraduate level as Geography of Social well-being.
  6. Any other relevant point.

(Any three points to be examined.) 3×1=3

Q27.2025 Main 64/7/1 · Q213 marks

“Humans are directly dependent on natural resources to sustain them.” Explain the statement with examples.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/7/1
  1. Human beings have created elements through their activities on the stage provided by the physical environment.
  2. With social and cultural development, humans develop better and more efficient technology.
  3. The imprints of human activities are created everywhere; e.g. health resorts on highlands, huge urban sprawls, fields, orchards and pastures in plains etc.
  4. Houses, villages, cities, road-rail networks, industries, farms, ports, items of our daily use and all other elements of material culture have been created by human beings using the resources provided by the physical environment.
  5. Any other relevant point

(Any three points to be explained) 3×1=3

Q28.2024 Main 64/1/1 · Q223 marks

(a) Explain with example the concept of environmental determinism.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/1/1

Environmental determinism:-

  1. The interaction between primitive human society and strong forces of nature is known as environmental determinism.
  2. Human being listened to nature.
  3. Human being was afraid of its fury
  4. Human being worshipped nature.

Examples:-

  • Direct relationship of a house hold belonging to an economically primitive society with nature.
  • Nature is the powerful force, worshipped, revered and conserved.
  • There is a direct dependence of human being on a nature for resources which sustained them.

(v) Any other relevant Point.

(Any three points to be explained.) 3×1=3

Q29.2024 Main 64/1/1 · Q22 (OR)3 marks

(b) “The dichotomy between physical and human is not a very valid one.” Explain the statement with example.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/1/1

The dichotomy between physical and human is not a very valid one because-

  1. Nature and human are inseparable elements.
  2. It should be seen holistically.
  3. Both physical and human phenomena are describes in metaphors using symbols from the human anatomy.

Examples are:-

  • ‘Mouth’ of the river, ‘neck’ of isthmus, ‘Profile’ of the soil, ‘face’ of the earth, ‘eye’ of the storm etc.
  • Networks of road, railways and waterways have been described as ‘arteries of circulation’.
  • Regions, villages, towns have been described as ‘organisms’.

(iv) Any other relevant point.

(Any three points to be explained.) 3×1=3

Q30.2024 Main 64/2/1 · Q203 marks

(a) How has the use of technology helped people to overcome nature’s obstacles ? Analyse.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/2/1

The use of technology helped people to overcome nature's obstacles-

  1. The people begin to understand their environment and the forces of nature with the passage of time.
  2. With social and cultural development, humans develop better and more efficient technology.
  3. They move from a state of necessity to a state of freedom. They create possibilities with the resources obtained from the environment.
  4. It is technology that has allowed the people of Trondheim and others to overcome the constraints imposed by nature.
  5. For example, health resorts on the highlands, huge urban sprawls, ports on the coasts, satellites in space etc.
  6. Any other relevant point.

(Any three points to be analyzed). 3×1=3

Q31.2024 Main 64/2/1 · Q20 (OR)3 marks

(b) How does neo-determinism try to achieve balance between two concepts of man – environment relationship ? Analyse.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/2/1

Neo-determinism tried to achieve balance between two concepts of man- environment relationship

  1. Neo-determinism shows that neither is there a situation of absolute necessity nor is there a condition of absolute freedom.
  2. It means that human beings can conquer nature by obeying it.
  3. They have to respond to the red signals and can proceed in their pursuits of development when nature permits the modification.
  4. Possibilities can be created within the limits which do not damage the environment and there is no free run without accidents.
  5. Any other relevant point.

(Any three points to be analyzed). 3×1=3

Q32.2024 Main 64/3/1 · Q203 marks

“Neo-determinism attempts to bring a balance between the two concepts of human-environment relationship.” Examine the statement with examples.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/3/1
  1. The concept shows that neither is there a situation of absolute necessity nor is there a condition of absolute freedom.
  2. It means that human beings can conquer nature by obeying it.
  3. They have to respond to the red signals and can proceed in their pursuits of development when nature permits the modification.
  4. Possibilities can be created within the limits which do not damage the environment.
  5. In cities, traffic is regulated by lights on the cross roads. Traffic lights where red light means stop, amber light provides a gap between red and green lights to get set and green light means go.
  6. Any other relevant point with example

(Any three points to be examined) 3x1=3

Q33.2024 Main 64/4/1 · Q223 marks

Explain the concept of ‘Humanisation of Nature’ by giving examples.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/4/1

(i) The people begin to understand their environment and the forces of nature with the passage of time.

(ii) With social and cultural development, human develop better and more efficient technology.

(iii) They move from a state of necessity to a state of freedom.

(iv) They create possibilities with the resources obtained from environment. The human activities create cultural landscape.

(v) The imprints of human activities are created everywhere; health resorts on highlands, huge urban sprawls, fields, orchards and pastures in plains and rolling hills, ports on the coasts, oceanic routes on the oceanic surface and satellites in the space.

(vi) Any other relevant point

(Any three points to be explained)

3x1=3

Q34.2024 Main 64/5/1 · Q203 marks

(a) “Nature and human are inseparable elements in all geographical studies.” Examine the statement.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/5/1

(i) All geographical studies emphasize on the study of nature and human beings

(ii) It is interesting to note that both physical and human phenomena are described using symbols from the human anatomy.

(iii) Regions, villages, towns have been described the state/country as a living organism.

(iv) Network of roads, railways and waterways have often been described as arteries of circulation.

(v) Any other relevant point.

(Any three points to be examined)

3x1=3

Q35.2024 Main 64/5/1 · Q20 (OR)3 marks

(b) Examine the main aspects of environmental determinism.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/5/1

(i) There is always interaction between humans and natural phenomena.

(ii) Primitive societies were intimately dependent on nature for food and other resources.

(iii) We can imagine the presence of a naturalized human who listened to nature, was afraid of its fury and worshipped it

(iv) Strong forces of nature always guided human activities.

(v) This relation was termed as environmental determinism

(vi) Any other relevant point.

(Any three points to be examined)

3x1=3

Q36.2024 Supp. 64/S/1 · Q203 marks

“Nature provides opportunities and human beings make use of these and slowly nature gets humanised.” Examine the statement.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/S/1
  1. With social and cultural development, humans developed better and more efficient technology.
  2. They move from state of necessity to state of freedom.
  3. They create possibilities with the resources obtained from the environment.
  4. The human activities created cultural landscape.
  5. The imprints of human activities are created everywhere like health resorts on highlands, huge urban sprawls, fields, orchards, ports etc.
  6. Any other relevant point.

(Any three points to be examined.) 3x1=3

Q37.2023 Main 64/1/1 · Q203 marks

(a) “Human beings were able to develop technology after they developed better understanding of natural laws.” Evaluate the statement in the context of naturalization of humans. 3

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/1/1
  1. Technology indicates the level of cultural development of society.
  2. The understanding of concepts of friction and heat helped us discover fire.
  3. Understanding of the secrets of DNA and genetics enables us to conquer in any diseases.
  4. We use the laws of aerodynamics to develop faster planes.
  5. Knowledge about nature is extremely important to develop technology, and technology loosens the shackles of environment on human beings.
  6. In the early stages of their interaction with their natural environment humans were greatly influenced by it.
  7. Any other relevant point.

Any three points to be analyzed. 3×1=3

Q38.2023 Main 64/1/1 · Q20 (OR)3 marks

(b) “The imprints of human activities are created everywhere.” Evaluate the statement in context of humanization of nature. 3

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/1/1
  1. The people begin to understand their environment and the forces of nature with the passage of time.
  2. With social and cultural development humans develop better and more efficient technology.
  3. They move from a state of necessity to a state of freedom.
  4. They create possibilities with resources obtained from the environment.
  5. The human activities create cultural landscape e.g. health resorts on highlands, huge urban sprawls, fields, orchards and pastures in plains and rolling hills, ports, oceanic routes on oceanic surface and satellites.
  6. Any other relevant point.

Any three points to be evaluated. 3×1=3

Q39.2023 Main 64/3/1 · Q203 marks

“The strong forces of nature used to control the human activities in the primitive societies.” Examine the statement. 3

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/3/1

Following are the supporting statements.

  1. In the early stages of development, primitive societies were controlled by forces of nature.
  2. At that stage, level of technology was very low.
  3. They were afraid of the fury of nature and worshiped it.
  4. The humans were completely naturalised.
  5. Any other relevant point

Any three points to be examined 3×1=3

Q40.2023 Main 64/4/1 · Q203 marks

“The basic emphasis is laid on the relationship between nature and human beings in all geographical studies.” Explain the statement. 3

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/4/1
  1. The Earth is the home of mankind.
  2. All natural phenomena that take place affect human beings.
  3. Humans also modify natural environment.
  4. There is inter-relationship between nature and man.
  5. Any other relevant point.

To be assessed as a whole. 3

Q41.2023 Main 64/5/1 · Q203 marks

“Human Geography is the study of the changing relationship between the unresting man and unstable earth.” Support the statement.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/5/1
  1. Natural elements such as landform, soils, climate, etc. keeps on changing with time and space.
  2. Humans also respond to such changes accordingly.
  3. As the natural phenomena changes, human activities change accordingly.
  4. Nature and human are inseparable elements and should be seen holistically.
  5. Humans have to adjust with the changing nature of the Earth.
  6. This correlation has been and will remain in future.
  7. Any other relevant point.

(Any three points to be explained) 1×3=3

Q42.SQP 2025-26 · Q183 marks

The concept of neo determinism was put forward by Griffith Taylor in 1920. The concept shows that neither is there a situation of absolute necessity (environmental determinism) nor is there a condition of absolute freedom (possibilism). It means that human beings can conquer nature by obeying it. They have to respond to the red signals and can proceed in their pursuits of development when nature permits the modifications. It means that possibilities can be created within the limits which do not damage the environment and there is no free run without accidents. The free run which the developed economies attempted to take has already resulted in the greenhouse effect, ozone layer depletion, global warming, receding glaciers and degrading lands.

(source: https://ncert.nic.in/textbook.php?legy1=1-8)

  1. Who proposed the concept of neo-determinism?
  2. How did Taylor view the relationship between nature and a country’s economic program?
  3. Why neo determinism has become quite relevant in the present-day context?

1+1+1=3

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  1. Griffith Taylor
  2. Human beings can conquer nature by obeying it. They have to respond to the red signals and can proceed in their pursuits of development when nature permits the modifications. It means that possibilities can be created within the limits which do not damage the environment and there is no free run without accidents. The neo-determinism conceptually attempts to bring a balance nullifying the ‘either’ ‘or’ dichotomy.
  3. The free run which the developed economies attempted to take has already resulted in the greenhouse effect, ozone layer depletion, global warming, receding glaciers and degrading lands.

1+1+1=3

Q43.SQP 2026-27 · Q223 marks

What is Neo-Determinism as introduced by Griffith Taylor? Explain how it provides a middle path between Environmental Determinism and Possibilism? (1+2=3)

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Neodeterminism, also known as “stop-and-go determinism,” was introduced by Griffith Taylor. It states that nature sets certain limits for human activities, but within these limits, humans have the freedom to choose and develop according to their needs and capabilities. (1)

It provides a middle path between Environmental Determinism and Possibilism as: (2)

  1. This concept shows that neither is there a situation of absolute necessity (environmental determinism) nor is there a condition of absolute freedom (possibilism). It means that human beings can conquer nature by obeying it.
  2. They have to respond to the red signals and can proceed in their pursuits of development when nature permits modifications. It means that possibilities can be created within the limits which do not damage the environment and there is no free run without accidents.
  3. The free run which the developed economies attempted to take has already resulted in the greenhouse effect, ozone layer depletion, global warming, receding glaciers and degrading lands.
  4. Neo determinism promotes sustainable development, where human progress takes place in harmony with nature, avoiding overexploitation.

Any two points

Q44.2023 Supp. 64/C/1 · Q275 marks

Explain how geography, as a field of study, is integrative, empirical and practical. 5

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  1. The reach of geography is extensive and each and every event or phenomenon which varies over space and time can be studied geographically.
  2. The earth comprises two major components: nature (physical environment) and life forms including human beings.
  3. Physical geography studies physical environment and human geography studies the relationship between the physical/natural and the human worlds, the spatial distributions of human phenomena and how they come about, the social and economic differences between different parts of the world.
  4. The core concern of geography as a discipline is to understand the earth as home of human beings and to study all those elements which have sustained them. Thus, emphasis is on study of nature and human beings.
  5. Geography got subjected to dualism and the wide-ranging debates started whether geography as a discipline should be a law making/theorising (nomothetic) or descriptive (idiographic).
  6. Any other relevant point

(Any five points to be explained) 5×1=5

Part A · Fundamentals of Human Geography

2. The World Population: Distribution, Density and Growth

Q1.2026 Main 64/1/1 · Q151 mark

Study the following table carefully and answer Question Nos. 15 to 17.

Most populous countries

Sr. No.CountryPopulation% of world
1India1,425,775,85017.4
2China1,409,670,00017.2
3United States of America337,975,2344.13
4Indonesia278,696,2003.41
5Pakistan229,488,9942.80
6Nigeria216,746,9342.65
7Brazil219,277,7992.68
8Bangladesh168,220,0002.06
9Mexico128,271,2481.57

How many of the listed countries fall under Asian continent ? 1

  1. 3
  2. 4
  3. 5
  4. 6
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(C) 5

Q2.2026 Main 64/1/1 · Q161 mark

Study the following table carefully and answer Question Nos. 15 to 17.

Most populous countries

Sr. No.CountryPopulation% of world
1India1,425,775,85017.4
2China1,409,670,00017.2
3United States of America337,975,2344.13
4Indonesia278,696,2003.41
5Pakistan229,488,9942.80
6Nigeria216,746,9342.65
7Brazil219,277,7992.68
8Bangladesh168,220,0002.06
9Mexico128,271,2481.57

Which of the following set of continents is not represented in the table ? Choose the most appropriate option. 1

  1. Australia and Africa
  2. Africa and South America
  3. Europe and South America
  4. Australia and Europe
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(D) Australia and Europe

Q3.2026 Main 64/1/1 · Q171 mark

Study the following table carefully and answer Question Nos. 15 to 17.

Most populous countries

Sr. No.CountryPopulation% of world
1India1,425,775,85017.4
2China1,409,670,00017.2
3United States of America337,975,2344.13
4Indonesia278,696,2003.41
5Pakistan229,488,9942.80
6Nigeria216,746,9342.65
7Brazil219,277,7992.68
8Bangladesh168,220,0002.06
9Mexico128,271,2481.57

China and Brazil together account for what percentage of the world population ? 1

  1. 17.88
  2. 17.58
  3. 19.88
  4. 19.58
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(C) 19.88

Q4.2026 Main 64/4/1 · Q11 mark

Who among the following stated that ‘Asia has many places where people are few and few places where people are very many’ ?

  1. Ellen C. Semple
  2. George B. Cressey
  3. Vidal de la Blache
  4. Griffith Taylor
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(B) George B. Cressey

Q5.2026 Main 64/4/1 · Q21 mark

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option :

Assertion (A) : River valleys are sparsely populated areas of the world.

Reason (R) : Water is the most important factor for life.

Options :

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  3. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
  4. (A) is false, but (R) is true.
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(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Q6.2026 Supp. 64/7/1 · Q11 mark

Choose the correct option related to crude birth rate calculation.

  1. Number of births in a year ÷ Total population at the end of the year × 1000
  2. Number of live births in a year ÷ Total population at the end of the year × 1000
  3. Number of live births in a year ÷ Estimated midyear population × 1000
  4. Number of total births in a year ÷ Estimated midyear population × 1000
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/7/1

(C) Number of live births in a year ÷ Estimated midyear population x 1000

Q7.2026 Supp. 64/7/1 · Q41 mark

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option.

Assertion (A) : Mega cities of the world continue to attract large numbers of migrants every year.

Reason (R) : Areas with mineral deposits attract skilled and semi-skilled workers and become densely populated.

Options :

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  3. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
  4. (A) is false, but (R) is true.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/7/1

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Q8.2025 Main 64/4/1 · Q151 mark

Study the following graph carefully and answer the questions no. 15 to 17 :

Figure

Demographic Transition Theory

Which one of the following stages of demographic transition theory is an indicative of primitive stage ?

  1. Stage I
  2. First part of stage II
  3. Second part of stage II
  4. Stage III
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(A) Stage I

Q9.2025 Main 64/4/1 · Q161 mark

Study the following graph carefully and answer the questions no. 15 to 17 :

Figure

Demographic Transition Theory

The highest difference between the crude birth rate and crude death rate is observed in which one of the following stages of demographic transition theory ?

  1. End of stage I
  2. End of the first part of stage II
  3. End of the second part of stage II
  4. End of stage III
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(B) End of the first part of stage II

Q10.2025 Main 64/4/1 · Q171 mark

Study the following graph carefully and answer the questions no. 15 to 17 :

Figure

Demographic Transition Theory

Net increase in population during third stage of demographic transition theory is low due to which one of the following reasons ?

  1. Low birth rate and low death rate
  2. Low birth rate and high death rate
  3. High birth rate and low death rate
  4. High birth rate and high death rate
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(A) Low birth rate and low death rate

Q11.2025 Main 64/6/1 · Q31 mark

“The number of people would increase faster than the food supply.” This concept was given by which one of the following ?

  1. Griffith Taylor
  2. Brundtland
  3. Thomas Malthus
  4. Walter Burley Griffin
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(C) Thomas Malthus

Q12.2024 Main 64/1/1 · Q151 mark

Read the case study given below and answer Q. No. 15 to 17.

Stages of Demographic Transition Theory

The first stage of demographic transition theory has high fertility and high mortality because people reproduce more to compensate for the deaths due to epidemics and variable food supply. The population growth is slow and most of the people are engaged in agriculture, where large families are an asset. Life expectancy is low, people are mostly illiterate and have low levels of technology. Two hundred years ago, all the countries of the world were in this stage.

Fertility remains high in the beginning of second stage but it declines with time. This is accompanied by reduced mortality rate. Improvements in sanitation and health conditions lead to decline in mortality. Because of this gap, the net addition to population is high.

In the last stage, both fertility and mortality decline considerably. The population is either stable or grows slowly. The population becomes urbanized, literate and has high technical know-how and deliberately controls the family size.

This shows that human beings are extremely flexible and are able to adjust their fertility.

In the present day, different countries are at different stages of demographic transition.

Which among the following stage/stages has/have high growth of population ?

  1. Only the first stage
  2. Only the second stage
  3. Both first and second stages
  4. Both second and last stages
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(B) Only the second stage

Q13.2024 Main 64/1/1 · Q161 mark

Read the case study given below and answer Q. No. 15 to 17.

Stages of Demographic Transition Theory

The first stage of demographic transition theory has high fertility and high mortality because people reproduce more to compensate for the deaths due to epidemics and variable food supply. The population growth is slow and most of the people are engaged in agriculture, where large families are an asset. Life expectancy is low, people are mostly illiterate and have low levels of technology. Two hundred years ago, all the countries of the world were in this stage.

Fertility remains high in the beginning of second stage but it declines with time. This is accompanied by reduced mortality rate. Improvements in sanitation and health conditions lead to decline in mortality. Because of this gap, the net addition to population is high.

In the last stage, both fertility and mortality decline considerably. The population is either stable or grows slowly. The population becomes urbanized, literate and has high technical know-how and deliberately controls the family size.

This shows that human beings are extremely flexible and are able to adjust their fertility.

In the present day, different countries are at different stages of demographic transition.

Choose the most appropriate option from the following regarding components of population change :

  1. Births, deaths and migration
  2. Births, density and migration
  3. Density, literacy and age structure
  4. Deaths, literacy and sex ratio
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(A) Births, deaths and migration

Q14.2024 Main 64/1/1 · Q171 mark

Read the case study given below and answer Q. No. 15 to 17.

Stages of Demographic Transition Theory

The first stage of demographic transition theory has high fertility and high mortality because people reproduce more to compensate for the deaths due to epidemics and variable food supply. The population growth is slow and most of the people are engaged in agriculture, where large families are an asset. Life expectancy is low, people are mostly illiterate and have low levels of technology. Two hundred years ago, all the countries of the world were in this stage.

Fertility remains high in the beginning of second stage but it declines with time. This is accompanied by reduced mortality rate. Improvements in sanitation and health conditions lead to decline in mortality. Because of this gap, the net addition to population is high.

In the last stage, both fertility and mortality decline considerably. The population is either stable or grows slowly. The population becomes urbanized, literate and has high technical know-how and deliberately controls the family size.

This shows that human beings are extremely flexible and are able to adjust their fertility.

In the present day, different countries are at different stages of demographic transition.

Which of the following stage/stages has/have a slow growth of population ?

  1. Only the first stage
  2. Only the second stage
  3. Only second and last stages
  4. Only first and last stages
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(D) Only first and last stages

Q15.2024 Main 64/2/1 · Q11 mark

Read the following factors of migration carefully and choose the correct option related to pull factors :

  1. Peace and stability
  2. Unfavourable climate
  3. Protection of property
  4. Economic backwardness

Options :

  1. Only I and II are correct.
  2. Only I and III are correct.
  3. Only II and IV are correct.
  4. Only II and III are correct.
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(B) Only I and III are correct

Q16.2024 Main 64/3/1 · Q11 mark

Read the following factors of migration carefully and choose the correct option related to ‘push factor’ :

  1. Peace and stability
  2. Protection of property
  3. Epidemics
  4. Unpleasant climate

Options :

  1. Only I and II are correct
  2. Only II and III are correct
  3. Only III and IV are correct
  4. Only I and IV are correct
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(C) Only III and IV are correct

Q17.2024 Main 64/4/1 · Q151 mark

Read the given passage and answer the Q. Nos. 15 to 17 :

Demographic Transition Theory

The first stage has high fertility and high mortality because people reproduce more to compensate for the deaths due to epidemics and variable food supply. The population growth is slow and most of the people are engaged in agriculture where large families are an asset. Life expectancy is low, people are mostly illiterate and have low levels of technology. Two hundred years ago all the countries of the world were in this stage.

Fertility remains high in the beginning of second stage but it declines with time. This is accompanied by reduced mortality rate. Improvements in sanitation and health conditions lead to decline in mortality. Because of this gap the net addition to population is high.

In the last stage, both fertility and mortality decline considerably. The population is either stable or grows slowly. The population becomes urbanished, literate and has high technical know-how and deliberately controls the family size.

This shows that human beings are extremely flexible and are able to adjust their fertility.

In which of the following stage/stages, the natural growth of population was/were almost stagnant ?

  1. Only I
  2. Only II
  3. Only I and Last
  4. Only II and Last
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(C) Only I and Last

Q18.2024 Main 64/4/1 · Q161 mark

Read the given passage and answer the Q. Nos. 15 to 17 :

Demographic Transition Theory

The first stage has high fertility and high mortality because people reproduce more to compensate for the deaths due to epidemics and variable food supply. The population growth is slow and most of the people are engaged in agriculture where large families are an asset. Life expectancy is low, people are mostly illiterate and have low levels of technology. Two hundred years ago all the countries of the world were in this stage.

Fertility remains high in the beginning of second stage but it declines with time. This is accompanied by reduced mortality rate. Improvements in sanitation and health conditions lead to decline in mortality. Because of this gap the net addition to population is high.

In the last stage, both fertility and mortality decline considerably. The population is either stable or grows slowly. The population becomes urbanished, literate and has high technical know-how and deliberately controls the family size.

This shows that human beings are extremely flexible and are able to adjust their fertility.

In which of the following stage/stages, the death rate declined the most ?

  1. Only I
  2. Only II
  3. Only I and II
  4. Only I and Last
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(B) Only II

Q19.2024 Main 64/4/1 · Q171 mark

Read the given passage and answer the Q. Nos. 15 to 17 :

Demographic Transition Theory

The first stage has high fertility and high mortality because people reproduce more to compensate for the deaths due to epidemics and variable food supply. The population growth is slow and most of the people are engaged in agriculture where large families are an asset. Life expectancy is low, people are mostly illiterate and have low levels of technology. Two hundred years ago all the countries of the world were in this stage.

Fertility remains high in the beginning of second stage but it declines with time. This is accompanied by reduced mortality rate. Improvements in sanitation and health conditions lead to decline in mortality. Because of this gap the net addition to population is high.

In the last stage, both fertility and mortality decline considerably. The population is either stable or grows slowly. The population becomes urbanished, literate and has high technical know-how and deliberately controls the family size.

This shows that human beings are extremely flexible and are able to adjust their fertility.

Which one among the following countries is an example of second stage ?

  1. Kenya
  2. Bangladesh
  3. Japan
  4. Canada
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(A) Kenya

Q20.2024 Supp. 64/S/1 · Q11 mark

Which one of the following is a component of population change in the world ?

  1. Urbanisation
  2. Industrialisation
  3. Migration
  4. Education
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(C) Migration

Q21.2024 Supp. 64/S/1 · Q121 mark

Two statements are given below as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read them carefully and choose the correct option.

Assertion (A) : Areas with mineral deposits and industries are densely populated.

Reason (R) : “Mining and industrial activities generate employment opportunities and thus attract large population.”

Options :

  1. Assertion (A) is correct, but Reason (R) is not correct.
  2. Assertion (A) is not correct, but Reason (R) is correct.
  3. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  4. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
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(C) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A)

Q22.2024 Supp. 64/S/1 · Q151 mark

Study the graph given below and answer Q. No. 15 to 17.

Figure

Which one of the following statements regarding Stage I of demographic transition is true ?

  1. Stage I has high fertility and high mortality.
  2. Population growth is high.
  3. Most of the people are engaged in industrial activities.
  4. Life expectancy is moderate.
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(A) Stage I has high fertility and high mortality.

Q23.2024 Supp. 64/S/1 · Q161 mark

Study the graph given below and answer Q. No. 15 to 17.

Figure

Which one of the following is applicable to Stage II of demographic transition ? Choose the most appropriate option.

  1. Stage II is marked by the reduction in mortality rate.
  2. Health and sanitation conditions remained the same as in Stage I.
  3. In spite of high birth rate, high death rate lowers the population.
  4. By the end of the first half of Stage II, the gap between birth rate and death rate is low.
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(A) Stage II is marked by the reduction in mortality rate.

Q24.2024 Supp. 64/S/1 · Q171 mark

Study the graph given below and answer Q. No. 15 to 17.

Figure

Which one of the following is a characteristic of the last stage of demographic transition ? Choose the most appropriate option.

  1. Both fertility and mortality decline considerably.
  2. Growth of population is moderately high.
  3. People are largely involved in agriculture.
  4. Technological application is moderately low.
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(A) Both fertility and mortality decline considerably.

Q25.2023 Main 64/1/1 · Q11 mark

Which one of the following factors is an economic factor affecting the distribution of population in the world ?

  1. Urbanization
  2. Soils
  3. Unrest
  4. Availability of water
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(a) Urbanization

Q26.2023 Main 64/1/1 · Q31 mark

Read the following statements regarding objectives of family planning and choose the correct option :

  1. Control the birth rate
  2. Spacing the birth of children
  3. Improving women’s health
  4. Reducing the death rate of children

Options :

  1. Only I, II and IV are correct.
  2. Only I, II and III are correct.
  3. Only II, III and IV are correct.
  4. Only I, III and IV are correct.
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(b) Only I, II and III are correct

Q27.2023 Main 64/1/1 · Q91 mark

Which one of the following is related to push factor of migration ?

  1. Natural disasters
  2. Pleasant climate
  3. Security of life and property
  4. Peace and stability
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(a) Natural disasters

Q28.2023 Main 64/2/1 · Q71 mark

When will be the growth of population positive in any place and in which one of the following conditions ?

  1. High birth rate, low death rate and high immigration
  2. High birth rate, high death rate and low immigration
  3. Low birth rate, high death rate and low immigration
  4. Low birth rate, low death rate and low immigration
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/2/1

(A) High birth rate, low death rate and high immigration.

Q29.2023 Main 64/2/1 · Q81 mark

Study the following two statements and choose the correct option.

Statement-I : In the last stage of demographic transition both fertility and mortality decline considerably.

Statement-II : Resultant population is either stable or grows slowly.

Options :

  1. Only statement I is correct.
  2. Only statement II is correct.
  3. Statement I and II are correct. Statement II is not the correct result of statement I.
  4. Statement I and II are correct. Statement II is the correct result of statement I.
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(D) Statements I and II are correct and Statement II is the correct result of Statement I.

Q30.2023 Main 64/4/1 · Q11 mark

Which one among the following is the least populous country ?

  1. Mexico
  2. Nigeria
  3. Brazil
  4. Indonesia
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/4/1

(a) Mexico

Q31.2023 Main 64/4/1 · Q21 mark

Which one of the following is the push factor responsible for migration ?

  1. Better job opportunities
  2. Unpleasant climate
  3. Peace and stability
  4. Security to life and property
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(b) Unpleasant climate

Q32.2023 Main 64/4/1 · Q31 mark

Which one of the following is a thickly populated region ?

  1. The Himalayan region
  2. Osaka-Kobe region of Japan
  3. Siberian region of Russia
  4. Central Chile
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/4/1

(b) Osaka-Kobe region of Japan

Q33.2023 Supp. 64/C/1 · Q21 mark

Which among the following factors is a push to compel migration ?

  1. Better jobs
  2. Better living conditions
  3. Peace and stability
  4. Natural disasters
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/C/1

(d) Natural disasters

Q34.2023 Supp. 64/C/1 · Q41 mark

Which of the following feature is associated with the Demographic Transition Theory ?

  1. It is used to predict the future population of any area.
  2. It is used to bring down the future population of a country.
  3. It is used to adjust the fertility of any area.
  4. It is used for population composition.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/C/1

(a) It is used to predict the future population of any area.

Q35.2023 Supp. 64/C/1 · Q131 mark

Study the following statements and choose the most appropriate option :

Assertion : Fertile loamy soil areas have more people living on them.

Reason : These soils are the base of intensive agriculture.

Options :

  1. Only Assertion is correct.
  2. Only Reason is correct.
  3. Both Statements are correct. Reason correctly explains Assertion.
  4. Both Statements are correct, but not related to each other.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/C/1

(c) Both Statements are correct. Reason correctly explains Assertion.

Q36.SQP 2025-26 · Q11 mark

Refer to the bar graph displaying the population of various countries. What is the approximate combined population of the three least populous countries shown in the graph?

Figure

(https://ncert.nic.in/textbook.php?legy1=2-8)

  1. 500 million
  2. 400 million
  3. 300 million
  4. 200 million
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26

(B) 400 Million

Q37.SQP 2025-26 · Q21 mark

Study the graph given below and answer the following.

Figure

A country is currently experiencing low birth rates, low death rates, and a highly urbanized society with advanced healthcare and industrial infrastructure. Based on the Demographic Transition Theory, this country is most likely in which stage?

  1. Stage I: High Fluctuating
  2. Stage II: Expanding
  3. Stage III: Low Fluctuating
  4. Pre-Transition Phase
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(C) Stage III: Low Fluctuating

Q38.SQP 2025-26 · Q41 mark

Assertion (A): Population change in an area is an important indicator of economic development, social upliftment, and historical and cultural background of the region.

Reason (R): The population growth or population change refers to the change in the number of inhabitants of a territory during a specific period of time, which can be expressed in terms of absolute numbers or percentage.

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  3. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
  4. (A) is false, but (R) is true.
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(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Q39.SQP 2026-27 · Q11 mark

Match the following:

Column A – PlacesColumn B – Factors Affecting Population Distribution
IThar desert1Pleasant and comfortable climate
IIMediterranean regions2Industrialisation and job opportunities
IIIKatanga–Zambia copper belt3Harsh climatic condition and difficult landform
IVKobe–Osaka region4Mineral deposits and mining activities

Codes-

  1. I-2, II-1, III-4, IV-3
  2. I-1, II-2, III-3, IV-4
  3. I-3, II-1, III-4, IV-2
  4. I-2, II-3, III-1, IV-4
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(C) I-3, II-1, III-4, IV-2

Q40.SQP 2026-27 · Q31 mark

A disaster management team wants to set up temporary shelters in Region Y, which has a population of 80,000 and an area of 200 sq km. To plan resources, they must know how densely populated the region is. What is the population density of Region Y?

  1. 200 persons per sq km
  2. 300 persons per sq km
  3. 400 persons per sq km
  4. 800 persons per sq km
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(C) 400 persons per sq km

Q41.SQP 2026-27 · Q81 mark

Thomas Malthus in his theory (1798) stated that the number of people would increase faster than the food supply. Which of the following statements is NOT supported by Malthus’ theory?

  1. Food shortage would result in a decline in population.
  2. The rate of food supply would be faster than the population growth.
  3. Preventive checks are preferable to control population growth.
  4. To ensure sustainability of resources, population growth needs to be controlled.
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(B) The rate of food supply would be faster than the population growth.

Q42.SQP 2026-27 · Q171 mark

Mr. Netra, a 35-year-old unemployed person from a small village in Nepal, has decided to emigrate to a nearby city in the NCR region of India. He has three brothers who work on their family-owned small field, which gives very low returns for the family to survive. Formulate the likely reasons for his emigration.

  1. High paid farming jobs are available in the rural area.
  2. Better employment opportunities in the city.
  3. Sufficient income from agriculture in his village
  4. Better standard of living in rural areas.
  5. More opportunities for training and personal development in the city.
  1. I, III, IV
  2. II, V,
  3. III, IV
  4. I,V
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(B) II,V

Q43.2026 Main 64/3/1 · Q213 marks

Study the given diagram carefully and answer the question that follows : 3×1=3

Demographic Transition Theory

Figure

Explain the main characteristics of Stage I of the Demographic Transition Theory on the bases of birth rate, death rate and growth of population.

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i. Birth Rate- The first stage has high fertility as people reproduce more to compensate for the deaths.
ii. Death Rate- The first stage has high mortality because of the deaths due to epidemics and variable food supply.
iii. The Population Growth Rate - is slow and most of the people are engaged in agriculture where large families are an asset.
iv. Life expectancy is low, people are mostly illiterate and have low levels of technology.
v. Two hundred years ago all the countries of the world were in this stage.
vi. Any other relevant point.

(Any three points to be explained) 3×1=3

Q44.2026 Main 64/4/1 · Q233 marks

Study the given diagram carefully and answer the question that follows : 3

Demographic Transition Theory

Figure

Explain the third stage of demographic transition theory on the basis of birth rate, death rate and population growth.

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Birth Rate:
Fertility decline considerably.

Death Rate:
Mortality decline considerably.

Population Growth
The population is either stable or grows slowly. It deliberately controls the family size.

(Three points to be explained) 3×1=3

Q45.2026 Supp. 64/7/1 · Q213 marks

Study the given diagram carefully and answer the question that follows :

Demographic Transition Theory

Figure

Analyse the second stage of the ‘Demographic Transition Theory’ on the basis of birth rate, death rate and population growth with example. 3

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Birth Rate : Fertility remain high in beginning but it decline in time. 1

Death Rate : Decline in mortality rate due to improvement in sanitation and health conditions. 1

Population Growth : Net addition to population is high. 1

Eg. Peru, Sri Lanka, Kenya.

3×1=3

Q46.2025 Main 64/2/1 · Q203 marks

(a) Examine the role of climate, water availability and soil fertility on the distribution of world population. 3

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  1. Availability of water : Water is the most important factor in life. So, people prefer to live in areas where freshwater is easily available. Water is used for drinking, bathing, and cooking – and also for cattle, crops, industries, and navigation. It is because of this that river valleys are among the most densely populated areas of the world.
  2. Climate : An extreme climate such as very hot or cold deserts is uncomfortable for human habitation. Areas with a comfortable climate, where there is not much seasonal variation attract more people. Areas with very heavy rainfall or extreme and harsh climates have low populations. Mediterranean regions were inhabited from early periods in history due to their pleasant climate.
  3. Soils : Fertile soils are important for agricultural and allied activities. Therefore, areas that have fertile loamy soils have more people living in them as these can support intensive agriculture.

(All the three points to be examined) 3×1=3

Q47.2025 Main 64/2/1 · Q20 (OR)3 marks

(b) Examine three stages of demographic transition theory. 3

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The three stages of demographic transition theory are as follows :

  • The First stage has high fertility and high mortality because people reproduce more to compensate for the deaths due to epidemics and variable food supply. The population growth is slow and most of the people are engaged in agriculture where large families are an asset. Life expectancy is low, people are mostly illiterate and have low levels of technology. Two hundred years ago all the countries of the world were in this stage.
  • In the beginning of the Second Stage fertility remains high but it declines with time. This is accompanied by a reduced mortality rate. Improvements in sanitation and health conditions lead to a decline in mortality. Because of this gap, the net addition to the population is high.
  • In the Last Stage, both fertility and mortality decline considerably. The population is either stable or grows slowly. The population becomes urbanized, literate, has high technical know-how, and deliberately controls the family size.

(All the three points to be examined) 1+1+1=3

Q48.2025 Main 64/6/1 · Q223 marks

Study the following graph carefully and answer the questions that follow :

Figure

(22.1) Explain the reason of high net population increase in stage II of demographic transition theory. 1

(22.2) Differentiate between stage I and III of demographic transition theory. 1

(22.3) Describe the socio-economic conditions of countries under stage III of demographic transition theory. 1

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(22.1) High birth rate and decline in death rate. 1

(22.2) In the I stage, both birth and death rate are very high while in stage III both birth and death rate are low. 1

(22.3) Conditions of countries under stage III are :-

  1. Urbanised Population.
  2. Literate Population.
  3. Technologically advanced.
  4. Deliberately controls the family size.
  5. Any other relevant point.

(Any one point to be explained.) 1

3×1=3

Q49.2025 Supp. 64/S/1 · Q203 marks

(a) Explain any three economic factors influencing the distribution of world population.

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Economic factors influencing the distribution of world population :-

  1. Minerals : Areas with mineral deposits attract industries. Mining and industrial activities generate employment and attract large number of people.
  2. Urbanisation : Cities offer better employment opportunities, educational and medical facilities, better means of transport and communication.
  3. Industrialization : Industrial belts provide job opportunities and attract large numbers of people.
  4. Any other relevant point.

(Any three points to be explained.) 3×1=3

Q50.2025 Supp. 64/S/1 · Q20 (OR)3 marks

(b) Explain the three components of change in world population.

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Components of change in world population are :-

  1. Birth Rate
  2. Death Rate
  3. Migration

(All three points to be explained.) 3×1=3

Q51.2024 Main 64/2/1 · Q213 marks

Explain, with examples, any three economic factors affecting population distribution in the world.

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Economic factors affecting population distribution in the world are-

  1. Minerals- Aras with mineral deposits attract industries. Mining and industrial activities generate employment. So, skilled and semi-skilled workers move to these areas and make them densely populated.
  2. Urbanization- Cities offer better employment opportunities, educational and medical facilities, better means of transportation and communication. Good civic amenities and the attraction of city life draw people to the cities.
  3. Industrialization- Industrial belts provide job opportunities and attract a large number of people. These include factory workers, transport operators, shopkeepers, bank employees, doctors, teachers and other service providers.
  4. Any other relevant point.

(Any three points to be explained). 3×1=3

Q52.2024 Main 64/3/1 · Q213 marks

How does science and technology help in the increase of population in the world ? Explain.

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  1. The steam engine replaced human and animal energy and also provided mechanical energy of water and wind.
  2. Inoculation against epidemic and other communicable diseases.
  3. Improvement in medical facilities and sanitation contributed to rapid decline in death rates throughout the world.
  4. In the first stage of demographic transition theory the fertility rate and the mortality rate both were high due to low level of science and technological development.
  5. In second stage of demographic transition theory, with the advancement in medical sciences the mortality rate has declined which led to population growth.
  6. In third stage, both the fertility rate and mortality rate are low due to the advancement in technology and sciences.
  7. Any other relevant point

(Any three points to be explained) 3x1=3

Q53.2023 Main 64/2/1 · Q203 marks

(a) “Broadly 90 percent of the world population lives in about 10 percent of its land area.” Examine the statement in context of patterns of population distribution in the world.

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Pattern of population distribution in the world:-

  1. Population of the world is unevenly distributed.
  2. Asia has many places where people are few and few places where people are many.
  3. Patterns of population distribution and density help us to understand the demographic characteristics of any area.
  4. The 10 most populous countries of the world contribute about 60% of the world’s population. Of these 10 countries, 6 are located in Asia.
  5. Any other relevant point.

Any three points to be explained.

3x1=3

Q54.2023 Main 64/2/1 · Q20 (OR)3 marks

(b) “Migration may be interpreted as a spontaneous effort to achieve a better balance between population and resources.” Examine the statement in context of pull and push factors that influence migration.

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Factors influencing migration :-

  1. Migration may be permanent, temporary or seasonal. It may take place from rural to urban areas, rural to rural areas, urban to urban areas and urban to rural areas.
  2. People migrate for a better economic and social life.
  3. The push factors make the place of origin seem less attractive for reasons like unemployment, poor living conditions, political turmoil, unpleasant climate, natural disasters, epidemics and socio-economic backwardness.
  4. The pull factors make the place of destination seem more attractive than the place of origin for reasons like better job opportunities and living conditions, peace and stability, security of life and property and pleasant climate.
  5. Any other relevant point.

Any three points to be examined.

3x1=3

Q55.2023 Main 64/5/1 · Q193 marks

Study the given figure carefully and answer the questions that follow : 1 × 3 = 3

Figure

(19.1) Name the highest populous country. 1
(19.2) How many total countries of Asia continent are shown in the figure ? 1
(19.3) How do landforms affect the density of population in Asia ? 1

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(19.1) China 1

(19.2) Six countries. 1

(19.3) People prefer living on flat plains. This is because such areas are favourable for the production of crops and to build roads. 1

Q56.2026 Main 64/2/1 · Q245 marks

(a) How do the ‘landforms’ and ‘urbanisation’ influence the distribution of world population ? Explain with examples. 5

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Land forms :

i. People prefer living on flat plains and gentle slopes.
ii. Plain areas are favourable for the production of crops.
iii. Plain areas are favourable to build roads and industries.
iv. The mountainous and hilly areas hinder the development of transport network, agricultural and industrial development. So these areas are less populated.
v. Any other relevant point.

(Any two points to be explained.) 2×1=2

Example:
i. The Ganga plains are among the most densely populated areas of the world while the mountain zones in the Himalayas are scarcely populated. ½
ii. Any other example.

(2+½ = 2½)

Urbanisation :

i. Cities offer better employment opportunities, educational and medical facilities, better means of transport and communication.
ii. Good civic amenities and the attraction of city life draw people to the cities.
iii. It leads to rural to urban migration and cities grow in size.
iv. Any other relevant point.

(Any two points to be explained.) 2×1=2

Example :
i. Mega cities like Tokyo, Delhi, Newyork and London, continue to attract large number of migrants every year. ½
ii. Any other example.

(2+½ = 2½)

2½ + 2½ = 5

Q57.2026 Main 64/2/1 · Q24 (OR)5 marks

(b) How do ‘water availability’ and ‘industrialization’ influence the distribution of world population ? Explain with examples. 5

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Water Availabilty :

i. Water is the most important factor for life. So people prefer to live in areas where fresh water is easily available.
ii. Water is used for drinking, bathing and cooking.
iii. It is also used for cattle, crops, industries and navigation.
iv. Any other relevant point.

(Any two points to be explained.) 2×1=2

Example:
i. River valleys like Ganga or Nile are densely populated areas of the world. ½
ii. Any other example.

(2+½ = 2½)

Industrialisation :

i. Industrial belts provide job opportunities and attract large number of people.
ii. These include transport operators, shopkeepers etc.
iii. These also attract institutions like banks, consultancies, research institutes and educational centres etc.
v. Any other relevant point.

(Any two points to be explained.) 2×1=2

Example:
i. The Kobe-Osaka industrial region of Japan is thickly populated. ½
ii. Any other example.

(2+½ = 2½)

2½ + 2½ = 5

Q58.2026 Main 64/5/1 · Q245 marks

Analyse the factors affecting the population change in the world. 5

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Factors affecting population change :

  1. Population is not a static factor. It keeps on changing.
  2. Birth is the most important component of the increase in population.
  3. If the world fertility rate decreases, the population would be low and if the fertility rate is high, the population growth would be high.
  4. Mortality brings major change. If large no. of deaths occurs then the population growth would be negative.
  5. Migration of people to other countries decreases the population of mother country.
  6. Immigration from other countries increases the population.
  7. Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be explained) 5×1=5

Q59.2025 Main 64/1/1 · Q245 marks

Define the terms immigration and emigration. Analyse demographic transitions theory in the world. 2 + 3 = 5

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Immigration : Migrants, who move into a new place are called immigrants. 1

Emigration : Migrants, who move out of a place are called emigrants. 1

Demographic Transition theory

  1. Demographic Transition theory can be used to describe and predict the future population of any area.
  2. The theory tells us that the population of any region changes from high births and high deaths to low births and low deaths as society progresses from rural, agrarian and illiterate state to an urban, industrial and literate one.
  3. The first stage has high fertility and high mortality, slow population growth due to epidemics and variable food supply.
  4. The second stage is marked with high fertility in the beginning but decline with time, reduced mortality rate due to improvement in sanitation and health.
  5. The last stage both fertility and mortality decline considerably, population is either stable or grows slowly due to urbanised and literate population.
  6. Any other relevant point.

(Any three points to be analyzed.) 3×1=3

2+3=5

Q60.2025 Main 64/5/1 · Q245 marks

Analyse any five factors influencing the distribution of world population. 5×1=5

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Geographical Factors

(I) Availability of Water :

  1. Essential for life (drinking, bathing, cooking).
  2. Crucial for agriculture, livestock, industries, and transportation (navigation).
  3. River valleys are densely populated.

(II) Landforms :

  1. People prefer flat plains and gentle slopes.
  2. These areas are favourable for agriculture, road construction, and industrial development.
  3. Mountainous and hilly areas are less populated due to uneven land.
  4. The Ganga plains are densely populated, while Himalayan mountain zones are sparsely populated.

(III) Climate :

  1. Extreme climates (hot or cold deserts) are unfavourable for habitation.
  2. Comfortable climates with minimal seasonal variation attract more people.
  3. Areas with heavy rainfall or harsh climates have low population.
  4. Mediterranean regions attract population due to their pleasant climate.

(IV) Soils :

  1. Fertile soils are important for agricultural and allied activities.
  2. Areas having fertile loamy soils have more people living on them.

Economic Factor :

(V) Minerals :

  1. Mining and industrial activities generate employment as mineral deposits attract industries.
  2. Skilled and semi-skilled workers move to these areas making them densely populated.
  3. Katanga Zambia copper belt is one such example.

(VI) Urbanisation :

  1. Cities offer better employment opportunities, educational and medical facilities.
  2. Cities provide better means of transport and communication.
  3. Good civic amenities attract people to the cities.
  4. It leads to rural-urban migration and cities grow in size.
  5. Mega cities of the world continue to attract large numbers of migrants every year.

(VII) Industrialisation :

  1. Industrial belts provide job opportunities and attract large numbers of people.
  2. The Kobe-Osaka region of Japan is thickly populated because of the presence of many industries.

(VIII) Social and Cultural Factors :

  1. Places with religious or cultural significance attract the population.
  2. Social and political unrest cause people to move away.
  3. Government incentives can influence population distribution in sparsely populated or overcrowded areas.

(IX) Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be analysed.) 5×1=5

Q61.2025 Main 64/7/1 · Q275 marks

(a) Explain the factors affecting the population distribution in the world.

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Factors affecting distribution of population in the world :

  1. Availability of water : Water is the most important factor for life. So, people prefer to live in areas where fresh water is easily available. Landforms : People prefer living on flat plains and gentle slopes. This is because such areas are favourable for the production of crops and to build roads and industries.
  2. Climate : An extreme climate such as very hot or cold deserts are uncomfortable for human habitation. Areas with a comfortable climate, where there is not much seasonal variation attract more people. Areas with very heavy rainfall or extreme and harsh climates have low population.
  3. Soils : Fertile soils are important for agricultural and allied activities. Therefore, areas which have fertile loamy soils have more people living on them as these can support intensive agriculture.
  4. Minerals : Areas with mineral deposits attract industries. Mining and industrial activities generate employment.
  5. Urbanisation : Cities offer better employment opportunities, educational and medical facilities, better means of transport and communication. Good civic amenities and the attraction of city life draw people to the cities.
  6. Industrialisation : Industrial belts provide job opportunities and attract large numbers of people. These include not just factory workers but also transport operators, shopkeepers, bank employees, doctors, teachers and other service providers.
  7. Social and Cultural Factors : Some places attract more people because they have religious or cultural significance. In the same way – people tend to move away from places where there is social and political unrest. Many a times governments offer incentives to people to live in sparsely populated areas or move away from overcrowded places.
  8. Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be analysed) 5×1=5

Q62.2025 Main 64/7/1 · Q27 (OR)5 marks

(b) Define ‘migration’. Differentiate between pull and push factors of population migration. 1+4=5

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Migration : Movement of people from place of origin to place of destination. 1

Difference between pull and push factors :

  1. Push factors at the place of origin and pull factors at the place of destinations.
  2. Unemployment, poor living conditions, political turmoil, unpleasant climate, natural disasters, epidemics and socio-economic backwardness are the push factors whereas better job opportunities and living conditions, peace and stability, security of life and property and pleasant climate (are the pull factors).
  3. Inadequate infrastructure (e.g., transportation, housing, utilities) can diminish the quality of life. Whereas well-developed infrastructure and access to services enhance the attractiveness of a destination.
  4. Social strife, ethnic or racial discrimination, and lack of community support push people to search for more favourable environments.
  5. Regions offering advanced medical facilities and reputable educational institutions are attractive to families and individuals alike.
  6. Any other relevant point.

(Any four points of difference to be explained) 4×1=4

1+4=5

Q63.2024 Main 64/5/1 · Q245 marks

Analyse any five factors affecting world distribution of population.

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(i) Availability of water is most important factor for life. People prefer to live in areas where fresh supply of water is available.

(ii) Relief of the land : People prefer to live on plains or gentle slopes. Plain areas abounds in population Satluj Ganga Plain is most densely populated.

(iii) Suitable climate : People do not prefer to live in areas of harsh climate. Suitable climate attracts population.

(iv) Soils : Soils are basis of agriculture. Areas with fertile soils support heavy pressure of population.

(v) Mineral ; mineral rich area also support heavy pressure of population.

(vi) Urbanization; Cities offer better employment opportunities, educational and medical facilities, better means of transport and communications.

(vii) Industrialization; Industrial belts provide job opportunities and attract large numbers of people.

(viii) Social and Cultural factors.

(ix) Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be analyzed)

5x1=5

Q64.2023 Main 64/3/1 · Q245 marks

“Economic and cultural factors influence the distribution of world population.” Examine the statement. 2½+2½=5

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Factors influencing the distribution of the world population-

(A) Economic factor

  1. Minerals
  2. Urbanisation
  3. Industralisation

To be examined as a whole. 2½

(B) Cultural factors

  1. Some places attract more people as they have cultural significance.
  2. People tend to move away from places where there is a social and cultural unrest.
  3. Government offer incentives to people to live in sparsely populated areas
  4. People move away from over crowded places.
  5. Any other relevant point

To be examined as a whole. 2½

2½+2½=5

Q65.2023 Main 64/5/1 · Q245 marks

(a) Analyse the effects of geographical factors on the distribution of world population.

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The following geographical factors influence the distribution of population all over the world :

  1. Availability of water.
  2. Nature of landscape/landforms.
  3. Nature of soils.
  4. Adequate rainfall.
  5. Climate
  6. Any other relevant point

(Any 5 points need to be explained.) 1×5=5

Q66.2023 Main 64/5/1 · Q24 (OR)5 marks

(b) Analyse the economic and social factors affecting the distribution of population in the world. 3 + 2 = 5

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Economic Factors:

  1. Minerals
  2. Urbanisation
  3. Industrialisation
  4. Any other relevant point.

(Any three points to be explained.) 3×1=3

Social factors :

  1. Religious
  2. Cultural
  3. Any other relevant point.

(Any two points to be explained.) 2×1=2

3+2=5

Part A · Fundamentals of Human Geography

3. Human Development

Q1.2026 Main 64/1/1 · Q11 mark

Which of the following statements related to the concept of ‘development’ are correct ? Choose the appropriate option. 1

  1. Development means positive change in life.
  2. When positive growth is there, it is development.
  3. When quantity is greater, it is development.
  4. Development is always relative to value.

Options :

  1. Only I, II and III are correct.
  2. Only I, II and IV are correct.
  3. Only I, III and IV are correct.
  4. Only II, III and IV are correct.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/1/1

(B) Only I, II and IV are correct

Q2.2026 Main 64/1/1 · Q21 mark

Match column-I with column-II correctly and choose the appropriate option : 1

Column-I
(Approach)
Column-II
(Characteristics)
a. Income Approachi. Proposed by International Labour Organisation
b. Welfare Approachii. Health, education and access to resources – key factors
c. Basic Needs Approachiii. It is one of the oldest approach
d. Capability Approachiv. Human being – targeted beneficiaries

Options :

abcd
(A)iiiiviii
(B)iiiiiiiv
(C)iiiiviii
(D)iiiiviii
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(D) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii

Q3.2026 Main 64/2/1 · Q151 mark

Study the following table carefully and answer the Question Nos. 15 to 17 :

Human Development Index 2022

S.N.CountryHDI Value
1Belarus0.801
2Botswana0.708
3Congo0.593
4Mexico0.781
5Nigeria0.548
6Sudan0.516
7Tanjania0.532
8Chile0.860
9Yemen0.424

How many countries fall under the low category of ‘human development index’ in the given table ? 1

  1. 2
  2. 4
  3. 3
  4. 5
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(B) 4

Q4.2026 Main 64/2/1 · Q161 mark

Study the following table carefully and answer the Question Nos. 15 to 17 :

Human Development Index 2022

S.N.CountryHDI Value
1Belarus0.801
2Botswana0.708
3Congo0.593
4Mexico0.781
5Nigeria0.548
6Sudan0.516
7Tanjania0.532
8Chile0.860
9Yemen0.424

Congo comes under which one of the following categories of human development ? 1

  1. Very high
  2. High
  3. Medium
  4. Low
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/2/1

(C) Medium

Q5.2026 Main 64/2/1 · Q171 mark

Study the following table carefully and answer the Question Nos. 15 to 17 :

Human Development Index 2022

S.N.CountryHDI Value
1Belarus0.801
2Botswana0.708
3Congo0.593
4Mexico0.781
5Nigeria0.548
6Sudan0.516
7Tanjania0.532
8Chile0.860
9Yemen0.424

Which of the following European country falls under very high category of human development ? 1

  1. Chile
  2. Mexico
  3. Botswana
  4. Belarus
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/2/1

(D) Belarus

Q6.2026 Main 64/3/1 · Q11 mark

Which of the following is one of the main objectives of ‘human development’ ? Choose the most appropriate option.

  1. Long life
  2. Healthy life
  3. Wealthy life
  4. Meaningful life
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/3/1

(D) Meaningful life

Q7.2026 Main 64/3/1 · Q21 mark

Which of the following aspects are true regarding the countries with low level of ‘human development’ ? Choose the most appropriate option.

  1. These countries are largely facing political turmoil.
  2. These countries are facing social instability.
  3. The number of countries in the low level category is the largest.
  4. The health status of the people of these countries is poor.

Options :

  1. Only I, II and III are correct.
  2. Only I, II and IV are correct.
  3. Only I, III and IV are correct.
  4. Only II, III and IV are correct.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/3/1

(B) Only I, II and IV are correct

Q8.2026 Main 64/3/1 · Q151 mark

Study the given table carefully and answer the question nos. 15 to 17 :

Human Development Index of Selected Countries (2022)

S. No.CountryHDI Value (2022)
1.Bhutan0·681
2.Bulgaria0·799
3.Mauritius0·796
4.Singapore0·949
5.Sweden0·952
6.Venezuela0·699

Which one of the following countries is ranked the best in Human Development Index ?

  1. Bhutan
  2. Bulgaria
  3. Mauritius
  4. Singapore
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/3/1

(D) Singapore

Q9.2026 Main 64/3/1 · Q161 mark

Study the given table carefully and answer the question nos. 15 to 17 :

Human Development Index of Selected Countries (2022)

S. No.CountryHDI Value (2022)
1.Bhutan0·681
2.Bulgaria0·799
3.Mauritius0·796
4.Singapore0·949
5.Sweden0·952
6.Venezuela0·699

Arrange the following countries in descending order of their HDI and choose the correct option.

  1. Mauritius
  2. Singapore
  3. Sweden
  4. Venezuela

Options :

  1. II, III, IV, I
  2. II, III, I, IV
  3. III, II, I, IV
  4. III, II, IV, I
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/3/1

(C) III, II, I, IV

Q10.2026 Main 64/3/1 · Q171 mark

Study the given table carefully and answer the question nos. 15 to 17 :

Human Development Index of Selected Countries (2022)

S. No.CountryHDI Value (2022)
1.Bhutan0·681
2.Bulgaria0·799
3.Mauritius0·796
4.Singapore0·949
5.Sweden0·952
6.Venezuela0·699

Which continent has the highest number of countries in the given table ?

  1. Asia
  2. Africa
  3. Europe
  4. South America
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/3/1

(A) Asia or (C) Europe (Any one of it)

NOTE: Marks to be awarded if the examinee writes either of the two options- (A) Asia or (C) Europe.

Q11.2026 Main 64/5/1 · Q11 mark

Why do some countries keep on maintaining a high level of ‘human development’ ? Choose the most appropriate option :

  1. Such countries invest more in social sector.
  2. Such countries are generally rich in political stability.
  3. Such countries invest more in economic sector.
  4. Such countries are generally rich in cultural stability.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/5/1

(A) Such countries invest more in social sector.

Q12.2026 Main 64/5/1 · Q21 mark

Match Column I with Column II correctly and choose the appropriate option :

Column I
(Level of Human Development)
Column II
(Country)
a. Very Highi. Bulgaria
b. Highii. Nigeria
c. Mediumiii. Switzerland
d. Lowiv. Venezuela

Options :

  1. a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
  2. a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
  3. a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
  4. a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/5/1

(C) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii

Q13.2026 Main 64/5/1 · Q31 mark

Read the following characteristics of ‘growth’ carefully and choose the correct option :

  1. Growth is quantitative change over time.
  2. Growth always leads to development.
  3. Growth is a value neutral concept.
  4. Growth has positive or negative value.

Options :

  1. Only I, II and III are correct.
  2. Only I, II and IV are correct.
  3. Only II, III and IV are correct.
  4. Only I, III and IV are correct.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/5/1

(D) Only I, III and IV are correct.

Q14.2025 Main 64/1/1 · Q151 mark

Read the following table & passage and answer Question Nos. 15 to 17 :

International Comparison of Human Development
Human Development Categories

Level of Human DevelopmentScore in Development Index
Very Highabove 0.800
Highbetween 0.700 up to 0.799
Mediumbetween 0.550 up to 0.699
Lowbelow 0.549

The priority of countries with high level of human development is providing education and healthcare. They are investing more in social sector. Altogether, a higher investment in people and good governance has set this group of countries apart from others.

Countries with medium levels of human development have emerged in the period after the Second World War. Many of these countries have been rapidly improving their human development score by adopting more people-oriented policies and reducing social discrimination.

The most important factor applicable with high human development countries is ______

  1. maximum investment in social sector.
  2. maximum investment in service sector.
  3. maximum investment in industrial development.
  4. maximum investment in agricultural development.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/1/1

(A) Maximum investment in social sector.

Q15.2025 Main 64/1/1 · Q161 mark

Read the following table & passage and answer Question Nos. 15 to 17 :

International Comparison of Human Development
Human Development Categories

Level of Human DevelopmentScore in Development Index
Very Highabove 0.800
Highbetween 0.700 up to 0.799
Mediumbetween 0.550 up to 0.699
Lowbelow 0.549

The priority of countries with high level of human development is providing education and healthcare. They are investing more in social sector. Altogether, a higher investment in people and good governance has set this group of countries apart from others.

Countries with medium levels of human development have emerged in the period after the Second World War. Many of these countries have been rapidly improving their human development score by adopting more people-oriented policies and reducing social discrimination.

Greater improvement among the medium level of human development countries is marked by ______.

  1. Development related policies
  2. Environment related policies
  3. Economy oriented policies
  4. Society oriented policies
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/1/1

(D) Society oriented policies

Q16.2025 Main 64/1/1 · Q171 mark

Read the following table & passage and answer Question Nos. 15 to 17 :

International Comparison of Human Development
Human Development Categories

Level of Human DevelopmentScore in Development Index
Very Highabove 0.800
Highbetween 0.700 up to 0.799
Mediumbetween 0.550 up to 0.699
Lowbelow 0.549

The priority of countries with high level of human development is providing education and healthcare. They are investing more in social sector. Altogether, a higher investment in people and good governance has set this group of countries apart from others.

Countries with medium levels of human development have emerged in the period after the Second World War. Many of these countries have been rapidly improving their human development score by adopting more people-oriented policies and reducing social discrimination.

Which one of the following score of human development index shows the range for Medium category ?

  1. 0.049
  2. 0.099
  3. 0.149
  4. 0.199
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/1/1

(C) 0.149

Q17.2025 Main 64/5/1 · Q151 mark

Study the following table carefully and answer the questions from 15 to 17 :

Human Development Index (2021)

S. No.Country’s nameHDI Value (2021)
1.Israel0·919
2.Mexico0·758
3.Switzerland0·962
4.Singapore0·939
5.Cuba0·764
6.Austria0·916
7.Germany0·942
8.Chile0·855

The maximum number of countries given in the table belong to which one of the following continents ?

  1. North America
  2. South America
  3. Europe
  4. Asia
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/5/1

(C) Europe

Q18.2025 Main 64/5/1 · Q161 mark

Study the following table carefully and answer the questions from 15 to 17 :

Human Development Index (2021)

S. No.Country’s nameHDI Value (2021)
1.Israel0·919
2.Mexico0·758
3.Switzerland0·962
4.Singapore0·939
5.Cuba0·764
6.Austria0·916
7.Germany0·942
8.Chile0·855

Arrange the following countries from low to high order of Human Development Index value and choose the correct option.

I. Singapore   II. Germany   III. Mexico   IV. Israel

Options :

  1. III, IV, II, I
  2. III, IV, I, II
  3. IV, III, I, II
  4. IV, III, II, I
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/5/1

(B) III, IV, I, II

Q19.2025 Main 64/5/1 · Q171 mark

Study the following table carefully and answer the questions from 15 to 17 :

Human Development Index (2021)

S. No.Country’s nameHDI Value (2021)
1.Israel0·919
2.Mexico0·758
3.Switzerland0·962
4.Singapore0·939
5.Cuba0·764
6.Austria0·916
7.Germany0·942
8.Chile0·855

Choose the correctly matched pair.

(Countries)(Continents)
(A)AustriaEurope
(B)CubaAfrica
(C)ChileAsia
(D)MexicoSouth America
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/5/1

(A) Austria – Europe

Q20.2025 Main 64/6/1 · Q21 mark

Who among the following considered an increase in freedom of the people as the main objective of human development ?

  1. Mahbub-ul-Haq
  2. Ehrlich
  3. Amartya Sen
  4. Meadows
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/6/1

(C) Amartya Sen

Q21.2025 Main 64/7/1 · Q71 mark

In which one of the following approaches of human development are human beings the targets of all developmental activities ? Choose the most appropriate option.

  1. Income Approach
  2. Welfare Approach
  3. Basic Needs Approach
  4. Capability Approach
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/7/1

(B) Welfare Approach

Q22.2025 Main 64/7/1 · Q111 mark

Which one of the following is correct about growth and development ?

  1. Both growth and development are always positive.
  2. Growth may be positive or negative, but development is always positive.
  3. Development may be positive or negative, but growth is always positive.
  4. Both growth and development may be positive or negative.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/7/1

(B) Growth may be positive or negative, but development is always positive.

Q23.2025 Main 64/7/1 · Q131 mark

Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option.

Column-I
(Pillars of Human Development)
Column-II
(Characteristics)
a. Equityi. Providing better health facilities to everyone
b. Sustainabilityii. Good governance and people-oriented policies
c. Productivityiii. Each generation must ensure the availability of choices and opportunities to its future generations
d. Empowermentiv. Equal access of opportunities for everyone

Options :

  1. a – iv, b – iii, c – ii, d – i
  2. a – iv, b – iii, c – i, d – ii
  3. a – iii, b – iv, c – i, d – ii
  4. a – iii, b – iv, c – ii, d – i
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/7/1

(B) a – iv, b – iii, c – i, d – ii

Q24.2025 Supp. 64/S/1 · Q41 mark

Read the following important aspects of human development carefully and choose the correct option.

  1. Leading a long and healthy life
  2. People’s access to knowledge
  3. Leading a life with high income
  4. People’s access to resources

Options :

  1. Only I, II and III are correct.
  2. Only I, II and IV are correct.
  3. Only I, III and IV are correct.
  4. Only II, III and IV are correct.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/S/1

(B) Only I, II, and IV are correct

Q25.2025 Supp. 64/S/1 · Q51 mark

Spiritual, non-material and qualitative aspects of life is advocated in which one of the following ?

  1. Gross National Happiness (GNH)
  2. Gross Domestic Product (GDP)
  3. Human Development Index (HDI)
  4. Social Development Index (SDI)
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/S/1

(A) Gross National Happiness (GNH)

Q26.2025 Supp. 64/S/1 · Q61 mark

Read the following statements regarding ‘development’ and choose the correct option.

  1. Always a positive change in the quality between two time periods.
  2. Qualitative increase in the existing conditions from the past.
  3. Increase in the absolute value between two time periods.
  4. Improvements in the qualitative life between two time periods.

Options :

  1. Only II, III and IV are correct.
  2. Only I, III and IV are correct.
  3. Only I, II and III are correct.
  4. Only I, II and IV are correct.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/S/1

(D) Only I, II, and IV are correct.

Q27.2024 Main 64/2/1 · Q21 mark

Which one of the following is an approach of Human Development ?

  1. Equity
  2. Productivity
  3. Capability
  4. Empowerment
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/2/1

(C) Capability

Q28.2024 Main 64/3/1 · Q21 mark

‘International Labour Organisation’ initiated which one of the following approaches of Human Development ?

  1. Income
  2. Welfare
  3. Capability
  4. Basic Needs
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/3/1

(D) Basic Needs

Q29.2024 Main 64/5/1 · Q151 mark

Read the given passage and answer the Question Nos. 15 to 17 :

Characteristics of High Human Development

High level of human development group has 53 countries. Providing education and healthcare is an important government priority. Countries with higher human development are those where a lot of investment in the social sector has taken place. Altogether, a higher investment in people and good governance has set this group of countries apart from the others.

Many of these countries has been the former imperial powers. The degree of social diversity in these countries is not very high. Many of the countries with a high human development score are located in Europe and represent the industrialised western world. Yet there are striking numbers of non-European countries also who have made it to this list.

Which one of the following is an important priority of ‘high human development index’ countries ? Choose the most appropriate option.

  1. Education and healthcare
  2. Healthcare and territorial security
  3. Education and industrial development.
  4. Economic development and per capita income
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/5/1

(A) Education and healthcare

Q30.2024 Main 64/5/1 · Q161 mark

Read the given passage and answer the Question Nos. 15 to 17 :

Characteristics of High Human Development

High level of human development group has 53 countries. Providing education and healthcare is an important government priority. Countries with higher human development are those where a lot of investment in the social sector has taken place. Altogether, a higher investment in people and good governance has set this group of countries apart from the others.

Many of these countries has been the former imperial powers. The degree of social diversity in these countries is not very high. Many of the countries with a high human development score are located in Europe and represent the industrialised western world. Yet there are striking numbers of non-European countries also who have made it to this list.

Which one of the followings differentiates the higher human development countries from others ? Choose the most appropriate option.

  1. Higher gross domestic production
  2. Higher investment in social sector
  3. Higher industrialization
  4. Higher per capita income
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/5/1

(B) Higher investment in social sector

Q31.2024 Main 64/5/1 · Q171 mark

Read the given passage and answer the Question Nos. 15 to 17 :

Characteristics of High Human Development

High level of human development group has 53 countries. Providing education and healthcare is an important government priority. Countries with higher human development are those where a lot of investment in the social sector has taken place. Altogether, a higher investment in people and good governance has set this group of countries apart from the others.

Many of these countries has been the former imperial powers. The degree of social diversity in these countries is not very high. Many of the countries with a high human development score are located in Europe and represent the industrialised western world. Yet there are striking numbers of non-European countries also who have made it to this list.

How many countries are under ‘high human development index’ category ? Choose the correct option.

  1. 51
  2. 52
  3. 53
  4. 54
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/5/1

(C) 53

Q32.2023 Main 64/1/1 · Q21 mark

Which approach of ‘human development’ was proposed by the International Labour Organisation (ILO) ?

  1. Income
  2. Welfare
  3. Basic need
  4. Capability
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/1/1

(c) Basic need

Q33.2023 Main 64/1/1 · Q71 mark

Which one of the following countries has the highest rank in Human Development Index ?

  1. Germany
  2. Sweden
  3. Australia
  4. Denmark
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/1/1

(c) Australia

Q34.2023 Main 64/5/1 · Q11 mark

Who, among the following economists created the Human Development Index in the year 1990 ?

  1. Prof. Amartya Sen
  2. Dr. Manmohan Singh
  3. Dr. Mahbub-ul-Haq
  4. Ellen C. Semple
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/5/1

(C) Dr. Mahbub-ul-Haq

Q35.2023 Main 64/5/1 · Q21 mark

Which one of the following approaches was initially proposed by the International Labour Organisation (ILO) ?

  1. Income Approach
  2. Welfare Approach
  3. Basic Needs Approach
  4. Capability Approach
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/5/1

(C) Basic Needs Approach

Q36.2023 Main 64/5/1 · Q31 mark

Which of the following is NOT a key area in human development ?

  1. Access to resources
  2. Long and healthy life
  3. Education
  4. Economic disadvantage
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/5/1

(D) Economic disadvantage

Q37.SQP 2025-26 · Q31 mark

Country Y has an HDI of 0.950 and is ranked among the highest in human development. Which of the following policies should it focus on to maintain this status?

  1. Increasing industrial output to boost GNI per capita
  2. Not investing on infrastructure for healthcare and education
  3. Reducing emphasis on education to focus on economic activities
  4. Strengthening policies on environmental sustainability and social equity.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26

(D) Strengthening policies on environmental sustainability and social equity

Q38.SQP 2025-26 · Q61 mark

Match the following policies with the pillar of human development they reflect:

Policies/InitiativesPillar of Human Development
1. Equal access to education for girls and boysa. Sustainability
2. Availability of resources for future generationsb. Equity
3. Encouraging participation in local governancec. Productivity
4. Skill development programs for higher efficiencyd. Empowerment
  1. 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d
  2. 1-b, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c
  3. 1-c, 2-d, 3-b, 4-a
  4. 1-d, 2-c, 3-a, 4-b
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26

(B) 1-b, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c

Q39.SQP 2026-27 · Q41 mark

In which of the following countries you can expect a higher investment in people providing education and healthcare as priority and good governance.

Sl No.CountryHDI 2022
1.Iceland0.959
2.Denmark0.952
3.Tajikistan0.679
4.El Salvador0.674
5.Burkina Faso0.438
6.Niger0.394
  1. Niger and El Salvador
  2. Burkina Faso and Tajikistan
  3. Tajikistan and Niger
  4. Iceland and Denmark
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27

(D) Iceland and Denmark

Q40.2026 Main 64/1/1 · Q213 marks

Examine the importance of ‘sustainability’ as a pillar of ‘human development’. 3

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/1/1

i) Sustainability refers to the continuity in the availability of opportunities.
ii) Each generation must have the same opportunities to have sustainable human development.
iii) All environmental, financial, and human resources should be used judiciously to keep future in mind.
iv) Misuse of any of these resources will lead to fewer opportunities for future generations.
v) Each generation must ensure the availability of choices and opportunities to its future generations.
vi) Any other relevant point.

(Any three points to be examined) 3×1=3

Q41.2026 Main 64/4/1 · Q213 marks

(a) Explain the concept of ‘productivity’ as a pillar of human development. 3

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/4/1

i) Productivity means human labour productivity or productivity in terms of human work.
ii) Productivity must be constantly enriched by building capabilities in people.
iii) It is people who are the real wealth of nations.
iv) Therefore, efforts to increase their knowledge, or provide better health facilities ultimately leads to better work efficiency.
v) Any other relevant point.

(Any three points to be explained) 3×1=3

Q42.2026 Main 64/4/1 · Q21 (OR)3 marks

(b) Explain the concept of ‘empowerment’ as a pillar of human development. 3

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/4/1

i) Empowerment means to have the power to make choices.
ii) Such power comes from increasing freedom and capability.
iii) Good governance and people- oriented policy are required to empower people.
iv) The empowerment of socially and economically disadvantaged groups is of special importance.
v) Any other relevant point.

(Any three points to be explained) 3×1=3

Q43.2026 Supp. 64/7/1 · Q233 marks

Explain the main characteristics of ‘welfare approach’ to human development. 3

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/7/1
  1. This approach looks at human beings as beneficiaries or targets of all development activities.
  2. The approach argues for higher government expenditure on education, health, social secondary and amenities.
  3. People are not participants in development but only passive recipients.
  4. The government is responsible for increasing the levels of human development by maximizing the expenditure on welfare.
  5. Any other relevant point.

(Three points to be explained) 3×1=3

Q44.2026 Supp. 64/7/1 · Q23 (OR)3 marks

Explain the main characteristics of the ‘basic needs approach’ to human development. 3

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/7/1
  1. This approach was initially proposed by the International Labour Organisation (ILO).
  2. Based on basic needs of the human beings.
  3. Six basic needs are – health, education, food, water supply, sanitation and housing.
  4. The question of human choices is ignored and emphasis is on provision of basic needs.
  5. Any other relevant point.

(Three points to be explained) 3×1=3

Q45.2025 Main 64/6/1 · Q183 marks

Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow :

Human Development

Access to resources, health and education are the key areas in human development. Suitable indicators have been developed to measure each of these aspects.

Very often, people do not have the capability and freedom to make even basic choices. This may be due to their inability to acquire knowledge, their material poverty, social discrimination, inefficiency of institutions and other reasons. This prevents them from leading healthy lives, being able to get educated or to have the means to live a decent life.

Building people’s capabilities in the areas of health, education and access to resources is therefore, important in enlarging their choices. If people do not have capabilities in these areas, their choices also get limited.

For example, an uneducated child cannot make the choice to be a doctor because her choice has got limited by her lack of education. Similarly, very often poor people cannot choose to take medical treatment for disease because their choice is limited by their lack of resources.

(18.1) Name any two areas of human development. ½ + ½ = 1

(18.2) Mention any two reasons which lead to lack of capability and freedom to make even basic choices. ½ + ½ = 1

(18.3) Explain the condition in which the choices of people are restricted. 1

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/6/1

(18.1)

  1. Access to resources
  2. Health
  3. Education

(Any two points to be considered) ½ + ½ = 1

(18.2)

  1. Inability to acquire knowledge.
  2. Material Poverty.
  3. Social discrimination
  4. Inefficiency of institutions

(Any two points to be considered) ½ + ½ = 1

(18.3)

  1. Lack of health
  2. Lack of education
  3. Lack of access to resources

(Any one point to be explained) 1

3×1=3

Q46.2024 Main 64/2/1 · Q233 marks

(a) “The ways to measure human development are constantly being refined.” Support the statement with suitable arguments.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/2/1

The ways to measure human development are-

  1. The HDI ranks the countries based on their performance in the key areas of health, education and access to resources.
  2. Newer ways of capturing different elements of human development are being researched.
  3. Researchers have found links between the level of corruption or political freedom in a particular region.
  4. Any other relevant point.

(Any three points to be explained). 3×1=3

Q47.2024 Main 64/2/1 · Q23 (OR)3 marks

(b) “Equity refers to making equal access to opportunities available to everybody.” Support the statement with suitable arguments.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/2/1

Arguments to support equity for making equal access to opportunities available to everybody-

  1. The opportunities available to people must be equal irrespective of other gender, race, income and in the Indian case-caste.
  2. Yet this is very often not the case and happens in almost every society.
  3. In any country, it is interesting to see which group the most of the school dropouts belong to. This should then lead to an understanding of the reasons for such behavior.
  4. Any other relevant point.

(Any three points to be explained). 3×1=3

Q48.2024 Main 64/3/1 · Q233 marks

(a) “Misuse of any resources will lead to fewer opportunities for future generations.” Explain the statement with examples in the context of sustainable development.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/3/1
  1. Sustainability means continuity in the availability of opportunities.
  2. To have sustainable human development, each generation must have the same opportunities
  3. All environmental, financial and human resources must be used keeping in mind the future.
  4. For example, If a community does not stress the importance of sending its girl children to school many opportunities will be lost to these young women when they grow up.
  5. Any other relevant point. One example also to be given.

(Any three points to be explained) 3x1=3

Q49.2024 Main 64/3/1 · Q23 (OR)3 marks

(b) “Welfare approach of human development emphasizes on the actions for development of human beings.” Explain the statement with examples.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/3/1
  1. This approach looks at human beings as beneficiaries or targets of all development activities.
  2. The approach argues for higher government expenditure on education, health etc
  3. People are not participants in development but only passive recipients
  4. The govt. is responsible for increasing levels of human development by maximizing expenditure on welfare.
  5. For example, High level HDI group of countries like Norway, Sweden do a lot of investment on social welfare activities / schemes.
  6. Any other relevant point. One example also to be given.

(Any three points to be explained.) 3x1=3

Q50.2024 Supp. 64/S/1 · Q213 marks

(a) Explain the main aspects of the ‘Basic Needs Approach’ of human development.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/S/1
  1. Basic Needs Approach was proposed by ILO (International Labour Organisation).
  2. Six basic needs i.e. health, education, food, water supply, sanitation and housing were identified.
  3. The question of human choices is ignored.
  4. Emphasis is on the provision of basic needs of defined sections.
  5. Any other relevant point

(Any three points to be explained.) 3x1=3

Q51.2024 Supp. 64/S/1 · Q21 (OR)3 marks

(b) Explain the main aspects of ‘Welfare Approach’ of human development.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/S/1
  1. This approach looks at human beings as beneficiaries or targets of all development activities.
  2. This approach argues for higher government expenditure on education, health, social security and amenities.
  3. People are not participants in development but only passive recipients.
  4. The government is responsible for increasing level of human development by maximizing expenditure on welfare.
  5. Any other relevant point.

(Any three points to be explained.) 3x1=3

Q52.2023 Main 64/3/1 · Q223 marks

(a) Explain any three causes for the low level of human development in some countries of the world. 3

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/3/1

Causes for the Low level of human development:

  1. Political turmoil in the country.
  2. Social instability and civil war-like conditions.
  3. Famines or high incidence of diseases.
  4. Any other relevant point

Any three points to be explained 3×1=3

Q53.2023 Main 64/3/1 · Q22 (OR)3 marks

(b) Explain any three causes for the high level of human development in some countries of the world. 3

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/3/1

Causes for the high level of human development:

  1. Development in education.
  2. Better health facilities.
  3. Political stability in the country.
  4. Higher investment on people and good governance.
  5. Any other relevant point

Any three points to be explained 3×1=3

Q54.2023 Supp. 64/C/1 · Q223 marks

(a) Explain the concept of ‘Equity’ as a pillar of human development. 3

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/C/1
  1. Equity refers to making equal access to opportunities available to everybody.
  2. The opportunities available to people must be equal irrespective of their gender, race, income and caste.
  3. In India a large number of women and persons belonging to socially and economically backward groups dropout of the schools. This shows how the choices of these groups get limited by not having access to knowledge.
  4. Any other relevant point.

(Any three points to be explained.) 3×1=3

Q55.2023 Supp. 64/C/1 · Q22 (OR)3 marks

(b) Why do some countries have medium level of human development ? Explain. 3

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/C/1
  1. Most of these are countries which have emerged in the period after the Second World War.
  2. Some countries from this group were former colonies.
  3. Many countries have emerged after the break up of the erstwhile Soviet Union in 1990.
  4. To rapidly improve their human development score these countries have adopting more people-oriented policies.
  5. These countries are also reducing social discrimination.
  6. Most of these countries have a very high social diversity.
  7. Many countries have faced political instability and social uprisings at some point of time in their recent history.
  8. Any other relevant point.

(Any three points to be explained.) 3×1=3

Q56.2022 Main 64/1/1 · Q43 marks

Read the following source and answer the questions that follow : 1 × 3 = 3

The concept of development is dynamic and has evolved during the second half of twentieth century. In the post World War II era, the concept of development was synonymous to economic growth which is measured in terms of temporal increase in Gross National Product (GNP) and per capita income/per capita consumption. But, even the countries having high economic growth, experienced speedy rise in poverty because of its unequal distribution. So, in 1970s, the phrases such as redistribution with growth and growth and equity were incorporated in the definition of development. While dealing with the questions related to redistribution and equity, it was realised that the concept of development cannot be restricted to the economic sphere alone. It also includes the issues such as improving the well-being and living standard of people, availing of the health, education and equality of opportunity and ensuring political and civil rights. By 1980s, development emerged as a concept encapsulating wide-spread improvement in social as well as material well-being of all in a society.

4.1 Explain the meaning of ‘Multidimensional concept of development’. 1
4.2 Explain the difference between ‘growth’ and ‘development’. 1
4.3 Define the term ‘sustainable development’. 1

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2022 (Main), Set 64/1/1

4.1 Multidimensional concept of development : Encapsulating wide-spread improvement in social as well as material well being of all in a society, viz. living standard of people, availing of the health, education and equality of opportunity and ensuring political and civil rights. 1

4.2 Growth is quantitative and value neutral while development means a qualitative change which is always value positive. 1

4.3 Sustainable development takes care of ecological, social and economic aspects of development during the present times and pleads for conservation of resources to enable the future generations to use the resources. 1

(explanation given by the students should be considered, if it conveys the same meaning.)

Q57.SQP 2025-26 · Q193 marks

Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follows:

The concept of human development was introduced by Dr Mahbub-ul-Haq. Dr Haq has described human development as development that enlarges people’s choices and improves their lives. People are central to all development under this concept. These choices are not fixed but keep on changing. The basic goal of development is to create conditions where people can live meaningful lives.

The human development index (HDI) ranks the countries based on their performance in the key areas of health, education and access to resources. These rankings are based on a score between 0 to 1 that a country earns from its record in the key areas of human development.

The ways to measure human development are constantly being refined and newer ways of capturing different elements of human development are being researched. Researchers have found links between the level of corruption or political freedom in a particular region.

India ranks 132 out of 191 countries in the Human Development Index (HDI) 2021, after registering a decline in its score over two consecutive years for the first time in two decades.

(https://ncert.nic.in/textbook.php?legy1=3-8)

The 2023 HDI stands at a new high following steep decline during 2020 and 2021 due to the COVID-19 pandemic, according to the 2023-24 Human Development Report released by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) on March 13, 2024.

The report found that rich countries experienced unprecedented development. But half of the world’s poorest nations continued to languish below their pre-COVID crisis levels.

The 2023-24 Human Development Report identified Switzerland, Norway, and Iceland as leading the national human development indices, while the Central African Republic, South Sudan, and Somalia lagged the furthest behind.

(Source: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/governance/poverty-reduction-in-reverse-far-right-populism-to-blame-says-un-2023-human-development-report-95011)

  1. What does the Human Development Index (HDI) measure according to the source?
  2. What significant trend did the 2023 HDI report highlight regarding the world’s poorest nations?
  3. Which three countries were ranked highest in the 2023 Human Development Index?

1+1+1=3

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26
  1. The HDI measures a country’s Gross National Income per capita, education, and life expectancy.
  2. The report highlighted that half of the world’s poorest nations continued to remain below their pre-COVID crisis levels.
  3. The three highest-ranked countries in the 2023 HDI were Switzerland, Norway, and Iceland.

1+1+1=3

Q58.SQP 2026-27 · Q203 marks

Explain the concept of human development as introduced by Dr Mahbub-ul-Haq.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27

The concept of human development was introduced by Dr Mahbub-ul-Haq. Dr Haq has described human development as development that enlarges people’s choices and improves their lives. People are central to all development under this concept. The basic goal of development is to create conditions where people can live meaningful lives. Leading a long and healthy life, being able to gain knowledge and having enough means to be able to live a decent life are the most important aspects of human development. Therefore, access to resources, health and education are the key areas in human development. (3)

Q59.2025 Main 64/2/1 · Q245 marks

Explain the concept of ‘human development’. Examine four approaches to human development. 1 + 4 = 5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/2/1

Human Development is the development that enlarges people’s choices and improves their lives. People are central to all development as per this concept. 1

The four approaches to human development are :

  1. Income approach - This is one of the oldest approaches to human development. Human development is seen as being linked to income. The idea is that the level of income reflects the level of freedom, an individual enjoys. Higher level of income, higher is the level of human development.
  2. Welfare approach - The approach looks at human beings as beneficiaries or targets of all development activities. The approach argues for higher government expenditure on education, health, social, secondary, and amenities. People are not participants in development, but only passive recipients. The government is responsible for increasing levels of human development by maximizing expenditure on welfare.
  3. Basic needs approach - This approach was initially proposed by the International Labour Organization. Six basic needs i.e., health, education, food, water supply, sanitation, and housing were identified. The question of human choices is ignored and the emphasis is on the provisions of basic need.
  4. Capability approach - This approach is associated with Professor Amartya Sen. Building human capabilities in the areas of health, education, and access to resources is the key to increasing human development.

(All the four approaches to be examined) 4×1=4

1+4=5

Q60.2025 Main 64/4/1 · Q245 marks

Differentiate between growth and development by citing examples. 5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/4/1
  1. The growth is quantitative and value neutral.
  2. Growth may have a positive or a negative sign, it means that the changes may be either positive or negative whereas,
  3. Development means a qualitative change which is always value positive,
  4. Development cannot take place unless there is an increment or addition to the existing conditions.
  5. Development occurs when positive growth takes place.
  6. Yet, positive growth does not lead to development. Development occurs when there is a positive change in quality.
  7. For example, if the population of a city grows from one lakh to two lakhs over a period of time. It shows the city has grown. However, if facilities like housing, the provision of basic services and other characteristics remain the same, then this growth has not been accompanied by development.
  8. Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be given to differentiate) 5×1=5

Q61.2024 Main 64/1/1 · Q245 marks

How is the ‘Human Development Index’ measured ? Explain key areas of human development. 2+3=5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/1/1

Measures of Human Development Index:

Human development index (HDI) ranks the countries based on their performance in the key areas of health, education and access to resources. These ranking are based on a score between 0 to 1. The closer score is to one the greater is the level of human development. 2

Key Areas:-

  1. Health:- The indicator chosen to assess health is the life expectancy at birth.
  2. Access to knowledge: The adult literacy rate and the gross enrollment ratio represent access to knowledge.
  3. Access to resources: It is measured in terms of purchasing power (US $).
  4. Any other relevant point.

(Any three points to be explained.) 3x1=1

2+3=5

Q62.2024 Main 64/4/1 · Q245 marks

(a) Which organisation publishes the ‘Human Development Report’ every year ? Explain the four pillars of ‘human development’. 1 + 4 = 5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/4/1

UNDP (United Nations Development Programme) 1

Pillars of human development

  1. Equity
  2. Sustainability
  3. Productivity
  4. Empowerment

All pillars to be explained 4x1=4

1+4=5

Q63.2024 Main 64/4/1 · Q24 (OR)5 marks

(b) Which country has the highest rank in the world in ‘Human Development Index’ in 2020 ? Explain four approaches of human development. 1 + 4 = 5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/4/1

Norway 1

Approaches of human development.

  1. Income Approach
  2. Welfare Approach
  3. Basic Needs Approach
  4. Capability Approach

(All the approaches to be explained) 4x1=4

1+4=5

Q64.2023 Main 64/4/1 · Q245 marks

Describe income and welfare approaches to human development. 2½+2½=5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/4/1

Income approach :

  1. It is the oldest approach.
  2. Human development is seen linking to income.
  3. Level of income reflects level of freedom that people enjoy.
  4. Higher level of income means higher level of human development.
  5. Any other relevant point.

To be assessed as a whole. 2.5

Welfare approach :

  1. Human beings are supposed to be the beneficiaries or targets of all kinds of developmental activities.
  2. It argues for higher level of government expenditure on health, education and other facilities.
  3. People are not the participants in development but only the passive recipients.
  4. Government is completely responsible for the level of human development.
  5. It is government’s responsibility to maximise expenditure on people’s welfare.
  6. Any other relevant point.

To be assessed as a whole. 2.5

2.5+2.5=5

Part A · Fundamentals of Human Geography

4. Primary Activities

Q1.2026 Main 64/1/1 · Q31 mark

Which one of the following is the low latitudes zone of subsistence gathering practiced in the world ? 1

  1. Northern Canada
  2. Northern Eurasia
  3. Southeast Asia
  4. Southeast Chile
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/1/1

(C) Southeast Asia

Q2.2026 Main 64/2/1 · Q41 mark

Which one of the following types of farming is most labour intensive ? 1

  1. Horticulture
  2. Subsistence agriculture
  3. Co-operative farming
  4. Collective farming
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/2/1

(A) Horticulture

Q3.2026 Main 64/4/1 · Q31 mark

In which of the following regions, ‘dairy farming’ is well-developed ?

  1. West Indies
  2. Madagascar
  3. Malaysia
  4. New Zealand
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/4/1

(D) New Zealand

Q4.2026 Main 64/5/1 · Q71 mark

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option.

Assertion (A) : Developing countries are more involved in mining and processing of minerals.

Reason (R) : The economies of these countries are primarily based on service sector.

Options :

  1. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  2. Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  3. (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
  4. (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/5/1

(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.

Q5.2026 Supp. 64/7/1 · Q31 mark

Dairy products being ‘perishable’, which one of the following regions of the world is suitable for dairy farming ?

  1. North-Western European Region
  2. North-Western African Region
  3. South-Western South American Region
  4. South-Western Australian Region
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/7/1

(A) North-Western European Region

Q6.2025 Main 64/1/1 · Q21 mark

Which of the following statements are correct related to mining ? Choose the correct option :

  1. In ancient times minerals were used to make tools and weapons.
  2. All developed countries are extracting more minerals for their development.
  3. The actual development of mining began with the industrial revolution.
  4. There are many stages in the discovery of minerals.

Options :

  1. Only ii, iii and iv are correct.
  2. Only i, ii and iv are correct.
  3. Only i, iii and iv are correct.
  4. Only i, ii and iii are correct.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/1/1

(C) Only i, iii and iv are correct.

Q7.2025 Main 64/4/1 · Q21 mark

Read the following statements related to ‘intensive subsistence agriculture’ other than paddy in the world carefully and choose the correct option.

  1. Wheat is grown in western parts of the Indo-Gangetic plains in India.
  2. Wheat is grown in monsoonal areas only.
  3. Millets are grown in dry parts of western and southern India.
  4. Wheat, soyabean etc. are grown in northern China.

Options :

  1. Only I, II and IV are correct.
  2. Only II, III and IV are correct.
  3. Only I, III and IV are correct.
  4. Only I, II and III are correct.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/4/1

(C) Only I, III and IV are correct

Q8.2025 Main 64/5/1 · Q21 mark

Read the following statements related to ‘gathering’ carefully and choose the correct option.

  1. Generally gathering is practised in the regions with harsh climatic conditions.
  2. In modern times, some gathering is market-oriented.
  3. Denmark is a classical example of gathering activities.
  4. Gathering is practised mostly by primitive societies.

Options :

  1. I, II and IV are correct.
  2. I, II and III are correct.
  3. II, III and IV are correct.
  4. I, III and IV are correct.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/5/1

(A) Only I, II and IV are correct.

Q9.2025 Main 64/7/1 · Q21 mark

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option.

Assertion (A) : There is an inverse relationship between quality and quantity of minerals.

Reason (R) : Good quality minerals are less in quantity as compared to low quality minerals.

Options :

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  2. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  3. (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
  4. (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/7/1

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Q10.2025 Main 64/7/1 · Q81 mark

Identify the type of agriculture predominantly practised in the Australian Downs.

  1. Mixed Farming
  2. Plantation Agriculture
  3. Co-operative Farming
  4. Extensive Commercial Grain Cultivation
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/7/1

(D) Extensive Commercial Grain Cultivation

Q11.2024 Main 64/2/1 · Q31 mark

Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option :

Column I
(Area)
Column II
(Animal Domestication)
1.Tropical Africa(i)Camel
2.Asiatic Deserts(ii)Cattle
3.Mountainous areas of Tibet(iii)Reindeer
4.Sub-Arctic areas(iv)Llamas

Options :

  1. 1-(ii), 2-(i), 3-(iv), 4-(iii)
  2. 1-(i), 2-(ii), 3-(iv), 4-(iii)
  3. 1-(ii), 2-(i), 3-(iii), 4-(iv)
  4. 1-(i), 2-(ii), 3-(iii), 4-(iv)
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/2/1

(A) 1-(ii), 2-(i), 3-(iv), 4-(iii)

Q12.2024 Main 64/3/1 · Q31 mark

Which one of the following types of agriculture is concerned with the production of a single crop ?

  1. Intensive subsistence agriculture
  2. Plantation agriculture
  3. Mixed farming
  4. Mediterranean agriculture
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/3/1

(B) Plantation agriculture

Q13.2023 Main 64/1/1 · Q41 mark

Which among the following is related to ‘truck farming’ ?

  1. Fruits production
  2. Grain production
  3. Tea production
  4. Vegetables production
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/1/1

(d) Vegetable production

Q14.2023 Main 64/1/1 · Q51 mark

Which among the following is the largest region of ‘commercial dairy farming’ ?

  1. North Western Europe
  2. Canada region
  3. New Zealand region
  4. South Eastern Australia
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/1/1

(a) North Western Europe

Q15.2023 Main 64/1/1 · Q61 mark

Fodder crops are an important component of which among the following types of agriculture ?

  1. Mixed
  2. Mediterranean
  3. Co-operative
  4. Collective
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/1/1

(a) Mixed farming

Q16.2023 Main 64/2/1 · Q51 mark

Read the following statements regarding open-cast mining and choose the correct option :

  1. This is the cheapest way of mining.
  2. The output is in large quantity.
  3. It requires specially designed lifts, drills.
  4. It requires special ventilation system.

Options :

  1. Only I and II are correct
  2. Only III and IV are correct
  3. Only I and III are correct
  4. Only II and IV are correct
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/2/1

(A) Only I and II are correct

Q17.2023 Main 64/4/1 · Q41 mark

Which one of the following features is correct regarding the gathering and hunting activities ?

  1. Practised in moderate climatic regions
  2. Involves primitive societies
  3. Depends on heavy capital investment
  4. Depends upon modern technology
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/4/1

(b) Involves primitive societies

Q18.2023 Main 64/4/1 · Q71 mark

Which one of the following features is correct regarding nomadic herding ?

  1. Nomadism is a modern commercial activity.
  2. It is practised on permanent pastures.
  3. A wide variety of cattle are reared in different regions.
  4. Nomadism is associated with modern technology.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/4/1

(c) A wide variety of cattle are reared in different regions.

Q19.2023 Main 64/5/1 · Q81 mark

Identify the feature of mixed farming from the following :

  1. It is most advanced and efficient type of rearing milch animals.
  2. Equal emphasis is laid on crop cultivation and animal husbandry.
  3. It was introduced by the Europeans in colonies.
  4. The regions where farmers specialised in vegetables only.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/5/1

(B) Equal emphasis is laid on crop cultivation and animal husbandry.

Q20.2026 Main 64/1/1 · Q183 marks

Study the map showing areas of ‘extensive commercial grains farming’ carefully and answer questions that follow :

Figure

(18.1) Write the geographical name of the area marked as A 1

(18.2) Name any two major crops grown in the region A ½ + ½ = 1

(18.3) Explain the agricultural importance of the area marked as B 1

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/1/1

(18.1) The Canadian and American prairies. 1

(18.2) Wheat/ corn/ barley/ oats / rye. (Any two) ½+½=1

(18.3)

i) In this area commercial grain farming is practiced.
ii) It is practised on large sized farms.
iii) Entire operations of cultivation from ploughing to harvesting are Mechanised.
iv) per acre yield is low but per person yield is high.
v) Any other relevant point

(Any one point to be explained) 1

Q21.2026 Main 64/3/1 · Q183 marks

Study the given map carefully and answer the questions that follow :

Areas of Nomadic Herding

Figure

(18.1) Identify the area of nomadic herding marked as ‘A’ on the map. 1

(18.2) Name an important animal reared in the areas marked as ‘B’ on the map. 1

(18.3) Describe the main characteristic of nomadic herding practised in the world. 1

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/3/1

(18.1) Madagascar 1

(18.2) Reindeer 1

(18.3) The main characteristic of nomadic herding are-

i. Nomadic herding or pastoral nomadism is a primitive subsistence activity.
ii. The herders rely on animals for food, clothing, shelter, tools and transport.
iii. They move from one place to another along with their livestock, depending on the amount and quality of pastures and water.
iv. Each nomadic community occupies a well-identified territory.
v. A wide variety of animals is kept in different regions.
vi. Any other relevant point.

(Any one characteristic to be described) 1

1+1+1=3

Q22.2026 Main 64/5/1 · Q193 marks

Study the given map carefully and answer the questions that follow :

Areas of Dairy Farming

Figure

(19.1) Name the largest dairy farming region of the world. 1

(19.2) Name the important dairy farming region of southern hemisphere. 1

(19.3) Explain the main characteristic of dairy farming. 1

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/5/1

(19.1) North Western Europe 1

(19.2) South-eastern part of Australia / Tasmania 1

(19.3)

  1. It is highly capital intensive.
  2. It is highly labour intensive.
  3. There is no off season during the year.
  4. It is practiced near urban and industrial centres.
  5. Any other relevant point.

(Any one point to be explained) 1

3×1=3

Q23.2025 Main 64/2/1 · Q183 marks

Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow :

Hunting and Food Gathering

The earliest human beings depended on their immediate environment for their sustenance. They subsisted on : (a) animals which they hunted; and (b) the edible plants which they gathered from forests in the vicinity.

Primitive societies depended on wild animals. People located in very cold and extremely hot climates survived on hunting. The people in the coastal areas still catch fish though fishing has experienced modernisation due to technological development. Many species, now have become extinct or endangered due to illegal hunting (poaching). The early hunters used primitive tools made of stones, twigs or arrows so the number of animals killed was limited.

Gathering and hunting are the oldest economic activity known. These are carried out at different levels with different orientations.

Gathering is practised in regions with harsh climatic conditions. It often involves primitive societies, who extract, both plants and animals to satisfy their needs for food, shelter and clothing. This type of activity requires a small amount of capital investment and operates at very low level of technology. The yield per person is very low and little or no surplus is produced.

(18.1) Examine the impact of poaching on wild animals. 1

(18.2) Why was hunting of animals limited in early times ? Explain. 1

(18.3) Why did early man depend upon his immediate natural environment ? Explain. 1

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/2/1

(18.1) Many species have become extinct or endangered due to illegal hunting (poaching). 1

(18.2) The early hunters used primitive tools made of stones, twigs, or arrows so the number of animals killed was limited. 1

(18.3) Early man had limited knowledge/no access to technology/and no transportation. 1

3×1=3

Q24.2025 Main 64/7/1 · Q193 marks

Study the given figure carefully and answer the questions that follow :

Figure

(19.1) Mention the methods of mining given in the picture. ½ + ½ = 1

(19.2) Differentiate between the two methods of mining given in the picture. 1

(19.3) Which mining method is more life threatening ? 1

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/7/1

(19.1)

  1. Surface mining (Open cast mining)
  2. Underground mining (Shaft mining)

½ + ½ = 1

(19.2)

  1. In open-cast mining operating costs is low, while in underground mining operating costs is high due to specialized equipment and safety measures.
  2. Open-cast mining is generally considered safer where as underground mining has higher risk of accidents (falling of roofs, gas explosions, flooding, suffocation).
  3. Open-cast mining leads to surface disruption, habitat destruction, and air pollution, where as in underground mining less surface disruption, but potential for subsidence and groundwater contamination.
  4. Any other relevant point

(Any one point to be explained) 1

(19.3) Underground mining method (shaft method) 1

3×1=3

Q25.2023 Main 64/4/1 · Q193 marks

Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow : 3×1=3

Methods of Mining

Depending on the mode of occurrence and the nature of the ore, mining is of two types : surface and underground mining. The surface mining also known as open-cast mining is the easiest and the cheapest way of mining minerals that occur close to the surface. Overhead costs such as safety precautions and equipment are relatively low in this method. The output is both large and rapid.

When the ore lies deep below the surface, underground mining method (shaft method) has to be used. In this method, vertical shafts have to be sunk, from where underground galleries radiate to reach the minerals. Minerals are extracted and transported to the surface through these passages. It requires specially designed lifts, drills, haulage vehicles, ventilation system for safety and efficient movement of people and material. This method is risky. Poisonous gases, fires, floods and caving in lead to fatal accidents. Have you ever read about mine fires and flooding of coal mines in India ?

The developed economies are retreating from mining, processing and refining stages of production due to high labour costs, while the developing countries with large labour force and striving for higher standard of living are becoming more important. Several countries of Africa and few of South America and Asia have over fifty percent of the earnings from minerals alone.

(19.1) Explain the main difference between surface and underground mining. 1
(19.2) Why is open-cast mining the easiest way of mining ? 1
(19.3) Why is shaft mining more risky ? 1

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/4/1

(19.1)

  1. Surface mining is cheapest while underground mining is costly.
  2. It is practiced when the mineral is found close to the surface while underground mining is practiced when the mineral is found deep below the surface.
  3. Surface mining is safe while underground mining is risky.
  4. Surface mining is called open-cast or strip mining, whereas, underground mining is called shaft mining.
  5. Any other relevant point.

Any one of the above point. (1)

(19.2) Because it occurs close to the surface. (1)

(19.3) It is underground mining, therefore, Poisonous gases, fires, floods and caving in lead to fatal accidents. (1)

Q26.2026 Main 64/2/1 · Q255 marks

(a) “The earliest human beings depended on their immediate environment for their sustenance.” Examine the statement with reference to hunting and gathering. 5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/2/1

i. The earliest human beings subsisted on animals which they hunted and the edible plants which they gathered from forests in the vicinity.
ii. Gathering and hunting are the oldest economic activities known.
iii. Primitive societies depended on wild animals. People located in very cold and extremely hot climates survived on hunting.
iv. The people in coastal areas still catch fish though fishing has experienced modernisation due to technological progress.
v. The early hunters used primitive tools made of stones, twigs or arrows so the number of animals killed were limited.
vi. These activities are carried out at different levels with different orientations.
vii. Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be examined) 5×1=5

Q27.2026 Main 64/2/1 · Q25 (OR)5 marks

(b) “Commercial livestock rearing is well organised and capital intensive.” Examine the statement with comparison to nomadic herding. 5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/2/1

i. Commercial livestock rearing is essentially associated with western culture and is practiced on permanent ranches whereas in Nomadic herding there are no permanent ranches and each nomadic community occupies a well-identified territory as a matter of tradition.
ii. The ranches cover large area divided into a number of parcels, which are fenced to regulate grazing whereas the nomads move from one place to another along with their livestock, depending on the amount and quality of pastures and water.
iii. Commercial livestock rearing is a specialised activity in which only one type of animal is reared whereas in Nomadic herding a variety of animals are kept in different regions.
iv. In Commercial livestock rearing of animals in ranching is organised on scientific basis. The main emphasis is on breeding, genetic improvement, disease control and health care whereas it is not present in Nomadic herding.
v. In Commercial livestock rearing animals are reared for meat, wool, hides and skin which are processed and packed scientifically and exported to different world markets whereas in Nomadic herding or pastoral nomadism herders rely on animals for food, clothing, shelter, tools and transport.
vi. Any other relevant point

(Any five points to be examined.) 5×1=5

Q28.2026 Main 64/4/1 · Q255 marks

(a) ‘‘Mixed agriculture is practised in the developed parts of the world.’’ Support the statement with examples. 5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/4/1

i) Mixed farms are moderate in size.
ii) Usually the crops associated with it are wheat, barley, oats, rye, fodder and root crops.
iii) Fooder crops are an important components of this farming.
iv) Crop rotation and inter-cropping plays an important role in maintaining soil fertility.
v) Equal emphasis is laid on crop cultivation and animal husbandry.
vi) It is characterised by high capital expenditure on farm machinery.
vii) Extensive use of chemical fertilizers and green manure.
viii) This type of agriculture is practised in North-western Europe, Eastern North America, parts of Eurasia and temperate latitudes of southern continents.
ix) Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be explained) 5×1=5

Q29.2026 Main 64/4/1 · Q25 (OR)5 marks

(b) ‘‘Market gardening is labour- and capital-intensive.’’ Support the statement with examples. 5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/4/1

i) Market gardening is specialize in the cultivation of high value crops. Such as vegetables, fruits and flowers.
ii) Farms are small and are located where there are good transportation links with urban centres.
iii) It lays emphasis on the use of irrigation, HYV seeds.
iv) It emphasis on use of fertilizers, insecticides, green houses and artificial heating in colder regions.
v) It is well developed in densely populated industrial districts of north west Europe, north eastern United States of America and Mediterranean regions.
vi) Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be explained) 5×1=5

Q30.2026 Supp. 64/7/1 · Q255 marks

“In modern times, ‘gathering’ has become commercial to some extent.” Support the statement with examples. 5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/7/1
  1. Gathering is one of the oldest economic activity but in modern times gathering is market oriented.
  2. Gatherer collects valuable plants such as leaves, bark of trees and medicinal plants after simple processing, they sell the products in the market.
  3. They use various parts of the plant.
  4. The bark is used for quinine.
  5. Nuts for food and oil.
  6. Tree trunk yield rubber, balata, gums and resins.
  7. Tanin extract and cork leaves supply material for beverages, drugs, cosmetics, fibres, thatch and fabric.
  8. Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be explained) 5×1=5

Q31.2026 Supp. 64/7/1 · Q25 (OR)5 marks

“Commercial livestock rearing is more organised and capital-intensive than nomadic herding.” Support the statement with examples. 5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/7/1
  1. Commercial livestock rearing is associated with western culture where as nomadic herding is a primitive subsistence activity.
  2. Commercial livestock rearing is practised on permanent ranches, but the nomadic herders move from one place to other in search of pastures for their animals.
  3. These ranches cover larger areas and are divided into parcels, while Nomadic herding is dependent on the amount of pasture and water. Each nomadic community occupies a well-identified territory.
  4. Commercial livestock rearing is a specialised activity in which only one type of animal is reared, whereas in Nomadic herding a wide variety of animals are kept.
  5. In commercial livestock rearing, animals such as sheep, goats, cattle and horses are reared and products such as meat, wool, hide and skin are processed and packed scientifically and exported to world markets, whereas in Nomadic herding animals are reared for subsistence.
  6. In Commercial livestock rearing emphasis is on breeding, genetic improvement, disease control and healthcare of animals, whereas in Nomadic herding animals are reared traditionally.
  7. All activities of Commercial livestock rearing are capital-intensive, whereas Nomadic herding is traditional.
  8. Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be explained) 5×1=5

Q32.2025 Main 64/1/1 · Q25 (OR)5 marks

(b) ‘Dairy farming is practised mainly near urban and industrial centres.’ Justify the statement with examples.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/1/1
  1. Dairy is the most advanced and efficient type of rearing of milch animals.
  2. It is practised mainly near urban and industrial centres which provide neighbourhood market for fresh milk and dairy products.
  3. The development of transportation, refrigeration, pasteurisation and other preservation processes are easily available near urban areas.
  4. It is highly capital intensive. Animal sheds, storage facilities for fodder, feeding and milching machines add to the cost of dairy farming.
  5. Special emphasis is laid on cattle breeding, health care and veterinary services are available more in the urban centres. It is highly labour intensive.
  6. Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be justified.) 5×1=5

Q33.2025 Main 64/4/1 · Q255 marks

“Market gardening and horticulture specialise in the cultivation of high value crops.” Justify the statement. 5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/4/1
  1. Market gardening and horticulture specialises in the cultivation of high value crops such as vegetables, fruits and flowers solely for urban markets.
  2. Farms located where there are good transportation links with the urban centres where high income group of consumers is located.
  3. It is both labour and capital intensive.
  4. It lays emphasis on HYV seeds, insecticides, green houses and artificial heating in colder regions.
  5. The Netherlands specialises in growing flowers and horticulture crops especially Tulips which are flown to all major cities of Europe.
  6. The regions where farmers specialise in vegetables only, the farming is known as Truck farming.
  7. Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be justified) 5×1=5

Q34.2025 Main 64/5/1 · Q255 marks

“Rearing of animals in ranches is organized on the scientific basis.” Examine the statement. 5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/5/1
  1. It is a capital-intensive activity.
  2. Commercial livestock ranching is practised on large permanent ranches.
  3. These ranches cover large areas and are divided into parcels which are fenced to regulate the grazing.
  4. The number of animals in a pasture is kept according to the carrying capacity of the pasture.
  5. Only one type of animal is reared. Important animals include sheep, cattle, goats and horses.
  6. Products such as meat, wool, hides and skin are processed and packed scientifically and exported to different world markets.
  7. The main emphasis is on breeding, genetic improvement, disease control and health care of the animals.
  8. New Zealand, Australia, Argentina, Uruguay and the United States of America are important countries where commercial livestock rearing is practised.
  9. Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be examined.) 5×1=5

Q35.2025 Main 64/6/1 · Q255 marks

(a) Analyse the main features of plantation agriculture in the world.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/6/1

Main features of plantation agriculture in the world are :-

  1. This agriculture was introduced by the Europeans in colonies situated in the tropics.
  2. Important plantation crops are Tea, Coffee, Cocoa, Rubber, Cotton, Oil Palm, Sugarcane, Bananas and Pineapples.
  3. Large estates.
  4. Large capital investment.
  5. Managerial and technical support.
  6. Scientific methods of cultivation.
  7. Single crop specialisation.
  8. Cheap labour.
  9. Good system of transportation.
  10. Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be analysed.) 5×1=5

Q36.2025 Main 64/6/1 · Q25 (OR)5 marks

(b) Analyse the main features of nomadic herding in the world.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/6/1

Main features of nomadic herding in the world are :-

  1. It is a primitive subsistence activity.
  2. The herders rely on animals for food, clothing, shelter, tools and transport.
  3. They move from one place to another along with their livestock, depending on the amount and quality of pastures and water.
  4. Each nomadic community occupies a well-identified territory as a matter of tradition.
  5. A wide variety of animals is kept in different regions.
  6. Example in tropical Africa cattle are most important livestock, reindeer are most important livestock in sub Arctic areas.
  7. Pastoral nomadism is associated with three important regions such as the core region extends from the Atlantic shores of North Africa eastwards across the Arabian Peninsula into Mongolia and Central China.
  8. Second region extends over the tundra region of Eurasia.
  9. In the southern hemisphere small areas in South-West Africa and Island of Madagascar.
  10. Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be analysed.) 5×1=5

Q37.2025 Supp. 64/S/1 · Q255 marks

(a) “The number of nomadic herders has been decreasing and the areas operated by them shrinking.” Explain the statement with examples.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/S/1
  1. Imposition of political boundaries.
  2. New settlement plans by government.
  3. Urbanisation and agriculture : e.g. In India, communities like Gujjars and Bakarwals in Jammu & Kashmir have seen their traditional grazing routes blocked due to development projects.
  4. Some government encourage nomadic community to settle permanently for easier administration.
  5. Education is also helpful in providing other employments in other areas.
  6. Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be explained.) 5×1=5

Q38.2025 Supp. 64/S/1 · Q25 (OR)5 marks

(b) “Mediterranean agriculture is highly specialised commercial agriculture.” Explain the statement with examples.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/S/1
  1. It is practised in the countries on either side of the Mediterranean sea in Europe and in North Africa from Tunisia to Atlantic coast.
  2. Grape cultivation is the speciality of this region.
  3. Best quality wines in the world are produced from high quality grapes.
  4. The inferior grapes are dried into raisins and currants.
  5. This region also produces olive and figs.
  6. Fruits and vegetables are largely grown and they have high demand in Europe and America.
  7. Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be explained.) 5×1=5

Q39.2024 Main 64/1/1 · Q265 marks

(a) Analyze the main features of Plantation Agriculture in the world.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/1/1

Main features of Plantation Agriculture in the world are:-

  1. It was Introduced by Europeans in colonies situated in the tropics.
  2. Important Crops are Tea, coffee, cocoa, rubber, cotton, oil palm, sugarcane, bananas and pineapples.
  3. Large estates or plantations.
  4. Large capital investment.
  5. Managerial and technical support
  6. Scientific methods of cultivation.
  7. Cheap labour.
  8. Single crop specialisation.
  9. A good system of transportation which links the estates to the factories and markets for the export of the products.
  10. Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be analysed.) 5x1=5

Q40.2024 Main 64/1/1 · Q26 (OR)5 marks

(b) Analyse the main features of extensive commercial grain cultivation in the world.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/1/1

Features of Extensive commercial Grain Cultivation are:-

  1. Practised in the interior parts of semi-arid lands of the mid-latitudes.
  2. Wheat is the principal crop, though other crops like barley, oats and rye are also grown.
  3. The size of the farm is very large.
  4. Entire operations are mechanised.
  5. There is low yield per acre but high yield per person.
  6. Best developed in Eurasian Steppes, the Canadian and American Prairies, the Pampas of Argentina, the Velds of South Africa, the Australian Downs and the Canterbury plains of New Zealand.
  7. Any other relevant point

(Any five points to be analysed.) 5x1=5

Q41.2024 Main 64/2/1 · Q245 marks

(a) Describe any five features of ‘plantation agriculture’ in the world.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/2/1
  1. Plantation agriculture was introduced by the Europeans in colonies situated in the tropics.
  2. Some of the important plantation crops are tea, coffee, cocoa, rubber, cotton, oil palm, sugarcane.
  3. Large estates or plantations, large capital investment.
  4. Require managerial and technical support.
  5. Scientific methods of cultivation.
  6. Single crop specialization.
  7. Require cheap labor and a good system of transportation which links the estates to the factories and markets for the export of the products.
  8. Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be described). 5×1=5

Q42.2024 Main 64/2/1 · Q24 (OR)5 marks

(b) Describe any five features of ‘extensive commercial grain farming’ in the world.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/2/1
  1. Commercial grain cultivation is practiced in the interior parts of semi-arid lands of the mid-latitudes.
  2. Wheat is the principal crop though other crops like corn, barley, oats, and rye are also gown.
  3. The size of the farm is very large. Therefore, entire operations of cultivation from ploughing to harvesting are mechanized.
  4. There is low yield per acre but high yield per person.
  5. This type of agriculture is best developed in Eurasian steppes.
  6. In Canada and USA, Prairies are the producing areas.
  7. In South America, Pampas is the major producing area, Veldt in S. Africa, Downs in Australia, and the Canterbury Plains in New Zealand.
  8. Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be described). 5×1=5

Q43.2024 Main 64/3/1 · Q255 marks

(a) Explain any five features of ‘mixed farming’ in the world with examples.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/3/1
  1. This form of agriculture is found in the highly developed parts of the world.
  2. Mixed farms are moderate in size and usually the crops associated with it are wheat, barley, oats, rye, maize, and root crops.
  3. Fodder crops are an important component of mixed farming.
  4. Crop rotation and inter cropping play an important role in maintaining soil fertility.
  5. Equal emphasis is laid on crop cultivation and animal husbandry.
  6. Mixed farming is characterized by high capital expenditure on farm machinery and building.
  7. For example, North-Western Europe, Eastern North America and Parts of Eurasia are the regions.
  8. Any other relevant points

(Any five points to be explained) 5x1=5

Q44.2024 Main 64/3/1 · Q25 (OR)5 marks

(b) Explain any five features of ‘dairy farming’ in the world, with examples.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/3/1
  1. Dairy farming is the most advanced and efficient type of rearing of milch animals.
  2. It is highly capital intensive.
  3. Animal sheds, storage facilities for fodder, feeding and milching machines are found.
  4. Special emphasis is laid on cattle breeding, health care and veterinary services.
  5. It is highly labour intensive as it involves rigorous care in feeding and milching
  6. It is practiced mainly near urban and industrial centres which provide neighbourhood market for fresh milk and dairy products.
  7. Main regions of commercial dairy farming are North Western Europe, Canada and South Eastern Australia, New Zealand and Tasmania
  8. Any other relevant point

(Any five points to be explained.) 5x1=5

Q45.2024 Main 64/4/1 · Q255 marks

Describe any five features of commercial livestock rearing in the world.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/4/1

(i) Commercial livestock rearing is more organised and capital intensive.

(ii) Commercial livestock ranching is essentially associated with western cultures and is practised on permanent ranches.

(iii) These ranches cover large area and are divided into a number of parcels, which are fenced to regulate the grazing.

(iv) When the grass of one parcel is grazed, animals are moved to another parcel.

(v) The number of animals in a pasture is kept according to the carrying capacity of the pasture.

(vi) Rearing of animals in ranching is organized on a scientific basis.

(vii) Any other relevant point

(Any five points to be described)

5x1=5

Q46.2024 Main 64/5/1 · Q255 marks

(a) Examine the main characteristics of Co-operative Farming in the world.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/5/1

(i) A Group of farmers from a Co-operative society by pooling is their resources voluntarily for more efficient and profitable farming is known as Co-operative farming.

(ii) Individual farms remain intact and farming is a matter of cooperative initiative.

(iii) Co-operative societies help farmers to procure all important inputs of farming.

(iv) Cooperative societies sale the products at the most favorable terms and help in processing of quality products at cheaper rates.

(v) Co-operative movement originated over a century ago and has been successful in many western European countries.

(vi) In Denmark this movement has been so successful that practically every farmer is a member of a cooperative society.

(vii) Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be examined)

5x1=5

Q47.2024 Main 64/5/1 · Q25 (OR)5 marks

(b) Examine the main characteristics of Dairy Farming in the world.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/5/1

(i) This is most advanced and efficient type of rearing milch animals.

(ii) It is highly capital intensive.

(iii) Special emphasis laid on cattle breeding.

(iv) Health care and Veterinary services are provided

(v) It is labour intensive also as it involves on milching, transporting milk to market centers and caring animals.

(vi) It is practiced near urban and industrial centers which provide neighborhood market for dairy products.

(vii) The development of transportation, refrigeration, pasteurization and other preservation processes have increased the duration of storage of various dairy products.

(viii) N.W. Europe, Canada, New Zealand etc. are the main dairy centers.

(ix) Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be examined)

5x1=5

Q48.2024 Supp. 64/S/1 · Q245 marks

(a) Explain the main features of ‘Primitive Subsistence Agriculture’ in the world.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/S/1
  1. It is also called shifting or slash and burn agriculture.
  2. Many tribals in the tropical areas practice this type of cultivation.
  3. It is being practised in many areas of South east Asia, Africa, South and Central America.
  4. The size of the field is very small and the cultivation is done with primitive tools such as sticks and hoes.
  5. When the soil loses fertility, they leave that area and clear some other land for cultivation.
  6. It is known as Jhooming in North east India, Milpa in Central America and Mexico, Ladang in Indonesia and Malaysia.
  7. Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be explained.) 5x1=5

Q49.2024 Supp. 64/S/1 · Q24 (OR)5 marks

(b) Explain the main features of ‘Commercial Livestock Rearing’ in the world.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/S/1
  1. This type of livestock rearing is more organised and capital intensive.
  2. Cattle are reared on large and permanent ranches and it is essentially associated with western culture.
  3. Ranches are divided into a number of parcels which are fenced to regulate the grazing.
  4. It is specialised in the rearing of one type of animal like cattle, sheep, horses and goats.
  5. In this, products such as meat, wool, hide and skin are processed and packed scientifically mainly for export.
  6. The emphasis is given on genetic improvement, breeding, disease control and health care of the animals.
  7. New Zealand, Australia, Argentina, Uruguay and USA are the major countries where commercial rearing is done.
  8. Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be explained.) 5x1=5

Q50.2023 Main 64/3/1 · Q255 marks

(a) Explain any five features of ‘plantation agriculture’ in the world. 5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/3/1

Features of the Plantation agriculture :

i. This type of farming is done on large estates.
ii. It is a single crop cultivation.
iv. It depends upon large capital investment.
v. Scientific methods of cultivation
vi. It requires managerial and technical support.
vii. Cheap labour and good system of transportation to link the estates to the factories and markets for the export of the products.
vii. Any other relevant point

Any five points to be explained 5×1=5

Q51.2023 Main 64/3/1 · Q25 (OR)5 marks

(b) Explain any five features of ‘market gardening and horticulture’ in the world. 5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/3/1

Features of market gardening and horticulture

i. It specialises in high value crops as vegetables, fruits and flowers.
iii. It largely caters to the urban market.
iv. Farms are small but located in areas of good transport facility.
v. It is both labour and capital intensive.
vi. Emphasis is on use of irrigation, HYV seeds, fertilizers, insecticides and pesticides.
vii. Green houses and artificial heating in colder regions.
vii. Any other relevant point

Any five points to be explained 5×1=5

Q52.2023 Supp. 64/C/1 · Q265 marks

(a) “Gathering has become commercial in modern times.” Examine the statement. 5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/C/1
  1. Gathering is practised in high latitude zones which include northern Canada, northern Eurasia and southern Chile.
  2. Low latitude zones such as the Amazon Basin, tropical Africa, Northern fringe of Australia and the interior parts of Southeast Asia.
  3. In modern times some gathering is market oriented and has become commercial.
  4. Gatherers collect valuable plants such as leaves, barks of trees and medicinal plants and after simple processing sell the products in the market.
  5. They use various parts of the plants, for example, the bark is used for quinine, tannin extract and cork—leaves supply materials for beverages, drugs, cosmetics, fibres, thatch and fabrics; nuts for food and oils and tree trunk yield rubber, balata, gums and resins.
  6. Any other relevant point

(Any five points to be examined) 5×1=5

Q53.2023 Supp. 64/C/1 · Q26 (OR)5 marks

(b) “Nomadic herding is a primitive subsistence activity.” Examine the statement. 5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/C/1
  1. Nomadic herding or pastoral nomadism is a primitive subsistence activity, in which the herders rely on animals for food, clothing, shelter, tools and transport.
  2. They move from one place to another along with their livestock, depending on the amount and quality of pastures and water.
  3. Each nomadic community occupies a well-identified territory as a matter of tradition.
  4. A wide variety of animals is kept in different regions.
  5. In tropical Africa, cattle are the most important livestock, while in Sahara and Asiatic deserts, sheep, goats and camel are reared.
  6. In the mountainous areas of Tibet and Andes, yak and llamas and in the Arctic and sub Arctic areas, reindeer are the most important animals.
  7. Any other relevant point

(Any five points to be examined) 5×1=5

Q54.SQP 2025-26 · Q245 marks

Explain how pastoral nomadism is an adaptation to specific geographical conditions. Illustrate your answer with examples from different regions of the world.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26

Pastoral nomadism or Nomadic herding is a primitive subsistence activity, in which the herders rely on animals for food, clothing, shelter, tools and transport. They move from one place to another along with their livestock, depending on the amount and quality of pastures and water. Each nomadic community occupies a well-identified territory as a matter of tradition.

A wide variety of animals is kept in different regions. In tropical Africa, cattle are the most important livestock, while in Sahara and Asiatic deserts, sheep, goats and camel are reared. In the mountainous areas of Tibet and Andes, yak and llamas and in the Arctic and sub Arctic areas, reindeer are the most important animals.

The process of migration from plain areas to pastures on mountains during summers and again from mountain pastures to plain areas during winters is known as transhumance. In mountain regions, such as Himalayas, Gujjars, Bakarwals, Gaddis and Bhotiyas migrate from plains to the mountains in summers and to the plains from the high altitude pastures in winters. Similarly, in the tundra regions, the nomadic herders move from south to north in summers and from north to south in winters.

Q55.SQP 2025-26 · Q24 (OR)5 marks

"Mining has played a significant role in human development, especially since the Industrial Revolution.” In view of the statement, discuss the factors affecting mining activities. What are the economic and social impacts of mining on developed and developing countries, and how do these impacts differ based on their levels of industrialization and labour dynamics? 2+3=5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26

Factors Affecting Mining Activity:

  1. Physical factors include the size, grade and the mode of occurrence of the deposits.
  2. Economic factors such as the demand for the mineral, technology available and used, capital to develop infrastructure and the labour and transport costs.

The developed economies are retreating from mining, processing and refining stages of production due to high labour costs, while the developing countries with large labour force and striving for higher standard of living are becoming more important. Several countries of Africa and few of south America and Asia have over fifty per cent of the earnings from minerals alone.

2+3=5

Q56.SQP 2026-27 · Q275 marks

Distinguish between intensive subsistence farming and extensive commercial grain farming, mentioning any five points. (2½+2½=5)

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27

Any five differences. (2½+2½=5)

Intensive Subsistence FarmingExtensive Commercial Grain Farming
IIntensive Subsistence Agriculture is largely found in densely populated regions of monsoon Asia.Commercial grain cultivation is practised in the interior parts of semi-arid lands of the mid latitudes.
IIBasically, there are two types of intensive subsistence agriculture. (i) Intensive subsistence agriculture dominated by wet paddy cultivation which is characterised by dominance of the rice crop. (ii) Intensive subsistence agriculture dominated by crops other than paddy.Wheat is the principal crop, though other crops like corn, barley, oats and rye are also grown.
IIILand holdings are very small due to the high density of population.The size of the farm is very large.
IVFarmers work with the help of family labour leading to intensive use of land. Use of machinery is limited and most of the agricultural operations are done by manual labour.The entire process of cultivation, ranging from ploughing to harvesting, is mechanized.
VFarm yard manure is used to maintain the fertility of the soil.Fertility of the soil is maintained by applying fertilizers.
VIIn this type of agriculture, the yield per unit area is high but per labour productivity is low.In this type of agriculture, there is a low yield per acre but a high yield per person.
VIIDue to variations in relief, climate and soil, paddy is not grown everywhere in monsoon Asia. Wheat, soybean, barley and sorghum are cultivated in northern China, Manchuria, North Korea and northern Japan. In India, wheat is grown in the western Indo-Gangetic Plains, while millets are grown in the dry regions of western and southern India.This type of agriculture is best developed in Eurasian steppes, the Canadian and American Prairies, the Pampas of Argentina, the Velds of South Africa, the Australian Downs, and the Canterbury Plains of New Zealand.
Part A · Fundamentals of Human Geography

5. Secondary Activities

Q1.2026 Main 64/2/1 · Q51 mark

Which one of the following is an example of non-metallic mineral based industry ? 1

  1. Aluminium industry
  2. Iron and Steel industry
  3. Copper industry
  4. Cement industry
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/2/1

(D) Cement industry

Q2.2026 Main 64/3/1 · Q41 mark

Which of the following are the true characteristics of cottage manufacturing ? Choose the most appropriate option.

  1. The artisans use local raw materials.
  2. The products of these units are supplied at distant markets.
  3. Most of the times, the family members work in these units.
  4. The finished products like mats, bricks, pottery, etc. are some important examples.

Options :

  1. Only I, II and III are correct.
  2. Only I, III and IV are correct.
  3. Only I, II and IV are correct.
  4. Only II, III and IV are correct.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/3/1

(B) I, III and IV are correct

Q3.2026 Main 64/3/1 · Q51 mark

Which of the following is a product of forest-based industry ?

  1. Leather
  2. Tea
  3. Cotton
  4. Paper
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/3/1

(D) Paper

Q4.2026 Main 64/3/1 · Q61 mark

Which of the following factors are involved in large-scale manufacturing ? Choose the most appropriate option.

  1. Variety of raw material
  2. Advanced technology
  3. Semi-skilled worker
  4. Large investment

Options :

  1. Only I, II and III are correct.
  2. Only I, III and IV are correct.
  3. Only I, II and IV are correct.
  4. Only II, III and IV are correct.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/3/1

(C) Only I, II and IV are correct

Q5.2026 Main 64/4/1 · Q41 mark

Read the following characteristics of ‘cottage industries’ carefully and choose the most appropriate option :

  1. These are the smallest manufacturing units.
  2. Artisans use local raw materials in these units.
  3. All craftsmen use electrically powered simple tools for production.
  4. The products of these industries are mostly for own consumption or for local markets.

Options :

  1. Only I, II and III are correct.
  2. Only I, II and IV are correct.
  3. Only I, III and IV are correct.
  4. Only II, III and IV are correct.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/4/1

(B) Only I, II and IV are correct.

Q6.2026 Main 64/4/1 · Q51 mark

Which one of the following is an example of forest-based industry ?

  1. Textiles
  2. Sugar
  3. Lac
  4. Edible oil
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/4/1

(C) Lac

Q7.2026 Main 64/5/1 · Q81 mark

Which one of the following factors affects the most for location of ‘foot loose industries’ ?

  1. Accessibility by road network
  2. Near to raw material
  3. Power availability
  4. Cheap labour force
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/5/1

(A) Accessibility by road network

Q8.2026 Supp. 64/7/1 · Q21 mark

Read the following characteristics of ‘footloose industry’ carefully and choose the correct option.

  1. They are located in a wide variety of places.
  2. They are located by the weight difference between the raw materials and finished products.
  3. They are dependent on component parts which can be obtained from anywhere.
  4. They are dependent on accessibility by transportation network.

Options :

  1. Only I, II and III are correct.
  2. Only I, II and IV are correct.
  3. Only I, III and IV are correct.
  4. Only II, III and IV are correct.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/7/1

(C) Only I, III and IV are correct.

Q9.2026 Supp. 64/7/1 · Q51 mark

Choose the correct option related to non-ferrous metallic mineral-based industry.

  1. Haematite
  2. Manganese
  3. Aluminium
  4. Magnetite
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/7/1

(C) Aluminium

Q10.2025 Main 64/1/1 · Q11 mark

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option :

Assertion (A) : All manufacturing industries are associated with raw materials.

Reason (R) : Resources are essential for human survival.

Options :

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  3. (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
  4. (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/1/1

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Q11.2025 Main 64/4/1 · Q11 mark

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option.

Assertion (A) : Foot loose industries can be located in a wide variety of places.

Reason (R) : Location of foot loose industries is determined by transport network accessibility.

Options :

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  3. (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
  4. (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/4/1

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Q12.2025 Main 64/5/1 · Q11 mark

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option.

Assertion (A) : Industries based on cheap, bulky and weight-losing material are located close to the sources of raw materials.

Reason (R) : It is followed to reduce the cost of products.

Options :

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  3. (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
  4. (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/5/1

(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).

Q13.2025 Main 64/7/1 · Q91 mark

Identify the sector concerned with the work of converting raw materials into finished products.

  1. Primary
  2. Secondary
  3. Tertiary
  4. Quaternary
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/7/1

(B) Secondary

Q14.2024 Main 64/1/1 · Q31 mark

Synthetic fibre and plastic manufacturing is an example of which one of the following ?

  1. Mineral-based industry
  2. Chemical-based industry
  3. Forest-based industry
  4. Animal-based industry
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/1/1

(B) Chemical-based industry

Q15.2024 Main 64/2/1 · Q41 mark

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option :

Assertion (A) : Foot loose industries can be located in a wide variety of places.

Reason (R) : The important factor in the location of foot loose industries is accessibility by transport network.

Options :

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  3. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
  4. (A) is false, but (R) is true.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/2/1

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Q16.2024 Main 64/3/1 · Q41 mark

Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option :

Column I
(Industry)
Column II
(Example)
1.Agro-based(i)Soaps
2.Forest-based(ii)Salts
3.Chemical-based(iii)Lac
4.Product-based(iv)Vegetable oil

Options :

  1. 1-(iii), 2-(iv), 3-(ii), 4-(i)
  2. 1-(iii), 2-(iv), 3-(i), 4-(ii)
  3. 1-(iv), 2-(iii), 3-(ii), 4-(i)
  4. 1-(iv), 2-(iii), 3-(i), 4-(ii)
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/3/1

(C) 1–(iv), 2–(iii), 3–(ii), 4–(i)

Q17.2024 Main 64/4/1 · Q31 mark

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option.

Assertion (A) : Industries based on ores are located close to the sources of raw material.

Reason (R) : Industries maximise profits by reducing transportation costs.

Options :

  1. (A) is correct and (R) is false.
  2. (A) is false and (R) is correct.
  3. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
  4. Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/4/1

(C) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Q18.2023 Main 64/2/1 · Q41 mark

Which among the following is NOT the mineral based industry ?

  1. Iron and steel
  2. Aluminium
  3. Cement
  4. Salt
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/2/1

(D) Salt

Q19.2023 Main 64/3/1 · Q11 mark

Which one of the following features is correct about cottage industries ?

  1. It is a large manufacturing unit.
  2. Raw material is imported from outside markets.
  3. Goods produced by them have low commercial significance.
  4. Finished products are sold in the open market.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/3/1

(c) Goods produced by them have low commercial significance

Q20.2023 Main 64/3/1 · Q21 mark

Which one of the following features is correct about large scale industries ?

  1. Raw material is procured locally.
  2. Large number of unskilled workers work in them.
  3. They do not require advanced technology.
  4. They require large amount of capital investment.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/3/1

(d) It requires large amount of capital investment

Q21.2023 Main 64/3/1 · Q31 mark

Which of the following industries produce raw material for other industries ?

  1. Small scale industries
  2. Basic or key industries
  3. Household industries
  4. Joint sector industries
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/3/1

(b) Basic or key industry

Q22.2023 Main 64/4/1 · Q61 mark

Read the following features of cottage manufacturing and choose the correct option :

  1. Place of manufacturing outside the home
  2. It is the smallest unit of manufacturing
  3. Use local raw materials
  4. Simple tools are used

Options :

  1. Only I, II and III are correct.
  2. Only II, III and IV are correct.
  3. Only I, II and IV are correct.
  4. Only I, III and IV are correct.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/4/1

(b) Only II, III and IV are correct.

Q23.2023 Main 64/5/1 · Q71 mark

Modern manufacturing is NOT characterised by which one of the following ?

  1. A complex machine technology
  2. Vast capital
  3. Small organisations
  4. Executive bureaucracy
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/5/1

(C) Small organisations

Q24.2022 Main 64/1/1 · Q12 marks

Why is ‘access to market’ essential for setting up industries in the world ? Explain. 2

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2022 (Main), Set 64/1/1

Access to market is essential for setting up industry :

  1. The existence of a market for manufactured goods is the most important factor in the location of industries.
  2. Market means people who have a demand for these goods and also have the purchasing power to be able to purchase from the sellers at place.
  3. Remote areas inhabited by a few people offer small markets.
  4. Efficient transport system offers connectivity with the market.
  5. Any other relevant point

Any two points to be explained 1×2=2

Q25.2022 Main 64/2/1 · Q12 marks

Why is ‘access to transportation and communication’ necessary for industries ? Explain. 2

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2022 (Main), Set 64/2/1
  1. Speedy and efficient transport facilities to carry raw materials to the factory and to move finished goods to the market are essential for the development of industries.
  2. The cost of transport.
  3. Regional Specialisation manufacturing.
  4. Communication is also an important need for industries for the exchange and management of information.
  5. Any other point.

Any two points to be explained 1×2=2

Q26.2022 Main 64/3/1 · Q12 marks

Why is ‘technological innovation’ essential for industries ? Explain.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2022 (Main), Set 64/3/1

Technological innovation :

  1. Technological innovations through research and development strategy are an important aspect of modern manufacturing for quality control.
  2. Eliminating waste and inefficiency
  3. Combating pollution
  4. High tech start ups to remove regional disparities.
  5. Any other relevant point

Any two points to be explained. (TB I page 46) 1×2=2

Q27.2022 Main 64/4/1 · Q22 marks

Explain any two features of manufacturing process. 1×2=2

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2022 (Main), Set 64/4/1
  1. Application of power
  2. Mass production of identical products.
  3. Specialised labour in factory settings for the production of standardised commodities.
  4. Any other relevant point.

Any two points to be explained 1×2=2

Q28.2025 Main 64/7/1 · Q203 marks

(a) Explain the main reasons for uneven distribution of modern manufacturing industries in the world.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/7/1

Main reasons for the uneven distribution of modern manufacturing industries :

  1. Access to Market : The existence of a market for manufactured goods is the most important factor in the location of industries. Remote areas inhabited by a few people offer small markets. The densely populated regions of South and South-east Asia also provide large markets.
  2. Access to Raw Material : Raw material used by industries should be cheap and easy to transport. Industries based on cheap, bulky and weight-losing material (ores) are located close to the sources of raw material. Perishability is a vital factor for the industry to be located closer to the source of the raw material.
  3. Access to Labour Supply : Labour supply is an important factor in the location of industries. Some types of manufacturing still require skilled labour. Increasing mechanisation, automation and flexibility of industrial processes have reduced the dependence of industry upon the labours.
  4. Access to Sources of Energy : Industries which use more power are located close to the source of the energy.
  5. Access to Transportation and Communication Facilities : Speedy and efficient transport facilities to carry raw materials to the factory and to move finished goods to the market are essential for the development of industries. Improvements in transportation and communication is also an important need for industries for the exchange and management of information.
  6. Government Policy : Governments adopt ‘regional policies’ to promote ‘balanced’ economic development and hence set up industries in particular areas.
  7. Access to Agglomeration Economies/Links between Industries : Many industries benefit from nearness to a leader-industry and other industries.
  8. Any other relevant point

(Any three points to be explained) 3×1=3

Q29.2025 Main 64/7/1 · Q20 (OR)3 marks

(b) Classify the industries based on product and explain their characteristics. 1+2=3

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/7/1

Classification of Industries Based on Output/Product :

  1. Basic industries
  2. Consumer goods industries

½ + ½ = 1

Characteristics :

  1. Basic industries – The industries whose products are used to make other goods by using them as raw materials are basic industries, for example, iron/steel → machines for textile industry → clothes for use by consumer.
  2. Consumer goods – produce goods consumed by consumers directly, for example, industries producing bread, etc.
  3. Any other relevant point

(Any two points to be explained) 1+1=2

1+2=3

Q30.2023 Main 64/5/1 · Q213 marks

(a) “Technological innovations through research and development strategy are an important aspect of modern manufacturing.” Analyse the statement.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/5/1
  1. Technological innovations take place through research and development.
  2. They are important for modern manufacturing for quality control.
  3. These innovations eliminate waste and inefficiency.
  4. These are helpful in combating pollution also.
  5. Any other relevant point

(Any three points to be explained) 1×3=3

Q31.2023 Main 64/5/1 · Q21 (OR)3 marks

(b) “Speedy and efficient system of transport is essential for the development of industries.” Analyse the statement.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/5/1
  1. Efficient systems of transport help in carrying raw material to the industries.
  2. They carry finished goods to the market.
  3. The cost of transport plays an important role in the location of industry.
  4. Modern industry is inseparably tied with transportation.
  5. Improvement in transportation system led to integrated economic development and regional specialization of industries
  6. Any other relevant point.

(Any three points to be explained) 1×3=3

Q32.2023 Supp. 64/C/1 · Q213 marks

Examine the classification of industries based on ownership in the world. 3

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/C/1
  1. Public Sector Industries are owned and managed by governments. In India, there were a number of Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs). Socialist countries have many state owned industries. Mixed economies have both Public and Private sector enterprises.
  2. Private Sector Industries are owned by individual investors. These are managed by private organisations. In capitalist countries, industries are generally owned privately.
  3. Joint Sector Industries are managed by joint stock companies or sometimes the private and public sectors together establish and manage the industries.

(Examine all the above three types) 3×1=3

Q33.2022 Main 64/1/1 · Q63 marks

(a) “Iron and Steel industry is called a basic industry.” Support the statement with examples. 3 × 1 = 3

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2022 (Main), Set 64/1/1

Iron and steel industry is called basic industry :

  1. It provides raw material for other industries such as in making machines/capital goods used for further production.
  2. It provides tools for other industries.
  3. Example : It provides raw material for railway and other means of transport.
  4. It may also be called a heavy industry because it uses large quantities of bulky raw materials and its products are also heavy.
  5. Any other relevant point.

Any three points to be explained. 3×1=3

Q34.2022 Main 64/1/1 · Q6 (OR)3 marks

(b) “‘High technology’ is known as the latest generation of manufacturing activities in the world.” Support the statement with examples. 3 × 1 = 3

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2022 (Main), Set 64/1/1

High technology known as the latest generation of manufacturing :

  1. It is best understood as the application of intensive research and development efforts leading to the manufacture of products of an advanced scientific and engineering character.
  2. Professional (white collar) workers make up large share of the total workforce.
  3. These highly skilled specialists greatly outnumber the actual production (blue collar) workers.
  4. Robotics on assembly line, computer-aided design and manufacturing, electronic controls of smelting and refining processes and the constant development of new chemical and pharmaceutical products are important examples.
  5. Any other relevant point.

Any three points to be explained. 3×1=3

Q35.2022 Main 64/2/1 · Q63 marks

(a) “Major concentrations of modern manufacturing have flourished in a few number of places in the world.” Support the statement with examples. 1×3=3

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2022 (Main), Set 64/2/1
  1. These cover less than 10 percent of the world’s land area.
  2. These nations have become the centres of economic and political power.
  3. Manufacturing sites are much less conspicuous and concentrated on much smaller areas than that of agriculture due to greater intensity of processes.
  4. Example : 2·5 sq.km of American corn belt usually includes about four large farms employing about 10–20 workers supporting 50–100 persons. But this same area could contain several large integrated factories and employ thousands of workers.
  5. Any other point.

Any three points to be explained. 1×3=3

Q36.2022 Main 64/2/1 · Q6 (OR)3 marks

(b) “Cottage industry is the smallest manufacturing unit.” Support the statement with examples. 1×3=3

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2022 (Main), Set 64/2/1
  1. The artisans use local raw materials and simple tools to produce everyday goods in their homes.
  2. The products are manufactured with the help of their family members or part time labour.
  3. Finished products may be for consumption in the same household or for local village market.
  4. Low commercial significance.
  5. Any other relevant point.

Any three points to be explained 1×3=3

Q37.2022 Main 64/3/1 · Q63 marks

(a) How are large scale industries different from cottage industries ? Explain. 3 × 1 = 3

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2022 (Main), Set 64/3/1

Large scale industries different from cottage (household) industries :

  1. Large scale manufacturing involves a large market while cottage industries involve local (village) market.
  2. Large industries use various and huge raw materials while cottage industries use local raw materials.
  3. Large scale industries based on advanced technology while cottage industries tools are devised locally.
  4. Large scale industries based on specialised workers while cottage industries based on family members or part time labour.
  5. Large scale industries are capital intensive and small scale has low commercial significance.
  6. Any other relevant point

Any three points to be explained. (TB 1 page 49) 1×3=3

Q38.2022 Main 64/3/1 · Q6 (OR)3 marks

(b) How are small scale industries different from household industries ? Explain. 3 × 1 = 3

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2022 (Main), Set 64/3/1

Small scale industries different from cottage industries :

  1. High production in small scale while cottage industries have low production.
  2. Small scale industries use high technology while cottage industries tools are devised locally.
  3. Small scale industries manufactured in workshop outside the home while cottage industries work in home or cottage.
  4. Small scale industries used power driven machine, cottage industries uses simple tools in their homes with the help of family members.
  5. Any other relevant point

Any three points to be explained. (TB I page 49) 1×3=3

Q39.2022 Main 64/4/1 · Q43 marks

Read the following source and answer the questions that follow : 3×1=3

Steel Industry

The large integrated steel industry is traditionally located close to the sources of raw materials — iron-ore, coal, manganese and limestone — or at places where these could be easily brought, e.g., near ports. But in mini steel mills, access to markets is more important than inputs. These are less expensive to build and operate and can be located near markets because of the abundance of scrap metal, which is the main input. Traditionally, most of the steel was produced at large integrated plants, but mini mills are limited to just one-step process — steel making — and are gaining ground.

(4.1) Mention the main factor affecting location of large integrated steel industry. 1
(4.2) What is more important for setting up the mini steel mills ? 1
(4.3) Mention the raw material used in mini steel mills. 1

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2022 (Main), Set 64/4/1

(4.1) Located close to the sources of raw materials. 1

(4.2) Access to markets 1

(4.3) Scrap metal 1

Q40.2026 Main 64/1/1 · Q245 marks

“Industries should be located at points where the production costs are minimum.” Examine the statement with suitable arguments. 5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/1/1

i) Access to Market
ii) Access to the raw material
iii) Access to Labour Supply
iv) Access to Sources of Energy
v) Access to Transportation and Communication facilities
vi) Government Policy
vii) Access to Agglomeration Economies/ Links between Industries
viii) Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be examined) 5×1=5

Q41.2026 Main 64/5/1 · Q255 marks

Classify industries on the basis of size and explain the significance of manufacturing industries. 3+2=5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/5/1

On the basis of size the industries are –

  1. Large scale industry : It involves a large market, various materials, specialized workers and advanced technology.
  2. Small scale industry : This type of manufacturing uses local raw materials, simple power-driven machines and semi-skilled labour.
  3. Cottage industry : It is the smallest manufacturing unit and artisans use local raw materials and simple tools to produce everyday goods in their homes.

(All three points to be explained) 3×1=3

Significance of manufacturing industries :

  1. Industries are significant because they add value to the resources.
  2. Raw materials need processing, only then they become fit to be used.
  3. For example, Cotton balls can’t be used unless it is processed into thread or cloth.
  4. Manufacturing contributes significantly to the world economy.
  5. Any other relevant point.

(Any two points to be explained) 2×1=2

3+2=5

Q42.2026 Main 64/5/1 · Q25 (OR)5 marks

Why are manufacturing industries necessary ? Classify industries on the basis of ownership and explain them. 2+3=5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/5/1

Manufacturing Industries are necessary due to :

  1. Industries are significant because they add value to the resources.
  2. Raw materials need processing, only then they become fit to be used.
  3. For example, Cotton balls can’t be used unless it is processed into thread or cloth.
  4. Any other relevant point.

(Any two points to be explained) 2×1=2

Classification of industries on the basis of ownership :

  1. Public Sector : These are owned and managed by government.
  2. Private Sector : These are owned by individual investors.
  3. Joint Sector : These are managed by joint stock companies or sometimes the private and public sectors together establish and manage the industries.

(All three points to be explained) 3×1=3

2+3=5

Q43.2025 Main 64/1/1 · Q255 marks

(a) “The cost of transport plays an important role in location of industries.” Justify the statement with examples.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/1/1
  1. Speedy and efficient transport facilities to carry raw materials to the factory and to move finished goods to the market are essential for the development of industries.
  2. Lower transportation cost tends to have more concentration of industries.
  3. Western Europe and eastern North America have a highly developed transport system which has always induced the concentration of industries in these areas.
  4. Modern industry is inseparably tied to transportation systems.
  5. Improvements in transportation led to integrated economic development and regional specialization of manufacturing.
  6. Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be justified.) 5×1=5

Q44.2025 Main 64/2/1 · Q255 marks

(a) Explain the main features of large scale manufacturing industries in the world. 5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/2/1

The main features of large-scale manufacturing industries in the world are :

  1. Large-scale manufacturing involves a large market,
  2. Various raw materials are required.
  3. Enormous energy is required for the processing of raw materials and other operations.
  4. Specialized workers are required for various operations.
  5. Advanced technology used in production.
  6. Assembly line mass production is done.
  7. Large capital investment is needed
  8. This kind of manufacturing developed in the last 200 years, in the UK, the north-eastern U.S.A., and Europe. Now it has diffused almost all over the world.
  9. Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be explained.) 5×1=5

Q45.2025 Main 64/2/1 · Q25 (OR)5 marks

(b) Explain the main features of ‘High Tech’ industries in the world. 5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/2/1

The main features of high-tech industries in the world are :

  1. High-tech industries are the latest generation of manufacturing activities.
  2. It involves the application of intensive research and development (R and D).
  3. Manufacture of products of an advanced scientific and engineering character.
  4. Professional (white-collar) workers make up a large share of the total workforce. These highly skilled specialists greatly outnumber the actual production (blue-collar) workers.
  5. Robotics on the assembly line, computer-aided design (CAD) and manufacturing, electronic controls of smelting and refining processes, and the constant development of new chemical and pharmaceutical products are examples of high-tech industries.
  6. Neatly spaced, low, modern, dispersed, office-plant-lab buildings mark the high-tech industrial landscape.
  7. Planned business parks for high-tech start-ups have become part of regional and local development schemes.
  8. Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be explained.) 5×1=5

Q46.2025 Main 64/4/1 · Q25 (OR)5 marks

“High-tech industries are regionally concentrated, self-sustained and highly specialized.” Justify the statement. 5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/4/1
  1. High technology is the latest generation of manufacturing activities.
  2. It is best understood as the application of intensive research and development efforts leading to the manufacture of products of an advanced, scientific and engineering character.
  3. Professional workers make up a large share of the total workforce. These highly skilled specialists greatly outnumber the actual production workers.
  4. Robotics, on the assembly line, computer-aided design and manufacturing, electronic controls of smelting and refining processes and the constant development of new chemical and pharmaceutical products are notable examples of a high-tech industry.
  5. Neatly, spaced, low, modern, dispersed, office plant; lab building rather than massive assembly structures, factories and storage areas mark the high-tech industrial landscape.
  6. Planned business parks for high-tech start-ups have become part of regional and local development schemes.
  7. These are regionally concentrated and self-sustained and highly specialised. The Silicon Valley near San Francisco and Silicon Forest near Seattle are the major examples.
  8. Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be justified) 5×1=5

Q47.2025 Main 64/5/1 · Q25 (OR)5 marks

“Mixed economies have public, private and joint sector industries.” Examine the statement. 5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/5/1
  1. Mixed economies have public, private and joint-sector industries.
  2. Public sector industries are owned and managed by the government.
  3. Socialist countries have state-owned industries.
  4. The private sector industries are owned by individual investors and by private organizations.
  5. In capitalist countries, industries are generally owned privately.
  6. The joint sector industries are a vital component of a mixed economy.
  7. The joint sector industries are managed by joint stock companies or through collaboration between the public and private sectors.
  8. In mixed economies, the roles of public, private, and joint-sector industries are strategically balanced to achieve economic and social goals.
  9. Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be examined) 5×1=5

Q48.2025 Main 64/6/1 · Q265 marks

(a) “Industries maximise profits by reducing costs.” Explain the statement with examples.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/6/1

Industries maximise profits by reducing costs in the following ways :-

  1. Access to Market : Market means people who have a demand for these goods and also have the purchasing power to be able to purchase from the sellers at a place. Example - The developed regions of Europe, North America, Japan and Australia provide large global markets as the purchasing power of people is very high.
  2. Access to Raw Material : Raw material used by industries should be cheap and easy to transport. Industries based on cheap, bulky and weight-losing material are located close to the sources of raw material such as steel, sugar and cement industries.
  3. Access to labour supply : Some types of manufacturing still require skilled labour. Increasing mechanisation, automation and flexibility of industrial processes have reduced the dependence of industries upon the labours.
  4. Access to sources of energy : Industries which use more power are located close to the source of the energy supply such as the aluminium industry.
  5. Access to Transportation and Communication Facilities : Speedy and efficient transport facilities to carry raw materials to the factory and to move finished goods to the market are essential for the development of industries. The cost of transport plays an important role in the location of industrial unit. Example - Western Europe and Eastern North America have a highly developed transport system which has always induced the concentration of industries in these areas.
  6. Government Policy : Government adopt ‘regional policies’ to promote ‘balanced’ economic development and hence set up industries in particular areas.
  7. Access to Agglomeration Economies
  8. Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be explained.) 5×1=5

Q49.2025 Main 64/6/1 · Q26 (OR)5 marks

(b) Explain the classification of industries on the basis of raw materials with examples.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/6/1

Classification of industries on the basis of raw materials are :-

  1. Agro based Industries : It involves the processing of raw materials from the field and the farm into finished products for rural and urban markets. Example - Sugar, pickles, spices, rubber etc. are agro processing industries.
  2. Mineral based industries : These industries use minerals as raw material. Some industries use ferrous metallic minerals like iron and steel industries and some use non ferrous metallic minerals like copper and aluminium industries.
  3. Chemical based Industries : Such industries use natural chemical minerals, Example mineral oil is used in petrochemical industry. Salts, sulphur and potash industries also use natural minerals.
  4. Forest based Industries : The forests provide many major and minor products which are used as raw material. Timber for furniture industry, wood, bamboo and grass for paper industry come from forests.
  5. Animal based Industries : Leather for leather industry and wool for woollen textiles are obtained from animals.
  6. Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be explained.) 5×1=5

Q50.2025 Supp. 64/S/1 · Q245 marks

“Large scale industries are established at different locations for maximising profits by reducing costs.” In the light of this statement, examine the factors influencing the industrial location.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/S/1
  1. Access to market : Market means people who have a demand for these goods and also have purchasing power. Example the developed regions of Europe, North America, Japan and Australia provide large global markets.
  2. Access to Raw Material : Raw material used by industries should be cheap and easy to transport. Industries based on cheap and bulky and weight losing material are located close to the sources of raw material such as steel, sugar and cement industries.
  3. Access to labour supply : Some types of manufacturing still require skilled labour. Increasing mechanisation, automation and flexibility of industrial processes have reduced the dependence of industries upon the labour.
  4. Access to sources of energy : Industries which use more power are located close to the source of the energy supply such as the aluminium industry.
  5. Access to transportation and communication facilities : Speedy and efficient transport facilities to carry raw materials to the factory and to move finished goods to the market are essential for the development of industries. Example Western Europe and eastern North America have a highly developed transport system which has always induced the concentration of industries in these areas.
  6. Government Policies : Government adopt regional policies to promote balanced economic development and hence set up industries in particular areas.
  7. Access to Agglomeration Economies : Many industries benefit from nearness to a leader industry and other industries.
  8. Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be examined.) 5×1=5

Q51.2024 Main 64/2/1 · Q255 marks

Explain the difference between cottage and large scale industries in the world, with examples.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/2/1

Cottage industries-

  1. It is the smallest manufacturing unit.
  2. The artisans use local raw materials.
  3. Family members use simple and locally available tools to produce everyday goods in their homes.
  4. Finished products may be for consumption in the same households or, for sale.
  5. Capital and transportation do not wield much influence.
  6. Manufacturing at this level has low commercial significance.

Large scale industries-

  1. Large scale manufacturing involves a large market.
  2. Requires various raw materials.
  3. Requires enormous energy.
  4. Requires specialized workers.
  5. Uses advanced technology.
  6. Assembly-line mass production and large capital.

Any five points of difference to be explained. 5×1=5

Q52.2024 Main 64/5/1 · Q265 marks

Differentiate the small and large scale manufacturing industries in the world.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/5/1

(i) Small scale manufacturing uses local raw material and simple power driven techniques. Large scale manufacturing requires various raw materials and enormous energy.

(ii) Small scale provides employment to local people. Large scale needs specialized workers and advanced technology.

(iii) Small scale industries increases the local purchasing power while large scale industries increase the purchasing power of the whole countries.

(iv) Small scale manufacturing provide employment to local labour but large scale provide labour to specialized persons from different areas.

(v) Transport and markets are require for both but small scale needs local markets and large scale need even overseas markets.

(vi) Small scale industries require less capital whereas largescale industries need huge capital infrastructure.

(vii) Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be explained)

5x1=5

Q53.2024 Supp. 64/S/1 · Q255 marks

Analyse the main characteristics of large scale manufacturing industries in the world.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/S/1
  1. Large scale manufacturing involves large market.
  2. Variety of raw material.
  3. Enormous energy.
  4. Specialized workers.
  5. Advanced technology.
  6. Assembly line mass production.
  7. Large capital investment.
  8. Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be analysed.) 5x1=5

Q54.2023 Main 64/1/1 · Q245 marks

(a) Analyse five main factors affecting location of industries in the world. 5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/1/1

Factors affecting the location of industries in the world are-

  1. Access to market.
  2. Access to raw material.
  3. Access to labour supply.
  4. Access to sources of energy.
  5. Access to transportation and communication facilities.
  6. Government policy.
  7. Any other relevant point.

Any five points to be analyzed. 5×1=5

Q55.2023 Main 64/1/1 · Q24 (OR)5 marks

(b) Analyse the classification of industries on the basis of raw materials into five heads. 5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/1/1

The classification of industries on the basis of raw materials are-

  1. Agro-based industries.
  2. Mineral-based industries.
  3. Chemical-based industries.
  4. Forest-based industries.
  5. Animal-based industries.
  6. Any other relevant point.

Any five points to be analyzed. 5×1=5

Q56.2023 Main 64/2/1 · Q245 marks

(a) “High technology is the latest generation of manufacturing activities”. Explain the statement.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/2/1

High technology manufacturing activities:-

  1. It is best understood as the application of intensive research and development (R and D).
  2. It is based on advance scientific and engineering character.
  3. Professional workers (white collars) make up a large share of the total work force.
  4. These highly skilled specialists greatly outnumber the actual production (Blue collar) workers.
  5. Robotics on the assembly line computer-aided design (CAD) and manufacturing, electronic controls of smelting and refining processes.
  6. The constant development of new chemical and pharmaceutical products are notable examples.
  7. The Silicon Valley near San Francisco and Silicon forest near Seattle forest are examples of Technopolis.
  8. Any other relevant point

Any five points to be explained.

5x1=5

Q57.2023 Main 64/2/1 · Q24 (OR)5 marks

(b) Explain any five factors affecting the location of industries in the world.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/2/1

Factors affecting location of Industries in the world are:-

  1. Access to raw material.
  2. Access to market.
  3. Access to labour supply.
  4. Access to sources of energy.
  5. Access to transportation and communication facilities.
  6. Government Policy
  7. Access to agglomeration economies.
  8. Any other relevant point.

Any five points to be explained.

5x1=5

Q58.2023 Main 64/4/1 · Q255 marks

(a) Examine the major characteristics of modern large scale manufacturing in the world. 5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/4/1
  1. Large scale manufacturing involves a large market.
  2. These industries use a large variety of raw materials in huge quantity.
  3. It involves specialised workers and division of labour.
  4. It requires enormous supply of power.
  5. It involves advanced technology, automation and assembly line mass production.
  6. These industries require vast capital.
  7. Technological innovations through high level of research and development (R&D) is involved.
  8. Any other relevant point.

To be examined by giving any five points. 5×1=5

Q59.2023 Main 64/4/1 · Q25 (OR)5 marks

(b) “High tech industry is the latest generation of manufacturing in the world.” Examine the statement. 5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/4/1
  1. It involves the application of research and development (R&D).
  2. It is of advanced scientific and engineering character.
  3. Professional (white collar) workers are employed in large number in these industries.
  4. It is based on computer-aided designs (CAD).
  5. Chemicals and pharmaceuticals are notable examples of this.
  6. Any other relevant point.

To be examined by giving any five points. 5×1=5

Q60.2022 Main 64/5/1 · Q85 marks

"High technology, is the latest generation of manufacturing activities." Examine the statement.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2022 (Main), Set 64/5/1
  1. Application of R and D
  2. Advanced scientific and engineering character
  3. Robotics, on the assembly line computer-aided design (CAD)
  4. Plant-lab-buildings and planned business parks for high-tech starts ups.
  5. Regionally concentrated, self-sustained
  6. Technopolis—San Francisco, Silicon Forest
  7. Any other relevant point

(Any five points to be explained) [TB-I, Pg-52] 5x1=5

Q61.SQP 2025-26 · Q255 marks

How have countries like India, China, Brazil and Indonesia benefitted from the development of small-scale industries?

What are technopolies? Give two examples. 3+2=5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26

Employment opportunities, Better Standard of Living, Increased Purchasing Power

  1. Job creation and increased employment: Small-scale industries are labour-intensive, creating numerous jobs and providing employment opportunities to a larger portion of the population.
  2. Reduced poverty and improved livelihoods: By offering more employment options, small-scale industries help reduce poverty and raise the living standards of individuals in both urban and rural areas.
  3. Equitable income distribution and improved local purchasing power: Small-scale industries support a more balanced income distribution, raising the local purchasing power of the individuals, and encouraging economic growth at the grassroots level.
  4. Regional development: Small-scale manufacturing often utilizes local raw materials and resources, promoting the economic development of resource-rich regions.
  5. Skill development: Small-scale industries provide opportunities for the workforce to develop valuable skills, enhancing their productivity and earning possibilities.

High-tech industries which are regionally concentrated, self-sustained and highly specialised are called technopolies.

They are characterised by the use of robotics on the assembly line, computer-aided design (CAD) and manufacturing, electronic controls of smelting and refining processes.

Neatly spaced, low, modern, dispersed, office-plant-lab buildings rather than massive assembly structures, factories and storage areas mark the high-tech industrial landscape. Planned business parks for high-tech start-ups have become part of regional and local development schemes.

New chemical and pharmaceutical products are notable examples of a high-tech industry.

The Silicon Valley near San Francisco and Manufacturing contributes significantly to Silicon Forest near Seattle are examples of the world economy. Iron and steel, textiles, technopolies.

3+2=5

Q62.SQP 2025-26 · Q25 (OR)5 marks

Discuss with examples, any five factors that influence industrial location.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26

Some of the factors influencing industrial locations are:

  1. Access to Market: The existence of a market for manufactured goods is the most important factor in the location of industries. Remote areas inhabited by a few people offer small markets. The developed regions of Europe, North America, Japan and Australia provide large global markets as the purchasing power of the people is very high. The densely populated regions of South and South-east Asia also provide large markets. Some industries, such as aircraft manufacturing, have a global market. The arms industry also has global markets.
  2. Access to Raw Material: Raw material used by industries should be cheap and easy to transport. Industries based on cheap, bulky and weight-losing material (ores) are located close to the sources of raw material such as steel, sugar, and cement industries. Perishability is a vital factor for the industry to be located closer to the source of the raw material. Agro-processing and dairy products are processed close to the sources of farm produce or milk supply respectively.
  3. Access to Labour Supply : Labour supply is an important factor in the location of industries. Some types of manufacturing still require skilled labour. Increasing mechanisation, automation and flexibility of industrial processes have reduced the dependence of industry upon the labours.
  4. Access to Sources of Energy: Industries which use more power are located close to the source of the energy supply such as the aluminium industry. Earlier coal was the main source of energy, today hydroelectricity and petroleum are also important sources of energy for many industries.
  5. Access to Transportation and Communication Facilities : Speedy and efficient transport facilities to carry raw materials to the factory and to move finished goods to the market are essential for the development of industries. The cost of transport plays an important role in the location of industrial units. Western Europe and eastern North America have a highly developed transport system which has always induced the concentration of industries in these areas. Communication is also an important need for industries for the exchange and management of information.
  6. Government Policy: Governments adopt ‘regional policies’ to promote ‘balanced’ economic development and hence set up industries in particular areas.
Q63.SQP 2026-27 · Q245 marks

Classify industries based on raw materials and illustrate each category with appropriate examples.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27
  1. Agro based-Sugar, Tea, Coffee,
  2. Mineral based
    a. Metallic: Iron and steel, Copper
    b. Non Metallic: Cement
  3. Forest based-Timber, Paper
  4. Chemical Based: Petrochemical, Fertilizer
  5. Animal Based: Leather, Wood

(Explain each point.) (1×5=5)

Q64.SQP 2026-27 · Q24 (OR)5 marks

Explain any five factors influencing the location of industries with suitable examples.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27
  1. Access to Market
  2. Access to Raw Material
  3. Access to Labour Supply
  4. Access to Sources of Energy
  5. Access to Transportation and Communication Facilities
  6. Government Policy
  7. Access to Agglomeration Economies/ Links between Industries

(Explain any five points) (1×5=5)

Part A · Fundamentals of Human Geography

6. Tertiary and Quaternary Activities

Q1.2026 Main 64/1/1 · Q61 mark

Read the following statements carefully regarding ‘tertiary activities’ and choose the correct option : 1

  1. Tertiary activities include both production and exchange of services.
  2. Tertiary activities involve the commercial output of services.
  3. Tertiary activities are directly involved in the processing of raw material.
  4. The examples of tertiary activities are – plumber, doctor, publisher.

Options :

  1. Only I, II and III are correct.
  2. Only I, II and IV are correct.
  3. Only I, III and IV are correct.
  4. Only II, III and IV are correct.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/1/1

(B) Only I, II and IV are correct

Q2.2026 Main 64/1/1 · Q71 mark

Choose the correctly matched pair from the following. 1

  1. Red collar worker – Practicing lawyers
  2. Gold collar worker – Senior business executive
  3. Pink collar worker – Environmental scientist
  4. White collar worker – Mining worker
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/1/1

(B) Gold collar worker - Senior business executive

Q3.2026 Main 64/1/1 · Q81 mark

Which one of the following statements is true regarding ‘medical tourism’ in India ? 1

  1. Tourists travel specially for availing cheap medical facilities.
  2. Doctors travel to developed country to do surgical operation.
  3. Doctors travel to treat the patients.
  4. Tourists on trip get treated, if they fall ill.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/1/1

(A) Tourists travel specially for availing cheap medical facilities

Q4.2026 Main 64/5/1 · Q41 mark

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option.

Assertion (A) : The history and art of any area have potential attractiveness for the tourists.

Reason (R) : Tourists visit ancient archaeological sites and enjoy exploring castles and palaces.

Options :

  1. (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
  2. (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
  3. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  4. Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/5/1

(C) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Q5.2026 Main 64/5/1 · Q51 mark

Which of the following statements are true regarding rural marketing centres ? Choose the most appropriate option :

  1. These market centres cater to nearby settlements.
  2. These serve as the trading centres of most rudimentary type.
  3. At these centres, personal and professional services are well-developed.
  4. At these centres, most of the services are retail in nature.

Options :

  1. Only I, II and III
  2. Only I, II and IV
  3. Only I, III and IV
  4. Only II, III and IV
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/5/1

(B) Only I, II and IV

Q6.2026 Main 64/5/1 · Q61 mark

Which of the following sector is involved in the highest level of decision making ?

  1. Primary sector
  2. Secondary sector
  3. Tertiary sector
  4. Quinary sector
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/5/1

(D) Quinary sector

Q7.2025 Main 64/1/1 · Q31 mark

Identify the main characteristics of quaternary activity from the following :

  1. It is associated with extraction of minerals for development.
  2. It is confined to increase the value of raw materials into finished products.
  3. It is concerned with research and development.
  4. It is linked with serving all the people of society.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/1/1

(C) It is concerned with research and development.

Q8.2025 Main 64/4/1 · Q31 mark

Identify the correct option related to transport services from the following.

  1. It comes under the quaternary sector of economic activities.
  2. It is an organised industry which provides man’s basic needs of physical mobility.
  3. It is concerned with digital sending and receiving of information.
  4. Roads, railways, television and internet are some of its examples.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/4/1

(B) It is an organised industry which provides man’s basic needs of physical mobility

Q9.2025 Main 64/5/1 · Q31 mark

Choose the correct statement related to ‘retail trading’.

  1. It takes place in urban centres only.
  2. Retail traders are the collection and distribution centres.
  3. It is concerned with the sale of goods directly to the consumers.
  4. Retail traders primarily direct the goods to be manufactured to their specifications.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/5/1

(C) It is concerned with the sale of goods directly to the consumers.

Q10.2025 Main 64/6/1 · Q11 mark

Consumption of information-based services come under which one of the following sectors ?

  1. Primary
  2. Secondary
  3. Tertiary
  4. Quaternary
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/6/1

(D) Quaternary

Q11.2025 Main 64/6/1 · Q41 mark

Read the following characteristics of tertiary activities carefully and choose the correct option.

  1. It is involved in processing of physical raw materials.
  2. It is an output of services.
  3. Many of the services are highly specialised.
  4. Electrician, doctor, lawyer, driver are some of its examples.

Option :

  1. Only I, II and III are correct.
  2. Only I, III and IV are correct.
  3. Only I, II and IV are correct.
  4. Only II, III and IV are correct.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/6/1

(D) Only II, III and IV are correct.

Q12.2025 Main 64/6/1 · Q61 mark

Read the following characteristics of workforce carefully, where work is performed through outsourcing and choose the correct option.

  1. Availability of cheap and skilled workers
  2. Good English language skill of involved workforce
  3. Highly-skilled well-paid professionals
  4. Facility of customer support and call centre services

Options :

  1. Only I, II and III are correct.
  2. Only I, II and IV are correct.
  3. Only I, III and IV are correct.
  4. Only II, III and IV are correct.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/6/1

(B) Only I, II and IV are correct

Q13.2025 Main 64/7/1 · Q101 mark

Automatic vending machines and the internet are examples of which of the following types of trade ?

  1. Rural Marketing Centres
  2. Wholesale Trading
  3. Urban Marketing Centres
  4. Retail Trading
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/7/1

(D) Retail Trading

Q14.2025 Main 64/7/1 · Q121 mark

Which one of the following is an example of ‘Gold Collar’ professional ?

  1. Policy Formulator
  2. Bank Clerk
  3. Teacher
  4. Insurance Provider
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/7/1

(A) Policy Formulator

Q15.2025 Main 64/7/1 · Q141 mark

Read the following characteristics of tertiary activities carefully and choose the correct option.

  1. Tertiary activities include all types of services.
  2. Trade, transport and communication are parts of tertiary activities.
  3. Raw material is transformed into finished goods under tertiary activities.
  4. Teachers, lawyers and traders are some of the examples of tertiary activities.

Options :

  1. Only I, II and III are correct.
  2. Only I, III and IV are correct.
  3. Only I, II and IV are correct.
  4. Only II, III and IV are correct.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/7/1

(C) Only I, II and IV are correct

Q16.2024 Main 64/1/1 · Q21 mark

Which one of the following is able to purchase merchandise more economically, by contacting the manufacturers to produce the goods according to their specification ?

  1. Trading Centres
  2. Consumer Cooperatives
  3. Departmental Stores
  4. Chain Stores
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/1/1

(D) Chain Stores

Q17.2024 Main 64/2/1 · Q51 mark

Production of information is related to which one of the following sectors ?

  1. Primary
  2. Secondary
  3. Tertiary
  4. Quaternary
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/2/1

(D) Quaternary

Q18.2024 Main 64/2/1 · Q61 mark

Read the following characteristics of retail trading carefully and choose the correct option :

  1. This is concerned with the sale of goods directly to the consumers.
  2. Most of the retail trading takes place in fixed establishments or stores.
  3. It is formed by many middlemen, traders and suppliers.
  4. Hawkers, street peddling, automatic vending machines, etc. are its examples.

Options :

  1. Only I, II and III are correct.
  2. Only I, II and IV are correct.
  3. Only II, III and IV are correct.
  4. Only I, III and IV are correct.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/2/1

(B) Only I, II, and IV are correct.

Q19.2024 Main 64/3/1 · Q51 mark

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option :

Assertion (A) : Manpower is an important component of the service sector.

Reason (R) : Most of the tertiary activities are performed by skilled labour and professionally trained experts.

Options :

  1. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
  2. (A) is false, but (R) is true.
  3. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  4. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/3/1

(C) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Q20.2024 Main 64/3/1 · Q61 mark

Two statements are given below as I and II. Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option :

Statement I : Most of the quaternary activities can be outsourced.

Statement II : These services are not necessarily based on resources and market.

Options :

  1. Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.
  2. Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct.
  3. Statements I and II both are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.
  4. Statements I and II both are correct, but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/3/1

(C) Statement I and II both are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation of statement I.

Q21.2024 Main 64/4/1 · Q11 mark

Read the following characteristics of wholesale trading carefully and choose the correct option :

  1. It is constituted by numerous intermediaries, merchants and supply houses.
  2. Wholesalers often extend credit to retail stores.
  3. Generally retailers operate very largely on the wholesaler’s capital.
  4. Mail order, automatic vending machines, street vendors are some of its examples.

Option :

  1. Only i, ii and iii are correct.
  2. Only ii, iii and iv are correct.
  3. Only i, iii and iv are correct.
  4. Only i, ii and iv are correct.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/4/1

(A) Only i, ii and iii are correct

Q22.2024 Supp. 64/S/1 · Q131 mark

Which of the following is regarded as a Tertiary activity ?

  1. Cattle rearing
  2. Farming
  3. Work of plumbers
  4. Industrial work
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/S/1

(C) Work of Plumbers

Q23.2023 Main 64/2/1 · Q61 mark

Under which one of the following sectors, collection of information comes ?

  1. Primary
  2. Secondary
  3. Tertiary
  4. Quaternary
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/2/1

(D) Quaternary

Q24.2023 Main 64/3/1 · Q41 mark

Which of the following is a tertiary activity ?

  1. Gathering
  2. Hunting
  3. Nomadic herding
  4. Trading
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/3/1

(d) Trading

Q25.2023 Main 64/3/1 · Q51 mark

Which of the following is a quarternary activity ?

  1. Catching fish
  2. Iron smelting
  3. Software developing
  4. Basket making
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/3/1

(c) Software developing

Q26.2023 Main 64/3/1 · Q61 mark

Transport activities come under which one of the following sectors ?

  1. Primary
  2. Secondary
  3. Tertiary
  4. Quarternary
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/3/1

(c) Tertiary

Q27.2023 Main 64/4/1 · Q91 mark

‘Retail trading’ comes under which of the following activities ?

  1. Primary
  2. Tertiary
  3. Quarternary
  4. Secondary
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/4/1

(b) Tertiary

Q28.2023 Main 64/5/1 · Q41 mark

In a developed economy, the majority of workers get employment in which of the following sectors of economy ?

  1. Primary sector
  2. Secondary sector
  3. Tertiary sector
  4. Quaternary sector
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/5/1

(C) Tertiary sector

Q29.2023 Main 64/5/1 · Q51 mark

Which one of the following activities is related to quaternary activities ?

  1. Production of information
  2. Fishing
  3. Tourism
  4. Trading
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/5/1

(A) Production of information

Q30.2023 Main 64/5/1 · Q61 mark

Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic of retail trading ?

  1. It is concerned with sale of goods directly to the consumers.
  2. Most of the retail trading takes place in fixed establishments.
  3. Most of the retail stores procure their supplies from intermediate stores.
  4. Retail trading constitutes bulk business through numerous intermediary merchants and supply houses.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/5/1

(D) Retail trading constitutes bulk business through numerous intermediary merchants and supply houses.

Q31.SQP 2025-26 · Q51 mark

Which of the following activities is an example of a quaternary activity?

  1. Transporting coal from mines to factories via railways
  2. A lawyer drafting contracts for corporate clients
  3. A salesperson working at a local supermarket
  4. A scientist developing genetically modified crops in a research lab
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26

(D) A scientist developing genetically modified crops in a research lab

Q32.SQP 2026-27 · Q51 mark

Which of the following statements are correct related to rural marketing centres? Choose the correct option.

  1. Rural marketing centres cater to nearby settlements.
  2. Rural Marketing centres are quasi-urban trading centres of the most rudimentary type.
  3. They offer manufactured goods as well as many specialized markets develop, e.g. markets for labour, housing, semi or finished products.
  4. Personal and professional services are not well-developed. These form local collecting and distributing centres.

Options:

  1. i, ii, iv
  2. i, iii, iv
  3. ii, iii, iv
  4. i, ii, iii
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27

(A) i, ii, iv

Q33.2022 Main 64/1/1 · Q22 marks

“Tertiary activities includes both production and exchange.” Support the statement. 2

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2022 (Main), Set 64/1/1

Tertiary activities include :

  1. The production involves the provision of services that are consumed.
  2. The output is indirectly measured in terms of wages and salaries.
  3. Exchange involves trade transport and communication facilities that are used to overcome distance.
  4. Tertiary activities, therefore involve the commercial output of services rather than the production of tangible goods.
  5. They do not include processing of physical raw material/product directly. Give examples of tertiary activities.
  6. Any other relevant point.

To be assessed as a whole. 2

Q34.2022 Main 64/2/1 · Q22 marks

“Rural marketing centres cater to nearby settlements.” Explain the statement. 2

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2022 (Main), Set 64/2/1
  1. These are quasi-urban centres that serve as trading centres of the most rudimentary type.
  2. Here personal and professional services are not well developed.
  3. These form local collecting and distributing centres.
  4. Most of these have mandis (Whole sale markets) and also retailing areas.
  5. Any other point.

Any two points to be explained. 1×2=2

Q35.2022 Main 64/4/1 · Q32 marks

(a) Differentiate between Departmental stores and Chain stores stating two differences. 1×2=2

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2022 (Main), Set 64/4/1
  1. Departmental stores delegate the responsibility and authority to departmental heads for purchasing of commodities whereas chain stores are able to purchase merchandise most economically.
  2. Departmental stores overseeing the sale in different sections of the stores. Whereas chain stores have the ability to experiment in one store and apply the result to many.
  3. Departmental stores employ skilled or semi skilled specialists in many tasks whereas chain stores employ highly skilled specialists in many tasks.
  4. Any other relevant point.

Any two points to be explained 1×2=2

Q36.2022 Main 64/4/1 · Q3 (OR)2 marks

(b) Differentiate between Telecommunication and Services stating two differences. 1×2=2

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2022 (Main), Set 64/4/1

(a)

  1. The use of telecommunications is linked to the development of modern technology.
  2. It has revolutionised communications because of the speed with which messages are sent.
  3. The time reduced is from weeks to minutes.

(b)

  1. Services occur at many different levels.
  2. Some are geared to industry.
  3. And some to people and some to both industry and people. Eg. The transport system.

Any two points to be explained 1×2=2

Q37.2026 Main 64/2/1 · Q183 marks

Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow :

The Quaternary Sector

The Quaternary Sector along with the Tertiary Sector has replaced most of the primary and secondary employment as the basis for economic growth. Over half of all workers in developed economies are in the ‘Knowledge Sector’ and there has been a very high growth in demand for consumption of information-based services from mutual fund managers to tax consultants, software developers and statisticians. Personnel working in office buildings, elementary schools and university classrooms, hospitals and doctors’ offices, theatres, accounting and brokerage firms all belong to this category of services.

Like some of the tertiary functions, quaternary activities can also be outsourced. They are not tied to resources, affected by the environment, or necessarily localised by market.

(18.1) Define the concept of ‘outsourcing’. 1

(18.2) More than 50 percent of all workers in developed countries belongs to which sector of economy ? 1

(18.3) ‘Mutual funds managers’ are demanding which type of services ? 1

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/2/1

(18.1) Outsourcing is giving work to an out side agency to improve efficiency and to reduce costs. 1

(18.2) Knowledge Sector 1

(18.3) Consumption of information-based services 1

1+1+1=3

Q38.2025 Main 64/1/1 · Q213 marks

Differentiate between rural and urban marketing centres with examples.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/1/1
  1. Rural marketing centres serve as trading of the most rudimentary type while urban centres have more specialized urban services.
  2. Personal and professional services are not well developed in rural marketing centres. While urban centres are well developed.
  3. Mostly they have weekly bazars in rural areas. In urban centres they have weekly bazars as well as organized bazars also.
  4. Most of the rural mandis act as wholesale market and retail market, whereas urban markets offer manufactured goods as well as specialized markets.
  5. Any other relevant point

(Any three points of differences to be explained.) 3×1=3

Q39.2025 Main 64/4/1 · Q213 marks

“Tertiary activities include both production and exchange.” Explain the statement. 3

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/4/1
  1. The production in tertiary activities includes the provision of services that are consumed.
  2. The output is indirectly measured in terms of wages and salaries.
  3. Exchange involves trade, transport and communication facilities that are used to overcome distance. Tertiary activities therefore involves the commercial output of services rather than the production of tangible goods.
  4. They are not directly involved in the processing of physical raw materials.
  5. The expertise provided by services relies more heavily on specialised skills, experience and knowledge of the workers rather than on the production techniques, machinery and factory processes.
  6. Any other relevant point.

(Any three points to be explained) 3×1=3

Q40.2025 Main 64/5/1 · Q183 marks

Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow :

There are many professionals who provide their services against payment of their fee. Thus, all types of services are special skills provided in exchange of payments. Health, education, law, governance and recreation, etc., require professional skills. These services require other theoretical knowledge and practical training. Tertiary activities are related to the service sector. Manpower is an important component of the service sector as most of the tertiary activities are performed by skilled labour, professionally trained experts and consultants. In the initial stages of economic development, larger proportion of people worked in the primary sector. In a developed economy, the majority of workers get employment in tertiary activity and a moderate proportion is employed in the secondary sector.

(18.1) How can a person avail services of a professional ? 1

(18.2) Explain any one difference between secondary and tertiary sectors. 1

(18.3) Describe any one example of the relationship between primary and secondary sectors. 1

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/5/1

(18.1) After making payment of their fee. 1

(18.2)

  1. The Secondary sector is related to manufacturing, while the tertiary provides services.
  2. Tertiary activities are based on the specialized skills, experience and knowledge of the workers while secondary activities involve the production techniques, machinery and factory processes.
  3. Tertiary activities involve the commercial output of services, while in the secondary activities, tangible goods are produced.
  4. Any other relevant point.

(Any one difference to be explained.) 1

(18.3)

  1. The primary sector provides iron ore to the secondary sector while the secondary sector provides agricultural machinery and tools to the primary sector.
  2. Any other relevant example.

(Any one example to be described.) 1

3×1=3

Q41.2025 Supp. 64/S/1 · Q183 marks

Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow : 3×1=3

The Digital Divide

Opportunities emerging from the Information and Communication Technology-based development is unevenly distributed across the globe. There are wide ranging economic, political and social differences among countries. How quickly countries can provide ICT access and benefits to its citizens is the deciding factor. While developed countries in general have surged forward, the developing countries have lagged behind and this is known as the digital divide. Similarly digital divides exist within countries. For example, in large countries like India or Russia, it is inevitable that certain areas like metropolitan centres possess better connectivity and access to the digital world versus peripheral rural areas.

(18.1) Define the term ‘digital divide’. 1

(18.2) Mention the reason of uneven development of information and communication technology. 1

(18.3) Why does digital divide exist within countries ? 1

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/S/1

(18.1) The gap between developed and developing countries in providing ICT access and benefits to its citizens is called digital divide. 1

(18.2) There are wide ranging economic, political and social differences among the countries which made ICT uneven. 1

(18.3) It is natural that in some big countries like India, metropolitan areas get better access to ICT services while peripheral rural areas lag behind. 1

3×1=3

Q42.2024 Main 64/1/1 · Q183 marks

Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow : 3×1=3

Services

Services occur at many different levels. Some are geared to industry, some to people, and some to both industry and people, e.g., the transport systems. Services, such as grocery shops and laundries are more common and widespread than high-order services or more specialized ones like those of accountants, consultants and physicians. Services are provided to individual consumers who can afford to pay for them. For example, the gardener, the launderers and the barber do primarily physical labour. Teachers, lawyers, physicians, musicians and others perform mental labour.

Many services have now been regulated. Making and maintaining highways and bridges, maintaining fire fighting departments and supplying or supervising education and customer care are among the important services most often supervised or performed by governments or companies. State and Union legislation have established corporations to supervise and control the marketing of such services as transport, telecommunication, energy and water supply. Professional services are primarily health care, engineering, law and management. The location of recreational and entertainment services depends on the market.

(18.1) Mention any one example of common and widespread services. 1

(18.2) Who supervises and controls the marketing of services ? 1

(18.3) “Services occur at many different levels.” Support the statement. 1

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/1/1

(18.1) Grocery shops or Laundry are examples of common and widespread services. (anyone) 1

(18.2) State and Union legislation have established corporation to supervise and control the marketing of services. 1

(18.3) Some are geared to industry, some to people and some to both industry and people./High order services and low order services. 1

Q43.2024 Main 64/4/1 · Q183 marks

Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow :

Tertiary Sector

When you fall ill you go to your family doctor or you call a doctor. Sometimes your parents take you to a hospital for treatment. While in school, you are taught by your teachers. In the event of any dispute, legal opinion is obtained from a lawyer. Likewise, there are many professionals who provide their services against payment of their fee. Thus, all types of services are special skills provided in exchange of payments. Health, education, law, governance and recreation etc. require professional skills. These services require other theoretical knowledge and practical training. Tertiary activities are related to the service sector. Manpower is an important component of the service sector as most of the tertiary activities are performed by skilled labour, professionally trained experts and consultants.

In the initial stages of economic development, larger proportion of people worked in the primary sector. In a developed economy, the majority of workers get employment in tertiary activity and a moderate proportion is employed in the secondary sector.

(18.1) Why is ‘manpower’ an important factor of service sector ? Explain. 1

(18.2) Explain the difference between the activities of secondary and tertiary sectors. 1

(18.3) “Tertiary activities include both production and exchange.” Support the statement. 1

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/4/1

(18.1) Because most of the tertiary activities are performed by skilled labours, professionally trained experts and consultants. 1

(18.2) Tertiary activities are related to service sectors like transport, banking, etc. whereas, Secondary activities are related to manufacturing sectors like cotton textile industry. 1

(18.3) The production involves the provision of services that are consumed. The output is indirectly measured in terms of wages and salaries. Exchange involves trade, transport and communication facilities. 1

1+1+1=3

Q44.2024 Main 64/5/1 · Q213 marks

Explain the main features of periodic markets in rural areas of the world.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/5/1
  1. These markets are organized in rural areas at different periods where there are no regular markets
  2. These markets may be weekly or biweekly.
  3. These markets are held on different dates at different places.
  4. These markets cater to the demand of the local population.
  5. Shopkeepers remain always busy
  6. Any other relevant point

(Any three points to be explained)

3x1=3

Q45.2023 Main 64/1/1 · Q183 marks

Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow : 3×1=3

When you fall ill you go to your family doctor or you call a doctor. Sometimes your parents take you to a hospital for treatment. While in school, you are taught by your teachers. In the event of any dispute, legal opinion is obtained from a lawyer. Likewise, there are many professionals who provide their services against payment of their fee. Thus, all types of services are special skills provided in exchange of payments. Health, education, law, governance and recreation etc. require professional skills. These services require other theoretical knowledge and practical training. Tertiary activities are related to the service sector. Manpower is an important component of the service sector as most of the tertiary activities are performed by skilled labour, professionally trained experts and consultants.

In the initial stages of economic development, larger proportion of people worked in the primary sector. In a developed economy, the majority of workers get employment in tertiary activity and a moderate proportion is employed in the secondary sector.

(18.1) Explain the main difference between secondary and tertiary activities. 1
(18.2) How have tertiary activities related both production and exchange ? 1
(18.3) Mention any two tertiary activities. ½+½=1

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/1/1

(18.1) The main difference between secondary activities is that the expertise provided by services relies more heavily on specialized skills, experience, and knowledge of the workers rather than on the production techniques, machinery and factory process. (1)

(18.2) Relation of tertiary activity with production and exchange :

  1. Professionals provide their services/skill against the payment of fee e.g. lawyer, doctor, education, consultants, and skilled labour etc.
  2. Professionals providing their services in trading (goods and services), transportation and communication.

Any one point of relation (1)

(18.3) (i) Trade, (ii) Transport, (iii) Health, (iv) Education
Any other relevant examples.
Any two examples to be mentioned. (½+½=1)

3×1=3

Q46.2022 Main 64/1/1 · Q53 marks

How has ‘tourism’ become the world’s single largest tertiary activity in terms of total revenues ? Explain with examples. 3 × 1 = 3

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2022 (Main), Set 64/1/1

Tourism has become the world’s single largest tertiary activity in terms of total revenues as :

  1. 40% of total GDP comes through tourism.
  2. Near about 250 million people are involved.
  3. Many local persons are employed to provide facilities like accommodation, meals & transport etc.
  4. It also provide entertainment and special shops serving the tourists.
  5. Tourism fosters the growth of infrastructure, industries, retail trading and craft industries.
  6. Tourism includes- adventure, medical, historical, religious, cultural, & weather based tourism etc.
  7. Any other relevant point.

Any three points to be explained 3×1=3

Q47.2022 Main 64/2/1 · Q53 marks

Why are higher percentage of workers employed in services in more developed countries ? Explain with examples. 1×3=3

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2022 (Main), Set 64/2/1
  1. Services are provided in all societies.
  2. Higher percentage of workers is employed in providing services as compared to less developed countries.
  3. The trend in employment in this sector has been increasing.
  4. It has remained unchanged or decreasing in the primary and secondary activities.
  5. Developed countries have highly advanced technology in Agriculture and Industry requiring fewer workers.
  6. Any other point.

Any three points to be explained. 1×3=3

Q48.2022 Main 64/3/1 · Q53 marks

“The quaternary sector along with the tertiary sector has replaced most of the primary and secondary employment.” Support the statement. 3 × 1 = 3

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2022 (Main), Set 64/3/1

The quaternary sector along with tertiary sector :

  1. The quaternary sector along with the tertiary sector has replaced most of the primary and secondary employment as the basis for economic growth.
  2. Over half of all workers in developed economies are in the knowledge sector.
  3. There has been a very high growth in demand for the consumption of information-based services from mutual fund managers to tax consultant, software developers and statisticians.
  4. Personnel working in office buildings, elementary schools and university classrooms, hospitals and doctors’ offices, theatres, accounting and brokerage firms all belong to this category of services.
  5. Like some of the tertiary functions quaternary activities can also be outsourced.
  6. They are not tied to resources, affected by the environment, or necessarily localised by market.
  7. Any other relevant point

Any three points to be explained. (TB 1 page 61) 1×3=3

Q49.2022 Main 64/4/1 · Q53 marks

Examine the activities of periodic markets of rural areas. 1×3=3

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2022 (Main), Set 64/4/1
  1. Periodic markets are organised at different temporal interval in rural areas, where there are no regular markets.
  2. These markets may be weekly, bi-weekly.
  3. People come from the surrounding areas to meet their temporally accumulated demand.
  4. These markets are held on specified dates and move one place to another.
  5. The shopkeepers remain busy on all the days as a large area is served by them

(Any Three points to be explained) 1×3=3

Q50.SQP 2025-26 · Q203 marks

Explain how outsourcing has impacted both the countries that outsource work and the countries receiving outsourced jobs.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26
  • Impact on Outsourcing Countries: Outsourcing has led to job creation in countries like India, China, and the Philippines, offering cheaper labour and skilled workers. However, it has also faced resistance from job-seeking youths in these countries.
  • Comparative Advantage: The low cost and availability of skilled labour in outsourcing countries provide a comparative advantage, making outsourcing a viable business option.
  • Migration Trends: Outsourcing has reduced the outmigration from countries where jobs are available, as new opportunities lower the need for people to seek work abroad.
  • Emergence of KPO: Knowledge Process Outsourcing (KPO) involves highly skilled workers and has become a new trend in outsourcing. It focuses on research, e-learning, legal services, and other high-skill areas, creating additional business opportunities.

(Any 3 points or any other relevant point)

Q51.SQP 2026-27 · Q233 marks

A multinational company wants to outsource work to a country for tasks that require highly skilled knowledge and research, such as R&D, legal services, and analysis. Which type of outsourcing—BPO or KPO—should the company choose, and why? (1+2=3)

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27

The company should choose KPO (Knowledge Process Outsourcing). (1)

KPO involves outsourcing highly skilled, knowledge-intensive work such as research and development (R&D), legal services, business analysis, consultancy, and data analytics. These tasks require specialized expertise, advanced analytical skills, and professional knowledge. In contrast, BPO (Business Process Outsourcing) deals mainly with routine, repetitive, and process-based tasks like customer support, data entry, and payroll processing. (2)

Therefore, for work that demands expert knowledge and research, KPO is the appropriate choice.

Q52.SQP 2026-27 · Q23 (OR)3 marks

What do you understand by the term “Digital Divide?” Explain with one example of how it exists between countries or within a country. (1+2=3)

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27

Digital Divide refers to the gap between individuals, regions, or countries in terms of access to digital technologies, such as the internet, computers, and digital skills. (1)

Example: (2)

  1. Between countries, developed nations like the USA and Japan have widespread access to high-speed internet and advanced digital infrastructure, while many developing countries still lack reliable internet connectivity.
  2. Within a country like India, urban areas have better access to the internet and digital services, whereas many rural areas have limited connectivity and digital literacy. This divide affects education, employment opportunities, and access to information, increasing social and economic inequalities.
Q53.2026 Main 64/3/1 · Q245 marks

“Quaternary activities are based on specialised knowledge and skill.” Justify the statement by giving suitable arguments. 5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/3/1

i. Quaternary activities centre around research, development and maybe seen as an advanced form of services involving specialized knowledge and technical skills.
ii. The Quaternary Sector along with the Tertiary Sector has replaced most of the primary and secondary employment as the basis for economic growth.
iii. Over half of all workers in developed economies are in the ‘Knowledge Sector’ and there has been a very high growth in demand for and consumption of information-based services from mutual fund managers to tax consultants, software developers and statisticians.
iv. Personnel working in office buildings, elementary schools and university, classrooms, hospitals and doctors’ offices, theaters, accounting and brokerage firms all belong to this category of services.
v. Like some of the tertiary functions, quaternary activities can also be outsourced.
vi. They are not tied to resources, affected by the environment, or necessarily localized by market.
vii. Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be justified.) 5×1=5

Q54.2026 Main 64/4/1 · Q265 marks

(a) Define the term ‘outsourcing’. Explain the benefits of outsourcing for developing countries. 1+4=5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/4/1

Definition of Outsourcing:
It is giving work to an outside agency to improve efficiency and to reduce costs. 1

Benefits of Outsourcing:

i) It has resulted in the opening of large number of call centres in many developing countries.
ii) It has created new jobs in these countries.
iii) It boost technological development.
iv) It Contributes to increase the GDP.
v) It helps in skill development.
vi) It help in maintaining good relations with developed countries.
vii) Any other relevant point.

(Any four points to be explained) 4×1=4

1+4=5

Q55.2026 Main 64/4/1 · Q26 (OR)5 marks

(b) Define the term ‘digital divide’. Explain the difference of digital divide between developed and developing countries. 5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/4/1

Definition of Digital Divide:
It is the gap between developed and developing countries with access to modern information and communication technologies. 1

Difference :

i) There is wide range of differences between economic, political and social aspects among developed and developing countries
ii) Developed countries provide ICT access and benefits to the citizens better than developing countries.
iii) Developed countries in general have surged forward, the developing countries have lagged behind.
iv) Developed countries have better connectivity and access to digital world in comparison to developing countries.
v) Any other relevant point.

(Any four points to be explained) 4×1=4

1+4=5

Q56.2026 Supp. 64/7/1 · Q265 marks

Explain the difference between rural and urban marketing centres with examples. 5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/7/1
Rural marketing centreUrban marketing centre
i. Cater to nearby settlements.i. They are more widely spread.
ii. These are quasi-urban centres.ii. They provide specialised urban services.
iii. They serve as trading centres of most rudimentary type.iii. They provide ordinary goods and services as well as many specialised goods and services.
iv. Personal and professional services are not well developed.iv. Urban centres offer manufactured goods as well as many specialised markets.
v. These form local collection and distributing centres.v. Services of educational institutions and professionals such as teachers, lawyers, consultants, etc.
vi. Rural markets are periodic.vi. Urban markets are regular.
vii. Any other relevant point.vii. Any other relevant point.

(Any five points of differences to be explained.) 5×1=5

Q57.2026 Supp. 64/7/1 · Q26 (OR)5 marks

Explain the difference between retail and wholesale trading with examples. 5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/7/1
Retail TradingWholesale Trading
i. This is the business activity concerned with the sale of goods directly to the consumer.i. It is a type of bulk business.
ii. Most of retail trading takes place in fixed establishment or store and some are street peddling, handcarts.ii. It involves numerous intermediary merchants and they do not sell directly to the consumers.
iii. Online market is also a type of retail market.iii. They buy directly from manufacturer.
iv. They provide door to door service.iv. Supply chain is also a type of wholesale marketing system.
v. They often use the wholesaler’s capital.v. They operate on a large capital.
vi. Any other relevant point.vi. Any other relevant point.

(Any five points of differences to be explained.) 5×1=5

Q58.2025 Main 64/2/1 · Q265 marks

(a) Assess the growth and significance of service sector in the development of the world economy. 5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/2/1
  1. Tertiary activities are related to the service sector.
  2. Manpower is an important component of the service sector as most of the tertiary activities are performed by skilled labour, professionally trained experts and consultants.
  3. In a developed economy, the majority of workers get employed in Tertiary activities.
  4. Tertiary activities involve the commercial output of services rather than the production of tangible goods.
  5. Services occur at different levels – some are geared to industry some to people and some to both industry and people. For example transport system.
  6. Some examples – plumbers, doctors, teachers, lawyers etc.
  7. State and union legislation have established corporations to supervise and control the marketing of such services. For example – transport, telecommunication, energy, and water supply.
  8. Personal services are available to the people to facilitate their work.
  9. Dabbawala service in Mumbai is an example.
  10. Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be assessed.) 5×1=5

Q59.2025 Main 64/2/1 · Q26 (OR)5 marks

(b) Assess the growth and significance of transport and communication services in the world economy. 5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/2/1

The significance of transport and communication services :

  1. Transport is a service by which people or materials move from one place to another.
  2. It’s an organized sector created to satisfy man’s basic needs of mobility.
  3. Modern society requires speedy and efficient transport service to assist in the production, distribution and consumption of goods.
  4. The larger the population size, the greater is the demand for transport.
  5. Communication services involve the transmission of words and messages, facts and ideas.
  6. All forms of communication are referred to as services.
  7. Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be assessed.) 5×1=5

Q60.2023 Main 64/2/1 · Q255 marks

“Services occur at different levels throughout the world.” Support the statement with examples.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/2/1

Services at different levels can be explained as:-

  1. Services are geared to industry.
  2. Some to people.
  3. Some to both industry and people. For example the transport system.
  4. Low-order services such as grocery shops and laundries are more common.
  5. High-order services are more specialized like accountants, consultants etc.
  6. Many services have now been regulated.
  7. Services are provided to individual consumers who can afford to pay for them. For example the gardeners, the launderers and the barber.
  8. Any other relevant point.

Any five points to be explained.

5x1=5

Q61.2022 Main 64/5/1 · Q75 marks

Why has the demand for holidays increased rapidly ? Explain the attractions which promote tourism across the globe. 1+4=5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2022 (Main), Set 64/5/1
  1. Improvement in standard of living
  2. Increase in leisure time

(Any one point) 1

Attractions Promote tourism:

  1. Climate
  2. Landscape
  3. History and art
  4. Culture
  5. Economy
  6. Any other relevant point

(Any four points to be explained) 1x4=4

[TB-I, Pg-60] 1+4=5

Part A · Fundamentals of Human Geography

7. Transport and Communication

Q1.2025 Main 64/1/1 · Q41 mark

Arrange the following airports of Asia from west to east as per their locations and choose the correct option :

  1. Beijing
  2. Tokyo
  3. Aden
  4. Mumbai

Options :

  1. iv, iii, ii and i
  2. iv, iii, i and ii
  3. iii, iv, ii and i
  4. iii, iv, i and ii
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/1/1

(D) iii, iv, i and ii

Q2.2025 Main 64/4/1 · Q41 mark

Arrange the following sea ports from Europe to India before the operation of Suez Canal and choose the correct option.

I. Cape Town   II. Mombasa   III. London   IV. Mumbai

Options :

  1. I, II, III, IV
  2. I, III, II, IV
  3. III, II, I, IV
  4. III, I, II, IV
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/4/1

(D) III, I, II, IV

Q3.2025 Main 64/5/1 · Q41 mark

Which one of the following waterways uses the ‘Panama Canal’ ?

  1. Between Yokohama and Vancouver
  2. Between Auckland and Honolulu
  3. Between San Francisco and New York
  4. Between London and Aden
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/5/1

(C) Between San Francisco and New York

Q4.2024 Main 64/2/1 · Q71 mark

Which one of the following is known as ‘Big Inch’ pipeline ?

  1. Iran – India via Pakistan
  2. Iran – China via Afghanistan
  3. Hazira – Vijaypur to Jagdishpur
  4. Gulf of Mexico to northeastern USA
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/2/1

(D) Gulf of Mexico to Northeastern USA

Q5.2024 Main 64/3/1 · Q71 mark

Which of the following sea route connects Vancouver and Yokohama ?

  1. South Atlantic sea route
  2. North Pacific sea route
  3. North Atlantic sea route
  4. Mediterranean – Indian Ocean sea route
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/3/1

(B) North Pacific sea route

Q6.2023 Main 64/1/1 · Q81 mark

Study the following statements and choose the correct option :

Statement I : With the digitisation of information, telecommunication slowly merged with computers.

Statement II : It resulted in integrated networks termed as Internet.

Options :

  1. Only Statement I is correct.
  2. Only Statement II is correct.
  3. Statements I and II both are correct, Statement II is the correct result of Statement I.
  4. Statements I and II both are correct, Statement II is not the correct result of Statement I.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/1/1

(c) Statements I and II both are correct, Statement II is the correct result of Statement I.

Q7.2023 Main 64/2/1 · Q91 mark

Which one of the following railways is the longest in the world ?

  1. Trans-Siberian Railway
  2. Trans-Canadian Railway
  3. The Australian Trans-Continental Railway
  4. The Orient Express Railway
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/2/1

(A) Trans – Siberian Railway

Q8.SQP 2025-26 · Q161 mark

Match the mode of transport with its description:

Column A (Mode of Transport)Column B (Description)
a. Airways1. Suitable for heavy goods over land but limited to connected regions.
b. Roadways2. Capable of carrying large volumes of heavy goods at a lower cost.
c. Railways3. Flexible setup and rapid delivery for high-value, low-volume goods.
d. Waterways4. Widely accessible and easy to use for short-distance trade and delivery.
  1. a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2
  2. a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1
  3. a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4
  4. a-4, b-1, c-2, d-3
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26

(A) a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2

Q9.2022 Main 64/3/1 · Q22 marks

“Transport is an organised industry created to satisfy man’s basic need of mobility.” Support the statement.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2022 (Main), Set 64/3/1

Transport is an organised industry :

  1. Modern society requires speedy and efficient transport systems to assist in the production, distribution and consumption of goods.
  2. At every stage in this complex system, the value of the material is significantly enhanced by transportation.
  3. Transport enables trade between people and goods at different places.
  4. It enhances economic growth and globalisation.
  5. Any other relevant point

Any two points to be explained. (TB I page 58) 1×2=2

Q10.2022 Main 64/5/1 · Q12 marks

Mention the important features of 'the Great Lakes - St. Lawrence Seaway'.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2022 (Main), Set 64/5/1
  1. Great lakes of North America—Superior, Huron, Erie and Ontario lakes.
  2. Estuary way of St. Lawrence river : forms a unique commercial waterway.
  3. Navigation of large ocean—going vessels.
  4. Duluth and Buffalo ports : equipped with facilities
  5. Any other relevant point.

(Any two points to be mentioned) [TB-I, Pg-76] 2x1=2

Q11.2026 Main 64/2/1 · Q193 marks

Study the given map carefully and answer the questions that follow :

Trans-Siberian Railway

Figure

(19.1) Name the easternmost terminal station of the given rail route. 1

(19.2) Name the most important agro centre along the rail route. 1

(19.3) Name the Sea near to the westernmost terminal station. 1

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/2/1

(19.1) Vladivostok 1

(19.2) Chita 1

(19.3) Baltic sea 1

1+1+1=3

Q12.2026 Main 64/2/1 · Q213 marks

Explain the importance of the ‘Northern Atlantic Sea Route’. 3

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/2/1

i. It links north-eastern U.S.A. and North-western Europe, the two industrially developed regions of the world.
ii. The foreign trade over this route is greater than that of the rest of the world combined.
iii. One-fourth of the world’s foreign trade moves on this route.
iv. Both the coasts have highly advanced ports and harbour facilities.
v. It is the busiest in the world and is called the Big Trunk Route.
vi. Any other relevant point

(Any three points to be explained.) 3×1=3

Q13.2026 Main 64/4/1 · Q193 marks

Study the given map carefully and answer the questions that follow :

Figure

(19.1) The shipping canal shown on the map connects which two seas ? ½ + ½ = 1

(19.2) Name the northernmost and southernmost ports of this shipping canal. ½ + ½ = 1

(19.3) Name the bay marked ‘A’ on the map. 1

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/4/1

(19.1) Red Sea/ Gulf of Suez and Mediterranean Sea ½ + ½ = 1

(19.2) Port Said and Port Suez ½ + ½ = 1

(19.3) Tina Bay 1

Q14.2026 Main 64/5/1 · Q213 marks

Study the map carefully and explain the given waterway on the following bases : 3×1=3

(i) Location
(ii) Terminal points
(iii) Significance

Figure
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/5/1

(i) Location : Rhine waterway located in Europe / this waterway passes through Switzerland, France, Germany, Belgium and Netherlands / Rhine flows through Germany and Netherlands. 1

(ii) Terminal points : (i) Rotterdam – Netherlands (ii) Basel – Switzerland ½+½=1

(iii) Significance :

  1. Rhine flows through a rich coalfield area.
  2. The whole basin has become a prosperous manufacturing area.
  3. This waterway is the world’s most heavily used waterway.
  4. It connects the industrial area of Switzerland, Germany etc. with the North Atlantic sea route.
  5. Any other relevant point.

(Any one significance to be explained) 1

3×1=3

Q15.2026 Supp. 64/7/1 · Q193 marks

Study the given map carefully and answer the questions that follow :

Figure

(19.1) Which two oceans does the Trans-Canadian Railway connect ? ½ + ½ = 1

(19.2) Name an industrial region located along this railway. 1

(19.3) Why is this route called the economic artery of Canada ? 1

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/7/1

(19.1) i. Pacific Ocean ii. Atlantic Ocean ½+½=1

(19.2) Qubec-Montreal industrial region. 1

(19.3)

  1. It connects the Qubec-Montreal industrial region with wheat belt of the Prairie region.
  2. Wheat and meat are the important export items of this route.
  3. Any other relevant point.

(Any one point to be explained) 1

3×1=3

Q16.2025 Main 64/1/1 · Q193 marks

Study the map of ‘Australian Trans-Continental Railway’ and answer the questions that follow :

Figure

(19.1) In which part of the continent this railway line is located ? 1

(19.2) Identify the stations of this railway marked as ‘A’ and ‘B’. ½ + ½ = 1

(19.3) Write the names of stations located at the easternmost and westernmost end of this railway. ½ + ½ = 1

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/1/1

(19.1) Southern Part 1

(19.2) A – Forrest
B – Roto ½ + ½ = 1

(19.3) (i) Eastern most – Sydney
(ii) Westernmost – Perth ½ + ½ = 1

3×1=3

Q17.2025 Main 64/2/1 · Q213 marks

Study the map of Rhine waterways and answer the questions that follow :

Figure

(21.1) Name the country in which most of Rhine river lies. 1

(21.2) Name two countries whose industrial areas are connected by river Rhine. ½ + ½ = 1

(21.3) Why is river Rhine world’s most heavily used waterway ? 1

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/2/1

(21.1) Germany 1

(21.2) It connects the industrial areas of Germany, Switzerland, France, Belgium and Netherlands. (Mention any two countries.) ½ + ½ = 1

(21.3) The Rhine River flows through the rich coalfields and is a prosperous industrial region which is why raw materials and finished goods are transported through the river Rhine. It connects the industrial areas of Switzerland, Germany, France, Belgium, and the Netherlands with the North Atlantic Sea route. 1

3×1=3

Q18.2025 Main 64/4/1 · Q193 marks

Study the map of the Rhine waterway and answer the questions that follow :

Figure

(19.1) Identify both the terminal ports of the Rhine waterway. ½ + ½ = 1

(19.2) Identify any two countries through which the Rhine waterway passes. ½ + ½ = 1

(19.3) On the map, which river joins the Rhine waterway from the east ? 1

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/4/1

(19.1) Rotterdam in north and Basel in south ½+½=1

(19.2) Netherlands, Germany, Switzerland, France, Belgium. (Any two) ½+½=1

(19.3) River Main and River Neckor (Any One) 1

3×1=3

Q19.2025 Main 64/5/1 · Q193 marks

Study the given map carefully and answer the questions that follow :

Figure

(19.1) Mention the names of the terminal stations of the given railway line. ½ + ½ = 1

(19.2) Mention the names of the oceans lying in the East and West directions of this railway line. ½ + ½ = 1

(19.3) Explain the economic importance of this railway line. 1

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/5/1

(19.1) (i) Halifax (ii) Vancouver ½+½

(19.2) In the East – Atlantic Ocean
In the West – Pacific Ocean ½+½

(19.3)

  1. It connects the Quebec-Montreal Industrial Region with the wheat belt of the Prairie Region.
  2. It connects the Coniferous Forest region in the north.
  3. A loop line from Winnipeg to Thunder Bay (Lake Superior) connects this rail-line with one of the important waterways of the world.
  4. This line is the economic artery of Canada.
  5. Wheat and meat are the important exports on this route.
  6. Any other relevant point.

(Any one point to be explained) 1

3×1=3

Q20.2025 Main 64/6/1 · Q193 marks

Study the given map carefully and answer the questions that follow :

Figure

(19.1) Name the waterway given in the map. 1

(19.2) Name the ports marked (A) and (B) on the given map. ½ + ½ = 1

(19.3) Explain the economic significance of the river as an inland waterway. 1

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/6/1

(19.1) Rhine Waterway. 1

(19.2) (A) Rotterdam
(B) Basel ½ + ½ = 1

(19.3)

  1. It flows through a rich coal field and whole basin has become a prosperous manufacturing area.
  2. Each year more than 20,000 ocean going ships and 2,00,000 inland vessels exchange their cargoes.
  3. It connects the industrial areas of Switzerland, Germany, France, Belgium and the Netherlands with the North Atlantic Sea route.

(Any one point to be explained) 1

3×1=3

Q21.2025 Supp. 64/S/1 · Q213 marks

Study the following map and answer the questions that follow :

Figure

(21.1) Identify the waterway shown on the map. 1

(21.2) Name the ports on either side of the given waterway. ½ + ½ = 1

(21.3) Name the two water bodies connected by the given waterway. ½ + ½ = 1

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/S/1

(21.1) Suez Canal. 1

(21.2) Port Said and Port Suez. ½ + ½ = 1

(21.3) Red Sea / Gulf of Suez and Mediterranean sea. ½ + ½ = 1

3×1=3

Q22.2024 Main 64/2/1 · Q193 marks

Study the given map and answer the questions that follow : 1+1+1=3

Figure

(19.1) Name the railway line given in the map. 1

(19.2) Name the places marked as ‘(A)’ and ‘(B)’ in the given map. ½ + ½ = 1

(19.3) Explain the importance of the railway line given on the map. 1

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/2/1

(19.1) Trans-Canadian Railway 1

(19.2) A – Vancouver
B – Halifax ½+½=1

(19.3)

  1. It was constructed in 1886 initially as part of an agreement to make British Columbia on the west coast.
  2. It connected the Quebec – Montreal Industrial region with the wheat belt of the Prairie region and the coniferous forest region in the north.
  3. Any other relevant point.

1

Q23.2024 Main 64/3/1 · Q193 marks

Study the given diagram carefully and answer the questions that follow : 3×1=3

Figure

(19.1) With which waterway is the given diagram related ? 1

(19.2) Mention the names of places marked (A) and (B) in the given diagram. ½ + ½ = 1

(19.3) Explain the importance of the waterway given in the diagram. 1

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/3/1

(19.1) Rhine waterway 1

(19.2) A – Rotterdam
B – Basel ½+½=1

(19.3)

  1. It connects the industrial areas of Switzerland, Germany, France, Belgium and the Netherlands with the North Atlantic sea route.
  2. It flows through a rich coal field and the whole basin has become a prosperous manufacturing area.
  3. This waterway is the world’s most heavily used waterway.
  4. It is navigable for 700 km from Rotterdam in Netherlands to Basel in Switzerland.
  5. Any other relevant point

(Any one point to be explained) 1

1+1+1=3

Q24.2024 Main 64/5/1 · Q193 marks

Study the given map carefully and answer the questions that follow :

Inland Waterway

Figure

(19.1) Identify the given inland waterway and write its name. 1

(19.2) Mention its two tributaries joining from East. ½ + ½ = 1

(19.3) Write the names of terminal ports of the given waterways. ½ + ½ = 1

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/5/1

(19.1) Rhine waterways 1

(19.2) (i) River Main (ii) Neckor (iii) Ruhr

(Mention the names of any two rivers) ½+½=1

(19.3) Rotterdam and Bassel ½+½=1

Q25.2024 Supp. 64/S/1 · Q193 marks

Study the given map carefully and answer the questions that follow : 3×1=3

Figure

(19.1) In which country has the Suez Canal has been constructed ? 1

(19.2) Name the ports marked as (A) and (B) on the map. ½ + ½ = 1

(19.3) Describe any two reasons of the importance of Suez Canal for international trade. ½ + ½ = 1

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(19.1) Egypt 1

(19.2) A – Port Said
B – Port Suez. ½ + ½ =1

(19.3)

  1. It gives Europe a new gateway to the Indian Ocean.
  2. It reduces the sea route distance between Europe and South and South East Asia.
  3. It saves fuel and time in transportation
  4. Any other relevant point.

(Any two points to be described) ½ + ½ =1

Q26.2023 Main 64/2/1 · Q193 marks

Study the given picture and answer the questions that follow :

Figure

(19.1) Name the waterway given in the picture. 1

(19.2) Name the two sea connected by this waterway. 1

(19.3) Name the ports marked as ‘A’ & ‘B’ in this picture. ½ + ½ = 1

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/2/1

(19.1) Suez Canal 1

(19.2) Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea ½ + ½ = 1

(19.3) A. Port Said B. Port Suez ½ + ½ = 1

Q27.2023 Main 64/3/1 · Q183 marks

Study the picture given below and answer the questions that follow : 3×1=3

Figure

(18.1) Identify the shipping canal in the given picture and write its name. 1
(18.2) Name the terminal ports of this waterway. 1
(18.3) Explain the main characteristic of this waterway. 1

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(18.1) Suez canal (1)

(18.2) Port Said (North), Port Suez (South) (1)

(18.3)

  1. It gives Europe a new gateway to the Indian Ocean and reduces direct sea route distance between Liverpool and Colombo compared to the Cape of Good Hope Route.
  2. It is a sea level canal without locks.
  3. Any other relevant point

Any one point to be explained (1)

Q28.2023 Main 64/4/1 · Q213 marks

(a) Explain why all forms of transport are also referred to as lines of communication. 3

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  1. Communication is carried on through means of transport also.
  2. Earlier, messages were carried by man, animals, roads, boats, etc.
  3. Transport network makes communication fast and efficient.
  4. Now they are carried by modern and fast means of transport like air transport.
  5. So all forms of transport are considered as lines of communication.
  6. Any other relevant point.

Any three points to be explained. 3×1=3

Q29.2023 Main 64/4/1 · Q21 (OR)3 marks

(b) Explain why modern society requires speedy and efficient system of transport. 3

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  1. Fast and efficient means of transport are required to transport people, materials and manufactured goods from one location to another in a very short time.
  2. They want quick dessemination of messages and quick results.
  3. Speedy and efficient system of transport helps in the production, distribution and consumption of goods.
  4. To save time man is trying to develop speedy system of transport.
  5. At every stage in this complex system, value of the material is significantly enhanced by efficient means of transportation.
  6. Any other relevant point.

Any three points to be explained. 3×1=3

Q30.2023 Main 64/5/1 · Q183 marks

Read the given source and answer the questions that follow : 1 × 3 = 3

We use many items in our daily life. From toothpaste to our bed tea, milk, clothes, soaps, food items, etc., are required everyday. All these can be purchased from the market. Have you ever thought as to how these items are brought from the site of production ? All the production is meant for consumption. From the fields and factory, the produce is brought to the place from where consumers purchase it. It is the transportation of these items from the site of their production to the market which make them available to the consumer.

We not only use material things, like fruits, vegetables, books, clothes, etc., but also use ideas, views and messages in our daily life. Do you know we exchange our views, ideas and messages from one place to another or one individual to another while communicating with the help of various means ?

The use of transport and communication depends upon our need to move things from place of their availability to the place of their use. Human beings use various methods to move goods, commodities, ideas from one place to another.

(18.1) Explain the utility of transportation. 1
(18.2) Define the term ‘Communication’. 1
(18.3) Differentiate between transport and communication. 1

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(18.1) We get our daily items through any transport system. 1

(18.2) We send ideas, views and messages from one place to another. 1

(18.3) Transportation moves goods and people while communication moves ideas and messages. 1

Q31.2023 Supp. 64/C/1 · Q193 marks

Study the given map and answer the following questions. 3×1=3

Figure

(19.1) Name the Railway line given in the map. 1
(19.2) Name the stations marked as A and B. 1
(19.3) Explain any one economic significance of this railway line. 1

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(19.1) Trans-Canadian Railway line (1)

(19.2) Station-A – Regina; Station-B – Cudbury (½+½=1)

(19.3)

  1. It connects Quebec-Montreal Industrial region with the wheat belt of the Prairie region.
  2. This line is the economic artery of Canada.
  3. Any other relevant point

(Any one point to be explained) (1)

3×1=3

Q32.2022 Main 64/5/1 · Q43 marks

Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow : 1×3=3

Roads

Road transport is the most economical for short distances compared to railways. Freight transport by road is gaining importance because it offers door-to-door service. But unmetalled roads, though simple in construction, are not effective and serviceable for all seasons. During the rainy season these become unmotorable and even the metalled ones are seriously handicapped during heavy rains and floods. In such conditions, the high embankment of rail-tracks and the efficient maintenance of railway transport service, is an effective solution. But the rail kilometrage being small cannot serve the needs of vast and developing countries at a low cost. Roads, therefore, play a vital role in a nation's trade and commerce and for promoting tourism.

The quality of the roads varies greatly between developed and developing countries because road construction and maintenance require heavy expenditure. In developed countries good quality roads are universal and provide long-distance links in the form of motorways, autobahns (Germany) and inter-state highways for speedy movement. Lorries, of increasing size and power to carry heavy loads, are common. But unfortunately, the world's road system is not well developed.

The world's total motorable road length is only about 15 million km, of which North America accounts for 33 per cent. The highest road density and the highest number of vehicles are registered in this continent compared to Western Europe.

Attempt all questions :

(a) Why does freight transport by road gaining importance ? 1

(b) When do unmetalled roads become ineffective and unuseful ? 1

(c) Which continent has highest road density ? 1

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[TB-I, Pg-67]

4·1 (a) Door-to-door service/ Economical for short distance. 1

4·2 (b) In rainy season 1

4·3 (c) North America 1

3x1=3

Q33.SQP 2025-26 · Q223 marks

Identify and explain three measures that urban planners can adopt to address urban transportation challenges, including congestion, pollution, and inefficiency.

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  1. Improved Public Bus Service: By providing more efficient and reliable public transportation, cities can encourage people to choose buses over personal vehicles, reducing congestion and pollution.
  2. Expressways: Building expressways with separate traffic lanes, bridges, and flyovers can help ensure smoother traffic flow and reduce congestion in cities.
  3. Mass Rapid Transit (MRT): Implementing MRT systems can provide high-capacity, efficient transportation like electric trains, underground tunnels, metros and elevated railways within cities, reducing dependence on cars or other personal vehicles and reduce congestion and pollution.
  4. Higher Parking Fees: Increasing parking fees can discourage the use of personal vehicles for commuting, encouraging people to utilize public transport or other alternatives.

Any three points or any other relevant point

Q34.SQP 2026-27 · Q183 marks

Study the map given below carefully and answer the following questions.

Figure

18.1 Identify the canal shown in the map. (1)

18.2 Which two water bodies are connected by this Canal? (½+ ½)

18.3 State one major significance of this Canal in international trade. (1)

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18.1 Suez Canal (1)

18.2 This canal connects the Mediterranean Sea and the Red Sea. (½+½=1)

18.3 It gives Europe a new gateway to the Indian Ocean and reduces direct sea-route distance between Liverpool and Colombo compared to the Cape of Good Hope route. About 100 ships travel daily through this canal. (1)

Q35.2026 Main 64/1/1 · Q255 marks

(a) “Railway is the mode of land transport for bulky goods and passengers over long distances.” In the context of this statement, explain the significance of railways in the world. 5

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i) Railways are the significant mode of surface transport on long distances. There are around 13 lakh kms. of railways open for traffic in the world.
ii) Commuter trains are popular in UK, USA, Japan and India.
iii) There are about 4,40,000 km. long railways in Europe which is the densest rail network in the world.
iv) North America has one of the most extensive rail networks.
v) In Russia, Railways account for 90% of the country’s total transport.
vi) There are trans- continental railways in Russia, Canada, USA, Australia, and South America.
vii) In Asia rail network is the most dense in the thickly populated areas of Japan, China and India.
viii) Africa continent has 40,000 km of railways with almost half of it in South Africa.
ix) Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be explained) 5×1=5

Q36.2026 Main 64/1/1 · Q25 (OR)5 marks

(b) “Road transport is the most economical for short distances compared to railway.” In the context of this statement, explain the significance of road transport in the world. 5

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Roads are very economical for short distances.

i) They offer door to door services.
ii) They are feeder to railways, airways and waterways.
iii) The quality of roads varies from developed to developing countries.
iv) In North America, road density is very high with good connectivity.
v) Europe has a well- developed highway network.
vi) In Russia a dense highway network is developed in the industrialised region in west of Urals.
vii) In China all major cities are connected with roads.
viii) In India there are many highways linking major cities.
ix) Roads play a vital role in a nation’s trade, commerce and for promoting tourism.
x) North America accounts for 33 per cent of total motorable road length.
xi) Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be explained) 5×1=5

Q37.2026 Main 64/3/1 · Q255 marks

(a) “Roads play a vital role in trade and commerce of a country across the world.” Support the statement with examples. 5

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i. Road transport is the most economical for short distances compared to railways.
ii. Freight transport by road is gaining importance because it offers door-to-door service.
iii. Roads serve the needs of vast and developing countries at a low cost.
iv. Roads, therefore, play a vital role in a nation’s trade and commerce and for promoting tourism.
v. In developed countries good quality roads are universal and provide long-distance links in the form of motorways, autobahns (Germany), and inter– state highways for speedy movement. Lorries, of increasing size and power to carry heavy loads, are common.
vi. Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be explained.) 5×1=5

Q38.2026 Main 64/3/1 · Q25 (OR)5 marks

(b) “Railways are a mode of land transport for bulky goods and passengers over long distances in the world.” Support the statement with examples. 5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/3/1

i. Europe has one of the most dense rail networks in the world which is double or multiple-tracked. The industrial regions exhibit some of the highest densities in the world. The important rail heads are London, Paris, Brussels, Milan, Berlin and Warsaw.
ii. In Russia, railways account for about 90 per cent of the country’s total transport with a very dense network west of the Urals.
iii. North America has one of the most extensive rail networks accounting for nearly 40 per cent of the world’s total and is used more for long-distance bulky freight like ores, grains, timber and machinery than for passengers.
iv. In Canada, railways are in the public sector and distributed all over the sparsely populated areas. The transcontinental railways carry the bulk of wheat and coal tonnage.
v. Australia has about 40,000 km of railways, of which 25 per cent are found in New South Wales alone.
vi. In South America, the rail network is the most dense in two regions, namely, the Pampas of Argentina and the coffee growing region of Brazil.
vii. In Asia, rail network is the most dense in the thickly populated areas of Japan, China and India.
vii. Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be explained.) 5×1=5

Q39.2025 Main 64/7/1 · Q285 marks

(a) Explain the characteristics of ‘Trans-Canadian Railway’.

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Trans-Canadian railway :

  1. It is a 7050 km long rail line.
  2. It runs between Halifax in the east to Vancouver on the Pacific Coast in the west.
  3. It was constructed in 1886.
  4. It has great economic significance because it connects the Quebec – Montreal Industrial Region with wheat belt of Prairie Region.
  5. A loop line from Winnipeg to Thunder Bay (Lake Superior) connects this rail-line with one of the important waterways of the world.
  6. This line is the economic artery of Canada.
  7. Wheat and meat are the important exports on this route.
  8. Any other relevant points

(Any five points to be explained) 5×1=5

Q40.2025 Main 64/7/1 · Q28 (OR)5 marks

(b) Explain the characteristics of ‘Trans-Siberian Railway’.

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Trans-Siberian railway :

  1. It is a major rail route of Russia.
  2. It runs from St. Petersburg in the west to Vladivostok on the Pacific Coast in the east.
  3. It passes through Moscow, Ufa, Novosibirsk, Irkutsk, Chita and Khabarovsk.
  4. Chita is an important agrocentre and Irkutsk, a fur centre.
  5. It is a 9332 km long, double-tracked electrified rail line.
  6. It helps in opening up its Asian Region to west European markets.
  7. Any other relevant points

(Any five points to be explained) 5×1=5

Q41.2024 Main 64/1/1 · Q255 marks

(a) Name the canal connecting the Atlantic Ocean and the Pacific Ocean. Explain its main features. 1+4=5

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Panama canal connects the Atlantic Ocean and the Pacific Ocean. 1

Features of Panama Canal are:-

  1. It has been constructed across the Panama Isthmus between Panama city and Colon by the US government.
  2. It is about 72 kms long.
  3. It has a six lock system.
  4. It shorten the distance between Newyork and San Francisco.
  5. The distance between western Europe and the West coast of U.S.A; and north -Eastern and Central U.S.A and East and South east Asia is shortened.
  6. It is vital to the economies of Latin America.
  7. Any other relevant point.

(Any four points to be explained.) 4x1=4

1+4=5

Q42.2024 Main 64/1/1 · Q25 (OR)5 marks

(b) Explain the main features of the Rhine Waterways.

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Features of the Rhine Waterways:

  1. It flows through Germany and Netherland.
  2. It is navigable from Rotterdam in the Netherland to Bassel in Switzerland.
  3. The Ruhr river joins the Rhine from the East.
  4. This waterways is the world’s most heavily used.
  5. Each year more than 20,000 ocean going ships and 2,00,000 inland vessels exchange their cargo.
  6. It connects the industrial areas of Switzerland, Germany, France, Belgium and the Netherlands with the North Atlantic sea route.
  7. Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be explained.) 5x1=5

Q43.2024 Main 64/4/1 · Q265 marks

Explain with examples the importance of ‘Satellite Communication’ in the world.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/4/1

(i) Communication through satellites emerged as a new area in communication technology.

(ii) U.S.A and former U.S.S.R. pioneered space research.

(iii) Artificial satellites now are successfully deployed in the earth’s orbit to connect even the remote corners of the globe.

(iv) These have rendered the unit cost and time of communication invariant in terms of distance.

(v) It costs the same to communicate over 500 km as it does over 5000 km via satellite.

(vi) Any other relevant point

(Any five points to be explained)

5x1=5

Q44.2023 Main 64/1/1 · Q255 marks

“Pipelines are used extensively to transport liquids and gases in the world.” Support the statement with appropriate arguments. 5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/1/1
  1. Water, petroleum and natural gas for an uninterrupted flow.
  2. Water supplied through pipelines is familiar to all.
  3. Cooking gas or LPG is supplied through pipelines in many parts of the world.
  4. Pipelines can also be used to transport liquefied coal.
  5. In New Zealand, milk is being supplied through pipelines from farms to factories.
  6. In U.S.A., there is a dense network of oil pipelines from the producing areas to the consuming areas.
  7. Any other relevant point.

Any five points to be explained. 5×1=5

Q45.2023 Main 64/3/1 · Q265 marks

(a) Describe the development of railways in Europe and Russia. 3+2=5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/3/1

Development of Railways :

Europe

  1. Europe has one of the most dense network of railways.
  2. Most of the railways are double or multi-tracked.
  3. Industrial regions of Europe have the highest density.
  4. Underground railways are also important in some countries.
  5. Any other relevant point

Any three points to be described 3×1=3

Russia

  1. In Russia 90% of the transport system consists of railways.
  2. Very dense network of railways are in the west of Urals.
  3. Underground railways in Russia are also important.
  4. Any other relevant point

Any two points to be described 2×1=2

3+2=5

Q46.2023 Main 64/3/1 · Q26 (OR)5 marks

(b) Describe the benefits of water transport over railways. 5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/3/1

Benefits of water transport over railways:

  1. It does not require route construction whereas railways requires.
  2. The ocean waters are inter-connected.
  3. It is cheaper over railways and the friction of water is far less.
  4. The energy cost of water transport is also lower than railways.
  5. Water transport is suitable for heavy tonnage.
  6. Any other relevant point

Any five points to be described 5×1=5

Q47.2023 Main 64/5/1 · Q255 marks

(a) Mention the major problems faced by global road transport in mountainous and hot desert areas.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/5/1
  1. Hilly or mountainous areas have a very difficult terrain.
  2. Cost of road construction is very high.
  3. It is difficult to construct roads on high altitudes.
  4. In desert, the road construction is uneconomical.
  5. Moreover these desert roads are covered with sand when the wind blows.
  6. Maintenance cost of roads on hilly and desert areas are very high.
  7. Unmetalled roads become unmotorable during heavy rains and floods.
  8. Any other relevant point.

(Any 5 points need to be explained.) 1×5=5

Q48.2023 Main 64/5/1 · Q25 (OR)5 marks

(b) Mention the major benefits of rail transport in the world.

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  1. Suitable for carrying bulky goods over long distances.
  2. Suitable for carrying long-distance passengers.
  3. Railways are highly beneficial for the development of industries.
  4. They provide help in the development of agriculture.
  5. They promote tourism.
  6. They promote national and international trade.
  7. Any other relevant point.

(Any 5 points need to be explained.) 1×5=5

Q49.2023 Supp. 64/C/1 · Q245 marks

Define the term ‘Transport’. Describe the importance of transport in the modern times. 1+4=5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/C/1

Transportation is a service or facility for the carriage of persons and goods from one place to another. (1)

Importance of Transport

  1. Modern society requires speedy and efficient transport systems to assist in the production, distribution and consumption of goods and services.
  2. At every stage in the complex system the value of the material is significant /enhanced by the transport system.
  3. In the selecting the modes of transport, distance in terms of time and cost is the determining factor.
  4. Every nation has developed various kinds of transportation for defence purposes.
  5. Assured and speedy transportation, along with efficient communication, promote cooperation and unity among scattered peoples.
  6. Any other relevant point

(Any four points to be described) 4×1=4

1+4=5

Q50.2022 Main 64/1/1 · Q95 marks

(a) What is ‘transport network’ ? Describe the main features of road transport in the World. 1 + 4 = 5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2022 (Main), Set 64/1/1

Transport network : Several places (nodes) joined together by a series of routes (links) to form a pattern are called transport network. It includes all the means of transportation.

Main features of road transport :

  1. Road transport is most economical for short distance.
  2. Freight transport by road is gaining importance because it offers door to door service.
  3. The quality of roads varies greatly between developed and developing countries/ regions.
  4. Road construction and maintenance require heavy expenditure.
  5. They can negotiate different gradients of slopes/ terrain.
  6. Any other relevant point.

Any four points to be described. 1+4=5

Q51.2022 Main 64/1/1 · Q9 (OR)5 marks

(b) Define the term ‘trans-continental railways’. Describe the main characteristics of trans-Siberian railway. 1 + 4 = 5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2022 (Main), Set 64/1/1

Trans continental railways : Trans-continental railways run across the continent and link its two ends. They were constructed for economic and political reasons.

Main characteristics of trans-Siberian railway :

  1. Major rail route of Russia runs from St. Petersburg in the West to Vladivostok on the Pacific coast.
  2. It is the most important route in Asia.
  3. It is the longest rail route (9332 km) in the world.
  4. Double-tracked and electrified trans-continental railway in the world.
  5. Any other relevant point.

Any four points to be described. 1+4=5

Q52.2022 Main 64/2/1 · Q95 marks

(a) Define the term ‘Trans-Continental Railways’. Explain any four characteristics of Trans-Canadian Railway. 1+4=5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2022 (Main), Set 64/2/1

Trans-continental railways run across the continent and link its two ends.

Characteristics of Trans-Canadian railways :

  1. This is 7050 km. long rail line in Canada.
  2. It runs from Halifax in the east to Vancouver on the Pacific Coast in the West.
  3. Passes through Montreal, Ottawa, Winnipeg and Calgary.
  4. It was constructed in 1886 initially as a part of an agreement to make British Columbia on the West Coast join the Federation of States.
  5. It gained economic significance because it connected the Quebec-Montreal Industrial Region with the Wheat belt of the Prairie Region and the Coniferous Forest region in the North.
  6. Any other point.

Any four points to be described. 1+4=5

Q53.2022 Main 64/2/1 · Q9 (OR)5 marks

(b) Define the term ‘Highways’. Explain any four points of importance of highways in North America. 1+4=5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2022 (Main), Set 64/2/1

Highways : Highways are metalled roads connecting distant places. They are constructed in a manner for unobstructed vehicular movement. 1

Importance of highways of America :

  1. In North America, highway density is high about 0·65 per sq.km.
  2. Every place is within 20 km distance from highway.
  3. Cities located on the Pacific Coast (west) are well connected with those of the Atlantic Coast (east).
  4. Likewise the cities of Canada in the North are linked with those of Mexico in the South.
  5. Any other point.

Any four points to be described. 1×4

1+4=5

Q54.2022 Main 64/3/1 · Q95 marks

(a) “Road transport is the most economical for short distances compared to railways in the world.” Support the statement. 5 × 1 = 5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2022 (Main), Set 64/3/1

Importance of road transport in comparison to railway :

  1. Road transport is the most economical for short distances compared to railway.
  2. Freight transport by road is gaining importance because it offers door to door services.
  3. The high embankment of rail-tracks and the efficient maintenance of railway transport service is an effective solution.
  4. Rail kilometrage being small cannot serve the needs of vast and developing countries at a low cost.
  5. Roads, therefore play a vital role in nation’s trade and commerce and for promoting tourism.
  6. Perishable commodities can only be transported by roads.
  7. Any other relevant point

Any five points to be explained. (TB 1 page 67) 1×5=5

Q55.2022 Main 64/3/1 · Q9 (OR)5 marks

(b) Explain the importance of waterways as a mode of transportation. 5 × 1 = 5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2022 (Main), Set 64/3/1

Importance of waterways :

  1. The great advantages of water transportation are that it does not require route construction.
  2. The oceans are linked with each other.
  3. Negotiable with ships of various sizes
  4. All that is needed is to provide port facilities
  5. Cheaper
  6. Energy cost of water transportation is lower.
  7. Any other relevant point

Any five points to be explained. (TB 1 page 71) 1×5=5

Q56.2022 Main 64/4/1 · Q75 marks

“The Rhine Waterway is the world’s most heavily used inland waterway.” Assess the significance of this waterway. 1×5=5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2022 (Main), Set 64/4/1
  1. It is navigable for 700 km from Rotterdam, at its mouth in the Netherlands to Basel in Switzerland.
  2. It flows through a rich coalfield.
  3. The whole basin of the Rhine has become a prosperous manufacturing area.
  4. Huge tonnage moves along the stretch south of the Ruhr.
  5. Each year large number of ocean going ships and inland vessels exchange their cargoes through it.
  6. It connects the industrial areas of Switzerland, Germany, France, Belgium, and the Netherlands with the North-Atlantic Sea Route.
  7. Any other relevant point.

(Any Five points to be explained) 1×5=5

Part A · Fundamentals of Human Geography

8. International Trade

Q1.2026 Main 64/1/1 · Q41 mark

Choose the correct option related to oil tanker ports of the world. 1

  1. Maracaibo, Tripoli, Singapore
  2. Esskhira, Singapore, Manchester
  3. Maracaibo, Esskhira, Tripoli
  4. Manchester, Esskhira, Marmagao
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/1/1

(C) Maracaibo, Esskhira, Tripoli

Q2.2026 Main 64/1/1 · Q51 mark

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option : 1

Assertion (A) : All the developed countries have opened their markets for products from developing countries.

Reason (R) : World Trade Organisation deals with the global rules of trade between nations.

Options :

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  2. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  3. (A) is true but (R) is false.
  4. (A) is false but (R) is true.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/1/1

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true

Q3.2026 Main 64/3/1 · Q31 mark

Which one of the following types of ports is categorised on the basis of function ?

  1. Out port
  2. Oil port
  3. Inland port
  4. Comprehensive port
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/3/1

(B) Oil port

Q4.2026 Main 64/3/1 · Q71 mark

Which one of the following is not the base of ‘international trade’ ?

  1. Differences in national resources
  2. Stage of economic development
  3. Level of transport development
  4. Social diversity in the country
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/3/1

(D) Social diversity in the country

Q5.2026 Main 64/3/1 · Q81 mark

Match Column I with Column II correctly and choose the most appropriate option :

Column I
(Type of Port)
Column II
(Example)
a. Packet stationi. Kochi
b. Naval portii. Copenhagen
c. Port of calliii. Dover
d. Entrepot portiv. Honolulu

Options :

  1. a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
  2. a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
  3. a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
  4. a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/3/1

(A) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii

Q6.2025 Main 64/1/1 · Q51 mark

The exported items by a port is first brought from different countries. This port is known as ________.

  1. Comprehensive Port
  2. Outports
  3. Entrepot Ports
  4. Packet Station
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/1/1

(C) Entrepot Ports

Q7.2025 Main 64/2/1 · Q41 mark

Read the following statements about ports carefully and choose the correct option : 1

  1. The ports provide the facilities of loading, unloading and storage of cargo.
  2. The importance of ports is judged by the size of its hinterland.
  3. The quantity of cargo handled by a port indicates the level of development of its hinterland.
  4. Ports are the chief gateways of the world trade.

Options :

  1. only (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.
  2. only (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
  3. only (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct.
  4. only (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/2/1

(B) Only (i), (iii), and (iv) are correct.

Q8.2025 Main 64/2/1 · Q51 mark

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option : 1

Assertion (A) : ‘World Trade Organisation (WTO) is widening the gulf between rich and poor by making rich countries richer.’

Reason (R) : ‘The influential nations in the WTO focus on their own commercial interests.’

Options :

  1. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  2. Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  3. (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
  4. (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/2/1

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Q9.2025 Main 64/2/1 · Q61 mark

Choose the correct option to fill the blank. 1

The act of opening up economies for trading is known as __________.

  1. Balanced trade
  2. Unilateral trade
  3. Free trade
  4. Bilateral trade
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/2/1

(C) Free Trade

Q10.2025 Main 64/4/1 · Q51 mark

Choose the correctly matched pair of sea ports and their examples.

  1. Out Ports – Duisburg
  2. Ports of Call – Piraeus
  3. Oil Ports – Tripoli
  4. Naval Ports – Kolkata
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/4/1

(C) Oil Ports – Tripoli

Q11.2025 Main 64/5/1 · Q51 mark

The ports specialised in bulk cargo are called :

  1. Inland Ports
  2. Industrial Ports
  3. Out Ports
  4. Comprehensive Ports
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/5/1

(B) Industrial Ports

Q12.2025 Main 64/6/1 · Q51 mark

Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option.

Column-I
(Basis of International Trade)
Column-II
(Feature)
a. Geological structurei. It determines the biotic life.
b. Mineral resourcesii. It determines the mineral resource base.
c. Climateiii. It provides the base for industrial development.
d. Cultural factorsiv. The development of crafts and skills is determined by it.

Options :

  1. a – ii, b – iii, c – i, d – iv
  2. a – ii, b – iii, c – iv, d – i
  3. a – iii, b – ii, c – iv, d – i
  4. a – iii, b – ii, c – i, d – iv
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/6/1

(A) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv.

Q13.2025 Main 64/6/1 · Q71 mark

Which one of the following is the disadvantage of ‘free trade’ for developing countries ?

  1. Goods exchanging
  2. Goods dumping
  3. Goods purchasing
  4. Goods selling
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/6/1

(B) Goods Dumping

Q14.2025 Main 64/6/1 · Q91 mark

Choose the correct option from the following related to World Trade Organisation (WTO).

  1. The General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) was its predecessor
  2. 149 countries were its members as of 2016
  3. India became its member in 1984
  4. Its headquarters is located in New York
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/6/1

(A) The General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) was its predecessor

Q15.2025 Main 64/7/1 · Q151 mark

Read the passage carefully and answer the questions no. 15 to 17.

Case for Free Trade

The act of opening up economies for trading is known as free trade or trade liberalisation. This is done by bringing down trade barriers like tariffs. Trade liberalisation allows goods and services from everywhere to compete with domestic products and services.

Globalisation along with free trade can adversely affect the economies of developing countries by not giving equal playing field by imposing conditions which are unfavourable. With the development of transport and communication systems, goods and services can travel faster and farther than ever before. But free trade should not only let rich countries enter the markets, but allow the developed countries to keep their own markets protected from foreign products.

Countries also need to be cautious about dumped goods; as along with free trade dumped goods of cheaper prices can harm the domestic producers.

Which one of the following is called ‘free trade’ ?

  1. Trade liberalisation
  2. Trade restriction
  3. Trade value
  4. Trade quantity
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/7/1

(A) Trade liberalisation

Q16.2025 Main 64/7/1 · Q161 mark

Read the passage carefully and answer the questions no. 15 to 17.

Case for Free Trade

The act of opening up economies for trading is known as free trade or trade liberalisation. This is done by bringing down trade barriers like tariffs. Trade liberalisation allows goods and services from everywhere to compete with domestic products and services.

Globalisation along with free trade can adversely affect the economies of developing countries by not giving equal playing field by imposing conditions which are unfavourable. With the development of transport and communication systems, goods and services can travel faster and farther than ever before. But free trade should not only let rich countries enter the markets, but allow the developed countries to keep their own markets protected from foreign products.

Countries also need to be cautious about dumped goods; as along with free trade dumped goods of cheaper prices can harm the domestic producers.

The most adverse effect of ‘free trade’ is observed with which one of the following ?

  1. Developed countries
  2. Developing countries
  3. Both under-developed and developed countries
  4. Both developed and developing countries
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/7/1

(B) Developing countries

Q17.2025 Main 64/7/1 · Q171 mark

Read the passage carefully and answer the questions no. 15 to 17.

Case for Free Trade

The act of opening up economies for trading is known as free trade or trade liberalisation. This is done by bringing down trade barriers like tariffs. Trade liberalisation allows goods and services from everywhere to compete with domestic products and services.

Globalisation along with free trade can adversely affect the economies of developing countries by not giving equal playing field by imposing conditions which are unfavourable. With the development of transport and communication systems, goods and services can travel faster and farther than ever before. But free trade should not only let rich countries enter the markets, but allow the developed countries to keep their own markets protected from foreign products.

Countries also need to be cautious about dumped goods; as along with free trade dumped goods of cheaper prices can harm the domestic producers.

Which one of the following is the impact of the development of transport and communication on trade ?

  1. Goods and services travel faster
  2. Goods and services move farther
  3. Goods and services travel faster and move farther
  4. Better connectivity only in a region concerned
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/7/1

(C) Goods and services travel faster and move farther

Q18.2024 Main 64/1/1 · Q141 mark

Which of the following organisations sets the rules for the global trading among its member nations ? Choose the most appropriate option.

  1. United Nations
  2. World Trade Organisation
  3. North American Free Trade Association
  4. South Asian Free Trade Agreement
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/1/1

(B) World Trade Organisation

Q19.2024 Main 64/2/1 · Q81 mark

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option :

Assertion (A) : Countries need to be cautious about dumped goods under free trade.

Reason (R) : Dumping of goods can harm the domestic producers.

Options :

  1. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
  2. (A) is false, but (R) is true.
  3. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  4. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/2/1

(D) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Q20.2024 Main 64/3/1 · Q81 mark

Which of the following is an example of ‘Entrepôt Port’ ?

  1. Abadan
  2. Maracaibo
  3. Singapore
  4. Tripoli
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/3/1

(C) Singapore

Q21.2024 Main 64/4/1 · Q21 mark

Which one of the following is the headquarter of the ‘World Trade Organization’ ?

  1. New York
  2. Delhi
  3. Geneva
  4. London
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/4/1

(C) Geneva

Q22.2024 Main 64/5/1 · Q41 mark

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read them carefully and choose the correct option.

Assertion (A) : “Free international trade can prove to be detrimental to the under-developed countries.”

Reason (R) : Under-developed countries are not at par to compete with developed countries.

Options :

  1. (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
  2. (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
  3. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
  4. Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/5/1

(C) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A)

Q23.2024 Main 64/5/1 · Q121 mark

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read them carefully and choose the correct option.

Assertion (A) : “The gateways of the International trade are the ports and harbours.”

Reason (R) : Only heavy cargos are transported through ports and harbours in the world.

Options :

  1. (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
  2. (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
  3. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
  4. Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/5/1

(A) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.

Q24.2024 Main 64/5/1 · Q131 mark

Which one of the following is an example of oil port ?

  1. Abadan
  2. Manchester
  3. Kochchi
  4. Dover
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/5/1

(A) Abadan.

Q25.2023 Supp. 64/C/1 · Q11 mark

Which port acts as outport of Athens ?

  1. Piraeus
  2. North Cape
  3. London
  4. Hamburg
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/C/1

(a) Piraeus

Q26.2023 Supp. 64/C/1 · Q31 mark

Which one of the following is not a base of international trade ?

  1. Difference in national resources
  2. Population
  3. Stage of economic development
  4. Climate of a country
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/C/1

(d) Climate of a country

Q27.2023 Supp. 64/C/1 · Q121 mark

Consider the following statements and choose the most appropriate option :

Statement I : International Trade is the exchange of goods and services among countries across national boundaries.

Statement II : Countries need to trade to obtain commodities they do not produce themselves.

Options :

  1. Only Statement I is correct.
  2. Only Statement II is correct.
  3. Both the Statement I and II are incorrect.
  4. Both the Statements are correct and Statement II correctly presents the reason for Statement I.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/C/1

(d) Both the Statements are correct and Statement II correctly presents the reason for Statement I.

Q28.SQP 2025-26 · Q71 mark

What is the primary purpose of Regional Trade Blocs?

  1. To reduce global trade by limiting international exchanges between member nations.
  2. To encourage trade between countries with geographical proximity and similar or complementary trading items while reducing trade restrictions in the developing world.
  3. To replace global organizations and regulate all international trade activities globally.
  4. To enforce trade tariffs between member nations and prevent free trade agreements.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26

(B) To encourage trade between countries with geographical proximity and similar or complementary trading items while reducing trade restrictions in the developing world.

Q29.SQP 2026-27 · Q61 mark

How does industrial nations help to step up the volume of trade in developing nations?

  1. By developing industries like mining, oil drilling, heavy engineering etc in developing countries.
  2. By not importing food stuffs and minerals from the developing countries.
  3. By creating markets for their finished products in developing countries
  4. By not opening the market for developing countries and increasing the import tariff by 50%.
  1. I, III
  2. III, IV
  3. II, III
  4. I, IV
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27

(A) I, III

Q30.SQP 2026-27 · Q71 mark

Which of the following is a major concern associated with rapid growth of international trade in recent times?

  1. It reduces dependence on natural resources and promotes sustainable development.
  2. It can lead to exploitation of natural resources, causing environmental degradation.
  3. It decreases commercial rivalry and prevents conflicts between nations.
  4. It ensures equal development among all participating countries.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27

(B) It can lead to exploitation of natural resources, causing environmental degradation.

Q31.2026 Main 64/2/1 · Q203 marks

(a) “International trade is mutually beneficial to nations.” Support the statement with suitable arguments. 3

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/2/1

i. It leads to regional specialisation.
ii. It also leads to higher level of production.
iii. Better standard of living.
iv. Worldwide availability of goods and services.
v. Equalisation of prices and wages and diffusion of knowledge and culture
vi. Any other relevant point.

(Any three points to be explained) 3×1=3

Q32.2026 Main 64/2/1 · Q20 (OR)3 marks

(b) “Global sea ports are the gateways of international trade.” Support the statement with suitable arguments. 3

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/2/1

i. The ports provide facilities of docking, loading, unloading.
ii. They also provide storage facilities for cargo.
iii. The port authorities make arrangements for maintaining navigable channels arranging tugs and barges.
iv. Ports provide services to its hinterland.
v. The importance of a port is judged by size of cargo and number of ships handled.
vi. Any other relevant point.

(Any three points to be explained.) 3×1=3

Q33.2026 Main 64/4/1 · Q183 marks

Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow :

Case for Free Trade

The act of opening up economies for trading is known as free trade or trade liberalisation. This is done by bringing down trade barriers like tariffs. Trade liberalisation allows goods and services from everywhere to compete with domestic products and services.

Globalisation along with free trade can adversely affect the economies of developing countries by not giving equal playing field by imposing conditions which are unfavourable. With the development of transport and communication systems, goods and services can travel faster and farther than ever before. But free trade should not only let rich countries enter the markets, but allow the developed countries to keep their own markets protected from foreign products.

Countries also need to be cautious about dumped goods; as along with free trade, dumped goods of cheaper prices can harm the domestic producers.

(18.1) Define the term ‘globalisation’. 1

(18.2) Explain the importance of transport system in ‘world trade’. 1

(18.3) Why can ‘free trade’ adversely affect domestic producers ? 1

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/4/1

(18.1) Globalisation is the process by which the world becomes increasingly interconnected through the exchange of goods, services, technology, information and culture. 1

(18.2) With the development of transport, goods and services can travel faster and farther. 1

(18.3) Free trade can hurt domestic producers because it forces them to compete with cheaper foreign goods. 1

3×1=3

Q34.2026 Supp. 64/7/1 · Q183 marks

Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

Balance of Trade

Balance of trade records the volume of goods and services imported as well as exported by a country to other countries. If the value of imports is more than the value of a country’s exports, the country has negative or unfavourable balance of trade. If the value of exports is more than the value of imports, then the country has a positive or favourable balance of trade.

Balance of trade and balance of payments have serious implications for a country’s economy. A negative balance would mean that the country spends more on buying goods than it can earn by selling its goods. This would ultimately lead to exhaustion of its financial reserves.

(18.1) Explain the concept of a positive balance of trade. 1

(18.2) Explain the impacts of a positive trade balance on the economies of developed countries. 1

(18.3) Explain the impacts of a negative trade balance on developing countries. 1

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/7/1

(18.1) If the value of export is more than the value of import, then the country has positive or favourable balance of trade. 1

(18.2)

  1. High Gross Domestic Production.
  2. High Per Capital Income.
  3. Better standard of living.
  4. Any other relevant point.

(Any one point to be explained) 1

(18.3)

  1. Exhaustion of its financial reserves.
  2. Problem of unemployment in these countries.
  3. Any other relevant point.

(Any one point to be explained) 1

3×1=3

Q35.2025 Main 64/1/1 · Q183 marks

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow :

Case for Free Trade

The act of opening up economies for trading is known as free trade or trade liberalization. This is done by bringing down trade barriers like tariffs. Trade liberalization allows goods and services from everywhere to compete with domestic products and services.

Globalisation along with free trade can adversely affect the economies of developing countries by not giving equal playing field by imposing conditions which are unfavourable. With the development of transport and communication systems goods and services can travel faster and farther than ever before. But free trade should not only let rich countries enter the markets, but allow the developed countries to keep their own markets protected from foreign products.

Countries also need to be cautious about dumped goods; as along with free trade dumped goods of cheaper prices can harm the domestic producers.

(18.1) Explain the meaning of ‘trade liberalisation’. 1

(18.2) How have ‘globalisation’ and ‘free trade’ affected the economies of developing countries ? 1

(18.3) What should be done by the developing countries to protect from negative impact of ‘free trade’ ? Mention any two steps. ½ + ½ = 1

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/1/1

(18.1) Bringing down trade barriers like tariffs and opening up economies for trading is known as trade liberalization. 1

(18.2) The economies of developing countries are adversely affected as the developed countries are not giving equal playing field by imposing conditions which are unfavorable for the developing countries. 1

(18.3)

  1. They should keep their own markets protected from foreign products.
  2. They need to be cautious about dumped goods of cheaper prices as they can harm the domestic producers.
  3. Any other relevant point

(Any two points to be explained) ½ + ½ = 1

3×1=3

Q36.2025 Main 64/4/1 · Q183 marks

Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow :

In agriculturally important countries, agro products are exchanged for manufactured goods, whereas industrialised nations export machinery and finished products and import food grains and other raw materials. Foreign investment can boost trade in developing countries which lack in capital required for the development of mining, oil drilling, heavy engineering, lumbering and plantation agriculture. By developing such capital intensive industries in developing countries, the industrial nations ensure import of food stuffs, minerals and create markets for their finished products. This entire cycle steps up the volume of trade between nations.

(18.1) What types of items are exported by the industrialised nations ? 1

(18.2) Mention the way by which trade could be boosted in developing countries. 1

(18.3) Finished products of industrialised nations find the market in which types of countries ? 1

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/4/1

(18.1) Industrialised nations export machinery and finished products. 1

(18.2) Foreign investment can boost trade in developing countries. 1

(18.3) Finished products of industrialised nations find the market in developing countries. 1

3×1=3

Q37.2025 Main 64/5/1 · Q213 marks

Explain the importance of international trade in modern times. 3

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/5/1
  1. International trade is mutually beneficial to nations.
  2. No country can fulfill the needs of its citizens at its level.
  3. A country can obtain commodities that it can not produce itself or purchase at lower prices from elsewhere.
  4. International trade is the basis of the world’s economic organisation and is related to the foreign policy of nations.
  5. Specialisation of production give rise to international trade.
  6. International trade is based on the principle of comparative advantage, complementarity and transferability of goods and services.
  7. No country is willing to forego the benefits derived from participation in international trade.
  8. Any other relevant point.

(Any three points to be explained.) 3×1=3

Q38.2024 Main 64/1/1 · Q203 marks

(a) Explain the criticisms faced by the World Trade Organization.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/1/1

Criticisms faced by the World Trade Organization are:-

  1. It has been opposed by those who are worried about the effects of free trade and economic globalisation.
  2. Free trade does not make ordinary people’s lives more prosperous.
  3. It widens the gulf between rich and poor by making rich countries more rich.
  4. The influential nations in the WTO focus on their own commercial interests.
  5. Many developed countries have not fully opened their markets to the products from developing countries.
  6. Issues of health, worker’s rights, child labour and environment are ignored.
  7. Any other relevant point.

(Any Three Points to be explained.) 3×1=3

Q39.2024 Main 64/1/1 · Q20 (OR)3 marks

(b) What is ‘Balance of Trade’ ? Explain the characteristics of ‘Balance of Trade’. 1+2=3

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/1/1

Meaning of Balance of Trade:- The volume of goods and services imported as well as exported by a country to other countries. 1

Characteristics of Balance of Trade :-

  1. If the value of imports is more than the value of a country’s exports, the country has negative or unfavourable balance of trade.
  2. If the value of exports is more than the value of imports, then the country has a positive or favourable balance of trade.
  3. Any other relevant point

(Any Two Points to be explained.) 2x1=1

1+2=3

Q40.2024 Main 64/4/1 · Q203 marks

(a) How do differences in national resources become the basis of international trade ? Explain with examples.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/4/1

Difference in national resources: The World’s national resources are unevenly distributed because of differences in their physical make up i.e. geology, relief soil and climate.

(i) Geological structure: It determines the mineral resource base and topographical differences ensure diversity of crops and animals raised. Lowlands have greater agricultural potential. Mountains attract tourists and promote tourism.

(ii) Mineral resources: They are unevenly distributed the world over. The availability of mineral resources provides the basis for industrial development.

(iii) Climate: It influences the type of flora and fauna that can survive in a given region. It also ensures diversity in the range of various products, e.g. wool production can take place in cold regions, bananas, rubber and cocoa can grow in tropical regions.

3x1=3

Q41.2024 Main 64/4/1 · Q20 (OR)3 marks

(b) Explain the differences between the inland and out-ports with examples.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/4/1

(i) Inland Ports:

  1. These ports are located away from the sea coast.
  2. They are linked to the sea through a river or a canal.
  3. Ports are accessible to flat bottom ships or barges.
  4. For example, Manchester is linked with a canal; Memphis is located on the river Mississippi; Rhine has several ports like Mannheim and Duisburg; and Kolkata is located on the river Hoogli, a branch of the river Ganga.
  5. Any other relevant point

(Any three points to be explained)

(ii) Out Ports:

  1. These are deep water ports built away from the actual ports.
  2. These serve the parent ports by receiving those ships which are unable to approach them due to their large size.
  3. Classic combination, for example, is Athens and its out port Piraeus in Greece.
  4. Any other relevant point

(Any three points to be explained)

1½+1½=3

Q42.2023 Main 64/5/1 · Q223 marks

Explain how geological structures, mineral resources and climate are the bases of international trade.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/5/1
  1. Availability of mineral resources provides the basis for international trade because minerals are unevenly distributed all over the world.
  2. Lack of adequate transport restricts the trade, and efficient means of transport promotes the trade by helping in carrying goods from one place to another.
  3. Climate influences flora and fauna. It also ensures diversity in the range of various products.
  4. Any other relevant point.

(Any three points to be explained) 1×3=3

Q43.2025 Supp. 64/S/1 · Q265 marks

(a) “International trade may prove detrimental to some nations, yet it continues to exist.” Justify the statement with examples.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/S/1
  1. It leads to dependence on other countries.
  2. It leads to uneven level of development.
  3. Developed countries often exploit the underdeveloped countries.
  4. Such practices lead to commercial rivalries leading to wars in the world.
  5. Global trade impacts every thing from the environment to health and well being of people around the world.
  6. As countries compete to trade more, the use of natural resources spiral up.
  7. Resources get used up faster than they can be replenished.
  8. Marine life is depleting fast, forests are being cut down.
  9. River basins sold off to private drinking water companies.
  10. Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be explained.) 5×1=5

Q44.2025 Supp. 64/S/1 · Q26 (OR)5 marks

(b) “International trade is mutually beneficial to the trading partners.” Justify the statement with examples.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/S/1
  1. Regional specialisation and division of labour in the production of commodities.
  2. Higher level of production.
  3. Better standard of living.
  4. Worldwide availability of goods and services.
  5. Equalisation of prices and wages.
  6. Diffusion of knowledge and culture.
  7. Trade is based on complementarities and transferability of goods and services.
  8. Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be explained.) 5×1=5

Q45.2024 Main 64/3/1 · Q245 marks

(a) Describe any five types of ports in the world, on the basis of specialized functions.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/3/1
  1. Oil Ports
  2. Ports of call
  3. Packet station
  4. Entrepot ports
  5. Naval ports

(All five points to be described) 5x1=5

Q46.2024 Main 64/3/1 · Q24 (OR)5 marks

(b) Describe any five basis of international trade in the world.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/3/1
  1. Difference in national resources: differences in geological structure, mineral resources and climate.
  2. Population factors: Variations in cultural factors, size of population.
  3. Stage of economic development: differences in various stages of economic development of countries.
  4. Extent of foreign investment: Foreign investment can boost developing countries which lack in resources.
  5. Transport – with expansions of rail, ocean and air transport, trade has experienced spatial expansion.
  6. Any other relevant point

(Any five points to be described) 5x1=5

Q47.2024 Supp. 64/S/1 · Q265 marks

“International trade can prove to be detrimental to nations if it leads to dependence on the other countries.” Justify the statement.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/S/1
  1. It leads to dependence on other countries.
  2. It leads to uneven level of development.
  3. Developed countries often exploit the underdeveloped countries.
  4. Such practices lead to commercial rivalries leading to wars in the world.
  5. Global trade impacts every thing from the environment to health and well being of people around the world.
  6. As countries compete to trade more, the use of natural resources spiral up.
  7. Resources get used up faster than they can be replenished.
  8. Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be explained.) 5x1=5

Q48.2023 Main 64/1/1 · Q265 marks

Define the term ‘international trade’. Describe two types of ‘international trade’ in the world. 1+2+2=5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/1/1

Exchange of goods and services among countries across national boundaries is called International trade. (1)

Types of international trade in the world-

a. Bilateral trade : Bilateral trade is done by two countries with each other. They enter into agreement to trade specified commodities amongst them. For example country A may agree to trade some raw material with agreement to purchase some specified item to country or via versa. (2)

b. Multi-lateral trade : As the term suggests multi-lateral trade is conducted with many trading countries. The same country can trade with a number of other countries. The country may also grant the status of the Most Favoured Nation (MFN) on some of the trading partners. (2)

1+2+2=5

Q49.2023 Main 64/2/1 · Q265 marks

Analyse the five basis of international trade in the world.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/2/1

Basis of International trade in the world-

  1. Difference in national resources: (a) Geological structure, (b) mineral resources, (c) climate.
  2. Population factors. (a) Cultural, (b) Size of Population
  3. Stage of economic development.
  4. Extent of foreign investment.
  5. Transport.
  6. Any other relevant point.

Any five points to be analyzed.

5x1=5

Q50.2023 Main 64/4/1 · Q265 marks

(a) Explain balance of trade with examples and examine the role of World Trade Organisation (WTO) in international trade. 2+3=5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/4/1

Balance of Trade:

  1. Balance of trade records the volume of goods and services imported as well as exported by a country to other countries.
  2. If the value of imports is more than the value of a country’s exports, the country has a negative or unfavourable balance of trade.
  3. If the value of export is more than the value of imports then the country has a positive or favourable balance of trade.

(In case the candidate mentions the example of any country in the above-mentioned context, should also be considered.)
To be examined as a whole. 2

Role of World Trade Organisation (WTO) in international trade.

  1. It ensures free and fair trade amongst the member nations.
  2. It sets the rules for global trading system.
  3. It resolves the disputes between the member nations.
  4. It also covers trade in services like telecommunication and banking etc.
  5. It also deals with the issues like intellectual rights.
  6. Any other relevant point.

To be examined by giving any three points. 3×1=3

2+3=5

Q51.2023 Main 64/4/1 · Q26 (OR)5 marks

(b) Examine any five bases of international trade. 5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/4/1
  1. Difference in natural resources; Like, difference in Geology, relief, soil and climate.
  2. Population factor; Like cultural factors and size of population.
  3. Stage of economic development.
  4. Extent/level of foreign investment.
  5. Means of transport.
  6. Any other relevant point.

To be examined by giving any five points. 5×1=5

Part B · India: People and Economy

1. Population: Distribution, Density, Growth and Composition

Q1.2026 Main 64/1/1 · Q91 mark

Choose the right group of states where Dravadian language is spoken majorly. 1

  1. Tamil Nadu, Kerala and Maharashtra
  2. Karnataka, Maharashtra and Andhra Pradesh
  3. Tamil Nadu, Kerala and Karnataka
  4. Andhra Pradesh, Telangana and Madhya Pradesh
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/1/1

(C) Tamil Nadu, Kerala and Karnataka

Q2.2026 Main 64/1/1 · Q101 mark

During which one of the following phase of population growth in India, negative growth was recorded in a decade ? 1

  1. Phase I
  2. Phase II
  3. Phase III
  4. Phase IV
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/1/1

(A) Phase I

Q3.2026 Main 64/3/1 · Q91 mark

During which one of the following decades, the population growth in India was negative ?

  1. 1911 to 1921
  2. 1931 to 1941
  3. 1951 to 1961
  4. 1971 to 1981
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/3/1

(A) 1911 to 1921

Q4.2026 Main 64/3/1 · Q101 mark

Which of the following set of states have the lowest percentage of urban population ?

  1. Madhya Pradesh and Kerala
  2. Punjab and Gujarat
  3. Goa and Maharashtra
  4. Bihar and Himachal Pradesh
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/3/1

(D) Bihar and Himachal Pradesh

Q5.2026 Main 64/4/1 · Q81 mark

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option.

Assertion (A) : In recent decades, the urban population of India has grown rapidly.

Reason (R) : In India, the workforce is shifting from farm-based to non-farm-based occupations.

Options :

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  3. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
  4. (A) is false, but (R) is true.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/4/1

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Q6.2026 Main 64/4/1 · Q91 mark

Choose the most appropriate option related to the major speech areas of the ‘Indo-European’ language family.

  1. Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Karnataka
  2. West Bengal, Odisha, Andhra Pradesh
  3. Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra
  4. Gujarat, Maharashtra, Karnataka
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/4/1

(C) Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra

Q7.2026 Main 64/4/1 · Q151 mark

Study the table given below carefully and answer question nos. 15 to 17.

India : Decadal Birth Rate, Death Rate and Rate of Natural Increase, 1901 – 2011

DecadesCrude Birth Rate (per 1000)Crude Death Rate (per 1000)Rate of Natural Increases (per 1000)
1901 – 191149·242·66·6
1911 – 192148·147·20·9
1921 – 193146·436·210·2
1931 – 194145·937·28·7
1941 – 195139·927·412·5
1951 – 196141·722·818·9
1961 – 197141·119·022·1
1971 – 198137·215·022·2
1981 – 199129·59·819·7
1991 – 200125·48·417·0
2001 – 201121·87·114·7

Choose the duration of ‘Phase-III’ of population growth from the following.

  1. 1921 – 1951
  2. 1931 – 1961
  3. 1941 – 1971
  4. 1951 – 1981
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/4/1

(D) 1951 - 1981

Q8.2026 Main 64/4/1 · Q161 mark

Study the table given below carefully and answer question nos. 15 to 17.

India : Decadal Birth Rate, Death Rate and Rate of Natural Increase, 1901 – 2011

DecadesCrude Birth Rate (per 1000)Crude Death Rate (per 1000)Rate of Natural Increases (per 1000)
1901 – 191149·242·66·6
1911 – 192148·147·20·9
1921 – 193146·436·210·2
1931 – 194145·937·28·7
1941 – 195139·927·412·5
1951 – 196141·722·818·9
1961 – 197141·119·022·1
1971 – 198137·215·022·2
1981 – 199129·59·819·7
1991 – 200125·48·417·0
2001 – 201121·87·114·7

The lowest crude birth rate was recorded in which of the following decades ?

  1. 1971 – 1981
  2. 1981 – 1991
  3. 1991 – 2001
  4. 2001 – 2011
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/4/1

(D) 2001 - 2011

Q9.2026 Main 64/4/1 · Q171 mark

Study the table given below carefully and answer question nos. 15 to 17.

India : Decadal Birth Rate, Death Rate and Rate of Natural Increase, 1901 – 2011

DecadesCrude Birth Rate (per 1000)Crude Death Rate (per 1000)Rate of Natural Increases (per 1000)
1901 – 191149·242·66·6
1911 – 192148·147·20·9
1921 – 193146·436·210·2
1931 – 194145·937·28·7
1941 – 195139·927·412·5
1951 – 196141·722·818·9
1961 – 197141·119·022·1
1971 – 198137·215·022·2
1981 – 199129·59·819·7
1991 – 200125·48·417·0
2001 – 201121·87·114·7

The natural rate of increase is continuously in an increasing order in which of the following phase of population growth ?

  1. Phase-I
  2. Phase-II
  3. Phase-III
  4. Phase-IV
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/4/1

(C) Phase-III

Q10.2026 Supp. 64/7/1 · Q81 mark

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option.

Assertion (A) : There is an uneven distribution of rural-urban population in India.

Reason (R) : More than half of India’s total workforce is engaged in the primary sector.

Options :

  1. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
  2. (A) is false, but (R) is true.
  3. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  4. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/7/1

(D) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Q11.2026 Supp. 64/7/1 · Q91 mark

The Sino-Tibetan language is spoken in which one of the following sets of states prominently ?

  1. Himachal Pradesh, Sikkim, Meghalaya
  2. Meghalaya, West Bengal, Bihar
  3. Sikkim, Himachal Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh
  4. Bihar, Punjab, Madhya Pradesh
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/7/1

(A) Himachal Pradesh, Sikkim, Meghalaya

Q12.2026 Supp. 64/7/1 · Q151 mark

Study the given table carefully and answer the questions no. 15 to 17.

India : Decadal Birth Rate, Death Rate and Rate of Natural Increase, 1901 − 2011

DecadesCrude Birth Rate Per 1000Crude Death Rate Per 1000Rate of Natural Increase (Per 1000)
1901 − 191149·242·66·6
1911 − 192148·147·20·9
1921 − 193146·436·210·2
1931 − 194145·937·28·7
1941 − 195139·927·412·5
1951 − 196141·722·818·9
1961 − 197141·119·022·1
1971 − 198137·215·022·2
1981 − 199129·59·819·7
1991 − 200125·48·417·0
2001 − 201121·87·114·7

Choose the correct option related to the time interval of Phase I of population growth in India.

  1. 1901 to 1911
  2. 1901 to 1921
  3. 1901 to 1931
  4. 1901 to 1941
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/7/1

(B) 1901 to 1921

Q13.2026 Supp. 64/7/1 · Q161 mark

Study the given table carefully and answer the questions no. 15 to 17.

India : Decadal Birth Rate, Death Rate and Rate of Natural Increase, 1901 − 2011

DecadesCrude Birth Rate Per 1000Crude Death Rate Per 1000Rate of Natural Increase (Per 1000)
1901 − 191149·242·66·6
1911 − 192148·147·20·9
1921 − 193146·436·210·2
1931 − 194145·937·28·7
1941 − 195139·927·412·5
1951 − 196141·722·818·9
1961 − 197141·119·022·1
1971 − 198137·215·022·2
1981 − 199129·59·819·7
1991 − 200125·48·417·0
2001 − 201121·87·114·7

Choose the correct option related to the natural growth of population.

  1. Births − Deaths
  2. Births + Deaths
  3. Births − Deaths + In-migration − Out-migration
  4. Births + Deaths − In-migration + Out-migration
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/7/1

(A) Births − Deaths

Q14.2026 Supp. 64/7/1 · Q171 mark

Study the given table carefully and answer the questions no. 15 to 17.

India : Decadal Birth Rate, Death Rate and Rate of Natural Increase, 1901 − 2011

DecadesCrude Birth Rate Per 1000Crude Death Rate Per 1000Rate of Natural Increase (Per 1000)
1901 − 191149·242·66·6
1911 − 192148·147·20·9
1921 − 193146·436·210·2
1931 − 194145·937·28·7
1941 − 195139·927·412·5
1951 − 196141·722·818·9
1961 − 197141·119·022·1
1971 − 198137·215·022·2
1981 − 199129·59·819·7
1991 − 200125·48·417·0
2001 − 201121·87·114·7

Which one of the following phases of population growth in India is known as the population explosion ?

  1. Phase I
  2. Phase II
  3. Phase III
  4. Phase IV
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/7/1

(C) Phase III

Q15.2025 Main 64/4/1 · Q101 mark

Which one of the following is not a challenge of adolescent population faced by the society ?

  1. High marriage age
  2. Drug abuse and alcoholism
  3. Low female literacy
  4. Dropouts from school
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/4/1

(A) High marriage age

Q16.2025 Main 64/4/1 · Q111 mark

Identify the characteristics of ‘Phase-I’ of population growth in India and choose the correct option.

  1. Stagnant phase of population growth
  2. Low or negative net growth of population
  3. Rapid fall in the mortality rate
  4. Poor health and medical services

Options :

  1. Only I, II and III are correct.
  2. Only II, III and IV are correct.
  3. Only I, II and IV are correct.
  4. Only I, III and IV are correct.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/4/1

(C) Only I, II and IV are correct

Q17.2025 Main 64/4/1 · Q121 mark

Which one of the following is incorrectly matched ?

List-I
(Term)
List-II
(Meaning)
(A)Physiological densityTotal population/Net cultivated area
(B)Agricultural densityTotal agricultural population/Net cultivable area
(C)Population densityTotal population/Total area
(D)Marginal workerTotal population/Total working population
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/4/1

(D) Marginal worker – Total population/ Total working population

Q18.2025 Main 64/4/1 · Q131 mark

“A very large proportion of workers are engaged in other services in highly urbanized areas.” With reference to the given statement choose the correct option.

  1. Large scale urbanisation and industrialisation require more workers.
  2. Historically, it is a sectoral shift in the economy of the country.
  3. Percentage of female workers is relatively high in secondary sector.
  4. It is a shift of workers from farm-based to non-farm-based occupations.

Options :

  1. Only I, II and III are correct.
  2. Only II, III and IV are correct.
  3. Only I, III and IV are correct.
  4. Only I, II and IV are correct.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/4/1

(D) Only I, II and IV are correct

Q19.2025 Main 64/4/1 · Q141 mark

Which one of the following is the characteristic of ‘Phase-III’ of population growth in India ?

  1. High female literacy and declining population
  2. Improvisation in medical facilities and living conditions
  3. Great Economic Depression and effects of World War II
  4. Low population growth and low net increase
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/4/1

(B) Improvisation in medical facilities and living conditions.

Q20.2025 Main 64/7/1 · Q11 mark

Which of the following are branches of Dravidian language in India ? Choose the correct option.

  1. Central Dravidian
  2. East Dravidian
  3. South Dravidian
  4. North Dravidian

Options :

  1. Only I, II and III
  2. Only II, III and IV
  3. Only I, III and IV
  4. Only I, II and IV
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/7/1

(C) Only I, III and IV are correct.

Q21.2025 Main 64/7/1 · Q51 mark

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option.

Assertion (A) : India has highly uneven pattern of population distribution.

Reason (R) : Population distribution is highly associated with physical, socio-economic and historical factors.

Options :

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  2. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  3. (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
  4. (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/7/1

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Q22.2025 Supp. 64/S/1 · Q71 mark

The first complete census in India was conducted in which of the following years ?

  1. 1871
  2. 1872
  3. 1881
  4. 1891
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/S/1

(C) 1881

Q23.2025 Supp. 64/S/1 · Q81 mark

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option.

Assertion (A) : The decades of 1951 – 1981 are referred to as the period of population explosion in India.

Reason (R) : This period was witnessed by rapid fall in mortality rate and high fertility rate of the population.

Options :

  1. Assertion (A) is correct, but Reason (R) is incorrect.
  2. Assertion (A) is incorrect, but Reason (R) is correct.
  3. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  4. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/S/1

(C) Both (A) and (R) are correct and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).

Q24.2024 Main 64/1/1 · Q11 mark

Which one of the following language groups is the smallest in India ?

  1. Sanskrit, Bodo and Manipuri
  2. Kannada, Tamil and Telugu
  3. Dogri, Punjabi and Konkani
  4. Maithili, Gujarati and Bangla
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/1/1

(A) Sanskrit, Bodo and Manipuri

Q25.2024 Main 64/1/1 · Q51 mark

Read the following objectives regarding National Policy for Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (2015) carefully and choose the most appropriate option :

  1. To improve the literacy rate of different age groups in India.
  2. To provide umbrella framework to all skilling activities.
  3. To align all skilling activities to common standards.
  4. To link skilling activities with demand centres.

Options :

  1. Only I, II and III are correct.
  2. Only II, III and IV are correct.
  3. Only I, III and IV are correct.
  4. Only I, II and IV are correct.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/1/1

(B) Only II, III and IV are Correct

Q26.2024 Main 64/4/1 · Q41 mark

Which one of the followings is the false reason of high growth rate of urban population in India ?

  1. Higher economic development in cities
  2. Improvement in health condition in cities
  3. Rapid expansion of urban areas
  4. Availability of employment opportunities in cities
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/4/1

(C) Rapid expansion of urban areas

Q27.2024 Main 64/4/1 · Q51 mark

Which one of the following states has the highest percentage of urban population ?

  1. Maharashtra
  2. Goa
  3. Kerala
  4. Gujarat
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/4/1

(B) Goa

Q28.2023 Main 64/1/1 · Q101 mark

Which one of the following states has the highest population growth rate during 2001 to 2011 decade ?

  1. Manipur
  2. Nagaland
  3. Mizoram
  4. Sikkim
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/1/1

(c) Mizoram

Q29.2023 Main 64/1/1 · Q111 mark

Choose the correct option in order of number of people speaking modern Indian languages from maximum to minimum :

  1. Indo-European, Dravidian, Austric and Sino-Tibetan
  2. Indo-European, Austric, Dravidian and Sino-Tibetan
  3. Dravidian, Indo-European, Sino-Tibetan and Austric
  4. Dravidian, Austric, Indo-European and Sino-Tibetan
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/1/1

(a) Indo-European, Dravidian, Austric and Sino-Tibetan

Q30.2023 Main 64/2/1 · Q101 mark

Study the given statement I and II and choose the correct option.

Statement-I : A society which fails to acknowledge and take effective measures to remove such discriminations cannot be treated as a civilised one.

Statement-II : Duly acknowledging the adverse impacts of these discriminations, launched a campaign called ‘Beti Bachao – Beti Padhao’ in India.

Options :

  1. Statement I & II are correct.
  2. Statement I & II are incorrect.
  3. Statement I and II are correct, but Statement I is not the correct explanation of II.
  4. Statement I and II are correct, and Statement I is correct explanation of II.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/2/1

(D) Statements I and II are correct and Statement I is the correct explanation of Statement II.

Q31.2023 Main 64/4/1 · Q111 mark

Which one of the following states has the highest population ?

  1. Bihar
  2. Uttar Pradesh
  3. Maharashtra
  4. West Bengal
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/4/1

(b) Uttar Pradesh

Q32.2023 Main 64/4/1 · Q121 mark

Which of the following is the smallest linguistic group in India ?

  1. Austric
  2. Dravidian
  3. Indo-European
  4. Sino-Tibetan
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/4/1

(d) Sino-Tibetan

Q33.SQP 2025-26 · Q91 mark

The percentage decadal growth rate of India's population declined significantly between 1991-2001 and 2001-2011. If a policymaker wants to maintain a steady growth rate, which of the following strategies would be most effective?

  1. Encourage higher birth rates to boost population growth.
  2. Focus on reducing investment in healthcare.
  3. Implement policies to encourage rural-to-urban migration.
  4. Promote balanced population growth through family planning and education initiatives.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26

(D) Promote balanced population growth through family planning and education initiatives.

Q34.SQP 2026-27 · Q21 mark

The Government of India has introduced the Beti Bachao Beti Padhao programme to address the issue of decline in child sex ratio. Which one of the following options will lead to a more meaningful life for girls?

  1. Providing financial incentives only at the time of marriage.
  2. Encouraging families to support girls’ education.
  3. Restricting girls from pursuing higher studies.
  4. Making girls responsible for household work.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27

(B) Encouraging families to support girls’ education.

Q35.SQP 2026-27 · Q91 mark

The table given below shows the crude birth rate and the crude death rate in India. Identify the year that registered the highest natural growth rate?

DecadesCrude Birth rate per 1000Crude Death rate per 1000
2001-201121.87.1
1991-200125.48.4
1981-199129.59.8
1971-198137.215
  1. 1991-2001
  2. 2001-2011
  3. 1971-1981
  4. 1981-1991
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27

(C) 1971-1981

Q36.2026 Main 64/1/1 · Q233 marks

Study the following table carefully and answer the questions that follow :

Sectoral composition of workforce in India, 2011

CategoriesPopulation
Persons% to total workersMaleFemale
Primary26,30,22,47354.616,54,47,0759,75,75,398
Secondary1,83,36,3073.897,75,63585,60,672
Tertiary20,03,84,53141.615,66,43,2204,37,41,311

(23.1) Why is the large difference between primary and tertiary categories of female workers ? 1

(23.2) Explain the reason of low variation between male workers of ‘primary’ and ‘tertiary’ sectors. 1

(23.3) Why ‘secondary sector’ has low contribution in India’s workforce ? 1

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/1/1

(23.1)

i) From rural areas most of the male population migrated to the urban areas. Therefore, a large number of female work force is engaged in primary sectors.
ii) Participation of female workers in tertiary activities is low and it is a recent phenomenon.
iii) Any other relevant point.

(Any one point to be explained) 1

(23.2)

(i) It is due to change in the workforce pattern in India.
(ii) Male workers are still engaged in the primary sector and many of them are also shifting to the tertiary sector with increasing job opportunities. Therefore, both the sectors have large number of male workers.
(iii) Any other relevant point.

(Any one point to be explained) 1

(23.3)

i) India’s secondary sector has low workforce contribution due to low industrial growth.
ii) There are skill gaps and a shift towards services.
iii) Any other relevant point.

(Any one point to be explained) 1

Q37.2026 Main 64/3/1 · Q223 marks

(a) “The adolescent people of India have high potential but they are quite vulnerable.” Explain the statement. 3

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/3/1

The adolescent population in India is regarded as the youthful population having high potentials, but at the same time, they are quite vulnerable if not guided and channelized properly.

Some of the challenges are

i. Lower age at marriage,
ii. Illiteracy – particularly female illiteracy,
iii. School dropouts,
iv. Low intake of nutrients,
v. High rate of maternal mortality of adolescent mothers,
vi. High rate of HIV and AIDS infections,
vii. Physical and mental disability or retardedness,
viii. Drug abuse and alcoholism,
ix. Juvenile delinquency and commitence of crimes, etc.
x. Any other relevant point.

(Any three points to be explained.) 3×1=3

Q38.2026 Main 64/3/1 · Q22 (OR)3 marks

(b) “The Indian government formulated the National Policy for Skill Development.” Explain the need for the policy. 3

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/3/1

i. The Government of India formulated the National Policy for Skill Development and Entrepreneurship in 2015.
ii. It aimed to provide an umbrella framework to all skilling activities being carried out within the country.
iii. This is to align, to common standards and link skilling with demand centers.
iv. It has been designed to look into the overall development of our large youth and adolescent population.
v. Any other relevant point.

(Any three points to be explained.) 3×1=3

Q39.2025 Main 64/7/1 · Q183 marks

Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow :

Promoting Gender Sensitivity through
‘Beti Bachao – Beti Padhao’ Social Campaign

The division of the society into male, female and transgender is believed to be natural and biological. But, in reality, there are social constructs and roles assigned to individuals which are reinforced by social institutions. Consequently, these biological differences become the basis of social differentiations, discriminations and exclusions. The exclusion of over half of the population becomes a serious handicap to any developing and civilised society. It is a global challenge, which has been acknowledged by the UNDP when it mentioned that, “If development is not engendered it is endangered” (HDR UNDP 1995). Discrimination, in general, and gender discrimination, in particular, is a crime against humanity.

All efforts need to be made to address the denial of opportunities of education, employment, political representation, low wages for similar types of work, disregard to their entitlement to live a dignified life, etc. A society, which fails to acknowledge and take effective measures to remove such discriminations, cannot be treated as a civilised one. The Government of India has duly acknowleged the adverse impacts of these discriminations and launched a nationwide campaign called ‘Beti Bachao – Beti Padhao’.

(18.1) Describe any one ill-effect of gender discrimination on a society. 1

(18.2) “If development is not engendered it is endangered.” Explain the statement. 1

(18.3) Explain the main objective of ‘Beti Bachao – Beti Padhao’ campaign. 1

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/7/1

(18.1)

  1. Over half of the population becomes a serious handicap to any developing and civilised society.
  2. Job insecurity, wage gaps and financial dependence, pushing many women and marginalized genders into poverty.
  3. Girls are denied education due to gender biases, leading to higher illiteracy rates.
  4. Any other relevant point.

(Any one point to be considered) 1

(18.2)

  1. Discrimination, in general, and gender discrimination, in particular, is a crime against humanity.
  2. This emphasizes on the crucial role of gender equality in sustainable development.
  3. Any other relevant point.

(Any one point to be explained) 1

(18.3) To promote gender equality and empowering women for a progressive and inclusive society. 1

3×1=3

Q40.2025 Supp. 64/S/1 · Q223 marks

“Physical characteristics of India and the distribution of population of India go hand-in-hand.” Analyse the statement.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/S/1
  1. Areas with comfortable climate attract more people, whereas an extreme climate is uncomfortable for human.
  2. Availability of water largely determines the pattern of the population distribution.
  3. People prefer living on flat plains and gentle slopes as they are favourable for production of crops. North Indian plains, deltas and coastal plains have higher proportion of population.
  4. The interior districts of southern and central Indian states, Himalayas and some of north eastern state have low proportion of population.
  5. Any other relevant point.

(Any three points to be analysed.) 3×1=3

Q41.2024 Main 64/1/1 · Q213 marks

Explain any three characteristics of ‘Phase II’ of growth of population in India.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/1/1

Characteristics of ‘Phase II’ of growth of population in India are:-

  1. The decades 1921-1951 are referred to as the period of steady population growth.
  2. An overall improvement in health and sanitation throughout the country brought down the mortality rate.
  3. Better transport and communication system improved distribution system.
  4. The crude birth rate remained high in this period leading to higher growth rate.
  5. Any other relevant point.

(Any three points to be explained.) 3×1=3

Q42.2024 Main 64/4/1 · Q193 marks

Study the given diagram carefully and answer the questions that follow :

Figure

(19.1) Write the names of two states with highest percentage of cultivators. ½ + ½ = 1

(19.2) Write the names of two Union Territories having the highest percentage of other workers. ½ + ½ = 1

(19.3) What is the approximate percentage of cultivators in Tripura ? 1

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/4/1

(19.1) Himachal Pradesh, Nagaland ½ + ½ = 1

NOTE- If a student writes Chhattisgarh and Bihar then full marks should be given

(19.2) Chandigarh, Lakshadweep ½ + ½ = 1

(19.3) About 20% 1

NOTE- If a student writes 40-45% then full marks should be given

1+1+1=3

Q43.2023 Main 64/1/1 · Q213 marks

Why is Phase III (1951 – 1981) of growth of population referred to as the period of population explosion in India ? Explain by giving any three arguments. 3

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/1/1

Growth of population in Phase III (1951-1981) is referred to as a period of population explosion in India because of-

  1. Rapid fall in mortality rate but a high fertility rate of population in the country.
  2. The average annual growth rate was as high as 2·2%.
  3. It is in this period after the independence that developmental activities were introduced through a centralized planning process and economy started showing up ensuring the improvement of living conditions of people at large.
  4. Any other relevant point.

Any three points of argument. 3×1=3

Q44.2023 Main 64/2/1 · Q213 marks

Analyse any three causes for uneven spatial distribution of population in India.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/2/1

Causes of uneven spatial distribution of population in India are-

  1. Physical /Geographical factors:- Climate, Relief, Availability of water
  2. Socio-economic factors: Development of irrigation and agriculture, availability of minerals and energy resources, development of transport, industrialization and urbanization.
  3. Historical factors: Evolution of settled agriculture, pattern of human settlement.
  4. Religious and cultural factors.
  5. Any other relevant point.

Any three points to be analyzed.

3x1=3

Q45.2023 Main 64/4/1 · Q233 marks

(a) Explain the causes of negative growth of population in India between 1911 and 1921. 3

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/4/1
  1. High birth and high death rate lead to low or at times negative growth rate.
  2. Poor health and medical services.
  3. Spread of epidemics.
  4. Illiteracy of people and inefficient distribution system of food and other basic necessities
  5. Impact of First World War.
  6. Any other relevant point.

Any three points to be explained. 3×1=3

Q46.2023 Main 64/4/1 · Q23 (OR)3 marks

(b) Explain the causes of rapid positive growth of population in India from 1951 to 1981. 3

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/4/1
  1. Rapid fall in mortality rate.
  2. Birth rate remained high.
  3. Improvement in health and living conditions of the people.
  4. Increased international migration from Tibet, Bangladesh, Nepal and Pakistan.
  5. Any other relevant point.

Any three points to be explained. 3×1=3

Q47.2023 Supp. 64/C/1 · Q203 marks

(a) “The period from 1901–1921 is referred to as a period of stagnant phase of growth of India’s population.” Support the statement with examples. 3

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/C/1
  1. In this period growth rate was very low, recording a negative growth rate during 1911-1921.
  2. Both the birth rate and death rate were high keeping the Growth rate low.
  3. Poor health and medical services, illiteracy of people at large and inefficient distribution system of food were responsible.
  4. Lack of basic necessities were largely responsible for a high birth and death rates in this period.
  5. Any other relevant point

(Any three points to be explained) 3×1=3

Q48.2023 Supp. 64/C/1 · Q20 (OR)3 marks

(b) “The decades 1921–1951 are referred to as the period of steady population growth of India.” Support the statement with examples. 3

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/C/1
  1. An overall improvement in health and sanitation throughout the country brought down the mortality rate.
  2. Better transport and communication system improved distribution system.
  3. The crude birth rate remained high in this period leading to higher growth rate than the previous phase.
  4. This is impressive at the backdrop of Great Economic Depression of 1920s and World War II.
  5. Any other relevant point

(Any three points to be explained) 3×1=3

Q49.SQP 2025-26 · Q233 marks

Discuss the key features of population growth in India during the period 1951–1981 including the main reasons for the rapid population increase during this phase?

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26

The decades 1951-1981 are referred to as the period of “population explosion” in India, which was caused by-

  • A rapid fall in the mortality rate but a high fertility rate of population in the country. The average annual growth rate was as high as 2.2 per cent.
  • It is in this period, after the Independence, that developmental activities were introduced through a centralised planning process and economy started showing up ensuring the improvement of living condition of people at large. Thus, there was a high natural increase and higher growth rate.
  • Besides, increased international migration bringing in Tibetans, Bangladeshis, Nepalies and even people from Pakistan contributed to the high growth rate.
Q50.SQP 2025-26 · Q23 (OR)3 marks

Who are adolescents? Why are they considered important in the population? What are the challenges faced by society in dealing with adolescents? 1+1+1=3

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26

Adolescents i.e., up to the age group of 10-19 years consists of about 20.9 per cent (2011). Adolescents form a significant portion of the population, contributing to the workforce and economy in the future.

The adolescent population, though, regarded as the youthful population having high potentials, but at the same time they are quite vulnerable if not guided and channelised properly. There are many challenges for the society as far as these adolescents are concerned, some of which are lower age at marriage, illiteracy – particularly female illiteracy, school dropouts, low intake of nutrients, high rate of maternal mortality of adolescent mothers, high rate of HIV and AIDS infections, physical and mental disability or retardedness, drug abuse and alcoholism, juvenile delinquency and commitence of crimes, etc.

Q51.SQP 2026-27 · Q193 marks

Read the passage given below carefully and answer the following questions.

The uneven spatial distribution of population in India suggests a close relationship between population and physical, socioeconomic and historical factors. As far as the physical factors are concerned, it is clear that climate along with terrain and availability of water largely determines the pattern of the population distribution. Consequently, we observe that the North Indian Plains, deltas and Coastal Plains have higher proportion of population than the interior districts of southern and central Indian States, Himalayas, some of the north eastern and the western states. However, development of irrigation (Rajasthan), availability of mineral and energy resources (Jharkhand) and development of transport network (Peninsular States) have resulted in moderate to high concentration of population in areas which were previously very thinly populated.

  1. Define the term population distribution. (1)
  2. Name one physical factor and one economic factor that influence population distribution. (½+ ½)
  3. Name one densely populated and one sparsely populated area of India. (½+ ½)
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27

I. The term population distribution refers to the way people are spaced over the earth’s surface. (1)

II. (½+½)
Physical Factor: Climate/ Terrain/ Availability of water (Any one)
Economic factor: Development of irrigation/Availability of mineral and energy resources/ Development of transport network (Any one)

III. (½+½=1)
Densely populated: North Indian Plains/deltas / Coastal Plains (Any one)
Sparsely Populated: Southern and central Indian States/Himalayas/some of the north eastern states. (Any one)

Q52.2026 Main 64/2/1 · Q275 marks

“The government of India’s campaign ‘Beti Bachao – Beti Padhao’ is an effective step to empower women.” Justify the statement. 5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/2/1

i. There are social constructs and roles assigned to individuals which are reinforced by social institutions.
ii. The biological differences become the basis of social differentiations, discriminations and exclusions.
iii. The exclusions of over half of the population becomes a serious handicap to any developing and civilised society.
iv. It is a global challenge, which has been acknowledged by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).
v. Gender discrimination in particular is a crime against humanity.
vi. All efforts need to be made to address the denial of opportunities of education, employment, political representation, low wages for similar type of work, disregard to their entitlement to live a dignified life.
vii. The Government of India has duly acknowledged the adverse impact of these discriminations and launched a nation wide campaign, called Beti-Bachao-Beti Padhao.
viii. Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be explained.) 5×1=5

Q53.2026 Main 64/5/1 · Q265 marks

“India has a highly uneven pattern of population distribution.” Support the statement with examples. 5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/5/1

India has highly uneven pattern of population distribution due to various factors :

  1. In percentage share Uttar Pradesh has the highest population followed by Maharashtra, Bihar and West Bengal.
  2. UP, Maharashtra, Bihar, West Bengal and Andhra Pradesh along with Tamil Nadu, MP, Rajasthan, Karnataka and Gujarat together account for 76% of the total population of the country.
  3. On the other hand, share of population is very small in Jammu and Kashmir, Arunachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand.
  4. The North Indian plains, deltas and coastal plains have higher proportion of population than the interior parts due to physical factors.
  5. Urban regions of Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata, Chennai etc. have higher concentration of population due to industrial development and urbanization.
  6. Interior districts of southern states and central India have low concentration of population due to less favourable conditions for living.
  7. Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be explained) 5×1=5

Q54.2026 Main 64/5/1 · Q26 (OR)5 marks

“The population of India grew rapidly during phase III of population growth.” Support the statement with examples. 5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/5/1

The third phase of population growth in India :

  1. This phase is referred as period of ‘population explosion’ in India.
  2. Rapid fall in mortality rate but a high fertility rate contributed to the population explosion.
  3. The average annual growth rate was as high as 2.2%.
  4. In this period, developmental activities were introduced through a centralised planning processes.
  5. Growth in economy ensured the improvement of living conditions of the people.
  6. Increased international migration bringing in Tibetan, Bangladeshis, and Nepalese etc. contributed to the high growth rate.
  7. Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be explained) 5×1=5

Q55.2025 Main 64/1/1 · Q285 marks

(a) Evaluate the ‘National Youth Policy of India’ for overall development of youths and adolescents.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/1/1
  1. The National Youth Policy launched in February 2014.
  2. The government of India has undertaken certain policies to impart proper education to the adolescent groups so that their talents could be channelized and properly utilized.
  3. It proposes a holistic ‘vision’ for the youth of India.
  4. To empower the youth of the country to achieve their full potential and through them, enable India to find its rightful place in the community of nations.
  5. The National Policy for Skill Development and Entrepreneurship, also formulated in 2015, to provide an umbrella framework to all skilling activities.
  6. Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be evaluated.) 5×1=5

Q56.2025 Main 64/1/1 · Q28 (OR)5 marks

(b) Suggest the measure for overall development of youths and adolescents in India.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/1/1
  1. Proper education to the adolescent groups
  2. Talents should be better channelised
  3. Skill development programmes should be effectively implemented
  4. Encourage entrepreneurship among the youths
  5. Eradicate social evils like drug abuse, alcoholism, juvenile delinquency and committence of crime.
  6. Overcome physical and mental disability.
  7. To overcome the challenges of lower age at marriage, illiteracy- particularly female illiteracy, school, dropouts, low intake of nutrients, high rate of maternal mortality of adolescent mothers, high rate of HIV and AIDS infection.
  8. Any other relevant point

(Any five points to be explained.) 5×1=5

Q57.2025 Main 64/2/1 · Q275 marks

(a) Analyse the rural-urban characteristics of Indian population. 5

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  1. The composition of population by their respective places of residence is an important indicator of social and economic characteristics.
  2. This becomes even more significant as about 70 % of India’s total population lives in villages.
  3. India has a large number of villages and most of them are inhabited villages.
  4. The rural population distribution is highly uneven.
  5. The states like Himachal Pradesh and Bihar have a very high percentage of rural population. The states of Goa and Mizoram have only a little over half of their total population residing in villages.
  6. Most of the UTs have a smaller proportion of the rural population, except Dadra and Nagar Haveli (54%).
  7. The proportion of the urban population (31.16 %) in India is low but it is growing at a much faster rate over the decades.
  8. The growth rate of the urban population has accelerated due to enhanced economic development and improvement in health and hygienic conditions.
  9. The distribution of urban population has a wide variation throughout India.
  10. Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be analysed.) 5×1=5

Q58.2025 Main 64/2/1 · Q27 (OR)5 marks

(b) Analyse the main features of the composition of working population in India. 5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/2/1

The main features of the composition of the working population in India are :

  1. According to the economic status, the population of India is divided into three groups – main workers, marginal workers, and non-workers.
  2. In India, the proportion of workers (both main and marginal) is only 40 %.
  3. A vast majority of about 60% as non-workers.
  4. This indicates an economic status in which there is a larger proportion of the dependent population, further indicating the possible existence of a large number of unemployed or under-employed people.
  5. The occupational composition shows a large proportion of primary sector workers as compared to secondary and tertiary sectors.
  6. The proportion of the working population ranges from 29.1% in Lakshadweep (UT) to about 51.9% in Himachal Pradesh (state).
  7. The states and UTs with larger percentages of workers are Himachal Pradesh, Sikkim, Chhattisgarh, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Manipur and Meghalaya and UTs like Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu.
  8. The number of female workers is relatively high in the primary sector.
  9. The male workers outnumber female workers in all the sectors.
  10. Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be analysed.) 5×1=5

Q59.2025 Main 64/5/1 · Q285 marks

“Spatial variation in population density is found in India.” Explain the statement with examples. 5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/5/1
  1. Density of population, is expressed as number of persons per unit area.
  2. There is a wide range of spatial variation of population densities in the country which ranges from as low as 17 persons per square kilometer in Arunachal Pradesh to 11,297 persons in the National Capital Territory of Delhi.
  3. Among the northern Indian states, Bihar, West Bengal and Uttar Pradesh have higher densities.
  4. Among the peninsular Indian states, Kerala and Tamil Nadu have higher densities.
  5. States having moderate densities are Assam, Gujarat, Andhra Pradesh, Haryana, Jharkhand and Odisha.
  6. The hill states of the Himalayan region and North-eastern states (excluding Assam) have relatively low densities. While the Union Territories (excluding Andaman and Nicobar Islands) have very high densities of population.
  7. Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be explained.) 5×1=5

Q60.2025 Main 64/5/1 · Q28 (OR)5 marks

“Population distribution pattern in India is highly uneven.” Explain the statement with examples. 5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/5/1
  1. Uttar Pradesh has the highest percentage shares of population among the states and UTs in the country.
  2. Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Bihar, West Bengal, Tamil Nadu, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Karnataka, and Gujarat together account for about 76% of the total population of the country.
  3. Share of population is very small in the states like Jammu Kashmir, Arunachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand in spite of the states having fairly large geographical areas.
  4. There is a close relationship between population and physical, socio-economic and historical factors.
  5. Northern Indian plains, deltas and coastal plains have a higher proportion of population.
  6. Interior districts of southern and central states, Himalayas, some of the northeastern and western states have lower densities.
  7. Any other relevant point.

(Any five Points to be explained.) 5×1=5

Q61.2025 Main 64/6/1 · Q285 marks

(a) Analyse the regional variation in population growth in India.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/6/1

The Regional variation in population growth :-

  1. The states like Kerala, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Odisha and Goa show a low rate of growth.
  2. Kerala registered the lowest growth rate in the country.
  3. A continuous belt of states from west to east in the north west, north and north central parts of the country has relatively high growth rate than the southern states.
  4. During 2001 to 2011, the growth rates of almost all states and Union Territories was low as compared to 1991-2001.
  5. The percentage decadal growth rates of the six most populous states namely U.P, Maharashtra, Bihar, West Bengal, Andhra Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh have all fallen during 2001 to 2011 compared to 1991-2001.
  6. The population fall being the lowest for Andhra Pradesh and highest for Maharashtra.
  7. Tamil Nadu and Puducherry have registered increase during 2001-2011 over the previous decade.
  8. Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be analysed.) 5×1=5

Q62.2025 Main 64/6/1 · Q28 (OR)5 marks

(b) Analyse any five factors responsible for uneven population distribution in India. 5×1=5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/6/1

Factors responsible for uneven population distribution in India are :-

  1. Climate
  2. Terrain
  3. Availability of water
  4. Fertile soil
  5. Availability of mineral and energy resources.
  6. Development of transport network.
  7. Development of industries.
  8. Urbanisation.
  9. Pattern of human settlement.
  10. Cultural and Religious significance.
  11. Evolution of settled agriculture and agricultural development.
  12. Early history of human settlement.
  13. Any other relevant point

(Any five points to be analysed.) 5×1=5

Q63.2024 Main 64/2/1 · Q265 marks

(a) Analyse the major problems of youth population in India. Suggest two measures to overcome the problems. 3+2=5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/2/1

The major problems of youth population in India are-

  1. Illiteracy particularly female illiteracy.
  2. School dropouts.
  3. Low intake of nutrients.
  4. High rate of maternal mortality of adolescent mothers.
  5. High rate of HIV/Aids infections.
  6. Lower age at marriage.
  7. Drug abuse and alcoholism.
  8. Juvenile delinquency.
  9. Any other relevant point.

Any three points to be explained. 3×1=3

Suggestions to overcome the problems are:

(i) Proper education to the adolescent groups.
(ii) Their talents are better channelized and properly utilized.
(iii) Skill-development programs.
(v) Empowering women and girl child.
(vi) Any other relevant point.

(Any two points to be explained). 2×1=2

3+2=5

Q64.2024 Main 64/2/1 · Q26 (OR)5 marks

(b) How is discrimination on the basis of gender a crime against humanity ? Suggest two measures to overcome the problem. 3+2=5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/2/1

Discrimination on the basis of gender is a crime against humanity in the following way-

  1. The division of the society into male, female and transgender is believed to be natural and biological. But, in reality, there are social constructs and roles assigned to individuals which are reinforced by social institutions.
  2. Consequently, these biological differences become the basis of social differentiations, discriminations and exclusions.
  3. The exclusion of over half of the population becomes a serious handicap to any developing and civilized society. Any other relevant point.
  4. It is a global challenge acknowledged by the UNDP and they mentioned, “If development is not engendered it is endangered”. Discrimination, in general, and gender discrimination, in particular, is a crime against humanity.
  5. Any other relevant point.

(Any three points to be explained) 3×1=3

Suggestions to overcome the problem of discrimination are-

  1. Provide opportunities of education, employment, political representation.
  2. Equal wages for equal work.
  3. Right to live a dignified life.
  4. Any other relevant point.

(Any two points to be explained). 2×1=2

3+2=5

Q65.2024 Main 64/3/1 · Q265 marks

(a) Explain any five factors affecting the uneven distribution of population in India.

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  1. Physical factors- climate, altitude, terrain, availability of water etc.
  2. Socio -cultural factors- Tradition, language, customs
  3. Economic factors- Evolution of settled agriculture, development of transport network, Industrialisation, urbanisation.
  4. Religious factors- places of religious importance like Varansasi, Amritsar, Haridwar etc.
  5. Historical factors
  6. Any other relevant point

(Any five factors to be explained.) 5x1=5

Q66.2024 Main 64/3/1 · Q26 (OR)5 marks

(b) Explain the main characteristics of the ‘Phase III’ (1951 – 81) of population growth in India.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/3/1
  1. The period of population explosion in India.
  2. Rapid fall in the mortality rate.
  3. High fertility rate
  4. Average annual growth rate was high (2.2%)
  5. In this period, after independence, the developmental activities were introduced through a centralised planning process and the economy started growing up.
  6. Increased international migration bringing in Tibetans, Bangladeshis, Nepalies and even people from Pakistan.

(Any five points to be explained) 5x1=5

Q67.2024 Main 64/5/1 · Q275 marks

(a) “The distribution of urban population over India has wide variations.” Examine the statement.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/5/1

(i) It is noticed that in almost all the states and union territories, there has been an increase of urban population.

(ii) Almost 31.2 percent of total population lives in urban areas.

(iii) States of Bihar and Sikkim have very high percentage of rural population whereas Delhi, Dadra and Nagar Haveli have highest percentage age of urban population.

(iv) The states of Goa and Maharashtra have high percentage of their population residing in urban areas.

(v) The growth rate of urban population has accelerated due to enhanced economic development and improvement in health and hygienic conditions.

(vi) Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be examined)

5x1=5

Q68.2024 Main 64/5/1 · Q27 (OR)5 marks

(b) “If development is not engendered, it is endangered.” Examine the statement in the context of inclusive development.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/5/1

(i) Discrimination, in general, and gender discrimination, in particular, is a crime against humanity.

(ii) All efforts need to be made to address the denial of opportunities of education, employment, political representation, low wages for similar work, disregard to their entitlement to live a dignified life.

(iii) A society, which fails to acknowledge and take effective measures to remove such discrimination, cannot be treated as a civilized society.

(iv) The Govt. of India has duly acknowledged the adverse impacts of the discrimination and launched a nationwide campaign called ‘Beti Bachao – Beti Padhao’.

(v) The number of females workers is relatively high in primary sector, though in recent years there has been some improvement in work participation of women in secondary and tertiary sector.

(vi) Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be examined)

5x1=5

Q69.2024 Supp. 64/S/1 · Q275 marks

How does the highly uneven spatial distribution of the population in India suggest its close relationship with physical, social, economic and historical factors ? Analyse with examples.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/S/1
  1. Climate, terrain and availability of water largely determine the pattern of distribution of population.
  2. Consequently the north India Plains, deltas and coastal plains have higher proportion of population than interior parts of southern and central Indian states etc.
  3. Among the social economic and historical factors of distribution of population, important ones are evolution of settled agriculture and agricultural development, patterns of human settlement, development of transport network, industrialization and urbanization.
  4. Regions falling in the river plains and the coastal regions of India have remained the regions of large population concentration because of an early history of human settlement and development of transport network.
  5. Urban regions of Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata, Bengaluru, Pune, Ahmedabad, Chennai and Jaipur have high concentration of population due to industrial development and urbanization drawing large numbers of rural-urban migrants.
  6. Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be analysed.) 5x1=5

Q70.2023 Main 64/3/1 · Q275 marks

Explain the various factors affecting density of population in India. 5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/3/1

Factors affecting density of population of India

  1. Availability of water.
  2. Suitable/moderate climate.
  3. Level terrain.
  4. Fertile soils.
  5. Mining development.
  6. Development of transport system.
  7. Industrialisation and urbanisation.
  8. Any other relevant point

Any five points to be explained 5×1=5

Q71.2023 Main 64/5/1 · Q265 marks

Examine the different aspects of the growth of population in India during 1951-1981 and 1981-2021.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/5/1
  1. (1951 – 81) : Population explosion, population increased at a rapid rate, low mortality rate, high fertility rate, average growth rate was 2·2%. High natural increase and higher growth rate. (To be assessed as a whole) 2½
  2. (1981 – 2021) : Growth rate of population remained high, started showing gradual downward trend, quality of life improved, Increase in marriage age, female education also improved. (To be assessed as a whole) 2½

2.5+2.5=5

Part B · India: People and Economy

2. Human Settlements

Q1.2025 Main 64/2/1 · Q71 mark

Arrange the following towns of India from the oldest to the newest order based on their historical evolution and choose the correct option : 1

  1. Jaipur
  2. Chandigarh
  3. Madurai
  4. Jamshedpur

Options :

  1. (iii), (i), (ii), (iv)
  2. (iii), (i), (iv), (ii)
  3. (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)
  4. (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/2/1

(B) (iii), (i), (iv), (ii)

Q2.2025 Main 64/2/1 · Q81 mark

Read the following statements related to the objectives of smart city mission carefully and choose the correct option : 1

  1. To promote the city with clean and sustainable environment.
  2. To provide decent quality of life to its citizens.
  3. To provide employment to the job seekers.
  4. To make the city less vulnerable to disasters.

Options :

  1. Only (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
  2. Only (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
  3. Only (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.
  4. Only (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/2/1

(D) Only (i), (ii), and (iv) are correct.

Q3.2025 Main 64/2/1 · Q91 mark

Local names like Panna, Para, Palli, Nagla, Dhani etc. are examples of which of the following types of rural settlements in India ? 1

  1. Clustered settlement
  2. Semi-clustered settlement
  3. Hamleted settlement
  4. Dispersed settlement
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/2/1

(C) Hamleted Settlement

Q4.2025 Main 64/6/1 · Q121 mark

Arrange the following towns of India from the oldest to the newest on the basis of their evolution and choose the correct option.

  1. Lucknow
  2. Varanasi
  3. Bhilai
  4. Jamshedpur

Options :

  1. I, IV, III, II
  2. I, IV, II, III
  3. II, I, IV, III
  4. II, I, III, IV
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/6/1

(C) II, I, IV, III

Q5.2025 Main 64/6/1 · Q131 mark

Which one of the following is an industrial town in India ?

  1. Salem
  2. Chandigarh
  3. Nainital
  4. Shillong
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/6/1

(A) Salem

Q6.2025 Main 64/6/1 · Q141 mark

Choose the correctly matched pair.

(Town)(Example)
(A)MiningSingrauli
(B)GarrisonKandla
(C)TransportModinagar
(D)AdministrativePilani
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/6/1

(A) Mining - Singrauli

Q7.2025 Supp. 64/S/1 · Q91 mark

Arrange the following towns of India, based on their evolution from the oldest to the newest order and choose the correct option.

  1. Kolkata (Calcutta)
  2. Prayagraj (Allahabad)
  3. Dispur
  4. Agra

Options :

  1. II, IV, III, I
  2. II, IV, I, III
  3. IV, II, III, I
  4. IV, II, I, III
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/S/1

(B) II, IV, I, III

Q8.2025 Supp. 64/S/1 · Q101 mark

The rural compact settlements characterised by geometrical pattern mostly found in plain areas are known as _________.

  1. Clustered settlements
  2. Hamleted settlements
  3. Dispersed settlements
  4. Semi-clustered settlements
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/S/1

(A) Clustered settlements

Q9.2025 Supp. 64/S/1 · Q111 mark

Read the following statements regarding ancient towns in India and choose the correct option.

  1. Most of the ancient towns developed as religious or cultural centres.
  2. Some of the ancient towns developed at the time of Indus Valley Civilisation.
  3. Some of them are as old as 2000 years and even more.
  4. Some examples of ancient towns are Varanasi, Lucknow, Pondicherry, etc.

Options :

  1. Only I, II and IV are correct.
  2. Only I, II and III are correct.
  3. Only I, III and IV are correct.
  4. Only II, III and IV are correct.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/S/1

(B) Only I, II and III are correct.

Q10.2024 Main 64/1/1 · Q91 mark

Study the following statements carefully and choose the correct option :

Statement I : In India, after independence, some old towns around metropolitan cities developed as satellite towns.

Statement II : Delhi is a good example of such metropolitan cities.

Options :

  1. Only statement I is correct.
  2. Only statement II is correct.
  3. Both statements I and II are correct and statement II is the correct example of statement I.
  4. Both statements I and II are correct, but statement II is not the correct example of statement I.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/1/1

(C) Both statements I and II are correct and statement II is the correct example of statement I.

Q11.2024 Main 64/1/1 · Q101 mark

Which one of the following is a reason for the emergence of clustered settlements in Rajasthan ? Choose the most appropriate option.

  1. For the maximum utilization of land resources.
  2. For external security and defence.
  3. For maximum utilization of available water resources.
  4. For internal security and defence.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/1/1

(C) For maximum utilization of available water resources.

Q12.2024 Main 64/1/1 · Q121 mark

Choose the correct option regarding mining towns of India :

  1. Kandla, Kochchi and Kozhikode
  2. Ankaleshwar, Singrauli and Digboi
  3. Mumbai, Salem and Modinagar
  4. Varanasi, Roorki and Aligarh
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/1/1

(B) Ankaleshwar, Singrauli and Digboi

Q13.2024 Main 64/4/1 · Q91 mark

Which of the following is an example of a ‘Modern City’ ?

  1. Surat
  2. Nagpur
  3. Madurai
  4. Hyderabad
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/4/1

(A) Surat

Q14.2024 Main 64/4/1 · Q101 mark

Choose the correct option related to Garrison towns in India :

  1. Raniganj, Digboi and Jharia
  2. Mhow, Babina and Udhampur
  3. Itarsi, Katni and Kandla
  4. Modinagar, Jamshedpur and Bhilai
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/4/1

(B) Mhow, Babina and Udhampur

Q15.2024 Main 64/4/1 · Q111 mark

Read the following characteristics of settlements carefully and identify its type :

  • It is seen in the form of isolated huts in the forest.
  • It is visible on the slopes of small hills.
  • This kind of settlements are found in different parts of Meghalaya, Uttarakhand and Himachal Pradesh.

Settlement types :

  1. Nucleated
  2. Fragmented
  3. Hamleted
  4. Dispersed
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/4/1

(D) Dispersed

Q16.2023 Main 64/2/1 · Q111 mark

Which among the followings is NOT the correct feature of rural settlements ?

  1. The rural settlements derive their basic needs from land based primary activities.
  2. In rural settlement, social relations among them are intimate.
  3. In rural areas way of life is complex and fast.
  4. The sparsely located small settlements.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/2/1

(C) In rural areas way of life is complex and fast.

Q17.2023 Main 64/2/1 · Q121 mark

Choose the correct pair of the following types of towns :

(Types of Town)(Town)
(A)Industrial-Itarsi
(B)Mining-Singrauli
(C)Garrisson-Satna
(D)Administrative-Ankleshwar
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/2/1

(B) Mining – Singrauli

Q18.2023 Main 64/2/1 · Q131 mark

Which one of the following is garrison cantonment town ?

  1. Kandala
  2. Saharanpur
  3. Jharia
  4. Mhow
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/2/1

(D) Mhow

Q19.2023 Main 64/4/1 · Q51 mark

Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option :

Column IColumn II
i. Transport city1. Jaipur
ii. Mining town2. Ambala
iii. Garrison town3. Itarsi
iv. Administrative town4. Singrauli

Options :

  1. i – 4, ii – 3, iii – 2, iv – 1
  2. i – 1, ii – 2, iii – 3, iv – 4
  3. i – 3, ii – 4, iii – 2, iv – 1
  4. i – 2, ii – 1, iii – 4, iv – 3
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/4/1

(c) (i) – (3), (ii) – (4), (iii) – (2), (iv) – (1)

Q20.2023 Main 64/4/1 · Q141 mark

Which one of the following is the feature of clustered settlements ?

  1. They are fragmented
  2. They are isolated
  3. Closely built-up area of houses
  4. Units are known as panna, para, palli etc.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/4/1

(c) Closely built up area of houses

Q21.2023 Main 64/5/1 · Q91 mark

Which of the following is an example of an ‘educational town’ ?

  1. Surat
  2. Delhi
  3. Pilani
  4. Jaipur
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/5/1

(C) Pilani

Q22.2023 Main 64/5/1 · Q131 mark

Choose the correct pair from the following :

  1. Industrial town – Vishakhapatnam
  2. Transport town – Satna
  3. Commercial town – Bhilai
  4. Administrative town – Bhopal
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/5/1

(D) Administrative town – Bhopal

Q23.2023 Main 64/5/1 · Q141 mark

Match the Column I with Column II and choose the correct option :

Column IColumn II
i.Clustereda.Isolated settlement
ii.Semi-clusteredb.Units are locally known as Panna, Para, Palli etc.
iii.Hamletedc.Fragmented settlement
iv.Dispersedd.Closely built up region

Options :

  1. i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
  2. i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a
  3. i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d
  4. i-c, ii-b, iii-a, iv-d
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/5/1

(B) i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a

Q24.2023 Supp. 64/C/1 · Q91 mark

Which of the following is the feature of Rural settlements in India ?

  1. People are less mobile.
  2. Way of life is complex.
  3. Social relations are formal.
  4. Generally larger in size.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/C/1

(a) People are less mobile.

Q25.2023 Supp. 64/C/1 · Q101 mark

Choose the correct option of Indian mining towns.

  1. Ujjain, Haridwar, Varansasi
  2. Raniganj, Jharia, Singrauli
  3. Prayagraj (Allahabad) Ambala, Amritsar
  4. Meerut, Babina, Kanpur
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/C/1

(b) Raniganj, Jharia, Singrauli

Q26.2023 Supp. 64/C/1 · Q141 mark

Study the following statements and choose the most appropriate option :

Assertion : Sometimes settlement is fragmented into several units physically separated from each other bearing a common name.

Reason : This segmentation of a large village is often motivated by social and ethnic factors.

Options :

  1. Only Assertion is correct.
  2. Only Reason is correct.
  3. Both Statements are correct. Reason correctly explains Assertion.
  4. Both Statements are correct, but not related to each other.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/C/1

(c) Both Statements are correct. Reason correctly explains Assertion.

Q27.2026 Main 64/1/1 · Q223 marks

(a) Explain the main characteristics of urban settlements in India. 3

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/1/1

i) Urban settlements are generally compact and larger in size.
ii) Urban settlements specialise in secondary and tertiary activities.
iii) Urban centres act as centres of economic growth and provide goods and services not only to the city dwellers but also to the rural areas.
iv) Urban centres have better network of transport and communication.
v) Cities are connected directly as well as indirectly with the villages and also with one another.
vi) In cities, the way of life is complex and fast and social relations are formal.
vii) Any other relevant point.

(Any three points to be explained) 3×1=3

Q28.2026 Main 64/1/1 · Q22 (OR)3 marks

(b) Explain the evolution of towns in India. 3

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/1/1

i) In India, towns flourished since the prehistoric times like the Harappa and Mohenjodaro.
ii) In the following period India has witnessed evolution of towns with many ups and downs until the arrival of Europeans.
iii) On the basis of their evolution Indian towns are classified as follows.

a) Ancient Towns
These are the towns having historical background spanning over 2000 years. Most of them are developed as religious and cultural centres. Eg. Varanasi, Prayag (Allahabad), Pataliputra (Patna), Madurai, etc.

b) Medieval Towns
These towns have their roots in the medieval period. They developed as fort towns on the ruins of ancient towns as the headquarters of principalities and kingdoms. Eg. Delhi, Hyderabad, Jaipur, Lucknow, Agra and Nagpur, etc.

c) Modern Towns
The British and other Europeans have developed a number of towns in India. Such as Surat, Daman, Goa, Pondicherry, etc. The British later consolidated their hold around three principal nodes – Mumbai (Bombay), Chennai (Madras), and Kolkata (Calcutta) – and built them in the British style. Later they developed hill towns, industrial towns, and administrative towns.

iv) After independence a large number of towns have been developed as administrative headquarters - Delhi, Chandigarh, Gandhinagar, Dispur etc.
v) Many industrial towns were developed like Durgapur, Bhilai etc.
vi) Some old towns developed as satellite towns like Ghaziabad, Rohtak, Gurugram around Delhi.
vii) Any other relevant point.

(Any three points to be explained) 3×1=3

Q29.2026 Main 64/2/1 · Q223 marks

Study the given table carefully and answer the questions that follow : 3

India – Trends of Urbanisation 1961-2011

YearNumber of Towns / UAsUrban Population (in Thousands)% of Total populationDecennial Growth (%)
19612,36578,936.617.97–
19712,5901,09,11419.9138.23
19813,3781,59,46323.3446.14
19914,6892,17,61125.7136.47
20015,1612,85,35527.7831.13
20116,1713,77,00031.1631.08

22.1 During which decade, the net increase in number of towns/UAs is the lowest ?

22.2 Mention the net increase in number of towns/UAs during 1981-91.

22.3 Explain the decennial growth rate of urban population.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/2/1

22.1 1961-1971 1

22.2 1311 towns 1

22.3

i. The decennial growth rate of urban population is increasing continuously since 1961.
ii. It was 17.97 % in 1961-71 which increased to level 31.16 percent in 2001-2011.
iii. Any other relevant point

(Any one point to be explained) 1

1+1+1=3

Q30.2026 Main 64/3/1 · Q233 marks

Explain the characteristics of clustered rural settlements in India. 3

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/3/1

i. The clustered rural settlement is a compact or closely built up area of houses. In this type of village the general living area is distinct and separated from the surrounding farms, barns and pastures.
ii. The closely built-up area and its intervening streets present some recognizable pattern or geometric shape, such as rectangular, radial, linear, etc.
iii. Such settlements are generally found in fertile alluvial plains and in the northeastern states.
iv. Sometimes, people live in compact village for security or defence reasons, such as in the Bundelkhand region of central India and in Nagaland.
v. Any other relevant point.

(Any three points to be explained.) 3×1=3

Q31.2026 Main 64/4/1 · Q223 marks

Explain the difference between hamleted and dispersed rural settlements in India with examples. 3

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/4/1

Hamleted Settlements:

i) It is fragmented into several units.
ii) It is physically separated from each other bearing common name.
iii) This segmentation of a large village is often motivated by social and ethnic factor.
iv) Such villages are more frequently found in the middle and lower Ganga plain, Chhattisgarh and lower valleys of the Himalayas.

Dispersed Settlements:

i) This pattern in India appears in the form of isolated huts.
ii) It also found in remote jungles or on small hills with farms on the slopes.
iii) Extreme dispersion of settlement is often caused by extremely fragmented nature of the terrain and land resource base of habitable areas.
iv) Many areas of Meghalaya, Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh and Kerala have this type of settlement.
v) Any other relevant point.

(Any three points to be explained) 3×1=3

Q32.2026 Main 64/5/1 · Q223 marks

“Many of the towns in India are multifunctional.” Analyse the statement. 3

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/5/1
  1. The cities are not static in their functions. The functions change due to their dynamic nature.
  2. Even specialized cities as they grow into metropolises become multifunctional where industry, business, administration, transport etc. become important.
  3. For example, cities like Mumbai, Kolkata perform the functions of ports, trade, entertainment etc.
  4. The functions get so intertwined that the city cannot be categorized into a particular functional class.
  5. Any other relevant point.

(Any three points to be analysed) 3×1=3

Q33.2026 Main 64/5/1 · Q22 (OR)3 marks

“The objective of the ‘Smart Cities Mission’ is to create a replicable model.” Analyse the statement. 3

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/5/1

Smart cities mission

  1. Main objective of smart cities mission is to provide core infrastructure.
  2. It has to provide clean and sustainable environment.
  3. It provides decent quality of life to its citizens.
  4. Smart cities are to apply smart solutions to infrastructure and services in order to make them better.
  5. The focus is on sustainable and inclusive development.
  6. Any other relevant point.

(Any three points to be analysed) 3×1=3

Q34.2026 Supp. 64/7/1 · Q223 marks

Explain the difference between urban and rural settlements in India with examples. 3

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/7/1
Urban SettlementsRural Settlements
i. Urban settlements depend upon processing of raw materials and manufacturing of finished goods on the one hand and a variety of services on the other.i. Rural settlements derive their life support or basic economic needs from land based primary economic activity.
ii. Cities act as nodes of economic growth, provide goods and services to urban dwellers and the people of rural settlements in their hinterlands.ii. They provide food and raw material to the urban areas.
iii. In urban areas the way of life is complex and fast.iii. Mobility of People is less.
iv. In urban areas social relations are formal.iv. In rural areas social relations are intimate.
v. Any other relevant point.v. Any other relevant point.

(Any three points of differences to be explained.) 3×1=3

Q35.2025 Main 64/1/1 · Q233 marks

Study the following table carefully and answer the questions that follow :

India - Trends of Urbanisation 1961-2011

YearNumber of Towns/UAsUrban Population (in Thousands)% of Total PopulationDecennial Growth (%)
19612,36578,936.617.9726.41
19712,5901,09,11419.9138.23
19813,3781,59,46323.3446.14
19914,6892,17,61125.7136.47
20015,1612,85,35527.7831.13
20116,1713,77,00031.1631.08

(23.1) In which census year, the decennial growth of urban population is the highest.

(23.2) Explain the increasing trend of urban population in India.

(23.3) Analyse the continuous increasing trend of number of towns in India.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/1/1

(23.1) 1981 1

(23.2) The regular increasing trend of urban population in India since 1961 to 2011 has been seen. It has recorded 17.97% in 1961 and 31.16% in 2011. 1

(23.3) Since 1961 up to 2011 the number of towns has been increased regularly. It was 2365 in 1961 and 6171 in 2011. Rapid growth of towns recorded between 1981-1991. 1

3×1=3

Q36.2025 Main 64/4/1 · Q233 marks

Study the following table carefully and answer the questions that follow :

India – Trends of Urbanisation

YearNumber of Towns/UAsUrban Population (in Thousands)% of Total PopulationDecennial Growth (%)
19312,07233,456.011.9919.12
19412,25044,153.313.8631.97
19512,84362,443.717.2941.42
19612,36578,936.617.9726.41
19712,5901,09,11419.9138.23
19813,3781,59,46323.3446.14
19914,6892,17,61125.7136.47
20015,1612,85,35527.7831.13

(23.1) In which decade is the maximum increase in number of towns/UAs observed ? 1

(23.2) Describe the trend of urbanisation in India. 1

(23.3) The lowest increase in the percentage of total urban population is recorded in which decade ? 1

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/4/1

(23.1) 1981 – 1991 1

(23.2) Continuous increase in urban population has been observed. It was 33,45,600 people in 1931, which increased to 28,53,55,000 in 2001 increased about 85 times. 1

(23.3) 1951 – 1961 1

3×1=3

Q37.2025 Main 64/5/1 · Q233 marks

Study the following table carefully and answer the questions that follow :

India – Trends of Urbanisation

YearNumber of Towns/UAsUrban Population (in Thousands)% of Total PopulationDecennial Growth (%)
19312,07233,456.011.9919.12
19412,25044,153.313.8631.97
19512,84362,443.717.2941.42
19612,36578,936.617.9726.41
19712,5901,09,11419.9138.23
19813,3781,59,46323.3446.14
19914,6892,17,61125.7136.47
20015,1612,85,35527.7831.13

(23.1) Mention the increase in number of towns/UAs in 1991 in comparison to 1941. 1

(23.2) In which decade is the minimum increase in the percentage of urban population recorded ? 1

(23.3) Describe the decennial growth of urbanisation. 1

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/5/1

(23.1) 2439 Towns/UAs 1

(23.2) 1951 – 1961 1

(23.3) The decennial growth of urban population showed an increasing rate from 1931 to 1951, it declined in 1961. After that, the growth again picked up till 1981. The declining trend is again seen after 1981. 1

3×1=3

Q38.2025 Main 64/7/1 · Q223 marks

Study the following table carefully and answer the questions that follow.

India – Trends of Urbanisation

YearNumber of Towns/UAsUrban Population (in Thousands)% of Total PopulationDecennial Growth (%)
19312,07233,456·011·9919·12
19412,25044,153·313·8631·97
19512,84362,443·717·2941·42
19612,36578,936·617·9726·41
19712,5901,09,11419·9138·23
19813,3781,59,46323·3446·14
19914,6892,17,61125·7136·47
20015,1612,85,35527·7831·13

(22.1) With reference to 1951, how much change has taken place in the percentage of total population in 1991 ? 1

(22.2) Describe the trend of urban population in the given table. 1

(22.3) Explain the reason of increasing trend of number of towns/UAs from 1961 to 2001. 1

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/7/1

(22.1) 8·42% 1

(22.2) The urban population is growing continuously : In 1931 the urban population was 33,456·000 while in 2001 it has increased to 285355·000 which is more than 85 times increased. 1

(22.3)

  1. Because many of the smaller settlements in the initial stages have been converted in to towns.
  2. With increasing investment in rural areas, a large number of medium and small towns have developed all over the country.
  3. Any other relevant point.

(Any one point to be considered.) 1

3×1=3

Q39.2024 Main 64/2/1 · Q223 marks

Explain any three basic differences between rural and urban settlements in India.

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The basic differences between rural and urban settlements in India are-

  1. The rural settlements derive their life support or basic economic needs from land-based primary economic activities, whereas urban settlements depend on processing of raw materials and manufacturing of finished goods on the one hand and a variety of services on the other.
  2. Cities act as nodes of economic growth and provide goods and services not only to urban dwellers but also to the people of rural settlements in their hinterlands in return for food and raw materials.
  3. Rural and urban settlements differ in terms of social relationship, attitude and outlook. Rural people are less mobile and therefore, social relations among them are intimate. In urban areas, on the other hand, way of life is complex and fast, and social relations are formal.
  4. Any other relevant point.

(Any three points to be explained). 3×1=3

Q40.2024 Main 64/3/1 · Q223 marks

(a) Describe any three factors responsible for the development of different types of rural settlements in India.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/3/1
  1. Physical –Terrain, altitude, climate and availability of water
  2. Culture and ethnic - social structure, caste and religion
  3. Security-Defence against thefts and robberies
  4. Any other relevant point

(Any three points to be described.) 3x1=3

Q41.2024 Main 64/3/1 · Q22 (OR)3 marks

(b) Describe any three characteristics of hamleted settlements in India.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/3/1
  1. Hamleted settlement is fragmented into several units physically separated from each other bearing common names.
  2. These units are locally called panna, para, palli, nagla, dhani, etc. in various parts of the country.
  3. This segmentation of a large village is often motivated by social and ethnic factors.
  4. Any other relevant point

(Any three points to be discussed) 3x1=3

Q42.2024 Main 64/5/1 · Q223 marks

(a) Explain the main objectives of ‘Smart Cities Mission’ in India.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/5/1

(i) The objective of the Smart city mission is to promote cities that provide core infrastructure and services in order to make them better.

(ii) Providing clean but sustainable environment.

(iii) Providing decent quality of life to the citizens.

(iv) Using few resources, making the city less vulnerable to disasters.

(v) Any other relevant point.

(Any three points to be explained)

3x1=3

Q43.2024 Main 64/5/1 · Q22 (OR)3 marks

(b) Explain the main features of the dispersed settlements in India.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/5/1

(i) This an isolated pattern of settlements in India.

(ii) All huts or houses are built up in isolation from one another.

(iii) Largely available on hilly areas.

(iv) Many areas of Meghalya, Himachal Pradesh and Uttrakhand having this pattern.

(v) Any other relevant point.

(Any three points to be explained)

3x1=3

Q44.2024 Supp. 64/S/1 · Q223 marks

(a) Explain the main features of ‘Clustered Settlements’ in India.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/S/1
  1. It is compact or closely built-up area of houses.
  2. It is distinct and separated from the surrounding farms, barns and pastures.
  3. The closely built-up areas and its streets present some recognisable pattern or geometric shape.
  4. Such settlements are generally found in fertile alluvial plains and in north eastern states.
  5. People live in compact villages for security or defence reasons.
  6. Any other relevant point.

(Any three points to be explained.) 3x1=3

Q45.2024 Supp. 64/S/1 · Q22 (OR)3 marks

(b) Explain the main features of ‘Dispersed Settlements’ in India.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/S/1
  1. Dispersed or isolated settlement appears in the form of isolated huts or hamlets of few huts.
  2. It is found in remote jungles or in small hills with farms or pastures on the slopes.
  3. Extreme dispersion of settlement is often caused by extremely fragmented nature of terrain and land resource base of habitable areas.
  4. Many areas of Meghalaya, Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh and Kerala have this type of settlement.
  5. Any other relevant point.

(Any three points to be explained.) 3x1=3

Q46.2023 Main 64/1/1 · Q193 marks

Study the given table carefully and answer the questions that follow : 3×1=3

India – Trends of Urbanisation 1901 – 2011

YearNumber of Towns/UAsUrban Population (in Thousands)% of Total PopulationDecennial Growth (%)
19011,82725,851·910·84—
19111,81525,941·610·290·35
19211,94928,086·211·188·27
19312,07233,456·011·9919·12
19412,25044,153·313·8631·97
19512,84362,443·717·2941·42
19612,36578,936·617·9726·41
19712,5901,09,11419·9138·23
19813,3781,59,46323·3446·14
19914,6892,17,61125·7136·47
20015,1612,85,35527·7831·13
20116,1713,77,00031·1631·08

(19.1) In which year was the decennial growth of urban population the highest in India ? 1
(19.2) How much was the total urban population in the year 2001 ? 1
(19.3) How much was the total growth of number of towns between the years 1901 to 2011 in India ? 1

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/1/1

19.1 1981, 46.14% (1)

19.2 In 2001, the total urban population was 2,85,355. (1)

19.3 4,344 or 238% (1)

3×1=3

Q47.2023 Main 64/3/1 · Q213 marks

(a) “The cities are connected, directly or indirectly, with villages and also with each other.” Examine the statement. 3

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/3/1
  1. The rural settlements derive the support from land based economic activities.
  2. The cities depend on villages for raw material.
  3. Villages are dependent on towns for manufactured goods.
  4. On the other hand both the settlements are connected to provide different types of services.
  5. Cities are connected with each other for enhancing economic growth and providing services.
  6. Any other relevant point

Any three points to be examined 3×1=3

Q48.2023 Main 64/3/1 · Q21 (OR)3 marks

(b) Examine any three causes for the development of compact rural settlements in India. 3

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/3/1

Causes for the development of compact rural settlements in India-

  1. Security as the reason, defence against thefts and robberies.
  2. Scarcity of water and maximum utilisation of water resources.
  3. Fertile alluvial plains.
  4. Any other relevant point

Any three points to be examined 3×1=3

Q49.2023 Supp. 64/C/1 · Q233 marks

Explain any three features of Urban Settlements in India. 3

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/C/1
  1. Urban settlements are generally compact and larger in size.
  2. They are engaged in a variety of non- agricultural, economic and administrative functions.
  3. They are functionally linked to rural areas around them.
  4. Cities are directly as well as indirectly connected with the villages and also with each other.
  5. Any other relevant point.

(Any three points to be explained.) 3×1=3

Q50.SQP 2025-26 · Q213 marks

How can we promote sustainable urban development while addressing challenges like pollution, resource scarcity, and congestion in growing cities and new towns?

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26

Elaborate any six points

  1. Adopting Smart Urban Planning
  2. Enhancing Public Transportation
  3. Implementing Green Infrastructure
  4. Promoting Renewable Energy and Energy Efficiency
  5. Managing Resources Sustainably
  6. Addressing Pollution
  7. Community Engagement and Education
Q51.SQP 2026-27 · Q213 marks

“The evolution of Indian towns is a reflection of the changing socio-political and economic priorities of different historical eras.” Analyse the evolution of modern towns in India.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27
  1. The British and other Europeans have developed a number of towns in India. Starting their foothold on coastal locations. They first developed some trading ports such as Surat, Daman, Goa, Pondicherry, etc.
  2. The British later consolidated their hold around three principal nodes – Mumbai (Bombay), Chennai (Madras), and Kolkata (Calcutta) and built them in the British style. Rapidly extending their domination either directly or through control over the princely states, they established their administrative centres, hill towns as summer resorts, and added new civil, administrative and military areas to them.
  3. Towns based on modern industries also evolved after 1850. Jamshedpur can be cited as an example.
  4. After independence, a large number of towns have been developed as administrative headquarters, e.g., Chandigarh, Bhubaneswar, Gandhinagar, Dispur, etc., and industrial centres, such as Durgapur, Bhilai, Sindri, Barauni.
  5. Some old towns also developed as satellite towns around metropolitan cities, such as Ghaziabad, Rohtak, Gurugram around Delhi. With increasing investment in rural areas, a large number of medium and small towns have developed all over the country.

Any Three points. (3)

Part B · India: People and Economy

3. Land Resources and Agriculture

Q1.2026 Main 64/4/1 · Q61 mark

Choose the correct option related to major Kharif crops of the North India.

  1. Jowar, Barley, Mustard
  2. Bajra, Gram, Mustard
  3. Rice, Barley, Gram
  4. Rice, Jowar, Bajra
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/4/1

(D) Rice, Jowar, Bajra

Q2.2026 Main 64/4/1 · Q71 mark

Choose the correctly matched pair from the following :

(Crop) – (Leading Producer State)

  1. Maize – Bihar
  2. Jute – West Bengal
  3. Groundnut – Rajasthan
  4. Sunflower – Punjab
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/4/1

(B) Jute – West Bengal

Q3.2026 Main 64/5/1 · Q141 mark

Which one of the following is the main cause of land degradation in the irrigated area of desert ?

  1. Soil salinity
  2. Soil erosion
  3. Ravine erosion
  4. Pastures degradation
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(A) Soil salinity

Q4.2026 Supp. 64/7/1 · Q61 mark

Choose the correct option related to dryland farming crops in India.

  1. Ragi, Jute, Sugarcane
  2. Gram, Moong, Ragi
  3. Sugarcane, Jute, Gram
  4. Moong, Bajra, Rice
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/7/1

(B) Gram, Moong, Ragi

Q5.2026 Supp. 64/7/1 · Q71 mark

Match Column I with Column II correctly and choose the most appropriate option.

Column I
(Crop)
Column II
(Leading State in Production)
a. Groundnuti. Karnataka
b. Arhar (Tur)ii. West Bengal
c. Juteiii. Maharashtra
d. Maizeiv. Gujarat

Options :

  1. a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
  2. a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
  3. a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
  4. a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/7/1

(D) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i

Q6.2025 Main 64/4/1 · Q71 mark

Read the following features and identify the crop.

  • It is a tropical plantation crop and has three varieties.
  • Karnataka alone accounts for more than two-third of its total production of India.
  • It is grown in the highlands of Western Ghats in Karnataka and Kerala.

Crop :

  1. Sugarcane
  2. Tea
  3. Coffee
  4. Cotton
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/4/1

(C) Coffee

Q7.2025 Supp. 64/S/1 · Q151 mark

Study the following graph carefully and answer the questions no. 15 to 17 :

Figure

Which one of the following is the best reason for the increase in net area sown from 1950 – 51 to 2014 – 15 ?

  1. Decrease in barren and unculturable wasteland
  2. Decrease in culturable wasteland
  3. Increase in area under non-agricultural use
  4. Increase in area under forest cover
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/S/1

(B) Decrease in culturable wasteland.

Q8.2025 Supp. 64/S/1 · Q161 mark

Study the following graph carefully and answer the questions no. 15 to 17 :

Figure

Under which one of the following categories of land use, maximum absolute increase is observed from 1950 – 51 to 2014 – 15 ?

  1. Forests
  2. Area under non-agricultural use
  3. Permanent pasture and grazing land
  4. Net area sown
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/S/1

(A) Forests

Q9.2025 Supp. 64/S/1 · Q171 mark

Study the following graph carefully and answer the questions no. 15 to 17 :

Figure

Under which one of the following categories of land use, maximum absolute decrease is observed from 1950 – 51 to 2014 – 15 ?

  1. Area under miscellaneous tree crops and groves
  2. Culturable wasteland
  3. Fallow, other than current fallow
  4. Barren and unculturable wasteland
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/S/1

(D) Barren and unculturable wasteland

Q10.2024 Main 64/1/1 · Q61 mark

What is the other name of ‘Rainfed type of farming’ ?

  1. Productive farming
  2. Protective farming
  3. Barani
  4. Zaid
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/1/1

(C) Barani

Q11.2024 Main 64/2/1 · Q151 mark

Study the following diagram carefully and answer Q. No. 15 to 17.

Figure

In comparison to 1950 – 51, which of the following categories has decreased the most in 2014 – 15 ?

  1. Forests
  2. Permanent pasture and grazing land
  3. Barren and unculturable wasteland
  4. Culturable wasteland
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/2/1

(C) Barren and unculturable wasteland

Q12.2024 Main 64/2/1 · Q161 mark

Study the following diagram carefully and answer Q. No. 15 to 17.

Figure

In comparison to 1950 – 51, which one of the following categories has the highest difference of increase in 2014 – 15 ?

  1. Barren and unculturable wasteland
  2. Net area sown
  3. Area under non-agricultural uses
  4. Current fallow
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(C) Area under non-agricultural uses

Q13.2024 Main 64/2/1 · Q171 mark

Study the following diagram carefully and answer Q. No. 15 to 17.

Figure

Which one of the following is the correct difference in ‘Net Area Sown’ between 1950 – 51 and 2014 – 15 ?

  1. 3·6% (of reporting area)
  2. 3·7% (of reporting area)
  3. 3·8% (of reporting area)
  4. 3·9% (of reporting area)
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/2/1

(C) 3.8% (of reporting area)

Q14.2024 Main 64/4/1 · Q61 mark

The characteristics of an agricultural crop in India are given below. Read them carefully and identify the crop.

  • It is a crop of tropical humid area.
  • West Bengal farmers grow it three crops in a year.
  • It is grown as a Kharif crop in north-western parts.
  • West Bengal, Uttar Pradesh and Punjab are major producing states.

Crop :

  1. Wheat
  2. Gram
  3. Bajra
  4. Rice
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(D) Rice

Q15.2024 Main 64/5/1 · Q51 mark

Which of the following fact, about jute cultivation in India, is true ?

  1. West Bengal is the leading producer of jute.
  2. Jute is cash crop for Punjab and Haryana.
  3. Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra are other leading jute producing states.
  4. India produces about 30% of the jute production of the world.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/5/1

(A) West Bengal is the leading producer of jute.

Q16.2024 Main 64/5/1 · Q61 mark

Read the following information carefully and identify the correct option for the crop :

  • Grown in Kharif season.
  • Mainly grown in semi-arid area in India.
  • Gujarat and Maharashtra are the leading producer states.

Option :

  1. Cotton
  2. Tea
  3. Jute
  4. Sugarcane
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/5/1

(A) Cotton

Q17.2024 Supp. 64/S/1 · Q51 mark

Tea plantation was started in India for the first time in which one of the following areas ?

  1. Nilgiri Hills
  2. Cardamom Hills
  3. Brahmaputra Valley of Assam
  4. Darjeeling and Jalpaiguri
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/S/1

(C) Brahmaputra Valley of Assam

Q18.2024 Supp. 64/S/1 · Q61 mark

Which of the following pair of states is the leading producer of cotton in India ?

  1. Gujarat and Maharashtra
  2. Karnataka and Tamil Nadu
  3. Punjab and Haryana
  4. Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/S/1

(A) Gujarat and Maharashtra

Q19.2023 Main 64/1/1 · Q121 mark

Read the given resources and choose the correct option related to ‘community’s resources’ :

  1. Village water bodies
  2. Village agriculture land
  3. Village residential land
  4. Pasture land

Options :

  1. Only I and II are correct.
  2. Only II and III are correct.
  3. Only III and IV are correct.
  4. Only I and IV are correct.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/1/1

(d) Only I and IV are correct.

Q20.2023 Main 64/4/1 · Q131 mark

Which of the following is not a feature of dryland farming ?

  1. It is practised where the annual amount of rainfall is less than 75 cm
  2. Practised in Black soil areas
  3. Drought resistant crops are grown
  4. Measures are taken to preserve soil moisture
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/4/1

(b) Practised in ‘Black soil areas’.

Q21.SQP 2025-26 · Q111 mark

Which of the following was not a measure adopted by the Government of India in the 1990s to promote liberalization and a free-market economy to influence the development of Indian agriculture?

  1. The creation of the Farmer’s Portal to assist with insurance, agricultural storage, crops, seeds, pesticides, market prices, and welfare schemes.
  2. Launch of the National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture to enhance productivity, sustainability, and resilience while conserving natural resources.
  3. Promotion of organic farming through schemes like Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana (PKVY) and Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana (RKVY).
  4. Introduction of high-yielding seed varieties of wheat (Mexico) and rice (the Philippines) in the 1960s and 1970s.
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(D) Introduction of high-yielding seed varieties of wheat (Mexico) and rice (the Philippines) in the 1960s and 1970s.

Q22.SQP 2025-26 · Q121 mark

Which of the following statements about agricultural land use in India between 1950-51 and 2014-15 is correct based on the table?

  1. The percentage of culturable waste land as part of the reporting area decreased from 8.0% to 4.0%.
  2. The net area sown as a percentage of total cultivable land decreased from 78.4% to 70.0%.
  3. The percentage of current fallow land as part of the reporting area decreased from 4.9% to 3.7%.
  4. The total cultivable land as a percentage of the reporting area increased from 58.0% to 59.5%.
Agricultural Land-use CategoriesAs a percentage of Reporting AreaAs a percentage of total cultivable land
1950-512014-151950-512014-15
Culturable Waste land8.04.013.46.8
Fallow other than Current Fallow6.13.610.26.2
Current Fallow3.74.96.28.4
Net Area Sown41.745.570.078.4
Total Cultivable Land59.558.0100.00100.00
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26

(A) The percentage of culturable waste land as part of the reporting area decreased from 8.0% to 4.0%.

Q23.SQP 2026-27 · Q101 mark

Which of the following schemes is promoted by the Government for organic farming?

  1. PM-KISAN
  2. Soil Health Card Scheme
  3. Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana (PKVY)
  4. Krishi Vikas Yojana
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27

(C) Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana (PKVY)

Q24.SQP 2026-27 · Q111 mark

Figure

In 2019-20, which category of land use has undergone the highest rate of increase in comparison to 1950-51?

  1. Forest
  2. Barren land & unculturable waste land
  3. Culturable wasteland
  4. Area under non-agricultural use
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27

(A) Forest

Q25.2025 Main 64/2/1 · Q193 marks

Study the following table carefully and answer the questions that follow : 3

Composition of Total Cultivable Land

Agricultural Land use CategoriesAs a percentage of Reporting AreaAs a percentage of total cultivable land
1950-512014-151950-512014-15
Culturable waste land8.04.013.46.8
Fallow other than current fallow6.13.610.26.2
Current fallow3.74.96.28.4
Net area sown41.745.570.078.4
Total Cultivable Land59.558.0100.00100.00

(19.1) Mention the reason for the decrease in cultivable waste land in 2014-15 as compared to 1950-51.

(19.2) Mention the reason for the increase in current fallow during 2014-15 as compared to 1950-51.

(19.3) Explain the reason of continuous increase in net area sown.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/2/1

(19.1) The reason for the decrease in cultivable wasteland in 2014-15 is because culturable wasteland has been brought under farming. 1

(19.2) The reason for the increase in current fallow land is because it is left uncultivated to regain soil fertility and also due to the variability of rainfall and cropping cycle. 1

(19.3) The reason for the continuous increase in the net sown area is a recent phenomenon due to the use of culturable wasteland for agricultural purposes. 1

3×1=3

Q26.2024 Main 64/1/1 · Q193 marks

Study the given diagram carefully and answer the questions that follow : 3×1=3

Figure

(19.1) In 2014 – 15, which category of land use has undergone the highest net increase in comparison to 1950 – 51 ? 1

(19.2) In 2014 – 15, which category of land use has undergone the highest net decline in comparison to 1950 – 51 ? 1

(19.3) Mention any two reasons for the decline in land under culturable wasteland. ½ + ½ = 1

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/1/1

(19.1) Forest 1

(19.2) Barren and unculturable waste land 1

(19.3) Reasons for decline in land under culturable wasteland are :-

  1. Pressure from agricultural sector.
  2. Pressure from non agricultural sector/activities.

Any other relevant point. ½+½=1

Q27.2023 Main 64/1/1 · Q223 marks

Describe the objectives of ‘National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture’ (NMSA) in the development of Indian agriculture. 3

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/1/1

The objectives of National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture are :

  1. To make agriculture more productive.
  2. Sustainable
  3. Remunerative
  4. Climate resilient by promoting location-specific integrated/composite farming systems.
  5. To conserve natural resources through appropriate soil and moisture conservation measures.
  6. Any other relevant point.

Any three objectives to be described. 3×1=3

Q28.2023 Main 64/2/1 · Q223 marks

“Dependence on erratic monsoon is still a big problem of Indian agriculture.” Support the statement.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/2/1

Erratic monsoon is a problem of India agriculture:-

  1. Irrigation covers only about 33 percent of the cultivated area in India. The crop production in rest of the cultivated land directly depends on rain.
  2. Poor performance of South-West monsoon also adversely affects the supply of canal water for irrigation.
  3. Rainfall in drought-prone areas is too meager and highly unreliable.
  4. Areas receiving high annual rainfall experience considerable fluctuations.
  5. Erratic monsoon may cause flood or drought.
  6. Any other relevant point.

Any three points to be explained.

3x1=3

Q29.2026 Main 64/1/1 · Q265 marks

(a) “Generally land-use in a region is influenced by the nature of economic activities.” Support the statement with suitable examples. 5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/1/1

The nature of economic activities definitely affects the pattern of land use in a region.

i) The nature of economic activities change over time but the land is fixed resource.
ii) The size of economy increases as a result of increasing population and income levels. This increases the pressure on land and the marginal land is put to use.
iii) The composition of the economy undergoes a change over time, resulting in the growth of the secondary and the tertiary sectors, and it results in the shift of land from agriculture to non-agricultural uses.
iv) With the growth of economy, the demand for land increases, therefore, the land under forest land is put to other uses.
v) With the increase in population, demand for more food increases and pressure on agricultural land increase. Therefore, culturable wasteland, fallow other than current fallow land are included in agricultural land to increase the food production.
vi) Any other relevant point

(Any five points to be explained) 5×1=5

Q30.2026 Main 64/1/1 · Q26 (OR)5 marks

(b) “The Indian agricultural problems have physical constraints and institutional hindrances.” Support the statement with suitable examples. 5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/1/1

i) Dependence on erratic monsoon
ii) Low productivity
iii) Constraints of financial resources and indebtedness
iv) Lack of land reforms
v) Small farm size, Fragmentation of land holding
vi) Lack of commercialisation
vii) Vast underemployment
viii) Degradation of cultivable land.
ix) Any other relevant point

(Any five points to be explained) 5×1=5

Q31.2026 Main 64/2/1 · Q265 marks

(a) Explain the problem of ‘low productivity’ of Indian agriculture. Analyse the role of ‘National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture’ to solve this problem. 2+3=5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/2/1

Problem of low productivity:

i. The yield of the crops in the country is low in comparison to the international level.
ii. Per hectare output of most of the crops such as rice, wheat, Cotton and Oil Seeds in India is much lower than that of USA, Russia and Japan.
iii. Low labour productivity in comparison to international level.
iv. Vast rainfed areas in the country specially in drylands have low yields.
v. Any other relevant points

(Any two points to be explained) 2×1=2

National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture:

i. National Mission for sustainable Agriculture is to make agriculture more productive, sustainable, remunerative and climate resilient.
ii. It promotes location specific and integrated farming system.
iii. It conserves natural resources through appropriate soil and moisture conservation measures.
iv. The government has been promoting such as Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana (PKVY) and Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana (RKVY)
v. Any other relevant point

(Any three points to be explained) 3×1=3

2+3=5

Q32.2026 Main 64/2/1 · Q26 (OR)5 marks

(b) Explain the problems of the ‘indebtedness’ of Indian farmers. Analyse the importance of ‘farmer’s portal’ in helping the farmers. 2+3=5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/2/1

Problems of the indebtedness:

i. The inputs of modern agriculture are very expensive.
ii. This resource intensive approach has become unmanageable for marginal and small farmers as they have very meagre or no savings to invest in agriculture.
iii. To tide over these difficulties most of the farmers have restored to avail credit from various institutions and money lenders.
iv. Crop failures and low returns from agriculture have forced them to fall in the trap of indebtedness.
v. Any other point

(Any two points to be explained) 2×1=2

Importance of ‘farmer’s portal’

i. The farmer’s Portal is a platform for farmers to seek any information related to agriculture.
ii. Detailed information on farmers insurance, agriculture storage, crops, extension activities, seeds, pesticides, farm machineries etc is provided.
iii. Details of fertilizers, market prices, package and practices, programmes are provided.
iv. Welfare schemes are also given.
v. Block level details related to soil fertility, storage, insurance, training are available in an interactive map.
vi. Any other point

(Any three points to be analysed) 3×1=3

2+3=5

Q33.2026 Main 64/3/1 · Q275 marks

(a) Examine the agricultural development in India since independence. 5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/3/1

i. After Independence, the immediate goal of the Government was to increase food-grains production.
ii. To increase food production India switches over from cash crops to food crops; intensification of cropping and increasing cultivated area by bringing cultivable and fallow land under plough.
iii. Agricultural production stagnated during late-1950s. To overcome this problem, Intensive Agricultural District Programme (IADP) and Intensive Agricultural Area Programme (IAAP) were launched.
iv. New seed varieties of wheat (Mexico) and rice (Philippines) known as high yielding varieties (HYVs) were available for cultivation by mid-1960s.
v. India took advantage of this and introduced package technology comprising HYVs, along with chemical fertilizer in irrigated areas of Punjab, Haryana, Western Uttar Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh and Gujarat.
vi. This strategy of agricultural development increased the food grains production at very fast rate.
vii. This spurt of agricultural growth came to be known as ‘Green Revolution’.
viii. This also gave fillip to the development of a large number of agro-inputs, agro-processing industries and small-scale industries.
ix. Country became self-reliant in food grain production.
x. Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be examined.) 5×1=5

Q34.2026 Main 64/3/1 · Q27 (OR)5 marks

(b) Examine the various problems of Indian agriculture. 5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/3/1

i. Dependence on Erratic Monsoon
Irrigation covers only about 33 per cent of the cultivated area in India. The crop production in rest of the cultivated land directly depends on rain. Drought is a common phenomenon in the low rainfall areas.

ii. Low productivity
The yield of the crops in the country is low in comparison to the international level. Because of the very high pressure on the land resources, the labour productivity in Indian agriculture is also very low.

iii. Constraints of Financial Resources and Indebtedness
The inputs of modern agriculture are very expensive. This resource intensive approach has become unmanageable for marginal and small farmers as they have very meagre or no saving to invest in agriculture.

iv. Lack of Land Reforms
Lack of implementation of land reforms has resulted in continuation of inequitable distribution of cultivable land which is detrimental to agricultural development.

v. Small Farm Size and Fragmentation of Landholdings
The land holdings are mostly fragmented and are of small size, therefore, uneconomic.

vi. Lack of Commercialization
A large number of farmers produce crops for self-consumption. Therefore, modernization and commercialization of agriculture is restricted to the irrigated areas.

vii. Vast Underemployment
There is a massive underemployment in the agricultural sector in India, particularly in the unirrigated tracts. Even in the cropping season, work is not available throughout as agricultural operations are not labour intensive.

viii. Degradation of Cultivable Land
Due to faulty strategy of irrigation and agricultural development, a large tract of agricultural land has lost its fertility due to alkalisation and salinisation of soils and water-logging. Excessive use of chemicals such as insecticides and pesticides has led to their concentration in toxic amounts in the soil profile.

ix. Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be examined) 5×1=5

Q35.2025 Main 64/5/1 · Q275 marks

Define the concept of ‘Common Property Resource’. Explain any four characteristics of common property resources in India. 1+4=5

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The Common property resources (CPRs) are owned by the state. These are the community’s natural resources, where every member has the right of access and usage. 1

Characteristics

  1. In rural areas, such lands are of particular relevance for the livelihood of landless and marginal farmers and other weaker sections.
  2. These provide fodder for the livestock and fuel for the households.
  3. These provide minor forest products like fruits, nuts, fibre, medicinal plants, etc.
  4. These are important for rural women as most of the fodder and fuel collection is done by them in rural areas.
  5. Examples: community forests, pasture lands, village water bodies, etc.
  6. Any other relevant point.

(Any four points to be explained) 4

1+4=5

Q36.2025 Main 64/5/1 · Q27 (OR)5 marks

Distinguish between ‘irrigated’ and ‘rainfed agriculture’ in India with examples. 5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/5/1
  1. Based on the main source of moisture for crops, farming can be classified as irrigated and rainfed.
  2. Irrigated farming is of two types: protective and productive.
  3. The objective of protective irrigation is to protect the crops from the adverse effects of soil moisture deficiency.
  4. The objective of productive irrigation is to provide sufficient soil moisture in the cropping season to achieve high productivity.
  5. Rainfed farming is classified on the basis of the adequacy of soil moisture during cropping season into dryland and wetland farming.
  6. The dryland farming is largely confined to the regions having annual rainfall less than 75 cm.
  7. These regions grow hardy and drought resistant crops such as ragi, bajra, moong, gram and guar (fodder crops).
  8. Dryland regions practice various measures of soil moisture conservation and rain water harvesting.
  9. In wetland farming, the rainfall is more than the soil moisture requirement of plants during the rainy season.
  10. These areas grow various water-intensive crops such as rice, jute and sugarcane.
  11. Any other relevant points.

(Any five points of distinction) 5×1=5

Q37.2025 Main 64/6/1 · Q245 marks

Explain any five problems faced by the agricultural sector in India. 5×1=5

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Problems faced by the agricultural sector in India are :-

  1. Dependence on Erratic Monsoon.
  2. Low productivity.
  3. Constraints of Financial Resources and Indebtedness.
  4. Lack of Land Reforms.
  5. Small Farm Size and Fragmentation of Land holdings.
  6. Lack of Commercialisation.
  7. Vast underemployment.
  8. Degradation of cultivable land.
  9. Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be explained.) 5×1=5

Q38.2025 Main 64/7/1 · Q265 marks

(a) Classify Indian farming practices on the basis of source of moisture and describe them.

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On the basis of source of moisture it is classified as Irrigated and Rainfed (Barani). ½ + ½ = 1

Characteristics :

  1. Based on the nature of irrigated farming it is classified as protective and productive.
  2. Protective irrigation is to protect the crops from adverse effects of soil moisture deficiency. The strategy of this kind of irrigation is to provide soil moisture to maximum possible areas.
  3. Productive irrigation – To provide sufficient soil moisture in the cropping season to achieve high productivity.
  4. On the basis of rainfall it is classified as rainfed and dryland farming.
  5. Dryland farming is confined to areas having annual rainfall less than 75 cm, example hardy crops such as ragi, bajra, etc., practice various measures of soil moisture conservation and rainwater harvesting.
  6. In Wetland farming, the rainfall is in excess of soil moisture requirement of plants during rainy season. Such regions may face flood and soil erosion hazards, grow water-intensive crops such as rice, jute and sugarcane.
  7. Any other relevant point.

(Any four points to be described) 4×1=4

1+4=5

Q39.2025 Main 64/7/1 · Q26 (OR)5 marks

(b) Define ‘Common Property Resources’. How do ‘Common Property Resources’ help in providing livelihood to the landless and marginal farmers ? Explain. 1+4=5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/7/1

Common Property Resources : It is defined as a community’s natural resource where every member has a right of access and usage with specified obligations, without anybody having property rights over them. 1

Common Property Resources help :

  1. CPRs provide fodder for the livestock and fuel for the households along with other minor forest products like fruits, nuts, fibre, medicinal plants, etc.
  2. In rural areas the landless and marginal farmers and other weaker sections depend on the income from their livestock due to the fact that they have limited access to land.
  3. CPRs are important for women as most of the fodder and fuel collection is done by them in rural areas.
  4. Activities like gathering and selling forest products or grazing livestock on common lands can significantly contribute to their economic stability.
  5. Examples are community forests, pasture lands, village waterbodies and other public spaces.
  6. Any other relevant point.

(Any four points to be analysed) 4×1=4

1+4=5

Q40.2024 Main 64/3/1 · Q285 marks

Analyze any five problems of Indian agriculture.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/3/1
  1. Dependence on erratic monsoon.
  2. Low productivity
  3. Constraints of financial resources and indebtedness.
  4. Lack of land reforms
  5. Small farm size and fragmentation of landholding.
  6. Lack of commercialization
  7. Vast underemployment
  8. Degradation of cultivable Land
  9. Any other relevant point

(Any five points to be analysed.) 5x1=5

Q41.2023 Main 64/5/1 · Q285 marks

Explain any five major problems of Indian agriculture.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/5/1
  1. Dependence on erratic monsoon
  2. Low productivity
  3. Constraints of Financial Resources and indebtedness
  4. Small farm size and fragmentation
  5. Lack of land reforms
  6. Lack of Commercialization
  7. Vast underemployment.
  8. Degradation of cultivable land.
  9. Any other relevant point

(Any 5 points need to be explained) 1×5=5

Q42.2023 Supp. 64/C/1 · Q285 marks

(a) Analyse the ‘Dependence on Erratic Monsoon’ as a problem of Indian Agriculture. 5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/C/1

Dependence on Erratic Monsoon

  1. Irrigation covers only about 33 per cent of the cultivated area in India. The crop production in rest of the cultivated land directly depends on rain.
  2. Poor performance of south-west monsoon also adversely affects the supply of canal water for irrigation. On the other hand, the rainfall in Rajasthan and other drought prone areas is too meagre and highly unreliable.
  3. The areas receiving high annual rainfall experience considerable fluctuations. This makes them vulnerable to both droughts and floods.
  4. Drought is a common phenomenon in the low rainfall areas, which may also experience occasional floods. The flash floods in dry lands of Maharashtra, Gujarat and Rajasthan in 2006 and 2017 are examples of this phenomenon.
  5. Droughts and floods continue to be the twin menace in Indian agriculture.
  6. Any other relevant point

(Any five points to be analyzed) 5×1=5

Q43.2023 Supp. 64/C/1 · Q28 (OR)5 marks

(b) Critically analyse the ‘Vast Underemployment’ as a problem of Indian Agriculture. 5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/C/1

There is a massive underemployment in the agricultural sector in India, particularly in the unirrigated tracts. In these areas, there is a seasonal unemployment ranging from 4 to 8 months. Even in the cropping season, work is not available throughout as agricultural operations are not labour intensive. Hence, the people engaged in agriculture do not have the opportunity to work round the year.

(To be assessed as a whole) 5

Part B · India: People and Economy

4. Water Resources

Q1.2026 Main 64/4/1 · Q111 mark

Which one of the following is the main objective of ‘Haryali Project’ ?

  1. Water conservation for irrigation and fisheries
  2. Water conservation for industries
  3. Surface water availability for transport
  4. Surface water availability for recreation
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/4/1

(A) Water conservation for irrigation and fisheries

Q2.2026 Main 64/4/1 · Q121 mark

Read the following water conservation measures adopted in the Ralegan Siddhi village carefully and choose most appropriate option.

  1. Constructing percolation tanks
  2. Repairing the embankments
  3. Emphasising stall-feeding of animals
  4. Formation of ‘Old Mandals’

Options :

  1. Only I, II and III are correct.
  2. Only I, II and IV are correct.
  3. Only I, III and IV are correct.
  4. Only II, III and IV are correct.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/4/1

(A) Only I, II and III are correct.

Q3.2026 Supp. 64/7/1 · Q111 mark

Which one of the following tasks was primarily taken up by the ‘Arvari Pani Sansad’ ?

  1. Building infrastructure for water distribution to homes
  2. Constructing structures for water harvesting
  3. Constructing canals for irrigation
  4. Building check dams for water storage
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/7/1

(B) Constructing structures for water harvesting

Q4.2026 Supp. 64/7/1 · Q121 mark

Which of the following evils were advised to be stopped by a retired army personnel in Ralegan Siddhi village ? Choose the most appropriate option.

  1. Open grazing
  2. Voluntary labour
  3. Felling trees
  4. Drinking liquor

Options :

  1. Only I, II and III are correct.
  2. Only I, II and IV are correct.
  3. Only I, III and IV are correct.
  4. Only II, III and IV are correct.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/7/1

(C) Only I, III and IV are correct.

Q5.2025 Main 64/2/1 · Q101 mark

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option : 1

Assertion (A) : ‘The agriculturally rich states of Punjab, Haryana and western Uttar Pradesh are facing the crisis of groundwater depletion.’

Reason (R) : ‘More groundwater is utilised for irrigation than water-table recharge.’

Options :

  1. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct reason of (A).
  2. Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct reason of (A).
  3. (A) is not correct, but (R) is correct.
  4. (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/2/1

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Q6.2025 Main 64/5/1 · Q71 mark

Choose the correct group of states utilizing their groundwater resource moderately.

  1. Uttar Pradesh, Haryana, Rajasthan
  2. Chhattisgarh, Kerala, Punjab
  3. Gujarat, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar
  4. Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/5/1

(C) Gujarat, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar

Q7.2025 Supp. 64/S/1 · Q121 mark

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option.

Assertion (A) : In India, the per capita availability of water is continuously decreasing.

Reason (R) : Greater increase in population and degradation of water resources are the main reasons.

Options :

  1. Assertion (A) is correct, but Reason (R) is incorrect.
  2. Assertion (A) is incorrect, but Reason (R) is correct.
  3. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  4. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/S/1

(C) Both (A) and (R) are correct and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).

Q8.2025 Supp. 64/S/1 · Q131 mark

Read the following points with regard to increase in water availability for use and choose the most appropriate option.

  1. Recycle and reuse of water
  2. Washing cars for keeping them clean
  3. Use of low quality water for cooling in industries
  4. Domestic use water for gardening

Options :

  1. Only I, II and III are correct.
  2. Only I, III and IV are correct.
  3. Only I, II and IV are correct.
  4. Only II, III and IV are correct.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/S/1

(B) Only I, III and IV are correct.

Q9.2024 Main 64/2/1 · Q91 mark

Choose the correct option to fill in the blank :

The groundwater utilization is very high in ________. If the present trend of groundwater utilization continues, it would be very difficult to meet the water needs.

  1. Punjab
  2. Odisha
  3. Kerala
  4. Chhattisgarh
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/2/1

(A) Punjab

Q10.2024 Main 64/5/1 · Q11 mark

‘Neeru-Meeru’ watershed management programme is associated with which of the following states ?

  1. Rajasthan
  2. Tamil Nadu
  3. Andhra Pradesh
  4. Karnataka
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/5/1

(C) Andhra Pradesh

Q11.2024 Main 64/5/1 · Q21 mark

Which of the following is a means of mass awareness regarding ‘water conservation’ ?

  1. Writing letters to the people.
  2. Telephonic conversation
  3. Through T.V. and Print Media
  4. Personal contact with people
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/5/1

(C) Through T.V and Print media.

Q12.2024 Main 64/5/1 · Q31 mark

Which one of the following is the main objective of ‘Jal Kranti Abhiyan’ ?

  1. Per capita water availability assurance
  2. Rain-water harvesting
  3. Conservation of water resources
  4. Providing sufficient water for agriculture
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/5/1

(A) Per Capita water availability assurance

Q13.2024 Supp. 64/S/1 · Q71 mark

Which one of the following sectors utilizes the highest surface and groundwater in India ?

  1. Industrial
  2. Power
  3. Agricultural
  4. Domestic
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/S/1

(C) Agricultural

Q14.2024 Supp. 64/S/1 · Q81 mark

‘Haryali’ – a watershed development project in India is sponsored by which one of the following ?

  1. Central Government
  2. State Governments
  3. District Administration
  4. Non-Governmental Organisation
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/S/1

(A) Central Government

Q15.2023 Main 64/3/1 · Q81 mark

Which one of the following rivers is highly polluted ?

  1. Kosi
  2. Ravi
  3. Narmada
  4. Yamuna
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/3/1

(d) Yamuna

Q16.2023 Main 64/5/1 · Q151 mark

Read the following source and answer the question no. 15 to 17.

A Case Study

Jhabua district is located in the westernmost agro-climatic zone in Madhya Pradesh. It is, in fact, one of the five most backward districts of the country. It is characterized by high concentration of tribal population (mostly Bhils). The people suffer due to poverty which has been accentuated by the high rate of resource degradation, both forest and land. The watershed management programmes funded by both the Ministries of “Rural Development” and “Agriculture”, Government of India, have been successfully implemented in Jhabua district which has gone a long way in preventing land degradation and improving soil quality. Watershed Management Programmes acknowledge the linkage between land, water and vegetation and attempts to improve livelihoods of people through natural resource management and community participation. In the past five years the programmes funded by the Ministry of Rural Development alone (implemented by Rajiv Gandhi Mission for Watershed Management) has treated 20 percent of the total area under Jhabua district.

The Petlawad Development block of Jhabua is located in the northernmost part of the district and represents an interesting and successful case of Government-NGO partnership and community participation in managing watershed programmes. The Bhils in Petlawad Development block, for example, (Sat Rundi hamlet of Karravat village) through their own efforts, have revitalized large parts of common property resources. Each household planted and maintained one tree on the common property. They also have planted fodder grass on the pasture land and adopted social-fencing of these lands for at least two years. Even after that, they say, there would be no open grazing on these lands, but stall feeding of cattle, and they are thus confident that the pastures they have developed would sustain their cattle in future.

An interesting aspect of this experience is that before the community embarked upon the process of management of the pasture, there was encroachment on this land by a villager from an adjoining village. The villagers called the tehsildar to ascertain the rights of the common land. The ensuing conflict was tackled by the villagers by offering to make the defaulter encroaching on the CPR a member of their user group and sharing the benefits of greening the common lands / pastures.

Why did the people of Jhabua tribal community suffer from poverty ? Choose the option which is NOT correct.

  1. High rate of forests degradation
  2. Land degradation
  3. Illiteracy
  4. Implementation of watershed management
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/5/1

(D) Implementation of watershed management

Q17.2023 Main 64/5/1 · Q161 mark

Read the following source and answer the question no. 15 to 17.

A Case Study

Jhabua district is located in the westernmost agro-climatic zone in Madhya Pradesh. It is, in fact, one of the five most backward districts of the country. It is characterized by high concentration of tribal population (mostly Bhils). The people suffer due to poverty which has been accentuated by the high rate of resource degradation, both forest and land. The watershed management programmes funded by both the Ministries of “Rural Development” and “Agriculture”, Government of India, have been successfully implemented in Jhabua district which has gone a long way in preventing land degradation and improving soil quality. Watershed Management Programmes acknowledge the linkage between land, water and vegetation and attempts to improve livelihoods of people through natural resource management and community participation. In the past five years the programmes funded by the Ministry of Rural Development alone (implemented by Rajiv Gandhi Mission for Watershed Management) has treated 20 percent of the total area under Jhabua district.

The Petlawad Development block of Jhabua is located in the northernmost part of the district and represents an interesting and successful case of Government-NGO partnership and community participation in managing watershed programmes. The Bhils in Petlawad Development block, for example, (Sat Rundi hamlet of Karravat village) through their own efforts, have revitalized large parts of common property resources. Each household planted and maintained one tree on the common property. They also have planted fodder grass on the pasture land and adopted social-fencing of these lands for at least two years. Even after that, they say, there would be no open grazing on these lands, but stall feeding of cattle, and they are thus confident that the pastures they have developed would sustain their cattle in future.

An interesting aspect of this experience is that before the community embarked upon the process of management of the pasture, there was encroachment on this land by a villager from an adjoining village. The villagers called the tehsildar to ascertain the rights of the common land. The ensuing conflict was tackled by the villagers by offering to make the defaulter encroaching on the CPR a member of their user group and sharing the benefits of greening the common lands / pastures.

How did people manage to develop pasture lands ? Choose the correct option.

  1. Use of barbed wire to protect pastures.
  2. Pasture lands were not under any encroachment.
  3. Pastures were common property resources, hence they developed it.
  4. Govt. officials did not interfere in any work of the villagers.
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(C) Pastures were common property resources, hence they developed it.

Q18.2023 Main 64/5/1 · Q171 mark

Read the following source and answer the question no. 15 to 17.

A Case Study

Jhabua district is located in the westernmost agro-climatic zone in Madhya Pradesh. It is, in fact, one of the five most backward districts of the country. It is characterized by high concentration of tribal population (mostly Bhils). The people suffer due to poverty which has been accentuated by the high rate of resource degradation, both forest and land. The watershed management programmes funded by both the Ministries of “Rural Development” and “Agriculture”, Government of India, have been successfully implemented in Jhabua district which has gone a long way in preventing land degradation and improving soil quality. Watershed Management Programmes acknowledge the linkage between land, water and vegetation and attempts to improve livelihoods of people through natural resource management and community participation. In the past five years the programmes funded by the Ministry of Rural Development alone (implemented by Rajiv Gandhi Mission for Watershed Management) has treated 20 percent of the total area under Jhabua district.

The Petlawad Development block of Jhabua is located in the northernmost part of the district and represents an interesting and successful case of Government-NGO partnership and community participation in managing watershed programmes. The Bhils in Petlawad Development block, for example, (Sat Rundi hamlet of Karravat village) through their own efforts, have revitalized large parts of common property resources. Each household planted and maintained one tree on the common property. They also have planted fodder grass on the pasture land and adopted social-fencing of these lands for at least two years. Even after that, they say, there would be no open grazing on these lands, but stall feeding of cattle, and they are thus confident that the pastures they have developed would sustain their cattle in future.

An interesting aspect of this experience is that before the community embarked upon the process of management of the pasture, there was encroachment on this land by a villager from an adjoining village. The villagers called the tehsildar to ascertain the rights of the common land. The ensuing conflict was tackled by the villagers by offering to make the defaulter encroaching on the CPR a member of their user group and sharing the benefits of greening the common lands / pastures.

How did the Bhils, through their own efforts revitalise the common property resources ? Choose the correct option.

  1. Common land was brought under cultivation.
  2. They controlled open grazing on the common property resources.
  3. No tree plantation was taken up.
  4. They developed water resources.
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(B) They controlled open grazing on the common property resources.

Q19.SQP 2025-26 · Q131 mark

Which of the following statements correctly describe the objectives of the Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY)?

  1. To promote the exclusive use of traditional irrigation methods in rain-fed areas.
  2. To ensure access to protective irrigation for all agricultural farms and expand cultivable areas under assured irrigation.
  3. To integrate water resources, distribution, and efficient usage through technologies like "Per Drop More Crop."
  4. To introduce sustainable water conservation practices and improve on-farm water use efficiency.
  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 2, 3, and 4 only
  3. 1, 2, and 4 only
  4. 1, 2, 3 and 4
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(B) 2, 3, and 4 only

Q20.SQP 2025-26 · Q141 mark

As a policymaker, tasked with fostering behavioural changes in the community to shift from a prevailing attitude of consumption to one focused on conservation and smart water management, which of the following programs would you prioritize for implementation?

  1. Arvary Pani Sansad
  2. Atal Bhujal Yojana
  3. National Water Policy, 2012
  4. Jal Kranti Abhiyan
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(B) Atal Bhujal Yojana

Q21.SQP 2026-27 · Q121 mark

The map given below shows the major river basins of India. Identify the river basin that covers the states of UP, Bihar and West Bengal.

  1. Krishna Basin
  2. Pennar Basin
  3. Ganga Basin
  4. Indus Basin

Figure

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(C) Ganga Basin

Q22.SQP 2026-27 · Q141 mark

There is a declining availability of freshwater and increasing demand from different sectors of the economy in our country. Now the need has arisen to conserve and effectively manage this precious life giving resource for sustainable development. Suggest measures that can be adopted to solve this problem.

  1. Free and easy access of water to industries.
  2. Constructing new, large-scale dams for irrigation purposes.
  3. Implementing rainwater harvesting, recycling and reusing wastewater.
  4. Extracting more groundwater to increase supply.
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(C) Implementing rainwater harvesting, recycling and reusing wastewater.

Q23.2024 Main 64/4/1 · Q213 marks

(a) Analyse any three objectives of ‘Jal Kranti Abhiyan’ in India.

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(i) Ensure water security through per capita availability of water in the country.

(ii) To ensure water conservation and management through traditional methods in different regions of India.

(iii) It aims at involving local bodies, NGOs and cititzen’s, at large, in creating awareness regarding its objectives.

(iv) Any other relevant point

(Any three points to be Analysed)

3x1=3

Q24.2024 Main 64/4/1 · Q21 (OR)3 marks

(b) Analyse any three key features of ‘Indian National Water Policy’.

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(i) Irrigation and multi-purpose projects should invariably include drinking water component, wherever there is no alternative source of drinking water.

(ii) Providing drinking water to all human beings and animals should be the first priority.

(iii) Measures should be taken to limit and regulate the exploitation of groundwater.

(iv) Both surface and groundwater should be regularly monitored for quality. A phased programme should be undertaken for improving water quality.

(v) The efficiency of utilisation in all the diverse uses of water should be improved.

(vi) Awareness of water as a scarce resource should be fostered.

(vii) Conservation consciousness should be promoted through education, regulation, incentives and disincentives.

(viii) Any other relevant point

(Any three points to be Analysed)

3x1=3

Q25.2023 Main 64/3/1 · Q193 marks

Read the case study given below and answer the questions that follow : 3×1=3

Case Study : A Role Model to Restore the Ecology and Safeguard Human Health in Daurala

Based on the universal law “Polluter pays”, effort to restore the ecology and safeguard the human health with people’s participation has taken place in Daurala near Meerut. These efforts are now bearing fruits after a span of three years when a Meerut based NGO had developed a model for ecological restoration. The meeting of the Daurala industries officials, NGOs, Government officials and other stakeholders at Meerut has brought out results. The powerful logics, authentic studies and the pressure of people have brought a new lease of life to the twelve thousand residents of this village. It was in the year 2003 that the pitiable condition of Dauralaites drew the attention of the civil society. The groundwater of this village was contaminated with heavy metals. The reason was that the untreated wastewater of Daurala industries was leaching to the groundwater table. The NGOs conducted a door-to-door survey of the health status of the residents and came out with a report. The organisation, the village community and people’s representatives sat together to find out sustainable solutions to the health problem. The industrialists showed a keen interest towards checking the deteriorating ecology. The overhead water tank’s capacity in the village was enhanced and a 900 m extra pipeline was laid to supply potable water to the community. The silted pond of the village was cleaned and recharged by desilting it. Large quantity of silt was removed paving way to large quantity of water so that it recharged the aquifers, Rainwater harvesting structures have been constructed at different places which has helped in diluting the contaminants of the groundwater after the monsoon. 1000 trees have also been planted which have improved the environment.

(19.1) What is meant by water pollution ? 1
(19.2) Explain the role of industrialists in checking the deteriorating ecology. 1
(19.3) Analyse the contribution of the NGO in Daurala’s problem. 1

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(19.1) Water gets contaminated with heavy metals. (1)

(19.2) Over head water tank’s capacity was enhanced and 900 m extra pipeline was laid to supply portable water / the silted pond was cleaned and recharged by desilting. (1)

(19.3) NGO developed a model for ecological restoration and conducted a door to door survey of the health status of the residents and came out with a report. (1)

Q26.2023 Main 64/3/1 · Q233 marks

Explain any three factors responsible for the depletion of water resources in India. 3

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Factors responsible for the depletion of water resources in India

  1. Sewage disposal in rivers.
  2. Urban runoff.
  3. Toxic matter from industries.
  4. Use of fertilizers and pesticides.
  5. Demand of water for irrigation, urbanisation, industrilisation, and domestic purposes.
  6. Uneven distribution of rainfall.
  7. Any other relevant point

Any three points to be explained 3×1=3

Q27.2023 Main 64/5/1 · Q233 marks

(a) “A declining availability of fresh water and increasing demand are the compelling reasons for conservation and effective management of water in India.” Justify the statement.

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  1. Water is precious life giving resource for sustainable development.
  2. For desalination of ocean water the cost is very very high.
  3. It is for India to take quick steps to formulate effective policies and laws or water conservation.
  4. Water-saving technologies must be adopted.
  5. Need to encourage watershed development and rainwater harvesting.
  6. Water recycling and reuse ensure sustainable water supply in long run.

1×3=3

Q28.2023 Main 64/5/1 · Q23 (OR)3 marks

(b) “The Central and State Governments have initiated many watershed development and management programmes in the country.” Justify the statement.

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  1. Haryali is a watershed development project sponsored by the Central Government which aims at enabling the rural population.
  2. Neeru-Meeru Programme – Andhra Pradesh Government.
  3. Tamil Nadu has made water-harvesting structures in the houses compulsory.
  4. Any other relevant point.

(Any three points to be explained) 1×3=3

Q29.2023 Supp. 64/C/1 · Q183 marks

Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow : 3×1=3

There is a wide scope to use rainwater harvesting technique to conserve precious water resource. It can be done by harvesting rainwater on rooftops and open spaces. Harvesting rainwater also decreases the community dependence on groundwater for domestic use. Besides bridging the demand-supply gap, it can also save energy to pump groundwater as recharge leads to rise in groundwater table. These days rainwater harvesting is being taken up on a massive scale in many states in the country. Urban areas can specially benefit from rainwater harvesting as water demand has already outstripped supply in most of the cities and towns.

Apart from the above mentioned factors, the issue of desalinisation of water, particularly in coastal areas and brackish water in arid and semi-arid areas, transfer of water from water-surplus areas to water-deficit areas through interlinking of rivers can be important remedies for solving the water problem in India.

(18.1) How can rainwater harvesting be done ? 1
(18.2) How can rainwater harvesting help in saving energy in pumping groundwater ? 1
(18.3) Explain any one positive outcome of interlinking of rivers in India. ½+½=1

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(18.1) It can be done by harvesting rainwater on rooftops and open spaces. (1)

(18.2) Recharge of the groundwater leads to raise the groundwater table. It save energy to pump ground water to the surface. (1)

(18.3) It helps in transfer of water from water surplus areas to water deficit areas. (1)

3×1=3

Q30.2026 Main 64/5/1 · Q275 marks

“The intensive irrigation in the areas of successful ‘green revolution’ have both positive and negative impacts.” Analyse the statement. 5

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Positive Impacts :

  1. Provision of irrigation makes multiple cropping possible.
  2. Irrigated lands have higher agricultural productivity than unirrigated lands.
  3. The HYV crops need regular moisture supply which is made possible only by a developed irrigation system.
  4. Wheat and Rice are grown mainly with the help of irrigation in the states like Punjab, Haryana and Western UP.
  5. Any other relevant point.

3×1=3

Negative impacts :

  1. The over use of ground water resources in Punjab, Haryana, Western UP has led to the decline of ground water which is going to impact food production.
  2. Salinity, alkalinity is increasing in the soil which affects growth of crops negatively.
  3. In some parts, accumulation of arsenic matter is taking place.
  4. Any other relevant point.

2×1=2

(Any five points to be analysed giving three from positive and two from negative – If the student writes the vice versa that should also be considered.) 5×1=5

Q31.2026 Main 64/5/1 · Q27 (OR)5 marks

“The groundwater utilization is very high in the states where ‘green revolution’ is successful.” Analyse the statement. 5

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  1. Green Revolution strategy of agricultural development in the country has largely been successful in Punjab, Haryana and Western UP due to developed irrigational system.
  2. In Punjab, Haryana and Western UP, more than 85% of their net sown area is under irrigation.
  3. Of the total net irrigated area, 76.1% in Punjab is irrigated through wells and tube wells.
  4. In Haryana 51.3% of the net irrigated area is irrigated through wells and tube wells.
  5. The HYV crops need regular moisture supply which is made possible only by a developed irrigation system mainly through wells and tubewells.
  6. The over use of ground water resources has led to decline in the ground water table in the states of Punjab and Haryana.
  7. Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be analysed) 5×1=5

Q32.2025 Main 64/4/1 · Q265 marks

“India’s water demand is highly dominated by irrigational needs.” Evaluate the statement. 5

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  1. In agriculture, water is mainly used for irrigation as irrigation is needed due to the spatio-temporal variability of rainfall in the country.
  2. The large tracts of the country are deficient in rainfall and are drought prone. For example, North-western India and Deccan Plateau constitute such areas.
  3. Winter and summer seasons are more or less dry in most parts of the country.
  4. It is difficult to practise agriculture without assured irrigation during dry seasons.
  5. In the areas of ample rainfall, breaks in monsoon or its failure creates dry spells detrimental for agriculture.
  6. Certain crops like rice, sugarcane (High yeilding varieties) need regular moisture supply which is made possible only by a developed irrigational system.
  7. Irrigation makes multiple cropping possible.
  8. Irrigated lands have higher agricultural productivity than unirrigated lands.
  9. Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be evaluated) 5×1=5

Q33.2025 Main 64/4/1 · Q26 (OR)5 marks

“In India, water resources are getting polluted with industrial effluents, domestic waste and insecticides used in agriculture.” Evaluate the statement. 5

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  1. The available water resources are getting polluted with industrial, agricultural and domestic effluents.
  2. It is limiting the availability of usable water resource.
  3. Water gets polluted by foreign matters, such as micro-organisms, chemicals, industrial and other wastes.
  4. The drains carrying agricultural (fertilizers and insecticides) domestic (Solid and liquid wastes) and industrial effluents join the rivers.
  5. The concentration of pollutants in rivers remains very high during the summer season.
  6. Toxic substances enter in different water bodies; they get dissolved or lie suspended in water.
  7. In results, quality of water deteriorates; affects aquatic systems.
  8. Whenever these pollutants seep down it then pollutes groundwater.
  9. Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be evaluated) 5×1=5

Q34.2025 Main 64/6/1 · Q275 marks

(a) Explain the main objectives of ‘Jal Kranti Abhiyan’ in India.

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Main objectives of ‘Jal Kranti Abhiyan’ in India :-

  1. To ensure water security through per capita availability of water in the country.
  2. It aims at involving local bodies, NGO’s and citizens, at large, in creating awareness regarding its objectives.
  3. To provide livelihood and food security through water security.
  4. Many activities have been proposed under Jal Kranti Abhiyan like selection of one water stressed village to create a ‘Jal Gram.’
  5. Water conservation and artificial recharge.
  6. Reducing ground water pollution.
  7. Construction of Arsenic free wells in selected areas.
  8. Identification of model command area in different parts of the country.
  9. Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be explained.) 5×1=5

Q35.2025 Main 64/6/1 · Q27 (OR)5 marks

(b) Explain the different methods of rainwater harvesting in India.

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Different methods of rainwater harvesting in India are :-

  1. Traditional rainwater harvesting method includes surface storage bodies like lake, ponds etc.
  2. Depending on the region, different methods has been practiced in the country like Tanka in Rajasthan.
  3. Roof top rainwater harvesting.
  4. Surface runoff harvesting.
  5. Recharge wells harvesting.
  6. Community participation and awareness.
  7. Watershed development.
  8. Harvesting through service wells.
  9. Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be explained.) 5×1=5

Q36.2023 Main 64/4/1 · Q275 marks

Explain with examples how watershed management and rainwater harvesting help in conserving water resources in India. 2½+2½=5

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Watershed Management

  1. Watershed Management is a way of efficient water management.
  2. It includes conservation, regeneration and judicious use of all natural and human resources with a watershed area.
  3. It involves prevention of runoff.
  4. It helps in storage and recharge of groundwater through various methods like recharge wells percolation tanks etc.
  5. Examples of watershed management: Haryali, Neeru-Meeru & Aryaya Pani Sansad.
  6. Any other relevant point.

To be examined as a whole. 2.5

Rainwater Harvesting

  1. Rainwater harvesting is an effective method of recharging aquifers.
  2. It is a low cost and eco-friendly technique of preserving water.
  3. Rainwater can be preserved and guided to bore-wells, pits or wells to recharge the underground water.
  4. It improves the quality of groundwater, increases the groundwater table, prevents flooding & soil erosion and arrest the salt water intrusion in the coastal areas.
  5. Examples of rain water harvesting: Service wells, Recharge wells, Tanka/ Kund. Check dams, Rooftop rainwater harvesting etc.
  6. Any other relevant point.

(To be examined as a whole.) 2.5

2.5+2.5=5

Part B · India: People and Economy

5. Mineral and Energy Resources

Q1.2026 Main 64/2/1 · Q71 mark

Arrange the following coal mining areas of India from south to north direction of their location and choose the correct option : 1

  1. Singareni
  2. Neyveli
  3. Jharia
  4. Talchar

Options :

  1. II, I, III, IV
  2. II, I, IV, III
  3. I, II, IV, III
  4. I, II, III, IV
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(B) II, I, IV, III

Q2.2026 Main 64/2/1 · Q91 mark

Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option : 1

Column-I
(Mineral)
Column-II
(Major Mines)
a. Iron-orei. Katni
b. Manganeseii. Bhilwara
c. Bauxiteiii. Chandrapur
d. Copperiv. Sundargarh

Options :

abcd
(A)iviiiiii
(B)iiiiviii
(C)iiiiviii
(D)iviiiiii
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(C) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii

Q3.2026 Main 64/2/1 · Q101 mark

Read the information given in the box carefully and identify the mineral : 1

  • It is a non-ferrous ore.
  • Odisha is the largest producer state.
  • It is used in manufacturing of aluminium.

Options :

  1. Copper
  2. Mica
  3. Bauxite
  4. Manganese
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(C) Bauxite

Q4.2026 Main 64/4/1 · Q101 mark

Arrange the following oil refineries of Assam according to their location from the west to the east and choose the correct option.

  1. Guwahati
  2. Numaligarh
  3. Bongaigaon
  4. Digboi

Options :

  1. I, III, II, IV
  2. I, III, IV, II
  3. III, I, IV, II
  4. III, I, II, IV
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(D) III, I, II, IV

Q5.2026 Supp. 64/7/1 · Q101 mark

Arrange the following Bauxite mining areas of India according to their location from north to south and choose the correct option.

  1. Bilaspur
  2. Koraput
  3. Katni
  4. Amarkantak

Options :

  1. III, II, IV, I
  2. III, II, I, IV
  3. III, IV, II, I
  4. III, IV, I, II
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(D) III, IV, I, II

Q6.2025 Main 64/1/1 · Q61 mark

Arrange the following oil refineries of India from south to north direction as per their locations and choose the correct option :

  1. Mumbai
  2. Kochchi
  3. Kayali
  4. Mangaluru

Options :

  1. ii, iv, iii and i
  2. ii, iv, i and iii
  3. iv, ii, i and iii
  4. iv, ii, iii and i
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(B) ii, iv, i and iii

Q7.2025 Main 64/4/1 · Q61 mark

Choose the correct option of group of states of iron ore reserves from high to low.

  1. Odisha, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh
  2. Maharashtra, Jharkhand, Andhra Pradesh
  3. Odisha, Tamil Nadu, Telangana
  4. Chhattisgarh, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh
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(A) Odisha, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh

Q8.2025 Main 64/5/1 · Q61 mark

Arrange the following states from the highest to the lowest order according to their production of Bauxite and choose the correct option.

I. Odisha   II. Gujarat   III. Chhattisgarh   IV. Madhya Pradesh

Options :

  1. III, II, I, IV
  2. IV, I, III, II
  3. I, II, III, IV
  4. III, IV, II, I
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(C) I, II, III, IV

Q9.2024 Main 64/2/1 · Q101 mark

Choose the correct option to fill in the blank in the flow chart :

Figure

Options :

  1. Gold
  2. Bauxite
  3. Graphite
  4. Manganese
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/2/1

(C) Graphite

Q10.2024 Main 64/4/1 · Q71 mark

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option.

Assertion (A) : The economic development of a region depends upon its resource base.

Reason (R) : Economic development requires technologies as well as investment.

Options :

  1. (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
  2. (A) is false, but (R) is correct.
  3. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  4. Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
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(C) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Q11.2024 Main 64/5/1 · Q71 mark

Which one of the following states in India is the leading producer of manganese ?

  1. Jharkhand
  2. Madhya Pradesh
  3. Odisha
  4. Bihar
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(C) Odisha.

Q12.2024 Main 64/5/1 · Q81 mark

Which one of the following is the largest coalfields in India ?

  1. Jharia
  2. Raniganj
  3. Neyveli
  4. Bokaro
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(A) Jharia.

Q13.2023 Supp. 64/C/1 · Q61 mark

Which of the following is correctly matched ?

Name of the State – Iron-ore Mining Centres

  1. Odisha – Bailadila
  2. Chhattisgarh – Badampahar
  3. Karnataka – Bellary
  4. Maharashtra – Mayurbhanj
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/C/1

(c) Karnataka – Bellary

Q14.2023 Supp. 64/C/1 · Q81 mark

Identify the correct order of location from east to west for major copper deposits of India.

  1. Singhbhum, Balaghat, Jhunjhunu, Alwar
  2. Alwar, Jhunjhunu, Balaghat, Singhbhum
  3. Singhbhum, Balaghat, Alwar, Jhunjhunu
  4. Balaghat, Alwar, Singhbhum, Jhunjhunu
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/C/1

(c) Singhbhum, Balaghat, Alwar, Jhunjhunu

Q15.2023 Supp. 64/C/1 · Q111 mark

Kakrapara nuclear power project is located in which one of the following State ?

  1. Maharashtra
  2. Gujarat
  3. Karnataka
  4. Tamil Nadu
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/C/1

(b) Gujarat

Q16.SQP 2025-26 · Q151 mark

Assertion (A): Bio-energy is a sustainable and versatile source of energy that can be converted into electrical energy, heat energy, or gas for cooking.

Reason (R): Bio-energy not only processes waste and garbage to produce energy but also reduces environmental pollution, enhances self-reliance, and improves the economic life of rural areas in developing countries.

Options:

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26

(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).

Q17.SQP 2026-27 · Q131 mark

Assertion(A): The Iron and steel industry in India is majorly concentrated in the north eastern part of the Peninsular Plateau.
Reason(R): Most of the metallic minerals in India occur in the peninsular plateau region in the old crystalline rocks.

  1. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
  2. Both A and R are correct and R is not the correct explanation of A.
  3. A is correct but R is incorrect.
  4. R is incorrect but A is correct.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of A.

Q18.2022 Main 64/1/1 · Q32 marks

(a) Mention any four features of the ‘North-Eastern Plateau Region’ mineral belt of India. ½ × 4 = 2

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2022 (Main), Set 64/1/1

Features of the North-Eastern plateau region :

  1. This belt covers Chhotanagpur (Jharkhand), Odisha plateau, West Bengal and parts of Chhattisgarh.
  2. It has variety of minerals.
  3. Main minerals found are iron ore, coal, manganese, bauxite, mica.
  4. It has huge deposits of energy resource e.g. coal.
  5. Any other relevant point.

Any four points to be mentioned 2

Q19.2022 Main 64/1/1 · Q3 (OR)2 marks

(b) Mention any four features of the ‘South-Western Plateau Region’ mineral belt of India. ½ × 4 = 2

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2022 (Main), Set 64/1/1

Main features of the South-Western plateau region :

  1. This belt extends over Karnataka, Goa and contiguous TamilNadu uplands and Kerala.
  2. This belt is rich in ferrous metals and bauxite.
  3. It also contains high grade iron ore, manganese and limestone.
  4. It also has deposits of monazite and thorium in Kerala.
  5. Any other relevant point.

Any four points to be mentioned. 2

Q20.2022 Main 64/2/1 · Q32 marks

(a) Mention any four features of the ‘North-Western Region’ mineral belt in India. 4×½=2

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2022 (Main), Set 64/2/1
  1. This belt extends along Aravalli in Rajasthan and part of Gujarat and minerals are associated with Dharwar system of rocks.
  2. Copper, zinc are major minerals.
  3. Rajasthan is rich in building stones, i.e., sandstone, granite, marble etc.
  4. Gujarat is known for it’s Petroleum deposits
  5. Any other relevant point

Any two points to be mentioned. 1×2=2

Q21.2022 Main 64/2/1 · Q3 (OR)2 marks

(b) Mention any four characteristics of ‘metallic minerals’. 4×½=2

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2022 (Main), Set 64/2/1
  1. Metallic minerals are the sources of metals.
  2. Iron-ore, copper and gold ore produce metals and are included in this category.
  3. Metallic minerals are further divided into ferrous and non-ferrous metallic minerals.
  4. Ferrous minerals have iron content such as Iron ore and those which do not have Iron content are non- ferrous such as Copper and bauxite.
  5. It can be mixed with other form of minerals.
  6. Any other point.

Any four points to be mentioned. ½×4=2

Q22.2022 Main 64/3/1 · Q32 marks

(a) Mention any four features of non-metallic minerals in India. ½ × 4 = 2

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2022 (Main), Set 64/3/1

Features of non-metallic mineral :

  1. Non-metallic minerals are either organic in origin such as fossil fuels also known as mineral fuels.
  2. They are derived from the buried animal and plant life such as coal and petroleum.
  3. Other type of non-metallic minerals are in organic in origin.
  4. Mica, limestone and graphite are other examples of non-metallic minerals.
  5. They are unevenly distributed over space, they are exhaustable and take long time to develop.
  6. Any other relevant point

Any four points to be mentioned. (TB II page 73) ½×4=2

Q23.2022 Main 64/3/1 · Q3 (OR)2 marks

(b) Mention any four features of ‘Geothermal energy’ in India. ½ × 4 = 2

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2022 (Main), Set 64/3/1

Features of geothermal energy :

  1. When the magma from the interior of earth comes out on the surface, tremendous heat is released.
  2. This heat energy can successfully be tapped and converted to electric energy.
  3. Apart from this, the hot water that gushes out through the geyser wells is also used in the generation of thermal energy.
  4. This energy is now considered to be one of the key energy sources.
  5. They are renewable source of energy.
  6. They are confined in Himachal Pradesh.
  7. Any other relevant point

Any four points to be mentioned. (TB II page 83) ½×4=2

Q24.2022 Main 64/5/1 · Q32 marks

(a) Explain any two ways to conserve minerals in India.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2022 (Main), Set 64/5/1
  1. By using alternatives
  2. By using scrap metal
  3. Reuse wherever possible
  4. Recycle wherever possible
  5. Export of minerals must be reduced
  6. Any other relevant point.

(Any two points to be explained) [TB-II, Pg-83] 2x1=2

Q25.2022 Main 64/5/1 · Q3 (OR)2 marks

(b) Why should the non-conventional sources of energy be promoted ? Explain.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2022 (Main), Set 64/5/1
  1. Limited quantity of non-conventional sources of energy
  2. Non-renewability of fossil fuels
  3. Non excitable source.
  4. Pollution-free and clean source.
  5. Any other relevant point.

(Any two points to be explained) [TB-II, Pg-80]

Q26.2025 Main 64/1/1 · Q223 marks

Why should non-conventional sources of energy be used in India for sustainable development ? Explain with examples.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/1/1
  1. Sustainable development requires integration of quest for economic development with environmental concerns.
  2. Traditional methods of resource use result into generating enormous quantity of waste as well as create other environmental problems like pollution.
  3. It calls for the protection of resources for the future generations.
  4. The alternative sources of energy like Solar power, wind, wave, geo-thermal energy are inexhaustible.
  5. Non-conventional sources of energy are more cost effective than the conventional sources of energy particularly petroleum as the import cost of petroleum is higher.
  6. Any other relevant point

(Any three points to be explained.) 3×1=3

Q27.2025 Main 64/4/1 · Q223 marks

Distinguish between metallic and non-metallic minerals with example. 3

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/4/1
  1. Metallic minerals are divided into ferrous and non-ferrous depending on iron content and non-metallic minerals are divided into organic and inorganic depending on origin.
  2. Ferrous metallic minerals are Iron, Manganese etc. and Organic non-metallic minerals are Fossil fuels which are also known as mineral fuels as they are derived from the buried animal and plant life such as coal and petroleum.
  3. Non-ferrous metallic minerals are Copper, Bauxite etc. and Inorganic non-metallic minerals are mica, limestone and graphite etc.
  4. Any other relevant point.

(Any three points for each to be given to distinguish) 3×1=3

Q28.2025 Main 64/5/1 · Q223 marks

Why does ‘solar thermal energy’ have greater advantage over ‘non-renewable energy’ in India ? Explain. 3

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/5/1
  1. Sun rays tapped in photovoltaic cells can be converted into energy known as solar energy.
  2. It is cost competitive.
  3. Environment friendly.
  4. Easy to construct a solar plant.
  5. It is more effective than other sources of energy like coal, oil and nuclear-based plants.
  6. It is an inexhaustible source of energy.
  7. Any other relevant point.

(Any three points to be explained.) 3×1=3

Q29.2024 Supp. 64/S/1 · Q233 marks

Examine the potential of Solar Energy in India.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/S/1
  1. India has a great potential in tapping solar energy as India is a tropical country.
  2. Electricity is directly generated from sunlight with the help of photovoltaic technology.
  3. Solar thermal technology has some relatively advantages over all other non-renewable energy sources.
  4. It is cost competitive, environment friendly and easy to construct.
  5. Solar energy is 7 percent more effective than coal or oil based plants and 10 percent more effective than nuclear plants.
  6. The western part of India has greater potential for the development of solar energy.
  7. Any other relevant point.

(Any three points to be examined.) 3x1=3

Q30.2023 Main 64/1/1 · Q233 marks

(a) Mention the main characteristics of the mineral belt of ‘South-Western Plateau Region’ of India. 3

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/1/1

The characteristics of the mineral belt of SW Plateau region of India are-

  1. This belt extends over Karnataka, Goa, and contiguous Tamil Nadu uplands and Kerala.
  2. This belt is rich in ferrous metals and bauxite.
  3. It also contains high grade iron ore, manganese and limestone.
  4. This belt lacks in coal deposits except the Neyveli lignite mines.
  5. Any other relevant point.

Any three points to be mentioned. 3×1=3

Q31.2023 Main 64/1/1 · Q23 (OR)3 marks

(b) Mention the main characteristics of mineral belt of ‘North-Western Region’ of India. 3

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/1/1

The characteristics of the mineral belt of NW Region of India are-

  1. This belt extends along Aravali in Rajasthan and part of Gujarat.
  2. Minerals are associated with Dharwar system of rocks.
  3. Copper, zinc have been major minerals.
  4. Rajasthan is rich in building stones, i.e. sandstone, granite, marble etc.
  5. Any other relevant point.

Any three points to be mentioned. 3×1=3

Q32.2023 Main 64/2/1 · Q233 marks

(a) Describe coal as source of conventional energy in India.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/2/1

Coal as a source of conventional energy in India.

  1. It is exhaustible resource.
  2. Coal is one of the important mineral which is mainly used in the generation of thermal power.
  3. Coal is also used in smelting of iron ore
  4. About 80% of the coal deposits in India is of bituminous type.
  5. The most important Gondwana coal fields of India are located in Damodar Valley.
  6. Any other relevant point.

Any three points to be explained.

3x1=3

Q33.2023 Main 64/2/1 · Q23 (OR)3 marks

(b) Describe the importance of solar energy as a source of non-conventional energy in India.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/2/1

Importance of solar energy in India:-

  1. Sun rays tapped in photovoltaic cells can be converted into energy, known as solar energy.
  2. Solar thermal technology has some relative advantages over all other non renewable energy sources.
  3. It is cost competitive.
  4. Environment friendly.
  5. It is easy to construct
  6. It is generally used in appliances like solar heater, crop dryers, cookers etc.
  7. Any other relevant point.

Any three points to be explained.

3x1=3

Q34.2023 Main 64/4/1 · Q223 marks

“Petroleum is an essential source of energy for running transport and industry.” Examine the statement. 3

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/4/1
  1. Petroleum is an essential source of energy for all types of internal combustion engines.
  2. Today automobiles, railways and airways are highly dependent on petroleum.
  3. It is used as raw material in many industries.
  4. The petroleum by-products provide the raw material for many industries like, Synthetic fibre, medicines, fertilizers, rubber, Vaseline, etc.
  5. Any other relevant point.

To be examined by giving any three points. 3×1=3

Q35.2026 Main 64/1/1 · Q275 marks

(a) Explain the significance of petroleum as major source of energy and describe its distribution in India. 3+2=5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/1/1

Significance of petroleum as major source of energy

i) Petroleum is an essential source of energy for all internal combustion engines in automobiles, railways and aircrafts, etc.
ii) It has numerous by- products which are processed and used in petrochemical industries, like; fertilizers, synthetic rubber, fibre, medicines, vaseline, lubricants, wax, soap and cosmetics. etc.
iii) Petroleum is scarce but has diversified uses. Therefore, it is referred to as liquid gold.
iv) In 1956, government had setup OIL and Natural Gas Commission (ONGC) for systematic exploration and production of oil and natural gas.
v) Any other relevant point

(Any three points to be explained) 3×1=3

Distribution of Petroleum in India

Important Petroleum producing areas in India are-

i) Digboi, Naharkatiya and Moran in Assam.
ii) Ankaleshwar, Kalol, Mehsana, Nawagam, Kosamba and Lunej in Gujarat.
iii) Mumbai High in Arabian sea
iv) Exploratory wells of Krishna-Godavari and Kaveri basin on the east coast.
v) Any other relevant point

(Any two points to be explained) 2×1=2

3+2=5

Q36.2026 Main 64/1/1 · Q27 (OR)5 marks

(b) Explain the significance of iron-ore as industrial raw material and describe its distribution in India. 3+2=5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/1/1

Significance of iron-ore as industrial raw material

i) It provides a strong base for the development of metallurgical industries.
ii) India is endowed with fairly abundant resources of iron ore.
iii) It has the largest reserve of iron ore in Asia.
iv) The two main types of iron ore found in our country are hematite and magnetite.
v) It has great demand in international market due to its superior quality.
vi) The iron ore mines occur in close proximity to the coal fields in the north-eastern plateau region of the country which adds to its advantage.
vii) Any other relevant point

(Any three points to be explained) 3×1=3

Distribution of Iron ore in India

i) Odisha is the leading producer in the country.
ii) In Odisha, iron ore occurs in a series of hill ranges in Sundergarh, Mayurbhanj and Jhar.
iii) Major regions in Jharkhand are Poorbi and Pashchimi Singhbhum districts.
iv) Major regions in Chhattisgharh are Durg, Dantewara and Bailadila.
v) Major regions in Karnataka are Ballari, Chikkamagaluru, Shivamogga, Chitradurg and Tumakuru.
vi) Major regions in Mahrashtra are Chandrapur, Bhandara and Ratnagiri.
vii) Major regions in Telangana are Karimnagar and Warangal.
viii) Major regions in Andhra Pradesh are Kurnool, Cuddapah and Anantapur.
ix) Major regions in Tamil Nadu are Salem and Nilgiris.
x) Goa has also emerged as an important producer of iron ore.
xi) Any other relevant point

(Any two points) 2×1=2

3+2=5

Q37.2026 Main 64/3/1 · Q285 marks

(a) “Non-conventional energy sources are equitably distributed in India.” Justify the statement with suitable arguments. 5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/3/1

i. Nuclear energy
Important minerals used for the generation of nuclear energy are uranium and thorium. Uranium deposits occur in the Dharwar rocks. Geographically, uranium ores are known to occur in several locations along the Singbhum Copper belt. It is also found in Udaipur, Alwar and Jhunjhunu districts of Rajasthan, Durg district of Chhattisgarh, Bhandara district of Maharashtra and Kullu district of Himachal Pradesh. Thorium is mainly obtained from monazite and ilmenite in the beach sands along the coast of Kerala and Tamil Nadu.

ii. Solar Energy
Sun rays tapped in photovoltaic cells can be converted into energy, known as solar energy. The western part of India has greater potential for the development of solar energy in Gujarat and Rajasthan.

iii. Wind Energy
In India Rajasthan, Gujarat, Maharashtra and Karnataka, favourable conditions for wind energy exists.

iv. Tidal and Wave Energy
India has great potential for the development of tidal energy along the coasts.

v. Geothermal Energy
In India, a geothermal energy plant has been commissioned at Manikaran in Himachal Pradesh.

vi. Bio-energy
Bio-energy processes the waste and garbage and produces energy. One such project converting municipal waste into energy is Okhla in Delhi.

vii. Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be justified) 5×1=5

Q38.2026 Main 64/3/1 · Q28 (OR)5 marks

(b) “The conventional sources of energy need to be replaced due to their exhaustibility.” Justify the statement with suitable arguments. 5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/3/1

i. Mineral fuels like coal, petroleum and natural gas (known as fossil fuels), nuclear energy minerals, are the conventional sources of energy.
ii. Fossil fuel sources, such as coal, petroleum, natural gas and nuclear energy use exhaustible raw materials and take millions of years to form.
iii. They are depleting at a faster rate due to rapid industrialization and demand.
iv. These energy sources are expensive sources of energy
v. The use of conventional sources of energy generates enormous quantities of waste as well as creating other environmental problems.
vi. The alternative energy sources like solar power, wind, wave, geothermal energy should be used.
vii. Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be justified) 5×1=5

Q39.2025 Main 64/2/1 · Q285 marks

(a) “Petroleum is an essential source of energy and many byproducts are associated with its refining.” Explain this statement with examples. 5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/2/1
  1. Petroleum is an essential source of energy for all internal combustion engines in automobiles, railways, and aircraft.
  2. Petroleum is referred to as liquid gold because of its scarcity and diversified uses.
  3. Crude petroleum consists of hydrocarbons of liquid and gaseous state varying in chemical composition, colour, and specific gravity.
  4. Its numerous by-products are processed in petrochemical industries such as fertilizers, synthetic rubber, synthetic fiber, medicines, Vaseline, lubricants, wax, soap, and cosmetics.
  5. Petroleum is also used for thermal power production.
  6. Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be explained.) 5×1=5

Q40.2025 Main 64/2/1 · Q28 (OR)5 marks

(b) “The generation of energy through non-conventional sources is the need of the hour for sustainable development.” Explain the statement with examples. 5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/2/1
  1. Fossil fuels – coal, petroleum, and natural gas are expensive, exhaustible sources and cause widespread pollution.
  2. Non-conventional sources of energy – solar, wind, biomass, geothermal sources provide sustainable energy, cost competitive, environment-friendly, non-exhaustible, and easy to construct.
  3. Rajasthan and Gujarat have great potential for the development of solar energy.
  4. Wind energy is already generated in Rajasthan, Gujarat, Maharashtra, and Karnataka.
  5. In India, a geothermal energy plant has been commissioned at Manikaran in Himachal Pradesh.
  6. Biomass energy is produced by processing waste and garbage to produce electricity.
  7. These alternative sources of energy are inexhaustible and should be developed to replace the exhaustible sources.
  8. Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be explained.) 5×1=5

Q41.2025 Supp. 64/S/1 · Q275 marks

(a) Examine the main characteristics of mineral resources in India and suggest measures for their conservation. 2+3=5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/S/1

Characteristics of mineral resources :-

  1. Uneven distribution.
  2. Inverse relationship in quality and quantity of minerals.
  3. Exhaustible over time.
  4. Any other relevant point.

(Any two points to be explained.) 2×1=2

Measures for their conservation :

  1. Alternative energy resources like solar power, wind etc. must be replaced by exhaustible resources.
  2. Use of scrap in metals like copper, lead and zinc.
  3. Use of substitutes for scarce metals.
  4. Export of scarce minerals must be used.
  5. Any other relevant point.

(Any three points to be explained.) 3×1=3

2+3=5

Q42.2025 Supp. 64/S/1 · Q27 (OR)5 marks

(b) “The non-conventional sources of energy have a great future.” Evaluate the statement in the context of India. 2+3=5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/S/1
  1. They are renewable resources, for example solar, wind, biomass.
  2. They are equitably distributed.
  3. Environment and eco-friendly.
  4. Cost competitive and easy to construct. Example solar thermal technology.
  5. The western part of India has greater potential for development of solar energy.
  6. They are pollution free, e.g. wind energy.
  7. Local winds, land and sea breezes can be used to produce electricity, favourable conditions are in Gujarat, Maharashtra and Rajasthan.
  8. Ocean currents are the store house of infinite energy.
  9. West coast of India have great potential for the development of tidal energy.
  10. Geo thermal energy can be developed as an alternate source.
  11. Bio energy can be converted into electrical energy, heat energy or gas for cooking. Eg. Okhla project in Delhi.
  12. Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be explained.) 5×1=5

Q43.2024 Main 64/1/1 · Q285 marks

(a) Analyze the relationship between the conservation of mineral resources and sustainable development in India.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/1/1

Relationship between conservation of mineral Resources and sustainable development:-

  1. The challenge of sustainable development requires integration of quest for economic development with environmental concerns.
  2. Traditional methods of resource use result into generating enormous quantity of waste as well as create other environmental problems.
  3. Sustainable development calls for the protection of resources for the future generations. There is an urgent need to conserve the resources.
  4. The alternative energy sources like solar power, wind, wave, geothermal energy are inexhaustible resource and these should be developed to replace the exhaustible resources.
  5. In case of metallic minerals, use of scrap metals will enable recycling of metals.
  6. Use of scrap is specially significant in metals like copper, lead and zinc.
  7. Use of substitutes for scarce metal may also reduce their consumption.
  8. Export of strategic and scarce minerals must be reduced.
  9. Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be analysed.) 5x1=5

Q44.2024 Main 64/1/1 · Q28 (OR)5 marks

(b) Analyze the advantages of non-conventional energy sources by giving the example of solar energy in India.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/1/1

Advantages of non-conventional energy sources are:-

  1. Inexhaustible resources which are abundantly available.
  2. More equitably distributed.
  3. Environment-friendly.
  4. They are renewable energy sources like solar, wind, hydro-geothermal, biomass etc.
  5. More sustained, eco-friendly.
  6. Cheaper energy sources.
  7. It has full potential to replace conventional sources of energy.

Solar energy :

  • Cost competitive.
  • Environment friendly.
  • Easy to construct.
  • Used more in appliances like heaters, crop dryers, coolers, etc.
  • The Western part of India like Gujarat and Rajasthan has greater potential.

(viii) Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be analysed.) 5x1=5

Q45.2024 Main 64/2/1 · Q275 marks

“Nuclear power has emerged as a viable source in recent years.” Examine the statement with suitable arguments in the context of India.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/2/1
  1. Important minerals used for the generation of nuclear energy are uranium and thorium. Uranium deposits occur in the Dharwar rocks.
  2. Geographically, uranium ores are known to occur in serval locations along the Singbhum Copper belt.
  3. Thorium is mainly obtained from monazite and ilmenite in the beach sands along the coast of Kerala and Tamil Nadu.
  4. World’s richest monazite deposits occur in Palakkad and Kollam.
  5. Atomic Energy Commission was established in 1948, progress could be made only after the establishment of the Atomic Energy Institute at Trombay in 1954 which was renamed as the Bhabha Atomic Research Centre.
  6. The important nuclear power projects are Tarapur, Rawatbhata, Kalpakkam, Narora, Kaiga and Kakarapara.
  7. Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be explained) 5×1=5

Q46.2024 Main 64/4/1 · Q275 marks

(a) Explain any five measures for the conservation of mineral resources in India.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/4/1

(i) Sustainable development calls for the protection of resources for the future generations.

(ii) There is an urgent need to conserve the energy sources like solar power, wind etc. are inexhaustible resource.

(iii) In case of metallic minerals, use of scrap metals will enable recycling of metals. Use of scrap is especially significant in metals like copper, lead and zinc in which India’s reserves are meager.

(iv) Use of substitutes for scarce metals may also reduce their consumption.

(v) Export of strategic and scarce minerals must be reduced,

(vi) These should be developed to replace the exhaustible resources.

(vii) Any other relevant point.

Any five points to be explained.

5x1=5

Q47.2024 Main 64/4/1 · Q27 (OR)5 marks

(b) Explain the importance of solar energy in Indian context.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/4/1

(i) Sun rays tapped in photovoltaic cells can be converted into energy, known as solar energy.

(ii) Solar thermal technology has some relative advantages over all other non-renewable energy sources.

(iii) It is cost competitive, environment friendly and easy to construct.

(iv) Solar energy is 7 per cent more effective than coal or oil based plants and 10 per cent more effective than nuclear plants.

(v) It is generally used more in appliances like heaters, crop dryers, cookers, etc.

(vi) Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be explained.)

5x1=5

Q48.2023 Main 64/3/1 · Q285 marks

“Most of the metallic minerals in India occur in the peninsular plateau region in the old crystalline rocks.” Examine the statement. 5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/3/1

Following are the supporting statements

  1. Our Peninsular plateau is rich in mineral resources.
  2. Metallic minerals occur in igneous rocks and plateau has largely igneous rocks.
  3. Chhota Nagpur region in Jharkhand, Odisha and West Bengal are rich in iron ore, manganese, bauxite and mica.
  4. Karnataka, Goa and Tamil Nadu are rich in iron ore and manganese. Goa has large iron ore deposits.
  5. Gujarat, Rajasthan belt consists of copper, zinc, sand stone, granite and gypsum.
  6. Any other relevant point

Any five points to be examined 5×1=5

Part B · India: People and Economy

6. Planning and Sustainable Development in Indian Context

Q1.2026 Main 64/2/1 · Q61 mark

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option : 1

Assertion (A) : The concept of ‘sustainable development’ emerged in 1990’s.

Reason (R) : General awareness about environmental issues originated during 1960’s in the western world.

Options :

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  2. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  3. (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
  4. (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/2/1

(D) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct

Q2.2026 Main 64/2/1 · Q81 mark

If you were asked to prepare a ‘hill area development programme’, which of the following must be kept in mind ? Choose the correct option : 1

  1. Establishing heavy industry
  2. Ecosystem
  3. National Highway construction
  4. Topography

Options :

  1. I and III
  2. I and IV
  3. II and III
  4. II and IV
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/2/1

(D) II and IV

Q3.2025 Main 64/1/1 · Q71 mark

Identify the district of first phase of construction of Rajasthan canal.

  1. Jaisalmer
  2. Barmer
  3. Jodhpur
  4. Ganganagar
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/1/1

(D) Ganga Nagar

Q4.2025 Main 64/2/1 · Q111 mark

Read the following statements related to Indira Gandhi Canal Project carefully and choose the correct option : 1

  1. Indira Gandhi Canal project was conceived by Kanwar Sain in 1950 and it was launched in 1961.
  2. Introduction of canal irrigation has brought perceptible changes in the agricultural economy of the command area.
  3. Spread of canal irrigation has led to increase in cultivated area and crop intensity.
  4. Traditional crops of jowar, bajra has been replaced by rice and wheat etc.

Options :

  1. (i), (ii) and (iv) only are correct.
  2. (i), (ii) and (iii) only are correct.
  3. (i), (iii) and (iv) only are correct.
  4. (ii), (iii) and (iv) only are correct.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/2/1

(D) (ii), (iii), and (iv) only are correct.

Q5.2025 Main 64/7/1 · Q41 mark

Identify the area where lift irrigation is available in the ‘Indira Gandhi Canal Command Area’ ?

  1. Entire area to the right side of main canal
  2. Entire area to the left side of main canal
  3. Entire area south of Bikaner district
  4. Entire area north of Jaisalmer district
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(B) Entire area to the left side of main canal

Q6.2024 Main 64/1/1 · Q41 mark

Which one of the following pairs is matched correctly ?

(Target Area Planning)(Area)
(A)Hill Area Development Programme–Semi-arid and Arid tracts of India
(B)Drought Prone Area Programme–15 Hilly Districts
(C)Indira Gandhi Canal Command Area–Ganganagar, Hanumangarh
(D)Integrated Tribal Development Project–Rajasthan and Gujarat
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/1/1

(C) Indira Gandhi Canal Command area – Ganganagar, Hanumangarh

Q7.2024 Supp. 64/S/1 · Q21 mark

Which one of the following is the positive impact of irrigation in the ‘Indira Gandhi Canal Command Area’ ?

  1. Waterlogging
  2. Increase in agricultural productivity
  3. Increase in soil salinity
  4. Increase in evaporation from canal water
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/S/1

(B) Increase in Agricultural Productivity

Q8.2024 Supp. 64/S/1 · Q31 mark

The ‘Brundtland Report’ is known by which one of the following ?

  1. Our Common Future
  2. The Population Bomb
  3. The Limits to Growth
  4. Redistribution with Growth
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/S/1

(A) Our Common Future

Q9.2024 Supp. 64/S/1 · Q41 mark

Bharmaur tribal region is dominated by which one of the following tribes ?

  1. Gond
  2. Santhal
  3. Bhils
  4. Gaddi
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/S/1

(D) Gaddi

Q10.2023 Main 64/3/1 · Q151 mark

Read the case study given below and answer the questions from 15 to 17.

Case Study : Indira Gandhi Canal (Nahar) Command Area

Indira Gandhi Canal, previously known as the Rajasthan Canal, is one of the largest canal systems in India. Conceived by Kanwar Sain in 1948, the canal project was launched on 31 March, 1958. The canal originates at Harike barrage in Punjab and runs parallel to Pakistan border at an average distance of 40 km in Thar Desert (Marusthali) of Rajasthan. The total planned length of the system is 9,060 km catering to the irrigation needs of a total culturable command area of 19·63 lakh hectares. Out of the total command area, about 70 percent was envisaged to be irrigated by flow system and the rest by lift system. The construction work of the canal system has been carried out through two stages. The command area of Stage-I lies in Ganganagar, Hanumangarh and northern part of Bikaner districts. It has a gently undulating topography and its culturable command area is 5·53 lakh hectares. The command area of Stage-II is spread over Bikaner, Jaisalmer, Barmer, Jodhpur, Nagaur and Churu districts covering culturable command area of 14·10 lakh ha. It comprises desert land dotted with shifting sand dunes and temperature soaring to 50°C in summers. In the lift canal, the water is lifted up to make it to flow against the slope of the land. All the lift canals of Indira Gandhi system originate at the left bank of main canal while all the canals on the right bank of main canal are flow channels.

Irrigation in Stage-I command area of the canal was introduced in early 1960s, whereas the command area of Stage-II began receiving irrigation in mid-1980s. The introduction of canal irrigation in this dry land has transformed its ecology, economy and society. It has influenced the environmental conditions of the region both positively as well as negatively. The availability of soil moisture for a longer period of time and various afforestation and pasture development programmes under CAD have resulted in greening the land. This has also helped in reducing wind erosion and siltation of canal systems. But the intensive irrigation and excessive use of water has led to the emergence of twin environmental problems of waterlogging and soil salinity.

What was the main objective to construct of Indira Gandhi Canal ?

  1. Proving water for irrigation in the command area
  2. Providing water for drinking purpose
  3. Providing water for afforestation
  4. Providing water for industries
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/3/1

(a) Providing water for irrigation in the command area

Q11.2023 Main 64/3/1 · Q161 mark

Read the case study given below and answer the questions from 15 to 17.

Case Study : Indira Gandhi Canal (Nahar) Command Area

Indira Gandhi Canal, previously known as the Rajasthan Canal, is one of the largest canal systems in India. Conceived by Kanwar Sain in 1948, the canal project was launched on 31 March, 1958. The canal originates at Harike barrage in Punjab and runs parallel to Pakistan border at an average distance of 40 km in Thar Desert (Marusthali) of Rajasthan. The total planned length of the system is 9,060 km catering to the irrigation needs of a total culturable command area of 19·63 lakh hectares. Out of the total command area, about 70 percent was envisaged to be irrigated by flow system and the rest by lift system. The construction work of the canal system has been carried out through two stages. The command area of Stage-I lies in Ganganagar, Hanumangarh and northern part of Bikaner districts. It has a gently undulating topography and its culturable command area is 5·53 lakh hectares. The command area of Stage-II is spread over Bikaner, Jaisalmer, Barmer, Jodhpur, Nagaur and Churu districts covering culturable command area of 14·10 lakh ha. It comprises desert land dotted with shifting sand dunes and temperature soaring to 50°C in summers. In the lift canal, the water is lifted up to make it to flow against the slope of the land. All the lift canals of Indira Gandhi system originate at the left bank of main canal while all the canals on the right bank of main canal are flow channels.

Irrigation in Stage-I command area of the canal was introduced in early 1960s, whereas the command area of Stage-II began receiving irrigation in mid-1980s. The introduction of canal irrigation in this dry land has transformed its ecology, economy and society. It has influenced the environmental conditions of the region both positively as well as negatively. The availability of soil moisture for a longer period of time and various afforestation and pasture development programmes under CAD have resulted in greening the land. This has also helped in reducing wind erosion and siltation of canal systems. But the intensive irrigation and excessive use of water has led to the emergence of twin environmental problems of waterlogging and soil salinity.

What is the major benefit of this Canal in the command area ?

  1. Transformation of ecology and economy
  2. Environmental conditions slightly changed
  3. People had not settled permanently
  4. Crop production is still at lower level
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/3/1

(a) Transformation of ecology and economy.

Q12.2023 Main 64/3/1 · Q171 mark

Read the case study given below and answer the questions from 15 to 17.

Case Study : Indira Gandhi Canal (Nahar) Command Area

Indira Gandhi Canal, previously known as the Rajasthan Canal, is one of the largest canal systems in India. Conceived by Kanwar Sain in 1948, the canal project was launched on 31 March, 1958. The canal originates at Harike barrage in Punjab and runs parallel to Pakistan border at an average distance of 40 km in Thar Desert (Marusthali) of Rajasthan. The total planned length of the system is 9,060 km catering to the irrigation needs of a total culturable command area of 19·63 lakh hectares. Out of the total command area, about 70 percent was envisaged to be irrigated by flow system and the rest by lift system. The construction work of the canal system has been carried out through two stages. The command area of Stage-I lies in Ganganagar, Hanumangarh and northern part of Bikaner districts. It has a gently undulating topography and its culturable command area is 5·53 lakh hectares. The command area of Stage-II is spread over Bikaner, Jaisalmer, Barmer, Jodhpur, Nagaur and Churu districts covering culturable command area of 14·10 lakh ha. It comprises desert land dotted with shifting sand dunes and temperature soaring to 50°C in summers. In the lift canal, the water is lifted up to make it to flow against the slope of the land. All the lift canals of Indira Gandhi system originate at the left bank of main canal while all the canals on the right bank of main canal are flow channels.

Irrigation in Stage-I command area of the canal was introduced in early 1960s, whereas the command area of Stage-II began receiving irrigation in mid-1980s. The introduction of canal irrigation in this dry land has transformed its ecology, economy and society. It has influenced the environmental conditions of the region both positively as well as negatively. The availability of soil moisture for a longer period of time and various afforestation and pasture development programmes under CAD have resulted in greening the land. This has also helped in reducing wind erosion and siltation of canal systems. But the intensive irrigation and excessive use of water has led to the emergence of twin environmental problems of waterlogging and soil salinity.

What is the negative impact of this Canal ?

  1. Soils become fertile
  2. Water logging and salinity
  3. Multiple cropping system
  4. Command area becomes green
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(b) Water logging and salinity.

Q13.2023 Main 64/4/1 · Q151 mark

Read the case study given below and answer Q. No. 15 to 17.

Case Study — Integrated Tribal Development Project in Bharmaur Region

Bharmaur tribal area comprises Bharmaur and Holi tehsils of Chamba district of Himachal Pradesh. It is a notified tribal area since 21st November, 1975. Bharmaur is inhabited by ‘Gaddi’, a tribal community who have maintained a distinct identity in the Himalayan region as they practised transhumance and conversed through Gaddiali dialect.

Bharmaur tribal region has harsh climate conditions, low resource base and fragile environment. These factors have influenced the society and economy of the region. According to the 2011 census, the total population of Bharmaur sub-division was 39,113 i.e., 21 persons per sq km. It is one of the most (economically and socially) backward areas of Himachal Pradesh. Historically, the Gaddis have experienced geographical and political isolation and socio-economic deprivation. The economy is largely based on agriculture and allied activities such as sheep and goat rearing.

The process of development of tribal area of Bharmaur started in 1970s when Gaddis were included among ‘scheduled tribes’. Under the Fifth Five Year Plan, the tribal sub-plan was introduced in 1974 and Bharmaur was designated as one of the five Integrated Tribal Development Projects (ITDP) in Himachal Pradesh. This area development plan was aimed at improving the quality of life of the Gaddis.

Bharmaur Tribal region belongs to which of the following states ?

  1. Uttarakhand
  2. Himachal Pradesh
  3. Uttar Pradesh
  4. Jammu and Kashmir
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(b) Himachal Pradesh

Q14.2023 Main 64/4/1 · Q161 mark

Read the case study given below and answer Q. No. 15 to 17.

Case Study — Integrated Tribal Development Project in Bharmaur Region

Bharmaur tribal area comprises Bharmaur and Holi tehsils of Chamba district of Himachal Pradesh. It is a notified tribal area since 21st November, 1975. Bharmaur is inhabited by ‘Gaddi’, a tribal community who have maintained a distinct identity in the Himalayan region as they practised transhumance and conversed through Gaddiali dialect.

Bharmaur tribal region has harsh climate conditions, low resource base and fragile environment. These factors have influenced the society and economy of the region. According to the 2011 census, the total population of Bharmaur sub-division was 39,113 i.e., 21 persons per sq km. It is one of the most (economically and socially) backward areas of Himachal Pradesh. Historically, the Gaddis have experienced geographical and political isolation and socio-economic deprivation. The economy is largely based on agriculture and allied activities such as sheep and goat rearing.

The process of development of tribal area of Bharmaur started in 1970s when Gaddis were included among ‘scheduled tribes’. Under the Fifth Five Year Plan, the tribal sub-plan was introduced in 1974 and Bharmaur was designated as one of the five Integrated Tribal Development Projects (ITDP) in Himachal Pradesh. This area development plan was aimed at improving the quality of life of the Gaddis.

Which of the following tribal communities dominate in Bharmaur region ?

  1. Bakkarwals
  2. Bhils
  3. Gonds
  4. Gaddis
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/4/1

(d) Gaddis

Q15.2023 Main 64/4/1 · Q171 mark

Read the case study given below and answer Q. No. 15 to 17.

Case Study — Integrated Tribal Development Project in Bharmaur Region

Bharmaur tribal area comprises Bharmaur and Holi tehsils of Chamba district of Himachal Pradesh. It is a notified tribal area since 21st November, 1975. Bharmaur is inhabited by ‘Gaddi’, a tribal community who have maintained a distinct identity in the Himalayan region as they practised transhumance and conversed through Gaddiali dialect.

Bharmaur tribal region has harsh climate conditions, low resource base and fragile environment. These factors have influenced the society and economy of the region. According to the 2011 census, the total population of Bharmaur sub-division was 39,113 i.e., 21 persons per sq km. It is one of the most (economically and socially) backward areas of Himachal Pradesh. Historically, the Gaddis have experienced geographical and political isolation and socio-economic deprivation. The economy is largely based on agriculture and allied activities such as sheep and goat rearing.

The process of development of tribal area of Bharmaur started in 1970s when Gaddis were included among ‘scheduled tribes’. Under the Fifth Five Year Plan, the tribal sub-plan was introduced in 1974 and Bharmaur was designated as one of the five Integrated Tribal Development Projects (ITDP) in Himachal Pradesh. This area development plan was aimed at improving the quality of life of the Gaddis.

What is the major aim of Integrated Tribal Development Project (ITDP) ?

  1. Improving irrigation
  2. Improving sheep rearing
  3. Improving soils of the region
  4. Improving the quality of life of the Gaddis
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/4/1

(d) Improving the quality of life of the Gaddis.

Q16.2023 Main 64/5/1 · Q101 mark

Which one of the following is NOT true about Bharmaur tribal region ?

  1. This region comprises of Bharmaur and Holi tehsil of Chamba district.
  2. It is not a notified tribal area.
  3. It is mainly inhabited by Gaddi tribal community.
  4. The tribals practise transhumance.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/5/1

(B) It is not a notified tribal area.

Q17.2023 Main 64/5/1 · Q111 mark

Which of the following statement is NOT true regarding Indira Gandhi Canal ?

  1. It was previously known as Rajasthan canal.
  2. It originates at Harika barrage in Punjab.
  3. The canal runs almost parallel to Pakistan border.
  4. Rajasthan is least benefitted by this canal.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/5/1

(D) Rajasthan is least benefitted by this canal.

Q18.2023 Main 64/5/1 · Q121 mark

Which of the following commission replaced ‘Planning Commission’ ?

  1. Election Commission
  2. NITI Aayog
  3. Law Commission
  4. Education Commission
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/5/1

(B) NITI Aayog

Q19.2024 Main 64/5/1 · Q183 marks

Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow :

Integrated Tribal Development Project in Bharmaur Region

This region lies between 32° 11’ N and 32° 41’ N latitudes and 76° 22’ E and 76° 53’ E longitudes. Spread over an area of about 1,818 sq km, the region mostly lies between 1,500 m to 3,700 m above the mean sea level. This region popularly known as the homeland of Gaddis is surrounded by lofty mountains on all sides. It has Pir Panjal in the north and Dhaula Dhar in the South. In the east, the extension of Dhula Dhar converges with Pir Panjal near Rohtang Pass. The river Ravi and its tributaries-the Budhil and the Tundahen, drain this territory, and carve out deep gorges. These rivers divide the region into four physiographic divisions called Holi, Khani, Kugti and Tundah areas. Bharmaur experiences freezing weather conditions and snowfall in winter. Its mean monthly temperature in January remains 4 °C and in July 26 °C.

(18.1) Describe the location of Bharmaur region. 1

(18.2) Why does this region experience harsh climatic conditions ? Give one reason. 1

(18.3) Why is this region economically backward ? Explain any one reason. 1

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/5/1

(18.1) This region is located between 32° 11’ N and 32° 41’ N latitude and 76° 22’ E and 76° 53’ E longitudes. 1

(18.2) The region lies at an altitude between 1500m and 3700m above the mean sea level. Due to high altitude, it experiences freezing weather conditions and snowfall in winters. Temperature often falls down to freezing point. 1

(18.3) Reason for economically backwardness:

  1. Difficult relief
  2. Harsh climate
  3. Low resource base
  4. Any other relevant point

(Any one point is to be explained) 1

Q20.2022 Main 64/2/1 · Q43 marks

Read the following source and answer the questions that follow : 3×1=3

The social benefits derived from Integrated Tribal Development Project (ITDP) include tremendous increase in literacy rate, improvement in sex ratio and decline in child marriage. The female literacy rate in the region increased from 1·88 per cent in 1971 to 65 per cent in 2011. The difference between males and females in literacy level i.e., gender inequality, has also declined. Traditionally, the Gaddis had subsistence agricultural-cum-pastoral economy having emphasis on foodgrains and livestock production. But during the last three decades of twentieth century, the cultivation of pulses and other cash crops has increased in Bharmaur region. But the crop cultivation is still done with traditional technology. The declining importance of pastoralism in the economy of the region can be gauged from the fact that at present only about one-tenth of the total households practise transhumance. But the Gaddis are still very mobile as a sizeable section of them migrate to Kangra and surrounding areas during winter to earn their living from wage labour.

(4.1) Mention any two priorities of ‘Integrated Tribal Development Project (ITDP)’. 1
(4.2) How has ‘Integrated Tribal Development Project (ITDP)’ affected the life of ‘Gaddis’ ? Explain. 1
(4.3) Why is the importance of pastoralism declining in Bharmaur region ? 1

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2022 (Main), Set 64/2/1

4.1 (a) The plan laid the highest priority on development of transport and communication, agriculture and allied activities, social and community services.
(b) Production of Cash crops have increased resulting in economic growth.

4.2 (b) Increase in literacy rate.
(c) Improvement in Sex Ratio.
(d) Decline in child marriage
(e) Any one of the above.

4.3 The declining importance of pastoralism in the economy of the region can be gauged from the fact that at present only about one-tenth of the total households practise transhumance and other economic activities have gained importance.

1+1+1=3

Q21.2022 Main 64/3/1 · Q43 marks

Read the following source and answer the given questions : 1 × 3 = 3

The process of development of tribal area of Bharmaur started in 1970s when Gaddis were included among ‘scheduled tribes’. Under the Fifth Five Year Plan, the tribal sub-plan was introduced in 1974 and Bharmaur was designated as one of the five Integrated Tribal Development Projects (ITDP) in Himachal Pradesh. This area development plan was aimed at improving the quality of life of the Gaddis and narrowing the gap in the level of development between Bharmaur and other areas of Himachal Pradesh. This plan laid the highest priority on development of transport and communications, agriculture and allied activities, and social and community services.

The most significant contribution of tribal development sub-plan in Bharmaur region is the development of infrastructure in terms of schools, healthcare facilities, potable water, roads, communications and electricity. But the villages located along the river Ravi in Holi and Khani areas are the main beneficiaries of infrastructural development. The remote villages in Tundah and Kugti areas still do not have sufficient infrastructure.

4.1 Why is it necessary to develop infrastructural facilities for integrated development of a region ? Explain.

4.2 Mention the main objective of ‘integrated tribal development project’ in Bharmaur region.

4.3 Explain the outcome of tribal development sub-plan in this region.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2022 (Main), Set 64/3/1

4.1 Because without development of infrastructural facilities like road, healthcare, school, electricity, etc., no one can develop.

4.2 The main objectives of integrated tribal development projects in Himachal Pradesh was aimed at improving the quality of life of the Gaddis.

4.3 The most significant contribution of this plan is the development of infrastructure in terms of schools, healthcare facilities, potable water road communications and electricity. (TB II Page. 107,108)

1×3=3

Q22.2022 Main 64/5/1 · Q53 marks

"Indira Gandhi Canal irrigation has brought prominent transformation in the agricultural economy of the region." Support this statement.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2022 (Main), Set 64/5/1
  1. Increase Soil moisture
  2. Increase in cultivated area
  3. Increase in intensity of cropping
  4. Replacement of traditional crops.
  5. Increase in agricultural productivity.
  6. Any other relevant point.

(Any three points to be explained) [TB-II, Pg-110, 111] 3x1=3

Q23.2026 Main 64/4/1 · Q275 marks

(a) Explain the benefits of the Indira Gandhi Canal in its command area. 5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/4/1

Benefits of the Indira Gandhi Canal in its command area:

i) Introduction of canal irrigation transformed the ecology and economy of the area.
ii) The availability of soil moisture for a longer period of time have resulted in greening the land.
iii) It has helped in reducing wind erosion and siltation of canal system.
iv) It has brought about a perceptible transformation in agricultural economy of the region.
v) Spread of canal irrigation has led to increase in cultivated area and intensity of cropping.
vi) The traditional crops sown in the area gram, bajra and jowar have been replaced by wheat, cotton, groundnut and rice.
vii) It has led to tremendous increase in agricultural and livestock productivity.
viii) Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be explained) 5×1=5

Q24.2026 Main 64/4/1 · Q27 (OR)5 marks

(b) Explain the benefits to the Bharmaur region through the implementation of the Integrated Tribal Development Project. 5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/4/1

Benefits to the Bharmaur region :-

i) Development of infrastructure in terms of schools, health care facilities.
ii) It leads to the development of roads, communications and electricity.
iii) It fulfills the requirement of potable water.
iv) It include increases in literacy rate.
v) Improvement in sex ratio.
vi) Decline in child marriage.
vii) Decline in Gender inequality.
viii) Cultivation of pulses and other cash crops has increased.
ix) Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be explained) 5×1=5

Q25.2026 Main 64/5/1 · Q285 marks

Suggest the measures to achieve ecological sustainability in Indira Gandhi Canal Command Area. 5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/5/1

Ecological sustainability

  1. Strict implementation of water management policy.
  2. Cropping pattern should be such that water intensive crops should not be grown.
  3. Areas affected by salinity and water logging should be reclaimed.
  4. The eco-development through afforestation and shelter belts is necessary.
  5. The agricultural and allied activities have to develop along with other sectors of economy for diversification of economic base.
  6. The social sustainability in the region can be achieved by providing land, adequate financial and institutional support to the land allottees of poor economic background.
  7. Lining of water courses, land development and levelling and warabandi system should be effectively implemented.
  8. Any other relevant point.

(Any five measures to be suggested) 5×1=5

Q26.2026 Main 64/5/1 · Q28 (OR)5 marks

Examine the socio-economic benefits derived from the ‘Integrated Tribal Development Project’ in Bharmaur Region. 5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/5/1

Socio-eco benefits

  1. Increase in literacy rate.
  2. Improvement in sex ratio.
  3. Female literacy rate increased from 1.88% in 1971 to 65% in 2011.
  4. Cultivation of pulses and cash crops increased.
  5. Decline in child marriage.
  6. At present only 1/10th of the total households practice transhumance.
  7. Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be examined) 5×1=5

Q27.2026 Supp. 64/7/1 · Q275 marks

Define the term ‘target area planning’. Describe the achievements in the Bharmaur region under the ‘Integrated Tribal Development Project’. 1+4=5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/7/1

‘Target area planning’ : The planning process has to take special care of those areas which have remained economically backward. 1

Major Achievements in Bharmaur region :

  1. Development of infrastructure.
  2. Improvement in school education and literacy rate.
  3. Improvement in health care facilities.
  4. Increase the availability of Potable water.
  5. Improvement in electricity supply.
  6. Improvement in roads and communication.
  7. Improvement in sex ratio.
  8. Any other relevant point.

(Any four points to be described.) 4×1=4

1+4=5

Q28.2026 Supp. 64/7/1 · Q27 (OR)5 marks

Define the term ‘sustainable development’. Describe the measures to promote sustainable development in the Indira Gandhi Canal command area. 1+4=5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/7/1

‘Sustainable development’ : Development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generation to meet their own needs. 1

Measures to promote sustainable development in the Indira Gandhi Canal command area :

  1. The first requirement is strict implementation of water management policy. The canal project envisages protective irrigation in Stage-I and extensive irrigation of crops and pasture development in Stage-II.
  2. In general, the cropping pattern shall not include water intensive crops. It shall be adhered to and people shall be encouraged to grow plantation crops such as citrus fruits.
  3. The CAD programmes such as lining of water courses, land development and levelling and warabandi system (equal distribution of canal water in the command area of outlet) shall be effectively implemented to reduce the conveyance loss of water.
  4. The areas affected by water logging and soil salinity shall be reclaimed.
  5. The eco-development through afforestation, shelterbelt plantation and pasture development is necessary particularly in the fragile environment of Stage-II.
  6. The social sustainability in the region can be achieved only if the land allottees having poor economic background are provided adequate financial and institutional support for cultivation of land.
  7. The economic sustainability in the region cannot be attained only through development of agriculture and animal husbandry. The agricultural and allied activities have to develop along with other sectors of economy. This shall lead to diversification of economic base and establishment of functional linkages between basic villages, agro-service centres and market centres.
  8. Any other relevant point.

(Any four points to be described.) 4×1=4

1+4=5

Q29.2025 Main 64/1/1 · Q265 marks

(a) Explain the meaning of ‘target area planning’. Analyse the need of ‘target area planning’ for development. 1 + 4 = 5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/1/1

Target Area Planning : The approach to address the regional imbalance by focusing on the resource base of the economically backward region is known as target area planning. 1

Need of Target Area Planning for development :

  1. The economic development of a region depends upon its resource base, sometimes resource-rich regions remain backward.
  2. In order to arrest the accentuation of regional and social disparities, the Planning Commission introduced the ‘target area’ and target group approaches to planning.
  3. It was realized that regional imbalances in economic development were getting accentuated.
  4. Target areas – ‘Command Area Development Programme’, ‘Drought Prone Areas Development Programme’, ‘Desert Development Programme’, etc. are the examples of target area planning.
  5. In the 8th Five Year Plan special area programmes were designed to develop infrastructure in hill areas, north-eastern states, tribal areas and backward areas.
  6. Any other relevant point

(Any four points to be analyzed.) 4×1=4

1+4=5

Q30.2025 Main 64/1/1 · Q26 (OR)5 marks

(b) Explain the meaning of ‘regional planning’. Assess the outcomes of ‘Integrated Tribal Development Project’ in Bharmaur region. 1 + 4 = 5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/1/1

Regional Planning : Planning to reduce regional imbalance in development is termed as regional planning. 1

Outcomes of Integrated development Project in Bharmaur region :

  1. Development of infrastructure in terms of schools, healthcare facilities and potable water.
  2. Increased facilities of roads and communication.
  3. Improvement in availability of electricity.
  4. Tremendous increase in literacy rate especially female literacy
  5. Improvement in sex ratio
  6. Decline in child marriage
  7. Gender inequality declined
  8. The cultivation of pulses and other cash crops has increased in Bharmaur region.
  9. Any other relevant point

(Any four points to be assessed) 4×1=4

1+4=5

Q31.2024 Main 64/3/1 · Q275 marks

Analyze any five measures for establishing ecological balance in the ‘Indira Gandhi Canal Command Area’.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/3/1
  1. The first requirement is strict implementation of Water Management Policy which envisages protective irrigation in Stage 1 and extensive irrigation of crops and pasture development in Stage II.
  2. In general, the cropping pattern shall not include water intensive crops. It shall be adhered to and people shall be encouraged to grow plantation crops.
  3. The CAD programmes such as lining of water courses, land development and levelling and warabandi system shall be effectively implanted to reduce the conveyance loss of water.
  4. The areas affected by water logging and soil salinity shall be reclaimed.
  5. The Eco-development through afforestation, shelter belt, plantation and pasture development.
  6. Any other relevant point

(Any five points to be analysed.) 5x1=5

Q32.2023 Main 64/1/1 · Q275 marks

“Attaining sustainable development in the Indira Gandhi Canal (Nahar) Command Area requires major thrust upon the measures to achieve ecological sustainability.” Evaluate the statement. 5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/1/1
  1. The first requirement is strict implementation of water management policy.
  2. The canal project envisages protective irrigation in Stage-I and extensive irrigation of crops and pasture development in Stage-II.
  3. In general, the cropping pattern shall not include water intensive crops. People should be encouraged to grow plantation crops such as citrus fruits.
  4. The CAD programmes such as lining of water courses, land development and levelling and warabandi system shall be effectively implemented to reduce the conveyance loss of water.
  5. The areas affected by water-logging and soil salinity shall be reclaimed.
  6. The eco-development through afforestation, shelter belt plantation and pasture development is necessary particularly in the fragile environment of Stage-II.
  7. Any other relevant point.

Any five points to be explained. 5×1=5

Q33.2023 Main 64/2/1 · Q275 marks

“Integrated tribal development project laid the highest priority on development of transport and communications, agriculture and allied activities & social and community services.” Examine the statement in the context of Bharmaur region.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/2/1

Integrated tribal development project in context of Bharmaur region:-

  1. Development of infrastructure in terms of Schools, healthcare facilities, potable water, roads, communication and electricity.
  2. Tremendous increase in literacy rate.
  3. Improvement in sex ratio.
  4. Decline in child marriage.
  5. The female literacy rate increased.
  6. Gender inequality has declined.
  7. During last three decades the cultivation of pulses and other cash crops has been increased.
  8. Any other relevant point.

Any five points to be examined

5x1=5

Q34.2022 Main 64/4/1 · Q95 marks

Analyse any five objectives of ‘Drought Prone Area Development Programme’. 1×5=5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2022 (Main), Set 64/4/1
  1. To provide employment to the people in drought-prone areas and creating productive assets.
  2. Laid emphasis on the construction of labour- intensive civil works.
  3. It emphasised on irrigation projects.
  4. Land development programmes and afforestation.
  5. Grassland development.
  6. Creation of basic rural infrastructure as electricity, roads, market, credit and services.
  7. Any other relevant point.

Any five points to be explained 1×5=5

Q35.SQP 2025-26 · Q285 marks

Formulate a development plan for the Bharmaur tribal region under the Integrated Tribal Development Project (ITDP), focusing on improving agriculture, education, and livelihood opportunities, considering the region’s climatic conditions, socio-economic challenges, and potential for sustainable development.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26

Bharmaur tribal region has harsh climate conditions, low resource base and fragile environment. These factors have influenced the society and economy of the region. It is one of the most (economically and socially) backward areas of Himachal Pradesh. The Gaddis have experienced geographical and political isolation and socio-economic deprivation.

To improve the quality of life of the Gaddi tribe and bridge the development gap between Bharmaur and other areas of Himachal Pradesh

Focus areas

  1. Agriculture and Allied Activities: Modernization of Agriculture Promote Horticulture and livestock Improvement, adapt agricultural practices and infrastructure development, considering factors like to the region's harsh climate, snowfall and limited growing seasons.
  2. Education and Skill Development: Access to Quality Education Vocational Training, Adult Literacy Programs, Address issues of poverty, unemployment, and historical isolation through targeted programs and skill development.
  3. Livelihood Opportunities: Promote eco-friendly tourism, Support Handicrafts, Improve Connectivity.
  4. Community Participation: Ensure active involvement of the Gaddi community in planning and implementation to address their specific needs and priorities.
  5. Government Support: Secure funding and policy support from the government for infrastructure development, education, and skill-building programs.

Elaborate the above points

Q36.SQP 2025-26 · Q28 (OR)5 marks

The development of the Indira Gandhi Canal Command area has led to the degradation of the physical environment there. Suggest five measures to promote ecological sustainability in the Indira Gandhi Canal Project.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26

Measures proposed to promote sustainable development in the Indira Gandhi Canal Project are meant to restore ecological balance.

  1. The first requirement is strict implementation of water management policy. The canal project envisages protective irrigation in Stage-I and extensive irrigation of crops and pasture development in Stage-II.
  2. In general, the cropping pattern shall not include water intensive crops. It shall be adhered to and people shall be encouraged to grow plantation crops such as citrus fruits.
  3. The CAD programmes such as lining of water courses, land development and levelling and warabandi system (equal distribution of canal water in the command area of outlet) shall be effectively implemented to reduce the conveyance loss of water.
  4. The areas affected by water logging and soil salinity shall be reclaimed.
  5. The eco-development through afforestation, shelterbelt plantation and pasture development is necessary particularly in the fragile environment of Stage-II.
  6. The social sustainability in the region can be achieved only if the land allottees having poor economic background are provided adequate financial and institutional support for cultivation of land.
  7. The economic sustainability in the region cannot be attained only through development of agriculture and animal husbandry. The agricultural and allied activities have to develop alongwith other sectors of economy. This shall lead to diversification of economic base and establishment of functional linkages between basic villages, agro-service centres and market centres.

(Any five or any other relevant points)

Q37.SQP 2026-27 · Q285 marks

Examine the role of the Indira Gandhi Canal in bringing about changes in the ecology, economy, and society of the Thar Desert region.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27

The role of the Indira Gandhi Canal in bringing about changes in the ecology, economy, and society of the Thar Desert region is as follows (5)

  1. Ecological Impact: The Indira Gandhi Canal has increased soil moisture and vegetation cover in the arid Thar Desert, reducing desert conditions, though it has also led to problems of waterlogging and salinity in some areas.
  2. Agricultural Development: The canal has provided assured irrigation, expanding the cultivated area and enabling the cultivation of crops such as wheat, cotton and mustard instead of traditional dry farming.
  3. Change in Cropping Pattern: There has been a shift from subsistence crops like bajra to water-intensive and commercial crops due to the availability of canal water.
  4. Economic Transformation: Increased agricultural productivity has improved farm incomes, generated employment, and encouraged the growth of agro-based industries in the region.
  5. Social Change: The canal has promoted settlement, reduced out-migration, and improved living standards by supporting better infrastructure and socio-economic development.
Q38.SQP 2026-27 · Q28 (OR)5 marks

Suggest suitable measures to promote sustainable development and improve the quality of life in the Bharmour Tribal Region of Chamba, with reference to its physiographic divisions and river systems.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27

The Bharmour tribal region of Chamba district lies in the trans-Himalayan physiographic zone and is drained mainly by the Ravi River and its tributaries. Due to its rugged relief, harsh climate, limited accessibility, and fragile ecosystem, special measures are required to ensure sustainable development and improve the quality of life of tribal communities. (5)

  1. Development of Infrastructure and Connectivity: Improve road connectivity between valleys and settlements while ensuring minimal ecological damage.
  2. Sustainable Use of Natural Resources: Promote controlled grazing to prevent degradation of alpine pastures. Encourage afforestation and social forestry on slopes to prevent soil erosion and landslides.
  3. Agriculture and Livelihood Support: Promote terrace farming and cultivation of high-altitude crops suitable to local conditions. Encourage horticulture, medicinal herbs, and traditional crafts to diversify income sources.
  4. Water Resource Management: Ensure sustainable use of river water through small irrigation channels. Develop hydel projects on tributaries of the Ravi River to meet local energy needs without harming the environment.
  5. Education, Health, and Social Development: Improve access to education and healthcare facilities in remote areas. Promote tribal welfare programmes, skill development, and preservation of tribal culture.

(Any five points)

Part B · India: People and Economy

7. Transport and Communication

Q1.2026 Main 64/1/1 · Q111 mark

Which one of the following set of cities falling on the ‘Golden Quadrilateral’ are arranged in a clock-wise direction from Delhi ? 1

  1. Delhi, Kolkata, Mumbai and Chennai
  2. Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata and Chennai
  3. Delhi, Chennai, Mumbai and Kolkata
  4. Delhi, Kolkata, Chennai and Mumbai
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/1/1

(D) Delhi, Kolkata, Chennai, Mumbai

Q2.2026 Main 64/1/1 · Q121 mark

Which one of the following cities serve as headquarter of two railway zones ? 1

  1. Kolkata
  2. Chennai
  3. Jaipur
  4. Bilaspur
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/1/1

(A) Kolkata

Q3.2026 Main 64/2/1 · Q121 mark

Which one of the following organisations regulate the air traffic of major airports of India ? 1

  1. Airport Authority of India
  2. Indian Airport Commission
  3. Indian Air Control Board
  4. Airport Development Authority
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/2/1

(A) Airport Authority of India

Q4.2026 Main 64/2/1 · Q141 mark

Which one of the following inland waterway and its stretch is correctly matched ? 1

(Waterways) – (Stretch)

  1. National Waterways No. 1 – Allahabad – Haldia
  2. National Waterways No. 3 – Sadiya – Dhubri
  3. National Waterways No. 2 – Kottapuram – Kollam
  4. National Waterways No. 5 – Kakinada – Puducherry
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/2/1

(A) National Waterways No.1 - Allahabad - Haldia

Q5.2026 Main 64/3/1 · Q111 mark

Which one of the following set of places are connected by the ‘Atal Tunnel’ ?

  1. Shimla and Manikaran
  2. Shimla and Lahaul-Spiti
  3. Manali and Lahaul-Spiti
  4. Manali and Manikaran
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/3/1

(C) Manali and Lahaul-Spiti

Q6.2026 Main 64/3/1 · Q121 mark

Which one of the following organisations constructed the Hazira-Vijaipur-Jagdishpur gas pipeline ?

  1. Hindustan Petroleum Corporation
  2. Oil and Natural Gas Corporation
  3. Oil Authority of India Limited
  4. Gas Authority of India Limited
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/3/1

(D) Gas Authority of India Ltd.

Q7.2026 Main 64/4/1 · Q131 mark

Which one of the following institutions constructed the ‘Golden Quadrilateral Project’ ?

  1. National Highways Authority of India
  2. State Highway Authority
  3. Central Public Works Department
  4. Border Roads Organisation
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/4/1

(A) National Highways Authority of India

Q8.2026 Main 64/4/1 · Q141 mark

‘Kottapuram to Kollam’ is the stretch of which one of the following National Waterways ?

  1. National Waterway 1
  2. National Waterway 2
  3. National Waterway 3
  4. National Waterway 4
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/4/1

(C) National Waterway 3

Q9.2026 Main 64/5/1 · Q91 mark

Choose the correctly matched pair :

(Railway Zone)(Headquarter)
(A)East CentralBhubaneswar
(B)West CentralMumbai
(C)North CentralGorakhpur
(D)South CentralSecunderabad
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/5/1

(D) South Central – Secunderabad

Q10.2026 Main 64/5/1 · Q101 mark

Which one of the following set of states are the partners in ‘Konkan Railway’ ?

  1. Goa, Karnataka and Kerala
  2. Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu
  3. Maharashtra, Goa and Karnataka
  4. Gujarat, Maharashtra and Goa
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/5/1

(C) Maharashtra, Goa and Karnataka

Q11.2026 Main 64/5/1 · Q111 mark

Match Column I with Column II correctly and choose the appropriate option :

Column I
(Waterways)
Column II
(Stretch)
a. National Waterway No. 1i. Godavari-Krishna Rivers with Kakinada
b. National Waterway No. 2ii. Prayagraj − Haldia
c. National Waterway No. 3iii. Kottapuram − Kollam
d. National Waterway No. 4iv. Sadiya − Dhubri

Options :

  1. a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv
  2. a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii
  3. a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
  4. a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/5/1

(D) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i

Q12.2026 Main 64/5/1 · Q121 mark

At present, the Grand Trunk Road extends between which of the following two cities ?

  1. Amritsar and Bhubaneswar
  2. Amritsar and Kolkata
  3. Pathankot and Kolkata
  4. Pathankot and Bhubaneswar
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/5/1

(B) Amritsar and Kolkata

Q13.2026 Supp. 64/7/1 · Q131 mark

Which one of the following set of states are partners in the Konkan Railway ?

  1. Goa, Maharashtra, Gujarat
  2. Karnataka, Maharashtra, Goa
  3. Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu
  4. Maharashtra, Goa, Kerala
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/7/1

(B) Karnataka, Maharastra, Goa

Q14.2026 Supp. 64/7/1 · Q141 mark

The first oil pipeline in India was constructed between which of the following two places ?

  1. Hazira to Vijaipur
  2. Hazira to Jhabua
  3. Naharkatiya oil fields to Barauni
  4. Naharkatiya oil fields to Haldia
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/7/1

(C) Naharkatia oil fields to Baruani

Q15.2025 Main 64/1/1 · Q81 mark

Identify the main objective of Gas Authority of India Limited (GAIL) from the following :

  1. To transport and store natural gas at its depot.
  2. To process and allocate natural gas to different states.
  3. To transport, process and market natural gas.
  4. To sale, stored natural gas for greater profit.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/1/1

(C) To transport, process and market natural gas

Q16.2025 Main 64/4/1 · Q81 mark

The objective of Border Roads Organisation is :

  1. To construct roads in moderately elevated plateau areas.
  2. To construct roads in high altitude mountainous terrains.
  3. To construct roads in low lying plain areas.
  4. To construct roads in coastal areas for linking ports.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/4/1

(B) To construct roads in high altitude mountainous terrains

Q17.2025 Main 64/5/1 · Q81 mark

The world’s longest highway tunnel, Atal Tunnel is constructed across which one of the following ranges of the Himalayas ?

  1. Pir Panjal
  2. Karakoram
  3. Zaskar
  4. Ladakh
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/5/1

(A) Pir Panjal

Q18.2025 Main 64/6/1 · Q111 mark

Which one of the following plan was introduced to improve the conditions of roads in India ?

  1. Nagpur Plan
  2. Golden Quadrilateral Plan
  3. North-South Corridor Plan
  4. Twenty-Year Road Plan
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/6/1

(D) Twenty - Year Road Plan

Q19.2025 Main 64/7/1 · Q31 mark

The road between Chandigarh – Manali was constructed by which of the following ?

  1. Border Roads Organisation
  2. National Highways Authority of India
  3. Central Public Works Department
  4. State Public Works Department
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/7/1

(A) Border Roads Organisation

Q20.2025 Main 64/7/1 · Q61 mark

Identify the practical measure from the following to control air pollution in the metropolitan cities in India. Choose the most appropriate option.

  1. Public Transport with Ring Railway
  2. Carpooling with Metro Rail
  3. Metro Rail with CNG Buses
  4. Ring Railway with CNG Buses
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/7/1

(C) Metro Rail with CNG Buses

Q21.2024 Main 64/1/1 · Q81 mark

Choose the correct option regarding the stretch of National Waterways No. 1 :

  1. Allahabad/Prayagraj – Haldia
  2. Sadiya – Dhubri
  3. Kottapuram – Kollam
  4. Kakinada – Puducherry
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/1/1

(A) Allahabad / Prayagraj - Haldia

Q22.2024 Main 64/1/1 · Q111 mark

Which one of the following is the biggest government undertaking in the country ?

  1. Indian Railways
  2. National Highways Authority of India
  3. Border Roads Organization
  4. All India Radio
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/1/1

(A) Indian Railways

Q23.2024 Main 64/2/1 · Q111 mark

Which one of the following places is the easternmost station of ‘East-West Corridor’ ?

  1. Digboi
  2. Silchar
  3. Guwahati
  4. Itanagar
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/2/1

(B) Silchar

Q24.2024 Main 64/2/1 · Q121 mark

Read the programmes related to the proposed Bharatmala umbrella scheme carefully and choose the correct option :

  1. Backward areas, religious and tourist places connectivity programme
  2. To interconnect the four metropolitan cities of the country
  3. To develop State roads in adjoining coastal areas
  4. To connect non-major ports in coastal states

Options :

  1. Only I, II and III are correct.
  2. Only II, III and IV are correct.
  3. Only I, III and IV are correct.
  4. Only I, II and IV are correct.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/2/1

(C) Only I, III, and IV are correct.

Q25.2024 Main 64/3/1 · Q91 mark

Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option :

Column I
(Railway Zones)
Column II
(Headquarters)
1.North Eastern(i)Jabalpur
2.West Central(ii)Hajipur
3.East Central(iii)Secunderabad
4.South Central(iv)Gorakhpur

Options :

  1. 1-(i), 2-(iv), 3-(iii), 4-(ii)
  2. 1-(i), 2-(iv), 3-(ii), 4-(iii)
  3. 1-(iv), 2-(i), 3-(ii), 4-(iii)
  4. 1-(iv), 2-(i), 3-(iii), 4-(ii)
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/3/1

(C) 1–(iv), 2–(i), 3–(ii), 4–(iii)

Q26.2024 Main 64/3/1 · Q121 mark

Which of the following are the correct two terminal places of ‘North-South Corridor’ ?

  1. Srinagar and Kanyakumari
  2. Delhi and Kanyakumari
  3. Amritsar and Chennai
  4. Srinagar and Chennai
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/3/1

(A) Srinagar and Kanyakumari

Q27.2024 Main 64/3/1 · Q151 mark

Study the given diagram carefully and answer Q. No. 15 to 17 :

Figure

The given diagram is related to which of the following National Waterways of India ?

  1. National Waterway Number 2
  2. National Waterway Number 3
  3. National Waterway Number 4
  4. National Waterway Number 5
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/3/1

(B) National Waterway Number 3

Q28.2024 Main 64/3/1 · Q161 mark

Study the given diagram carefully and answer Q. No. 15 to 17 :

Figure

Mark (A) on the diagram is related to which of the following places ?

  1. Kakinada
  2. Dhubri
  3. Kottapuram
  4. Sadiya
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/3/1

(C) Kottapuram

Q29.2024 Main 64/3/1 · Q171 mark

Study the given diagram carefully and answer Q. No. 15 to 17 :

Figure

Mark (B) on the diagram is related to which of the following places ?

  1. Kollam
  2. Haldia
  3. Dibrugarh
  4. Vallamkali
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/3/1

(A) Kollam

Q30.2024 Main 64/4/1 · Q81 mark

Match the Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option :

Column-I
(National Waterway)
Column-II
(River)
(a)National Waterway No. 1(i)Matai
(b)National Waterway No. 2(ii)Godavari
(c)National Waterway No. 4(iii)Ganga
(d)National Waterway No. 5(iv)Brahmaputra

Options :

(a)(b)(c)(d)
(A)(iv)(iii)(ii)(i)
(B)(iv)(iii)(i)(ii)
(C)(iii)(iv)(i)(ii)
(D)(iii)(iv)(ii)(i)
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/4/1

(D) (iii), (iv), (ii), (i)

Q31.2024 Main 64/4/1 · Q121 mark

Choose the correct option to fill the blanks :

Indian Railway was introduced in 1853 and a railway line was constructed from ________ to ________ covering a distance of 34 km.

  1. Mumbai (Bombay), Thane
  2. Kolkata (Calcutta), Hugli
  3. Chennai (Madras), Madurai
  4. Bengaluru (Bangalore), Calicut
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/4/1

(A) Mumbai (Bombay), Thane

Q32.2024 Main 64/5/1 · Q91 mark

Which of the following waterways and their stretches are correctly matched ?

(National Waterways)(Stretch)
(A)National Waterways No. 1–Godavari – Krishna
(B)National Waterways No. 2–Sadiya – Dhubri
(C)National Waterways No. 3–Allahabad – Haldia
(D)National Waterways No. 4–Kottapuram – Kollam
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/5/1

(B) National Waterway No. 2 – Sadiya- Dhubri

Q33.2024 Main 64/5/1 · Q101 mark

Match the Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option :

Column-I
(Railway Zone)
Column-II
(Headquarters)
(a)Northern(i)Hajipur
(b)South Central(ii)Chennai
(c)Southern(iii)New Delhi
(d)East Central(iv)Secunderabad

Options :

(a)(b)(c)(d)
(A)(iv)(iii)(ii)(i)
(B)(iii)(iv)(ii)(i)
(C)(i)(ii)(iii)(iv)
(D)(ii)(iii)(iv)(i)
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/5/1

(B) a-(iii), b-(iv), c-(ii), d-(i)

Q34.2024 Main 64/5/1 · Q111 mark

Which of the following metro-cities is not linked with the ‘Golden Quadrilateral’ ?

  1. Mumbai
  2. Chennai
  3. Hyderabad
  4. Delhi
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/5/1

(C) Hyderabad

Q35.2024 Main 64/5/1 · Q141 mark

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read them carefully and choose the correct option.

Assertion (A) : “Waterway is an important mode of transport both for passengers and cargo traffic in India.”

Reason (R) : “It is fuel efficient and eco-friendly mode of transport.”

Options :

  1. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
  2. Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
  3. (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
  4. (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/5/1

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A)

Q36.2023 Main 64/1/1 · Q141 mark

Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option :

Column I
(Railway zone)
Column II
(Headquarter)
i. North Central1. Secunderabad
ii. East Central2. Allahabad/Prayagraj
iii. West Central3. Hajipur
iv. South Central4. Jabalpur

Options :

  1. i – 1, ii – 2, iii – 3, iv – 4
  2. i – 4, ii – 3, iii – 2, iv – 1
  3. i – 3, ii – 4, iii – 1, iv – 2
  4. i – 2, ii – 3, iii – 4, iv – 1
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/1/1

(d) i – 2, ii – 3, iii – 4, iv – 1

Q37.2023 Main 64/2/1 · Q141 mark

Read the following statements regarding Border Roads and choose the correct option :

  1. Border roads are strategically important.
  2. They strengthen defence preparedness.
  3. ‘National Highways Authority of India’ construct these roads.
  4. They are helpful in accelerating economic development.

Options :

  1. Only I, II and III are correct.
  2. Only II, III and IV are correct.
  3. Only I, II and IV are correct.
  4. Only I, III and IV are correct.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/2/1

(C) Only I, II and IV are correct.

Q38.2023 Main 64/3/1 · Q101 mark

Which of the following features is not true regarding NHAI ?

  1. It is an autonomous body under the Ministry of Surface Transport.
  2. It is responsible for constructing and maintaining National Highways.
  3. It also constructs village link roads.
  4. NHAI was operationalized in 1995.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/3/1

(c) It also constructs village link roads.

Q39.2023 Main 64/3/1 · Q111 mark

Which among the following is the westernmost station of East-West corridor ?

  1. Kolkata
  2. Guwahati
  3. Porbandar
  4. Mumbai
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/3/1

(c) Porbander

Q40.2023 Main 64/4/1 · Q81 mark

Which one of the following is the easternmost station of the East-West corridor ?

  1. Guwahati
  2. Bhopal
  3. Kolkata
  4. Silchar
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/4/1

(d) Silchar

Q41.2023 Main 64/4/1 · Q101 mark

Which of the following is not true regarding the development of border roads ?

  1. Integration of people of remote areas with major cities
  2. Strengthening defence preparedness
  3. Helps in transporting goods to border villages
  4. Help in developing large scale industries
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/4/1

(d) Help in developing large scale industries.

Q42.2023 Supp. 64/C/1 · Q151 mark

Read the given source and answer Q. No. 15 to 17.

The Border Road Organisation (BRO) was established in May 1960 for accelerating economic development and strengthening defence preparedness through rapid and coordinated improvement of strategically important roads along the northern and north-eastern boundary of the country. It is a premier multifaceted construction agency. It has constructed roads in high altitude mountainous terrain joining Chandigarh with Manali (Himachal Pradesh) and Leh (Ladakh). This road runs at an average altitude of 4,270 metres above the mean sea level.

Apart from the construction and maintenance of roads in strategically sensitive areas, the BRO also undertakes snow clearance in high altitude areas. The international highways are meant to promote the harmonious relationship with the neighbouring countries by providing effective links with India.

Which one of the following is the main objective of ‘Border Road Organisation’ ?

  1. To connect border cities to nearby metropolitan cities.
  2. To help hilly areas in educational development.
  3. To strengthen defence preparedness.
  4. To plan for the development of border areas.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/C/1

(c) To strengthen defence preparedness.

Q43.2023 Supp. 64/C/1 · Q161 mark

Read the given source and answer Q. No. 15 to 17.

The Border Road Organisation (BRO) was established in May 1960 for accelerating economic development and strengthening defence preparedness through rapid and coordinated improvement of strategically important roads along the northern and north-eastern boundary of the country. It is a premier multifaceted construction agency. It has constructed roads in high altitude mountainous terrain joining Chandigarh with Manali (Himachal Pradesh) and Leh (Ladakh). This road runs at an average altitude of 4,270 metres above the mean sea level.

Apart from the construction and maintenance of roads in strategically sensitive areas, the BRO also undertakes snow clearance in high altitude areas. The international highways are meant to promote the harmonious relationship with the neighbouring countries by providing effective links with India.

Why is it very difficult to construct roads on the north-eastern border of India ? Choose the correct option :

  1. Relief features
  2. Climate
  3. Lack of infrastructure
  4. Lack of money

Options :

  1. Only I, II and III are correct.
  2. Only II, III and IV are correct.
  3. Only I, III and IV are correct.
  4. Only I, II and IV are correct.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/C/1

(a) Only I, II and III are correct.

Q44.2023 Supp. 64/C/1 · Q171 mark

Read the given source and answer Q. No. 15 to 17.

The Border Road Organisation (BRO) was established in May 1960 for accelerating economic development and strengthening defence preparedness through rapid and coordinated improvement of strategically important roads along the northern and north-eastern boundary of the country. It is a premier multifaceted construction agency. It has constructed roads in high altitude mountainous terrain joining Chandigarh with Manali (Himachal Pradesh) and Leh (Ladakh). This road runs at an average altitude of 4,270 metres above the mean sea level.

Apart from the construction and maintenance of roads in strategically sensitive areas, the BRO also undertakes snow clearance in high altitude areas. The international highways are meant to promote the harmonious relationship with the neighbouring countries by providing effective links with India.

Under which of the following does Border Road Organisation work ?

  1. Central Government
  2. Border States Governments
  3. Local Self-Governments
  4. Non-Governmental Organisations
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/C/1

(a) Central Government

Q45.SQP 2025-26 · Q171 mark

UDAN (Ude Desh ka Aam Nagrik) is a first-of-its kind scheme globally, designed to jump-start the regional aviation market. Regional Connectivity Scheme (RCS) -UDAN was conceived by the Ministry of Civil Aviation (MoCA) Govt. of India, to promote regional connectivity by making fly affordable for the common citizen.

The central idea of UDAN is

  1. To encourage airlines to operate flights on regional and remote routes through enabling policies and extending incentives.
  2. To ensure the development of world-class international airports in metropolitan cities.
  3. To provide subsidies to private airlines for expanding their global flight operations.
  4. To improve air cargo infrastructure to support trade and export activities in rural areas.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26

(A) To encourage airlines to operate flights on regional and remote routes through enabling policies and extending incentives.

Q46.SQP 2026-27 · Q151 mark

Given below is a list of National Waterways. Which one of the following is incorrectly matched?

StretchWaterways
1.Allahabad-HaldiaNW-1
2.Kottapuram-KollamNW-5
3.Sadiya-DhubriNW-2
4.Kakinada-PuducherryNW-4
  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27

(B) 2

Q47.SQP 2026-27 · Q161 mark

A coastal district is preparing for an approaching cyclone. The disaster management team needs real-time information on cloud movement and storm intensity. Which satellite system will provide the most reliable support for this purpose?

  1. IRS – Indian Remote Sensing Satellite
  2. INSAT – Indian National Satellite System
  3. GSAT – Communication satellite for TV channels
  4. PSLV – Launch vehicle for satellites
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27

(B) INSAT – Indian National Satellite System

Q48.2022 Main 64/4/1 · Q12 marks

Why has the Indian Railways launched an extensive programme to convert metre and narrow gauges to broad gauge ? Explain. 1+1=2

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2022 (Main), Set 64/4/1
  1. To increase the speed of passenger as well as goods trains.
  2. To increase the haulage capacity.
  3. To save time and energy wasted in shifting from one gauge to another.
  4. Any other relevant point.

Any two points to be explained 1×2=2

Q49.2022 Main 64/5/1 · Q22 marks

How has 'internet' become the most effective and advanced of all the personal communication systems in India ? Explain.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2022 (Main), Set 64/5/1
  1. User establish direct contact through email
  2. World of knowledge and information through Internet
  3. Used for e-commerce and money transactions
  4. Accessible at very low cost
  5. Any other relevant point.

(Any two points to be explained) [TB-II, Pg-121] 2x1=2

Q50.2026 Main 64/2/1 · Q233 marks

Explain the need to extend the network of national highways in India. 3

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/2/1

i. The National highways constitutes about 2% of the road length but carry 40% of the road traffic. Due to this extending the network of National Highways is crucial.
ii. These roads are meant for inter-state transport.
iii. Movement of defence personnel and material in the strategic areas is through these highways.
iv. These highways connect the state capitals, major cities, important ports and railway junctions.
v. Goods, services and passengers move to different places for transportation.
vi. It reduces time and cost to cover long distance.
vii. These reduce traffic congestion on roads.
viii. Any other relevant point

(Any three points to be explained) 3×1=3

Q51.2025 Main 64/2/1 · Q223 marks

Explain the main characteristics of rural roads in India. 3

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/2/1

The main characteristics of rural roads in India are :

  1. Rural roads are vital for providing links in rural areas.
  2. About 80 percent of the total road length in India is categorized as rural roads.
  3. There is regional variation in the density of rural roads because these are influenced by the nature of the terrain.
  4. Any other relevant point.

(Any three points to be explained.) 3×1=3

Q52.2025 Main 64/6/1 · Q213 marks

Explain the main features of the ‘Bharatmala Project’ for road connectivity.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/6/1

Bharatmala Project is proposed umbrella scheme for :-

  1. Development of state roads along coastal border areas, including connectivity of non major ports.
  2. Backward areas, religious and tourist places connectivity programme.
  3. Setubharatam pariyojana, which is for the construction of about 1500 major bridges and 200 rail over bridges.
  4. District headquarters connectivity scheme for the development of about 9000 kms newly declared national highways.
  5. Any other relevant point.

(Any three points to be explained.) 3×1=3

Q53.2025 Supp. 64/S/1 · Q193 marks

Study the following table carefully and answer the questions that follow : 3×1=3

India Road Network 2016

Serial No.Road CategoryLength in km
1.National Highways101011
2.State Highways176166
3.Major District Roads561940
4.Rural Roads3935377
Total4774494

(19.1) National highways are less by how many km with respect to state highways in 2016 ? 1

(19.2) Major district roads are more by how many km with respect to state highways in 2016 ? 1

(19.3) Why does a very large length of roads come under rural roads category ? 1

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/S/1

(19.1) 75155 Kms. 1

(19.2) 385774 Kms. 1

(19.3) Rural roads are important for providing link to rural population, as nearly 68.8% of our population lives in rural areas, therefore large length of roads come under rural roads category. 1

3×1=3

Q54.2022 Main 64/4/1 · Q63 marks

(a) “Border Roads Organisation is a premier multifaceted construction agency.” Support the statement. 1×3=3

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2022 (Main), Set 64/4/1
  1. It constructs roads in high altitude mountainous terrain, eg. joining Chandigarh with Manali and Leh.
  2. It constructs and maintenance of roads in strategically sensitive areas.
  3. It undertakes snow clearance in high altitude areas
  4. Any other relevant point.

1×3=3

Q55.2022 Main 64/4/1 · Q6 (OR)3 marks

(b) Explain the functions of the ‘National Highway Authority of India’. 1×3=3

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2022 (Main), Set 64/4/1
  1. Development;
  2. Maintenance;
  3. Operation of National Highways;
  4. An apex body to improve the quality of the roads designated as National Highways.
  5. Any other relevant point.

(Any Three points to be explained) 1×3=3

Q56.2022 Main 64/5/1 · Q63 marks

(a) "Television (T.V.) has emerged as the most effective audio-visual medium in India." Explain the statement.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2022 (Main), Set 64/5/1
  1. News
  2. Programmes related to education
  3. Programme provided for entertainments.
  4. Extension to the backward and remote rural areas also.
  5. Any other relevant point

(Any three points to be explained) [TB-II, Ch-10, Pg-122] 3x1=3

Q57.2022 Main 64/5/1 · Q6 (OR)3 marks

(b) "Konkan railway' is the important achievements of the Indian railways.' Support the statement.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2022 (Main), Set 64/5/1
  1. Built in difficult terrain
  2. Engineering marvel
  3. Crosses a large no. of rivers, canals, streams and bridges
  4. Asia’s largest tunnel lies in the route
  5. Any other relevant point

(Any three points to be explained) [TB-II, Pg-118] 3x1=3

Q58.2026 Main 64/3/1 · Q265 marks

(a) ‘‘Metro rail has revolutionised the urban transport system in India.’’ Support the statement with examples. 5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/3/1

i. Metro rail has transformed urban transportation in India by providing fast, safe, reliable, public transport in major cities.
ii. Metro systems have significantly reduced road traffic in metropolitan cities. Example: Delhi Metro Rail Corporation.
iii. Metro trains run on dedicated tracks avoiding traffic jams thus saves travel time.
iv. Metro rail reduces air pollution by decreasing the number of private vehicles, therefore, it is an eco-friendly transport.
v. Air-conditioned coaches, CCTV cameras, women-only coaches, and security arrangements ensure safety and comfort.
vi. Metro projects generate employment.
vii. Compared to private vehicles, metro travel is economical for daily commuters.
viii. Smart cards and travel passes make commuting convenient.
ix. Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be explained.) 5×1=5

Q59.2026 Main 64/3/1 · Q26 (OR)5 marks

(b) ‘‘Among all the personal communication systems, Internet is the most effective and advanced one in India.’’ Support the statement with examples. 5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/3/1

i. It is widely used in urban areas.
ii. It enables the user to establish direct contact through e-mail to get access to the world of knowledge and information.
iii. It is increasingly used for e-commerce and carrying out money transactions.
iv. The internet is like a huge central warehouse of data, with detailed information on various items.
v. The network through internet and e-mail provides an efficient access to information at a comparatively low cost.
vi. It enables us with the basic facilities of direct communication.
vii. Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be explained.) 5×1=5

Q60.2025 Main 64/1/1 · Q275 marks

(a) “Indian Railways have facilitated the movement of both freight and passengers and contributed to the growth of economy.” Support the statement with suitable arguments.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/1/1
  1. Indian railway network is one of the longest in the world.
  2. Conversion of metre and narrow gauge to broad gauge and replacement of steam engines to diesel and electric engines has increased the speed as well as haulage capacity.
  3. Metro rail has revolutionised the urban transport system in India as it facilitates the movement of people, which enhances their working efficiency and spheres in spatial contexts.
  4. Areas around towns, raw material producing areas and of plantation and other commercial crops, hill stations and cantonment towns were well connected by railways from the British colonial era.
  5. After independence, railway routes have been extended to other areas. The most significant development has been the development of Konkan railway along the west coast providing a direct link between Mumbai and Mangalore.
  6. Railway continues to remain the main means of transport for the masses as well as goods too.
  7. Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be explained) 5×1=5

Q61.2025 Main 64/4/1 · Q27 (OR)5 marks

“Satellites are mode of communication in themselves as well as they regulate the use of other means of communication.” Substantiate the statement. 5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/4/1
  1. Satellites are mode of communication in themselves as well as regulating the use of other means of communication.
  2. Use of satellites in getting a continuous and synoptic view of larger areas has made satellite communication very vital for the country due to economic and strategic reasons.
  3. Satellite images can be used for the weather forecast, monitoring natural calamities, and surveillance of border areas.
  4. Satellites collect data in several spectral bands and transmit them to the ground stations for various uses.
  5. They are very useful in the management of natural resources.
  6. Based on configuration and purposes, satellite system in India can be grouped into two INSAT and IRS.
  7. The INSAT is a multipurpose satellite system for telecommunication, meteorological observation and for various other data and programmes.
  8. Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be substantiated) 5×1=5

Q62.2025 Main 64/5/1 · Q265 marks

How does personal communication system enable the user to establish direct contact with the world of knowledge and information ? Analyse. 5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/5/1
  1. Among all the personal communication systems, the Internet is the most effective and advanced one.
  2. It is widely used in urban areas.
  3. It enables the user to establish direct contact through e-mail to get access to world knowledge and information.
  4. It is increasingly used for e-commerce and carrying out money transactions.
  5. The internet is like a huge central warehouse of data, with detailed information on various items.
  6. The internet and e-mail provide efficient access to information at a comparatively low cost.
  7. It enables people for direct communication.
  8. Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be analysed.) 5×1=5

Q63.2024 Main 64/2/1 · Q285 marks

(a) Explain the importance of rail transport in India.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/2/1

The importance of rail transport in India is as follows-

  1. Indian Railways network is one of the longest in the world.
  2. It facilitates the movement of both freight and passengers and contributes to the growth of the economy.
  3. It is the largest government undertaking in the country.
  4. The length of Indian Railways network was about 67,956 km (Railway Yearbook-2019-20).
  5. Its very large size puts a lot of pressure on a centralized railway management system.
  6. Electrification of railways has increased the speed and haulage capacity.
  7. Metro rail system has revolutionised the urban transport system and is a welcome step towards controlling air pollution.
  8. Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be explained) 5×1=5

Q64.2024 Main 64/4/1 · Q285 marks

(a) “Pipelines are the most convenient and efficient mode of transportation in India.” Examine the statement with examples.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/4/1

(i) Pipelines are the most convenient and efficient mode of transporting liquids and gases over long distance.

(ii) Even solids can also be transported by pipelines after converting them into slurry.

(iii) It helps in processing and marketing of natural gas for economic uses.

(iv) Various fertiliser, power and industrial complexes are linked with western and northern India for different uses.

(v) This artery provides impetus to Indian gas market development. Overall, India’s gas infrastructure has expanded over ten times.

(vi) Asia’s first cross-country pipeline covering a distance of about 1157 km. was constructed by OIL from Naharkatiya oil field in Assam to Barauni refinery in Bihar.

(vii) Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be examined.)

5x1=5

Q65.2024 Main 64/4/1 · Q28 (OR)5 marks

(b) “India has the second largest road networks in the world.” Examine the statement with examples.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/4/1

(i) The total length of roads is 62.16 lakh km.

(ii) About 85% of passengers are carried by roads.

(iii) About 70% of freight traffic is carried by roads every year.

(iv) Road transport is relatively suitable for shorter distance travel.

(v) National Highways, State Highways, District Roads, Rural Roads are different types of roads in India:-

  1. National highways- the length of the national highways is 136440km (2020), 2% of total length.
  2. State highways – these constitute 4% of the total length in the country - 176818 km
  3. District roads- they account for 14% of the total road length of the country.
  4. Rural roads- They account about 80% of the total road length in the country.
  5. Other roads include Border Roads and International Highways. The Border Road runs at an average altitude of 4,270 metres above the mean sea level.
  6. The international highway promotes the harmonious relationship with the neighbouring countries by providing effective links with India.
  7. Any other relevant point

(Any five points to be examined.)

5x1=5

Q66.2024 Supp. 64/S/1 · Q285 marks

(a) Analyse the role of the Indian Railways in the economic development of the country.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/S/1
  1. Indian railway network is one of the longest in the world.
  2. It facilitates the movement of both freight and passengers and contribute to the growth of economy.
  3. Conversion of metre and narrow gauge to broad gauge and replacement of steam engines to diesel and electric engines has increased the speed as well as haulage capacity.
  4. Metro rail has revolutionised the urban transport system in India as it facilitates the movement of people, which enhances their working efficiency and spheres in spatial contexts.
  5. Areas around towns, raw material producing areas and of plantation and other commercial crops, hill stations and cantonment towns were well connected by railways from the British colonial era.
  6. After independence, railway routes have been extended to other areas. The most significant development has been the development of Konkan railway along the west coast providing a direct link between Mumbai and Mangalore.
  7. Railway continues to remain the main means of transport for the masses as well as goods too.
  8. Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be analysed.) 5x1=5

Q67.2024 Supp. 64/S/1 · Q28 (OR)5 marks

(b) Analyse the role of metalled roads in the economic development of India.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/S/1
  1. India has one of the second largest network of roads in the world.
  2. India has large network of National Highways, State Highways and Border roads.
  3. Road network has accelerated economic development by helping the industries, trade and farming community.
  4. It is very helpful in the defence preparedness in the country.
  5. With economic and technological development, road transport carries huge volume of goods and traffic.
  6. Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be analysed.) 5x1=5

Q68.2023 Main 64/1/1 · Q285 marks

(a) “India has one of the second largest road networks in the world.” Support the statement. 5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/1/1
  1. About 85% of passengers are carried by roads every year.
  2. 70% of freight traffic are carried by roads every year.
  3. For the purpose of construction and maintenance roads are classified as N.H., S.H., Major District Roads and Rural Roads.
  4. NH connect the state capitals, major cities, ports, railway junctions etc. e.g. Golden Quadrilateral, North-South and East-West corridors.
  5. SH connects state capital with the district head quarters.
  6. District roads connect district head quarters with important nodes in the district.
  7. Most of the roads in rural areas provide vital links.
  8. Border roads are of strategic importance in frontier areas.
  9. Any other relevant point.

Any five points to be explained. 5×1=5

Q69.2023 Main 64/1/1 · Q28 (OR)5 marks

(b) “Indian Railways network is one of the longest in the world.” Support the statement. 5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/1/1
  1. Indian Railways is the largest government undertaking in the country.
  2. It facilitates the movement of passengers and goods and contributes to the growth of economy.
  3. It integrates the people of different castes, religion, culture and economic conditions.
  4. In India, the railway system has been divided into 16 zones for better management of railways.
  5. Konkan Railway is an important achievement of Indian Railways.
  6. Railway system is being upgraded e.g. the operation of the Metro in cities.
  7. Any other relevant point.

Any five points to be explained. 5×1=5

Q70.2023 Main 64/2/1 · Q285 marks

(a) How are pipelines the most convenient and efficient mode of transporting liquids and gases over long distances in India ? Explain with examples.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/2/1

Pipelines are convenient mode of transportation in India:-

  1. Solids can be transported through pipelines after converting them into slurry.
  2. Asia’s first cross country pipeline covering a distance of 1157 km. was constructed by OIL from Naharkatiya oil field in Assam to Barauni refinery in Bihar.
  3. It was further extended up to Kanpur.
  4. Another extensive network of pipeline has been constructed in Western and northern India.
  5. Hajira-Vajaipur-Jagdishpur (HVJ) is most important pipeline constructed by GAIL.
  6. Natural gas is transported from Mumbai High and Bassein Gas fields to various fertilizers, power and industries.
  7. Any other relevant point.

Any five points to be explained.

5x1=5

Q71.2022 Main 64/1/1 · Q85 marks

“India has one of the largest road networks in the World.” Examine the statement. 5 × 1 = 5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2022 (Main), Set 64/1/1

India has one of the largest road networks in the world :

  1. India has the second largest road network in the world with total length of 54·8 lakh kms.
  2. About 85% of passenger and 70% of freight traffic are carried by roads every year.
  3. For the purpose of construction and maintenance roads are classified as NH, SH, major district roads and rural roads.
  4. The NH constitute only about 2% of total road length but carry 40% of road traffic.
  5. The SH constitute 4% of total road length in the country.
  6. District roads accounts for 14% of the total road length of the country.
  7. About 80% of the total road length in India are categorized as rural roads.
  8. Other roads include border roads and international highways.
  9. Any other relevant point.

Any five points to be explained. 5×1=5

Q72.2022 Main 64/2/1 · Q85 marks

“Inland waterways faced many problems in India.” Examine the statement with examples. 1×5=5

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  1. It faced tough competition from road and railway transport.
  2. Diversion of river water for irrigation purpose made them non-navigable in large parts of their courses.
  3. Seasonal fluctuation in the flow of water
  4. Takes more time to transport goods then any other mode of transport.
  5. Poor maintenance.
  6. Any other relevant point.

Any five points to be explained. 1×5=5

Q73.2022 Main 64/3/1 · Q85 marks

“Pipelines are the most convenient and efficient mode of transporting liquids and gases over long distances in India.” Examine the statement. 5 × 1 = 5

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Pipelines are the most convenient and efficient mode of transporting liquids and gases :

  1. Asia’s first cross-country pipeline covering a distance of 1157 km was constructed by OIL from Naharkatiya oilfield to Barauni refinery.
  2. It was further extended up to Kanpur.
  3. Another extensive network of pipelines has been constructed in the western region of India from Koyali and Hazira-Vijaipur Jagishpur are most important.
  4. Recently a 1256 km long pipeline connecting Salaya (Gujarat) with Mathura (UP) has been constructed.
  5. It helps to supply crude oil without delay.
  6. It takes less time.
  7. Least damage.
  8. Initial cost is high but in long run it is cheap.
  9. There is un-interrupted flow.
  10. Solid can be transported by pipelines after converting into slurries.
  11. Any other relevant point

Any five points to be explained. (TB II page 121) 1×5=5

Part B · India: People and Economy

8. International Trade

Q1.2026 Main 64/2/1 · Q111 mark

Which one of the following contributes maximum in India’s export ? 1

  1. Agriculture and allied products
  2. Ores and minerals
  3. Manufactured goods
  4. Mineral fuels and lubricants
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(C) Manufactured goods

Q2.2026 Main 64/2/1 · Q131 mark

Which one of the following ports is situated at ‘Zuari Estuary’ ? 1

  1. New Mangalore
  2. Kochchi
  3. Marmagao
  4. Ennore
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(C) Marmagao

Q3.2026 Main 64/5/1 · Q151 mark

Study the following table carefully and answer the question nos. 15 to 17 :

Direction of India’s Import Trade (in ₹ crore)

RegionImports 2010 − 11Imports 2016 − 17
Europe323857403972
Africa118612193327
North America100602195332
Latin America64576115762
Asia and ASEAN10298811544520

Between 2010 − 11 and 2016 − 17, which one of the following regions had the lowest difference in imports ?

  1. Europe
  2. Africa
  3. North America
  4. Latin America
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(D) Latin America

Q4.2026 Main 64/5/1 · Q161 mark

Study the following table carefully and answer the question nos. 15 to 17 :

Direction of India’s Import Trade (in ₹ crore)

RegionImports 2010 − 11Imports 2016 − 17
Europe323857403972
Africa118612193327
North America100602195332
Latin America64576115762
Asia and ASEAN10298811544520

Which one of the following shows the correct increase in imports with Africa between 2010 − 11 and 2016 − 17 ?

  1. ₹ 74,715 crore
  2. ₹ 74,315 crore
  3. ₹ 74,115 crore
  4. ₹ 74,015 crore
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/5/1

(A) Rs 74,715 crore

Q5.2026 Main 64/5/1 · Q171 mark

Study the following table carefully and answer the question nos. 15 to 17 :

Direction of India’s Import Trade (in ₹ crore)

RegionImports 2010 − 11Imports 2016 − 17
Europe323857403972
Africa118612193327
North America100602195332
Latin America64576115762
Asia and ASEAN10298811544520

Arrange the following regions of the world from the lowest to the highest order on the bases of imports during 2016 − 17 and choose the correct option :

I. Europe   II. Africa   III. North America   IV. Latin America

Options :

  1. III, I, IV, II
  2. III, I, II, IV
  3. IV, II, III, I
  4. IV, II, I, III
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(C) IV, II, III, I

Q6.2025 Main 64/1/1 · Q91 mark

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option :

Assertion (A) : Water transport plays an important role in the international trade of India.

Reason (R) : The east coast of India has more ports than its west coast.

Options :

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  3. (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
  4. (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/1/1

(C) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect

Q7.2025 Main 64/2/1 · Q121 mark

Read the following statements related to international trade of India carefully and choose the correct option : 1

  1. India has a long coastline surrounded by ocean from three sides.
  2. Indian coasts have large number of well-developed sea ports.
  3. Kandla port exports huge amount of iron-ore.
  4. The transportation cost by water is very cheap for voluminous items.

Options :

  1. Only (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct.
  2. Only (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.
  3. Only (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
  4. Only (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
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(A) Only (i), (ii), and (iv) are correct.

Q8.2025 Main 64/2/1 · Q151 mark

Study the following table carefully and answer the Question No. 15 to 17 :

Composition of India’s export : 2009-2017
(Percentage share in exports)

Commodities2009-102010-112015-162016-17
Agriculture and allied products10.09.912.612.3
Ore and minerals4.94.01.61.9
Manufactured goods67.468.072.973.6
Crude and petroleum products16.216.811.911.7
Other commodities1.51.21.10.5

Under which one of the following category of commodities, increase in export is continuously observed ? 1

  1. Agriculture and allied products
  2. Ore and minerals
  3. Manufactured goods
  4. Other commodities
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(C) Manufactured goods

Q9.2025 Main 64/2/1 · Q161 mark

Study the following table carefully and answer the Question No. 15 to 17 :

Composition of India’s export : 2009-2017
(Percentage share in exports)

Commodities2009-102010-112015-162016-17
Agriculture and allied products10.09.912.612.3
Ore and minerals4.94.01.61.9
Manufactured goods67.468.072.973.6
Crude and petroleum products16.216.811.911.7
Other commodities1.51.21.10.5

Under which one of the following category of commodities, maximum decline in export is recorded from 2015-16 to 2016-17 ? 1

  1. Agriculture and allied products
  2. Ore and minerals
  3. Crude and petroleum products
  4. Other commodities
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/2/1

(D) Other Commodities

Q10.2025 Main 64/2/1 · Q171 mark

Study the following table carefully and answer the Question No. 15 to 17 :

Composition of India’s export : 2009-2017
(Percentage share in exports)

Commodities2009-102010-112015-162016-17
Agriculture and allied products10.09.912.612.3
Ore and minerals4.94.01.61.9
Manufactured goods67.468.072.973.6
Crude and petroleum products16.216.811.911.7
Other commodities1.51.21.10.5

Under which one of the following categories of commodities, the increase in export is observed from 2010-11 to 2016-17 ? 1

  1. Agriculture and allied products
  2. Ore and minerals
  3. Crude and petroleum products
  4. Other commodities
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(A) Agriculture and allied products

Q11.2025 Main 64/4/1 · Q91 mark

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option.

Assertion (A) : The significance of Kolkata sea port has declined in the recent times.

Reason (R) : Kolkata port is confronted with the problem of silt accumulation in the Hugli river.

Options :

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  3. (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
  4. (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
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(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Q12.2025 Main 64/5/1 · Q91 mark

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option.

Assertion (A) : International trade is mutually beneficial to nations.

Reason (R) : It helps in getting the needed items from other countries.

Options :

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  3. (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
  4. (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
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(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).

Q13.2025 Supp. 64/S/1 · Q141 mark

Which one of the following sea ports is located at the entrance of Zuari estuary ?

  1. Paradwip
  2. Kochi
  3. New Mangalore
  4. Marmagao
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/S/1

(D) Marmagao

Q14.2024 Main 64/3/1 · Q101 mark

Arrange the following commodities of Indian export during 2016 – 17 in descending order of their percentages and choose the correct option :

  1. Crude and petroleum products
  2. Manufactured goods
  3. Agriculture and allied products
  4. Ore and minerals

Options :

  1. I, II, III, IV
  2. II, I, IV, III
  3. III, II, I, IV
  4. II, III, I, IV
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/3/1

(D) II, III, I and IV

Q15.2024 Main 64/3/1 · Q111 mark

Which of the following sea ports in India has been developed specially to import petroleum and fertilizers ?

  1. Mumbai
  2. Marmagao
  3. Kandla
  4. Kochchi
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/3/1

(C) Kandla

Q16.2024 Supp. 64/S/1 · Q91 mark

Which one of the following is a natural harbour and the biggest sea port of India ?

  1. Kolkata port
  2. Chennai port
  3. Mumbai port
  4. Kandla port
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(C) Mumbai port

Q17.2024 Supp. 64/S/1 · Q101 mark

Under which one of the following commodities was the export from India the highest during 2016 – 17 ?

  1. Agriculture and allied products
  2. Ores and minerals
  3. Manufactured goods
  4. Crude and petroleum products
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(C) Manufactured goods

Q18.2023 Main 64/1/1 · Q131 mark

The port designed to receive petroleum, petroleum products and fertilizers is :

  1. New Mangaluru
  2. Haldia
  3. Kandla
  4. Tuticorin
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/1/1

(c) Kandla

Q19.2023 Main 64/3/1 · Q121 mark

Which of the following seaports is located on Mahanadi delta ?

  1. Haldia
  2. Ennore
  3. Paradwip
  4. Vishakhapatnam
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(c) Paradwip

Q20.2023 Main 64/3/1 · Q131 mark

Why has Kolkata port minimised its significance ?

  1. It has a vast hinterland
  2. Accumulation of silt in Hugli river
  3. Diversion of exports to other ports
  4. Passenger traffic is very low
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(c) Diversion of exports to other ports.

Q21.2023 Main 64/3/1 · Q141 mark

India’s foreign trade is largely carried out by which of the following routes ?

  1. Land and air routes
  2. Land and sea routes
  3. Air and sea routes
  4. Only sea routes
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(c) Air and sea routes

Q22.2023 Supp. 64/C/1 · Q51 mark

Which one of the following is the feature of Mumbai harbour ?

  1. It is situated at the entrance of the Zuari estuary.
  2. It is a land-locked harbour.
  3. It is an artificial harbour.
  4. It is a natural harbour.
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(d) It is a natural harbour

Q23.2023 Supp. 64/C/1 · Q71 mark

Which one of the following is the main feature of Jawaharlal Nehru Port ?

  1. It is the largest container port of India.
  2. Konkan railway extended its hinterland.
  3. It exports iron-ore.
  4. Karnataka is the major hinterland to this port.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/C/1

(a) It is the largest container port of India.

Q24.SQP 2025-26 · Q81 mark

The given graph shows the trend of exports and imports (in Rs. Crores) over the years 2013-14 to 2021-22.

Figure

Based on the graph, which of the following statements is correct?

  1. Imports consistently increased from 2013-14 to 2021-22.
  2. Exports and imports were nearly equal in 2016-17.
  3. There was no significant change in exports between 2013-14 and 2016-17.
  4. Exports showed a sharper increase compared to imports 2016-17 and 2021-22.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26

(C) There was no significant change in exports between 2013-14 and 2016-17.

Q25.2026 Main 64/5/1 · Q233 marks

Explain the main reasons for the increase in imports of petroleum in India. 3

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The increase in the import of petroleum is due to the following reasons.

  1. Petroleum is used not only as a fuel but also as an industrial raw material.
  2. Due to rising industrialization.
  3. Better standards of living led to the increase in petroleum and its products.
  4. Domestic production of petroleum in the country is insufficient in comparison to its demand; therefore, import is increasing to meet its growing demand.
  5. Any other relevant point.

(Any three points to be explained) 3×1=3

Q26.2025 Main 64/6/1 · Q233 marks

(a) Explain the main characteristics of Kolkata sea port and its hinterland.

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The main characteristics of Kolkata sea port and its hinterland are :-

  1. This port is located on the Hugli river, 128 kms inland from the Bay of Bengal.
  2. It had the initial advantage of being the capital of British India.
  3. Its hinterland covers UP, Bihar, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Sikkim and the North Eastern states.
  4. Apart from this, it also extends ports facilities to our neighbouring landlocked countries such as Nepal and Bhutan.
  5. Any other relevant point.

(Any three points to be explained.) 3×1=3

Q27.2025 Main 64/6/1 · Q23 (OR)3 marks

(b) Explain the main characteristics of Mumbai sea port and its hinterland.

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The main characteristics of Mumbai sea port and its hinterland are :-

  1. It is a natural harbour and the biggest port of the country.
  2. The port is situated closer to the general routes from the countries of Middle East, Mediterranean countries, North Africa, North America and Europe where the major share of country’s overseas trade is carried out.
  3. The port is 20 km long and 6 to 10 km wide with 54 berths and has the country’s largest oil terminal.
  4. M.P, Maharashtra, Gujarat, U.P and other parts of Rajasthan constitute the main hinterlands of Mumbai ports.
  5. Any other relevant point.

(Any three points to be explained.) 3×1=3

Q28.2025 Supp. 64/S/1 · Q233 marks

Examine the changing patterns of the composition of India’s imports since the 1950s.

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  1. Major items of import during 1950s was food grains, capital goods, machinery and equipment.
  2. After 1970s, food grain import was discontinued.
  3. Food grain import was replaced by fertilizers and petroleum.
  4. Machine and equipment, special steel, edible oil and chemicals largely make the import basket.
  5. There is rise in the import of petroleum products.
  6. Import of capital goods, food and allied product declined.
  7. Other major items of import include pearls, precious and semi precious stone, gold and silver, non metals and ferrous.
  8. Any other relevant point.

(Any three points to be examined.) 3×1=3

Q29.2024 Main 64/5/1 · Q233 marks

“The composition of commodities in India’s international trade has been undergoing a change over the years.” Examine the statement with examples.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/5/1

(i) The share of agriculture and allied products have declined.

(ii) The share of petroleum and crude products have increased.

(iii) The decline in traditional items is largely due to the tough international competition.

(iv) Among the agricultural products, there is a decline in export of traditional items, such as coffee, cashew etc., though an increase has been registered in floriculture products, fresh fruits, marine products and sugar etc.

(v) The share of minerals and ores remained almost constant.

(vi) Any other relevant point.

(Any three points to be examined)

3x1=3

Q30.2023 Main 64/4/1 · Q183 marks

Study the given graph and answer the questions that follow : 3×1=3

Changing Pattern of the Composition of India’s Exports

Extent of gap between Exports and Imports in India’s foreign trade During 2012 – 13 to 2016 – 17

Figure

Source : Economic Survey, 2016 – 17

(18.1) In which year was the gap between imports and exports the maximum ? 1
(18.2) When was the gap between imports and exports minimum ? 1
(18.3) In which year had India’s exports shown highest upward trend ? 1

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/4/1

(18.1) 2012 – 13 (1)

(18.2) 2016 – 17 (1)

(18.3) 2013 – 14 (1)

Q31.2026 Main 64/1/1 · Q285 marks

(a) Analyse the importance of Indian seaports in the development of international trade. 5

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i) India has 12 major and 200 minor or intermediate ports.
ii) These ports are the gateways of international trade
iii) Indian ports are handling large volume of domestic, as well as, overseas trade.
iv) Approximately 95 per cent of India’s foreign trade by volume and 70 per cent by value moves through ocean routes.
v) Most of the ports are equipped with modern infrastructure.
vi) The capacity of Indian ports increased from 20 million tonnes of cargo handling in 1951 to more than 837 million tonnes in 2016.
vii) Any other relevant point

(Any five points to be analysed) 5×1=5

Q32.2026 Main 64/1/1 · Q28 (OR)5 marks

(b) Analyse the changing pattern of India’s international trade. 5

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The international trade of India has increased many folds from 1950-51 to 2020-21

i) The export of traditional agricultural products like cashews has decreased, whereas floricultural products, fresh fruits, marine products, and sugar, etc., have increased.
ii) During the 1950s and 1960s, food grains, capital goods, machinery, and equipment were imported. After the 1970s, food-grains imports were replaced by fertilizers as a result of the Green Revolution, and the import of crude petroleum also increased, resulting in an increase in the export of petroleum products.
iii) The export of manufactured goods and engineering goods has significantly increased.
iv) Machines and equipment, special steel, edible oil and chemicals make up a large part of our import basket.
v) The import of capital goods has declined.
vi) The export of ore and minerals has largely remained constant over the years.
vii) Pearls, precious and semi-precious stones, gold, and silver have become part of both our exports and imports. We import these, add value to them by converting them into gems and jewellery, and export them.
viii) Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be analysed.) 5×1=5

Q33.2026 Main 64/4/1 · Q285 marks

(a) Analyse the changing pattern of export composition in India between 2009 to 2017. 5

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i) The decline in traditional items is largely due to tough international competition.
ii) Amongst the agricultural products, there is a decline in the export of traditional items such as coffee, cashew etc.
iii) An increase has been registered in flori cultural products, fresh fruits, marine products etc.
iv) Manufacturing sector have highest share in total value of export.
v) Engineering goods have shown a significant growth in the export.
vi) Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be analysed) 5×1=5

Q34.2026 Main 64/4/1 · Q28 (OR)5 marks

(b) Analyse the changing pattern of import composition in India between 2009 to 2017. 5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/4/1

i) There is a steep rise in import of petroleum products.
ii) Total percentage of fuel is about 26.7 % in 2016-17 while it was about 33 % 2009-10.
iii) Import of capital goods maintained steady increase due to rising demand in export oriented industrial and domestic sector.
iv) Non- electrical machinery, transport equipment, manufacturers of metals and machine tools were the main items of capital goods.
v) Share of food and allied products was 3.7% and it increased to 5.6 % in 2016-17.
vi) Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be analysed) 5×1=5

Q35.2026 Supp. 64/7/1 · Q285 marks

Analyse the role of seaports in India’s international trade. 5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/7/1
  1. India is surrounded by sea from three sides and is bestowed with a long coastline and has many ports.
  2. Indian ports are handling large volumes of overseas trade.
  3. The cargo handling capacity of Indian ports increased manifolds from 1951 to 2016.
  4. Some ports are specially designed to receive large quantities of cargo and petroleum.
  5. Western ports have international trade with S.W Asia, Africa, Middle East, Mediterranean Countries, North America & Europe.
  6. Eastern ports are well connected with East Asia (China, Japan, Korea) & Australia.
  7. Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be analysed) 5×1=5

Q36.2026 Supp. 64/7/1 · Q28 (OR)5 marks

Analyse the role of air transportation in India’s international trade. 5

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Air transport played an important role in international trade.

  1. It promotes international tourism especially medical tourism.
  2. It has the advantage of taking the least time.
  3. Very high value goods are transported at international level.
  4. Perishable goods are transported quickly over long distances.
  5. There are 25 major airports functioning, which connect India with all continents.
  6. Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be analysed) 5×1=5

Q37.2025 Main 64/1/1 · Q27 (OR)5 marks

(b) “Indian ports have continuously been growing for successful international trade.” Support the statement with suitable arguments.

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  1. Indian ports are growing continuously after independence.
  2. Indian ports are handling large volumes of domestic as well as overseas trade.
  3. Most of the ports are equipped with modern infrastructure.
  4. Previously, the development and modernization was the responsibility of the government agencies.
  5. Considering the increase in function and need to bring these ports at par with the international ports, private entrepreneurs have been invited for modernisation of ports in India.
  6. The capacity of Indian ports increased more than forty times in 2016 since 1951.
  7. Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be explained.) 5×1=5

Q38.2025 Main 64/4/1 · Q275 marks

“In India, sea ports have emerged as gateways of international trade.” Substantiate the statement. 5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/4/1
  1. India is surrounded by sea from three sides and is bestowed with a long coastline.
  2. Water provides a smooth surface for very cheap transport provided there is no turbulence.
  3. India has a long tradition of Seafaring and developed many ports with place name suffixed with “Pattan”, meaning port.
  4. The emergence of ports as gateways of international trade became important after the coming of the European traders and colonisation of the country by British. It led to the variation in the size and quality of ports.
  5. Some ports have very vast areas of influence and some have limited areas of influence.
  6. Major ports handle a larger share of the total traffic.
  7. Today, most ports are equipped with modern infrastructure and technology.
  8. Indian ports are handling large volumes of domestic as well as overseas trade.
  9. The capacity of Indian ports increased from 20 million tonnes of cargo handling in 1951 to more than 837 million tonnes in 2016.
  10. Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be substantiated) 5×1=5

Q39.2025 Main 64/5/1 · Q26 (OR)5 marks

Analyse the changing pattern of imports in India. 5

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  1. In 1950 and 1960, the major items of import were food grain, capital goods, machinery and equipment.
  2. Initially, the balance of payment was adverse as imports were more than exports.
  3. After 1970 food grain import was discontinued due to the green revolution.
  4. The energy crisis in 1973 pushed up the prices of petroleum resulting in a rise in the import budget.
  5. Fertilizers and petroleum replaced food grain imports.
  6. Machine and equipment, special steel, edible oil and chemicals largely make the import basket.
  7. Import of food and allied products declined.
  8. Other major items of import include pearls, precious and semi-precious stones, gold and silver, etc.
  9. Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be analysed.) 5×1=5

Q40.2025 Main 64/7/1 · Q255 marks

Explain the changing patterns of the composition of India’s import.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/7/1

Composition of India’s import :

  1. Major items of import are foodgrain, capital goods, machinery and equipment. The Balance of Payment was adverse as imports were more than exports.
  2. India faced serious food shortage during 1950s and 1960s.
  3. After 1970s, foodgrain import was discontinued due to the success of the green revolution.
  4. The energy crisis of 1973 pushed the prices of petroleum and the import budget increased.
  5. Foodgrain was replaced by fertilizers and petroleum, machines and equipment.
  6. Special steel, edible oil and chemicals largely make the import basket.
  7. Import of capital goods maintained a steady increase.
  8. Import of food and allied products declined.
  9. Other major items of India’s import include pearls, precious and semi-precious stones, gold and silver, non-metal ferrous metals.
  10. Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be explained) 5×1=5

Q41.2024 Main 64/1/1 · Q275 marks

Explain the Indian sea ports as gateways of international trade.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/1/1

Indian sea ports as gateways of international trade:-

  1. India is surrounded by sea from three sides and is bestowed with a long coastline.
  2. India has a long tradition of sea faring.
  3. Indian west coast has more ports than its east ports.
  4. Variations in the size and quality of ports.
  5. The ports act as suction points of the resources from their hinterlands.
  6. Extension of railways linked the ports of the local markets to regional markets to national markets.
  7. Indian ports are handling large volume of domestic as well as over seas trade.
  8. At present, India has 12 major ports and 200 minor or intermediate ports.
  9. Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be explained.) 5x1=5

Q42.2024 Main 64/2/1 · Q28 (OR)5 marks

(b) Explain sea port as a gateway for international trade in India.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/2/1
  1. India is surrounded by sea from three sides and is bestowed with a long coastline.
  2. Water provides a smooth surface for very cheap and ecofriendly transport.
  3. India has a long tradition of seafaring and developed many ports
  4. India has ports both on east and west coasts.
  5. Ports have been in use since ancient times.
  6. Indian ports can handle both domestic and overseas trade and are equipped with modern infrastructure.
  7. Indian ports act as suction points of resources from their hinterlands and link markets with local, regional, national and international markets.
  8. Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be explained.) 5×1=5

Q43.2023 Main 64/2/1 · Q28 (OR)5 marks

(b) Explain with examples of the importance of Indian ports as gateways of international trade.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/2/1

Importance of Indian ports:-

  1. India is surrounded by sea from three sides and is bestowed with a long coastline.
  2. Water provides a smooth surface for very cheap transport.
  3. India has a long tradition of sea faring.
  4. Its West coast has more ports than its East coast.
  5. Kandla port receives a large quantity of petroleum, petroleum products and fertilizers.
  6. Mumbai port trades mineral oil.
  7. Vishakhapatnam port developed for handling iron ore, petroleum and general cargo.
  8. Any other relevant point.

Any five points to be explained.

5x1=5

Q44.2023 Main 64/5/1 · Q275 marks

Examine the significance of sea ports of India in the promotion of India’s foreign trade.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/5/1
  1. India has a vast coastline.
  2. Water provides smooth surface for sea transport and developing ports.
  3. Coastline is suitable for developing ports.
  4. These ports are the gateways for the international trade.
  5. Bulk of our trade is handled by our sea ports.
  6. Capacity of ports to handle trade is increasing gradually.
  7. Most of the ports are equipped with modern infrastructure.
  8. Any other relevant point

(Any 5 points need to be explained) 1×5=5

Q45.SQP 2025-26 · Q275 marks

Study the table showing the composition of India’s exports since 2015-2021 and answer the question.

(Percentage share in Exports)

Commodities2015-162016-172020-212021-22
Agriculture and allied products12.612.314.311.9
Ore and Minerals1.61.93.22.0
Manufactured goods72.973.671.267.8
Crude and petroleum products11.911.79.216.4
Other commodities1.10.52.11.9

Source : Economic Survey 2016-17 and 2022-23

How have the composition and trends in India's exports evolved since 2015-16? Highlight five key changes.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26
  1. The composition of commodities in India’s international trade has been undergoing a change over the years. In export the share of agriculture and allied products and manufactured goods have decreased.
  2. Share from crude petroleum and products and other commodities have increased.
  3. The share of ore and minerals have largely remained constant over the years from 2015-16 to 2021-22.
  4. The decline in traditional items is largely due to the tough international competition.
  5. Amongst the agriculture products, there is a decline in the export of traditional item, such as cashew, etc., though an increase has been registered in floricultural products, fresh fruits, marine products and sugar, etc.
Q46.SQP 2026-27 · Q255 marks

Why are seaports known as ‘the gateway of international trade’? Write a brief note on the importance of Kandla port. (2+3=5)

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27

The seaports are known as ‘the gateway of international trade’. (2)

  1. The ports as suction points of the resources from their hinterlands. The extension of railways towards the interior facilitated the linking of the local markets to regional markets, regional markets to national markets and national markets to the international.
  2. The ports are handling large volumes of domestic, as well as, overseas trade. Most of the ports are equipped with modern infrastructure.
  3. Ocean transport is the cheapest mode of transport for bulky and heavy goods over long distances and approximately 95% of international trade by volume is carried out through ocean routes.
  4. Ports are not just docking points; they are complex service centers that facilitate trade through providing facilities for docking, loading, unloading, and storage (warehousing) of cargo. Port authorities arrange for navigable channels, tugs, barges, and labor to ensure ships can enter and exit safely.

Any two Points

Importance of Kandla Port (3)

  1. Deendayal Port (Kandla port) situated at the head of Gulf of Kuchchh. It has been developed as a major port to cater to the needs of western and north western parts of the country
  2. This is to reduce the pressure at Mumbai port.
  3. The port is specially designed to receive large quantities of petroleum and petroleum products and fertiliser.
  4. The offshore terminal at Vadinar has been developed to reduce the pressure at the port.

Any three points

Q47.SQP 2026-27 · Q25 (OR)5 marks

Describe the nature of the changes in the composition of export and import trade of India.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27

The composition of commodities in India’s international trade has been undergoing a change over the years. (1×5=5)

  1. In export the share of agriculture and allied products and manufactured goods have decreased.
  2. Share from crude petroleum and products and other commodities have increased.
  3. The decline in traditional items is largely due to the tough international competition.
  4. Amongst the agriculture products, there is a decline in the export of traditional item, such as cashew, etc., though an increase has been registered in floricultural products, fresh fruits, marine products and sugar, etc.
  5. Engineering goods have shown a significant growth in exports.
  6. During 1950s and 1960s the major item of import at that time was foodgrain, capital goods, machinery and equipment. After 1970s, foodgrain import was discontinued due to the success of Green Revolution.
  7. Foodgrain import was replaced by fertilisers and petroleum. Machines and equipment, special steel, edible oil and chemicals largely make the import basket.

Any five points (Include at least two of import and two of export)

Part B · India: People and Economy

9. Geographical Perspective on Selected Issues and Problems

Q1.2026 Main 64/1/1 · Q131 mark

Which one of the following is a natural process of land degradation ? 1

  1. Mining activities
  2. Gully erosion
  3. Industrial waste
  4. Shifting cultivation
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/1/1

(B) Gully erosion

Q2.2026 Main 64/1/1 · Q141 mark

The loudness of the sound is measured in the unit known as : 1

  1. Millimeter
  2. Centimeter
  3. Decimal
  4. Decibel
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/1/1

(D) Decibel

Q3.2026 Main 64/3/1 · Q131 mark

The Watershed Management Programme in Jhabua district of Madhya Pradesh was funded by which one of the following ministries ?

  1. Ministry of Agriculture
  2. Ministry of Urban Development
  3. Ministry of Human Development
  4. Ministry of Finance
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/3/1

(A) Ministry of Agriculture

Q4.2026 Main 64/3/1 · Q141 mark

Which one of the following has classified ‘wastelands’ in India ?

  1. Indian Space Research Organisation
  2. Indian Institute of Remote Sensing
  3. Regional Remote Sensing Centres
  4. National Remote Sensing Centre
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/3/1

(D) National Remote Sensing centre

Q5.2026 Main 64/5/1 · Q131 mark

The ‘Swachh Bharat Mission’ is part of which one of the following ?

  1. Urban Land Development Mission
  2. Urban Renewal Mission
  3. Urban Housing Development Drive
  4. Urban Plantation Drive
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/5/1

(B) Urban Renewal Mission

Q6.2025 Main 64/1/1 · Q101 mark

Read the following facts about ‘Swachh Bharat Mission’ carefully and choose the correct option :

  1. It is a part of urban renewable mission.
  2. It is launched by Government of India.
  3. It is associated with improving greenery in urban areas.
  4. It is aimed to improve quality of life in urban slums.

Options :

  1. Only i, ii and iii are correct.
  2. Only ii, iii and iv are correct.
  3. Only i, ii and iv are correct.
  4. Only i, iii and iv are correct.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/1/1

(C) Only i, ii and iv are correct

Q7.2025 Main 64/1/1 · Q111 mark

Identify the unit to measure sound from the following :

  1. Particles per hundred
  2. Decibel
  3. Particles per thousand
  4. Nanometer
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/1/1

(B) Decibel

Q8.2025 Main 64/1/1 · Q121 mark

Choose the correctly matched pair of areas and their characteristics from the following :

(Areas)(Characteristics)
(A)Jhabua DistrictBhil Tribe
(B)Daurala MeerutGaddi Tribe
(C)Bharmaur TehsilDilapidated Houses
(D)Dharavi MumbaiGroundwater Pollution
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/1/1

(A) Jhabua District – Bhil Tribe

Q9.2025 Main 64/1/1 · Q131 mark

“Some wastelands are rendered unfit for agriculture by human activities.” Choose the correct option related to the statement :

  1. Shifting cultivation area
  2. Coastal plains
  3. Degraded pastures
  4. Bhabar areas

Options :

  1. Only ii
  2. Both ii and iv
  3. Only iii
  4. Both i and iii
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/1/1

(D) Both i and iii

Q10.2025 Main 64/1/1 · Q141 mark

Choose the correct option to fill the blank :

By 2050, the world population is estimated to live in urban areas is ______.

  1. One fourth
  2. Half
  3. Two third
  4. Three fourth
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/1/1

(C) Two third

Q11.2025 Main 64/2/1 · Q131 mark

Why is it that slums are the areas of residence with least choice ? Choose the correct options : 1

  1. They have dilapidated houses with poor ventilation.
  2. The basic facilities like lights and toilets are difficult to get.
  3. Hygienic conditions and drinking water are improper.
  4. Better drainage facilities are available.

Options :

  1. Only (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.
  2. Only (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
  3. Only (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
  4. Only (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/2/1

(A) Only (i), (ii), and (iii) are correct.

Q12.2025 Main 64/2/1 · Q141 mark

The watershed management programme in Jhabua district of Madhya Pradesh is funded by which one of the following ministries ? 1

  1. Rural Development
  2. Environment
  3. Transport
  4. Irrigation
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/2/1

(A) Rural Development

Q13.2025 Main 64/5/1 · Q101 mark

Which one of the following is the main polluter of Yamuna water in Delhi ?

  1. Flood water spreading
  2. Dumping of domestic waste
  3. Use of pesticides
  4. Use of fertilizers
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/5/1

(B) Dumping of domestic waste

Q14.2025 Main 64/5/1 · Q111 mark

Identify the correct set of water-borne diseases.

  1. Asthma, Headache and Diarrhoea
  2. Hepatitis, Asthma and Blood pressure
  3. Intestinal worms, Headache and Blood pressure
  4. Hepatitis, Diarrhoea and Intestinal worms
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/5/1

(D) Hepatitis, Diarrhoea and Intestinal worms

Q15.2025 Main 64/5/1 · Q121 mark

Read the following factors of population migration in India from rural to urban areas carefully and choose the correct option of push factors.

  1. Unemployment
  2. Job opportunities
  3. Economic backwardness
  4. Lack of medical facilities

Options :

  1. Only I, II and III are correct.
  2. Only I, II and IV are correct.
  3. Only II, III and IV are correct.
  4. Only I, III and IV are correct.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/5/1

(D) Only I, III and IV are correct.

Q16.2025 Main 64/5/1 · Q131 mark

“The pressure on agricultural land increases not only due to the limited availability, but also by deterioration of quality of agricultural land.” In the context of this statement read the following reasons carefully and choose the correct option.

  1. Soil erosion and waterlogging.
  2. Salinisation and alkalinisation of soil.
  3. Rich land fertility and multiple cropping.
  4. Decline in land productivity.

Options :

  1. Only I, II and III are correct.
  2. Only I, II and IV are correct.
  3. Only I, III and IV are correct.
  4. Only II, III and IV are correct.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/5/1

(B) Only I, II and IV are correct.

Q17.2025 Main 64/5/1 · Q141 mark

Choose an objective of the ‘Namami Gange Programme’ from the following :

  1. To monitor industrial effluents
  2. To develop the network of canals
  3. To construct dams for water management
  4. To develop ‘Ganga Grams’ in Assam
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/5/1

(A) To monitor industrial effluents

Q18.2025 Main 64/6/1 · Q81 mark

The successful implementation of watershed management programme in Jhabua district of Madhya Pradesh was funded by which one of the following ?

  1. Non-Governmental Organisation
  2. Jhabua District Administration
  3. Madhya Pradesh Government
  4. Central Government
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/6/1

(D) Central Government

Q19.2025 Main 64/6/1 · Q101 mark

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option.

Assertion (A) : Lack of basic necessities such as housing, health and drinking water, etc. are found in slum settlements.

Reason (R) : The Government of India launched the ‘Swachh Bharat Mission’ to improve the quality of life in urban slums.

Options :

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  3. (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
  4. (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/6/1

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Q20.2024 Main 64/1/1 · Q71 mark

Which one of the following is not the objective of Namami Gange Programme ?

  1. Developing sewerage treatment systems in towns
  2. Monitoring of industrial effluents
  3. Afforestation along the banks of the river
  4. To divert the flow of the river from the cities
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/1/1

(D) To divert the flow of the river from the cities

Q21.2024 Main 64/1/1 · Q131 mark

Read the given statement carefully and answer the question that follows :

“Most of the industrial wastes are disposed off in running water or lakes.”

Which among the following group of industries are the major source of water pollution ? Choose the most appropriate option.

  1. Leather, pulp and paper
  2. Iron, copper and sugar
  3. Sugar, petrochemical and fertilizer
  4. Cotton textile, chemical and power plant
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/1/1

(A) Leather, pulp and paper

Q22.2024 Main 64/2/1 · Q131 mark

‘Swachh Bharat Mission’ has been launched by which one of the following ?

  1. Government of Madhya Pradesh
  2. Government of India
  3. Non Governmental Organisation
  4. World Health Organisation
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/2/1

(B) Government of India

Q23.2024 Main 64/2/1 · Q141 mark

Which one of the following diseases is caused by water pollution ?

  1. Hepatitis
  2. Asthma
  3. Pneumonia
  4. Deafness
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/2/1

(A) Hepatitis

Q24.2024 Main 64/3/1 · Q131 mark

Which one of the following is an example of solid waste ?

  1. Kitchen discarded items
  2. Polythene bags
  3. Plant leaves and branches
  4. Old newspapers
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/3/1

(B) Polythene Bags

Q25.2024 Main 64/3/1 · Q141 mark

Read the following sources of land pollution carefully and choose the correct option :

  1. Improper human activities
  2. Untreated industrial waste
  3. Practice of primitive subsistence agriculture
  4. Use of pesticides and fertilizers

Options :

  1. Only I, II and III are correct
  2. Only II, III and IV are correct
  3. Only I, II and IV are correct
  4. Only I, III and IV are correct
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/3/1

(C) Only I, II and IV are correct.

Q26.2024 Main 64/4/1 · Q131 mark

Which one of the following human body system gets affected the most by water pollution ?

  1. Nervous system
  2. Circulatory system
  3. Respiratory system
  4. Digestive system
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/4/1

(D) Digestive system

Q27.2024 Main 64/4/1 · Q141 mark

Which of the following tribes is in majority in Jhabua district of Madhya Pradesh ?

  1. Bhil
  2. Tharu
  3. Bakarwal
  4. Gaddi
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/4/1

(A) Bhil

Q28.2024 Supp. 64/S/1 · Q111 mark

Read the following sources of land pollution carefully and choose the most appropriate option :

  1. Improper human activities.
  2. Use of fertilizers and pesticides.
  3. Use of groundwater for irrigation.
  4. Disposal of untreated industrial waste.

Options :

  1. Only I, II and III are correct.
  2. Only II, III and IV are correct.
  3. Only I, II and IV are correct.
  4. Only I, III and IV are correct.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/S/1

(C) Only I, II and IV are correct.

Q29.2024 Supp. 64/S/1 · Q141 mark

Two statements are given below as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read them carefully and choose the correct option.

Assertion (A) : “Slums are residential areas of least choice for living.”

Reason (R) : “Slums are associated with unregulated drainage, lack of basic amenities like drinking water, toilets, lights, etc.”

Options :

  1. Assertion (A) is correct, but Reason (R) is not correct.
  2. Assertion (A) is not correct, but Reason (R) is correct.
  3. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  4. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/S/1

(C) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).

Q30.2023 Main 64/1/1 · Q151 mark

Read the case study given below and answer Q. No. 15 to 17.

Ramesh has been working in contract as a welder on a construction site in Talcher (coal region of Odisha) for the last two years. He moved with the contractor to various places like Surat, Mumbai, Gandhi Nagar, Bharuch, Jamnagar and so on. He remits ₹ 20,000 per year to his father in his native village. The remittances have been mainly used for daily consumption, healthcare, schooling of children, etc. Part of the money is also used in agriculture, purchasing of land and building of houses, etc. The standard of living of Ramesh’s family improved significantly.

Fifteen years ago, the situation was not the same. The family was passing through very tough times. Three of his brothers and their families had to survive on three acres of land. The family was highly in debt. Ramesh had to discontinue his studies after ninth standard. He was further hard pressed when he got married.

Simultaneously, he was also impressed by some successful out-migrants of his village who had been working in Ludhiana and supporting their families in the village by sending money and some consumer goods. Thus, due to abject poverty in the family and perceived job promises at Ludhiana, he made a move to Punjab with his friend. He worked there in a woolen factory for six months at the rate of only ₹ 20 per day in 1988. Apart from the crisis of managing his personal expenditure from this meagre income, he was also facing difficulty in assimilation to the new culture and environment. Then he decided to change his place of work from Ludhiana to Surat under the guidance of his friend. He learnt the skills of welding in Surat and after that he has been moving to different places with the same contractor. Though the economic condition of Ramesh’s family at the village improved, he is bearing the pain of separation of his near and dear ones. He cannot shift them with him, as the job is temporary and transferable.

Which one of the following is the meaning of remittance ?

  1. Money sent by migrants
  2. Money earned by migrants
  3. Money spent by migrants
  4. Loan taken by migrants
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/1/1

(a) Money sent by migrants

Q31.2023 Main 64/1/1 · Q161 mark

Read the case study given below and answer Q. No. 15 to 17.

Ramesh has been working in contract as a welder on a construction site in Talcher (coal region of Odisha) for the last two years. He moved with the contractor to various places like Surat, Mumbai, Gandhi Nagar, Bharuch, Jamnagar and so on. He remits ₹ 20,000 per year to his father in his native village. The remittances have been mainly used for daily consumption, healthcare, schooling of children, etc. Part of the money is also used in agriculture, purchasing of land and building of houses, etc. The standard of living of Ramesh’s family improved significantly.

Fifteen years ago, the situation was not the same. The family was passing through very tough times. Three of his brothers and their families had to survive on three acres of land. The family was highly in debt. Ramesh had to discontinue his studies after ninth standard. He was further hard pressed when he got married.

Simultaneously, he was also impressed by some successful out-migrants of his village who had been working in Ludhiana and supporting their families in the village by sending money and some consumer goods. Thus, due to abject poverty in the family and perceived job promises at Ludhiana, he made a move to Punjab with his friend. He worked there in a woolen factory for six months at the rate of only ₹ 20 per day in 1988. Apart from the crisis of managing his personal expenditure from this meagre income, he was also facing difficulty in assimilation to the new culture and environment. Then he decided to change his place of work from Ludhiana to Surat under the guidance of his friend. He learnt the skills of welding in Surat and after that he has been moving to different places with the same contractor. Though the economic condition of Ramesh’s family at the village improved, he is bearing the pain of separation of his near and dear ones. He cannot shift them with him, as the job is temporary and transferable.

The main cause of rural-urban migration in India is :

  1. Education
  2. Employment
  3. Health
  4. Tourism
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/1/1

(b) Employment

Q32.2023 Main 64/1/1 · Q171 mark

Read the case study given below and answer Q. No. 15 to 17.

Ramesh has been working in contract as a welder on a construction site in Talcher (coal region of Odisha) for the last two years. He moved with the contractor to various places like Surat, Mumbai, Gandhi Nagar, Bharuch, Jamnagar and so on. He remits ₹ 20,000 per year to his father in his native village. The remittances have been mainly used for daily consumption, healthcare, schooling of children, etc. Part of the money is also used in agriculture, purchasing of land and building of houses, etc. The standard of living of Ramesh’s family improved significantly.

Fifteen years ago, the situation was not the same. The family was passing through very tough times. Three of his brothers and their families had to survive on three acres of land. The family was highly in debt. Ramesh had to discontinue his studies after ninth standard. He was further hard pressed when he got married.

Simultaneously, he was also impressed by some successful out-migrants of his village who had been working in Ludhiana and supporting their families in the village by sending money and some consumer goods. Thus, due to abject poverty in the family and perceived job promises at Ludhiana, he made a move to Punjab with his friend. He worked there in a woolen factory for six months at the rate of only ₹ 20 per day in 1988. Apart from the crisis of managing his personal expenditure from this meagre income, he was also facing difficulty in assimilation to the new culture and environment. Then he decided to change his place of work from Ludhiana to Surat under the guidance of his friend. He learnt the skills of welding in Surat and after that he has been moving to different places with the same contractor. Though the economic condition of Ramesh’s family at the village improved, he is bearing the pain of separation of his near and dear ones. He cannot shift them with him, as the job is temporary and transferable.

Which one of the following is the demographic consequence of rural-urban migration ?

  1. Pressure on infrastructure at the place of destination
  2. Shortage of labour at the place of origin
  3. Imbalance in age and sex
  4. Intermixing of culture at the place of destination
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/1/1

(c) Imbalance in age and sex

Q33.2023 Main 64/2/1 · Q151 mark

Study the following source and answer the Question No. 15 to 17.

A Case Study

Jhabua district is located in the westernmost agro-climatic zone in Madhya Pradesh. It is, in fact, one of the five most backward districts of the country. It is characterized by high concentration of tribal population (mostly Bhils). The people suffer due to poverty which has been accentuated by the high rate of resource degradation, both forest and land. The watershed management programmes funded by both the ministries of “Rural Development” and “Agriculture”, Government of India, have been successfully implemented in Jhabua district which has gone a long way in preventing land degradation and improving soil quality. Watershed Management Programmes acknowledge the linkage between land, water and vegetation and attempts to improve livelihoods of people through natural resource management and community participation. In the past five years, the programmes funded by the Ministry of Rural Development alone (implemented by Rajiv Gandhi Mission for Watershed Management) has treated 20 percent of the total area under Jhabua district.

Which among the following is correct meaning of ‘land degradation’ ?

  1. Waterlogging in degraded land
  2. Declining productivity of the land
  3. Increasing of degraded forests
  4. Increasing of agricultural land
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/2/1

(B) Declining in productivity of the land

Q34.2023 Main 64/2/1 · Q161 mark

Study the following source and answer the Question No. 15 to 17.

A Case Study

Jhabua district is located in the westernmost agro-climatic zone in Madhya Pradesh. It is, in fact, one of the five most backward districts of the country. It is characterized by high concentration of tribal population (mostly Bhils). The people suffer due to poverty which has been accentuated by the high rate of resource degradation, both forest and land. The watershed management programmes funded by both the ministries of “Rural Development” and “Agriculture”, Government of India, have been successfully implemented in Jhabua district which has gone a long way in preventing land degradation and improving soil quality. Watershed Management Programmes acknowledge the linkage between land, water and vegetation and attempts to improve livelihoods of people through natural resource management and community participation. In the past five years, the programmes funded by the Ministry of Rural Development alone (implemented by Rajiv Gandhi Mission for Watershed Management) has treated 20 percent of the total area under Jhabua district.

Which one of the following is the main cause of land degradation ?

  1. Soil erosion
  2. Low productivity
  3. High productivity
  4. Increasing wastelands
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/2/1

(A) Soil erosion

Q35.2023 Main 64/2/1 · Q171 mark

Study the following source and answer the Question No. 15 to 17.

A Case Study

Jhabua district is located in the westernmost agro-climatic zone in Madhya Pradesh. It is, in fact, one of the five most backward districts of the country. It is characterized by high concentration of tribal population (mostly Bhils). The people suffer due to poverty which has been accentuated by the high rate of resource degradation, both forest and land. The watershed management programmes funded by both the ministries of “Rural Development” and “Agriculture”, Government of India, have been successfully implemented in Jhabua district which has gone a long way in preventing land degradation and improving soil quality. Watershed Management Programmes acknowledge the linkage between land, water and vegetation and attempts to improve livelihoods of people through natural resource management and community participation. In the past five years, the programmes funded by the Ministry of Rural Development alone (implemented by Rajiv Gandhi Mission for Watershed Management) has treated 20 percent of the total area under Jhabua district.

Which statement is NOT correct regarding Jhabua ?

  1. Jhabua is tribal concentrated district.
  2. Poverty has increased in the people due to land degradation.
  3. State government has provided money to implement watershed management programme.
  4. Watershed management programme has outstanding contribution in land treatment.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/2/1

(C) State government has provided money to implement watershed management programme.

Q36.2023 Main 64/3/1 · Q71 mark

Which one of the following is the cause of acid rain ?

  1. Land pollution
  2. Water pollution
  3. Air pollution
  4. Noise pollution
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/3/1

(c) Air pollution

Q37.2023 Main 64/3/1 · Q91 mark

Which one of the following is a major polluting industry ?

  1. Food processing industry
  2. Cottage industry
  3. Chemical industry
  4. Foot loose industry
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/3/1

(c) Chemical industry

Q38.2026 Main 64/1/1 · Q193 marks

Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow :

Water Pollution

Industries produce several undesirable products including industrial wastes, polluted waste water, poisonous gases, chemical residuals, numerous heavy metals, dust, smoke, etc. Most of the industrial wastes are disposed off in running water or lakes. Consequently, poisonous elements reach the reservoirs, rivers and other water bodies, which destroy the bio-system of these waters. Major water polluting industries are leather, pulp and paper, textiles and chemicals.

(19.1) Explain how industries are the major contributor of water pollution in India. 1

(19.2) Suggest the way for minimising water pollution. 1

(19.3) Mention two rivers of India which are highly polluted. ½ + ½ = 1

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/1/1

(19.1) The industrial waste, poisonous gases, chemical effluents, dust, smoke and heavy metals when mix with the water, they pollute it. 1

(19.2)

i) Preventing industrial waste disposal in rivers and lakes to protect their bio-system.
ii) Agricultural waste, like fertilizers and pesticides should be prevented to meet the fresh water bodies.
iii) Public awareness programmes can be organised about the importance of water and Impact of water pollution.
iv) Encourage industries and households to reuse treated water.
v) Any other relevant point

(Any one point to be explained) 1

(19.3) The Ganga/ the Yamuna/ the Sabarmati/ the Gomti/ the Kali/ the Adyar/ the Cooum/ the Vaigai/ the Musi.

(Mention any two) ½+½=1

Q39.2026 Main 64/3/1 · Q193 marks

Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow :

Water Pollution

Water pollution is a source of various water-borne diseases. The diseases commonly caused due to contaminated water are diarrhoea, intestinal worms, hepatitis, etc. The World Health Organization shows that about one-fourth of the communicable diseases in India are water-borne. Though river pollution is common to all rivers, yet pollution of the river Ganga flowing through one of the most populous regions of India has caused great concerns among all. To improve the condition of the river, National Mission for Clean Ganga was initiated. The Namami Gange Programme has been launched for the same.

(19.1) Describe the main cause of water pollution. 1

(19.2) Mention any two features of the Namami Gange Programme. ½ + ½ = 1

(19.3) Explain the impact of water pollution on human health. 1

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/3/1

(19.1) Main causes of water pollution

i. Sewage disposal,
ii. Urban run-off,
iii. Toxic effluents from industries,
iv. run-off over cultivated lands and
v. nuclear power plants
vi. Any other relevant point

(Any One point to be described) 1

(19.2) Two features of the Namami Gange Programme:

i. The Namami Gange Programme was launched to improve the condition of the river Ganga, cleaning by effectively controlling the pollution.
ii. Developing sewerage treatment systems in towns.
iii. Monitoring of industrial effluents.
iv. Development of river front
v. Afforestation along the bank to increase biodiversity.
vi. Any other relevant point

(Any Two features to be mentioned) ½+½=1

(19.3) Impact of water pollution on human health:

i. It is a source of various water- borne diseases.
ii. The diseases commonly caused due to contaminated water are diarrhoea, intestinal worms, hepatitis, etc.
iii. About one-fourth of the communicable diseases in India are water-borne.
iv. Any other relevant point

(Any One point to be explained) 1

1+1+1=3

Q40.2026 Main 64/5/1 · Q183 marks

Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow :

Water Pollution

Various types of chemicals used in modern agriculture such as inorganic fertilisers, pesticides and herbicides are pollution generating components. These chemicals are washed down to rivers, lakes and tanks. These chemicals also infiltrate the soil to reach the ground water. Fertiliser induces an increase in the nitrate content of surface waters. Manufacturing and improper domestic waste disposal also cause water pollution in India.

(18.1) Explain the role of agricultural practices in water pollution. 1

(18.2) How can we check water pollution by changing agricultural practices ? 1

(18.3) Suggest any two ways to reduce water pollution. ½ + ½ = 1

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/5/1

(18.1) The chemicals used in modern agriculture such as chemical fertilizers, herbicides, insecticides etc. are the pollution generating components and when they mix with water they generate pollution. 1

(18.2) By changing agricultural practices like organic farming etc. (Any other relevant point) 1

(18.3)

  1. Recycle used water
  2. Treat polluted water before releasing
  3. Any other relevant point

(Any two points to be suggested) ½ + ½ = 1

3×1=3

Q41.2025 Main 64/2/1 · Q233 marks

Suggest the measures to achieve the objectives of ‘Namami Gange Programme’. 3

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/2/1

The suggestive measures are :

  1. Developing sewerage treatment systems in towns,
  2. Monitoring of industrial effluents,
  3. Development of river front,
  4. Afforestation along the banks for increased biodiversity.
  5. Cleaning of the river surface.
  6. Development of ‘Ganga Grams’ in Uttarakhand, UP, Bihar, Jharkhand, and West Bengal.
  7. Creating public awareness to avoid adding pollutants into the river even in the form of rituals.
  8. Any other relevant point.

(Any three points to be explained.) 3×1=3

Q42.2025 Main 64/6/1 · Q203 marks

Suggest the measures to overcome the problem of water pollution in India.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/6/1

Measures to overcome the problem of water pollution in India are :-

  1. To generate awareness about the importance of water and impact of water pollution.
  2. Waste water treatment.
  3. Reducing plastic waste.
  4. Reducing agriculture runoff.
  5. Conduct awareness campaigns on water conservation and pollution prevention.
  6. Encouraging sustainable industrial practices.
  7. Any other relevant point.

(Any three points to be explained.) 3×1=3

Q43.2025 Main 64/7/1 · Q233 marks

Define water quality. Explain the reasons of deteriorating surface water quality in India. 1+2=3

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/7/1

Water quality refers to purity of water or water without unwanted foreign substances. 1

Reasons of deteriorating surface water quality in India :

  1. Water gets polluted by foreign substances such as micro-organisms, chemicals, industrial and other wastes.
  2. Water pollutants are also created from natural sources (erosion, landslides, decay and decomposition of plants and animals, etc.)
  3. Industries produce several undesirable products including industrial wastes, polluted waste water, poisonous gases, chemical residuals, numerous heavy metals, dust, smoke, etc.
  4. Various types of chemicals used in modern agriculture such as inorganic fertilisers, pesticides and herbicides are also pollution generating components.
  5. Cultural activities such as pilgrimage, religious fairs, tourism, etc. also cause water pollution.
  6. Any other relevant point.

(Any two points to be explained.) 2×1=2

1+2=3

Q44.2024 Main 64/1/1 · Q233 marks

Explain any three problems of slums in India.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/1/1

Problems of slums in India:-

  1. They are residential area of the least choice, dilapidated houses, poor hygienic conditions.
  2. Lack of ventilation, basic amenities like drinking water, light and toilet facilities etc.
  3. Open defecation, unregulated drainage system.
  4. Over crowded narrow street patterns.
  5. Prone to different types of diseases and illness.
  6. Prone to social problems like drug abuse, alcoholism, crime etc.
  7. Any other relevant point.

(Any three points to be explained.) 3×1=3

Q45.2024 Main 64/2/1 · Q183 marks

Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow : 1+1+1=3

Land Degradation

The pressure on agricultural land increases not only due to the limited availability but also by deterioration of quality of agricultural land. Soil erosion, waterlogging, salinisation and alkalinisation of land lead to land degradation. What happens if land is consistently used without managing its fertility ? Land is degraded and productivity declines. Land degradation is generally understood either as a temporary or a permanent decline in productive capacity of the land.

Though all degraded land may not be wasteland, but unchecked process of degradation may lead to the conversion to wasteland.

There are two processes that induce land degradation. These are natural and created by human beings. National Remote Sensing Centre (NRSC) has classified wastelands by using remote sensing techniques and it is possible to categorise these wastelands according to the processes that have created them. There are a few types of wastelands such as gullied/ravinous land, desertic or coastal sands, barren rocky areas, steep sloping land, and glacial areas, which are primarily caused by natural agents. There are other types of degraded lands such as waterlogged and marshy areas, land affected by salinity and alkalinity and land with or without scrub, which have largely been caused by natural as well as human factors. There are some other types of wastelands such as degraded shifting cultivation area, degraded land under plantation crops, degraded forests, degraded pastures, and mining and industrial wastelands, that are caused by human action.

(18.1) Explain the meaning of ‘land degradation’. 1

(18.2) Explain any one man-made process which is responsible for ‘land degradation’. 1

(18.3) Suggest any two measures to solve the problem of ‘land degradation’. ½ + ½ = 1

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/2/1

(18.1) Land degradation is temporary or permanent decline in productive capacity. 1

(18.2) Shifting agriculture, plantation agriculture, degraded forests, pastures, mining and industrial waste land are the manmade causes of land degradation. Anyone of the human action. 1

(18.3) Measures to solve the problem of Land degradation are:

  1. Prevent waterlogging.
  2. Change agriculture pattern.
  3. Prevent over irrigation
  4. Afforestation
  5. Any other relevant point

(Explain any two points.) ½+½=1

Q46.2024 Main 64/3/1 · Q183 marks

Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow : 3×1=3

Dharavi

There is only one main road that traverses Dharavi, which has been reduced to less than half of that for most of its length. Some of the side alleys and lanes are so narrow that not even a bicycle can pass. The whole neighbourhood consists of temporary buildings, two or three storeyed high with rusty iron stairways to the upper part, where a single room is rented by a whole family, sometimes accommodating 10 – 12 people; it is a kind of tropical version of the industrial dwelling of Victorian London’s East End.

But Dharavi is a keeper of more sombre secrets than the revulsion it inspires in the rich; a revulsion, moreover, that is, in direct proportion to the role it serves in the creation of the wealth of Bombay. In this place of shadowless, treeless sunlight, uncollected garbage, stagnant pools of foul water, where the only creatures are the shining black crows and long grey rats, some of the of the most beautiful, valuable and useful articles in India are made. From Dharavi come delicate ceramics and pottery, exquisite embroidery and zari work, sophisticated leather goods, high-fashion garments, finely-wrought metalwork, delicate jewellery settings, wood carvings and furniture that would find its way into the houses, both in India and abroad.

(18.1) Describe the physical condition of Dharavi. 1

(18.2) Explain one major problem of Dharavi. 1

(18.3) Explain the main objective of ‘Swachh Bharat Mission’ in the context of Dharavi. 1

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/3/1

(18.1)

  1. Infrastructure of Dharavi is very poor. Only one main road traverses the slums which has been reduced to less than half of that for most of its length.
  2. The whole neighborhood consists of temporary buildings, two or three storeyed high with rusty iron stairways to the upper part.
  3. It is a place of shadowless, treeless sunlight, stagnant pools of foul water.
  4. Any other relevant point

(Any one point to be described) 1

(18.2)

  1. Lack of good living conditions
  2. Overcrowded areas
  3. Temporary houses
  4. Any other relevant point

(Any one point to be explained) 1

(18.3) The Swachh Bharat Mission (SBM) is part of the urban renewal mission launched by the Govt. of India to improve the quality of life in urban slums. 1

1+1+1=3

Q47.2024 Main 64/4/1 · Q233 marks

Suggest any three measures to solve the problem of ‘Urban Waste Disposal’ in India and explain them.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/4/1

(i) Wastes should be treated as resources.

(ii) Utilised for generating energy

(iii) Utilised for generating compost, organic manure

(iv) Pollution is hazardous in many metropolitan and big cities in India.

(v) Any other relevant point

(Any three points to be explained)

3x1=3

Q48.2024 Supp. 64/S/1 · Q183 marks

Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow : 3×1=3

A Role Model to Restore the Ecology and Safeguard Human Health in Daurala

Based on the universal law “Polluter pays”, effort to restore the ecology and safeguard the human health with people’s participation has taken place in Daurala near Meerut. These efforts are now bearing fruits after a span of three years when Meerut based NGO had developed a model for ecological restoration. The meeting of the Daurala Industries Officials, NGOs, Government officials and other stakeholders at Meerut has brought out results. The powerful logics, authentic studies and the pressure of people have brought a new lease of life to the twelve thousand residents of this village. It was in the year 2003 that the pitiable condition of Dauralaites drew the attention of the civil society. The groundwater of this village was contaminated with heavy metals. The reason was that the untreated wastewater of Daurala industries was leaching to the groundwater table. The NGO conducted a door to door survey of the health status of the residents and came out with a report. The organisation, the village community and people’s representatives sat together to find out sustainable solutions to the health problem. The industrialists showed a keen interest towards checking the deteriorating ecology. The overhead water tank’s capacity in the village was enhanced and a 900 m extra pipeline was laid to supply potable water to the community. The silted pond of the village was cleaned and recharged by desilting it. Large quantity of silt was removed paving way to large quantity of water so that it recharged the aquifers. Rainwater harvesting structures have been constructed at different places which has helped in diluting the contaminants of the groundwater after the monsoons. 1000 trees have also been planted which have improved the environment.

(18.1) Mention the problems faced by the people of Daurala. 1

(18.2) Describe measures taken to restore the deteriorating ecology of Daurala. 1

(18.3) Examine the role of Non-Governmental Organizations improving the health status of the people of Daurala. 1

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/S/1

(18.1)

  1. The groundwater of Daurala was contaminated with heavy metals.
  2. Untreated polluted water of Daurala industries was leaching to the ground water table.
  3. People suffered from various health issues.
  4. The ecology was deteriorated.
  5. Any other relevant point.

(Any one point to be mentioned) 1

(18.2)

  1. People’s participation was sought by involving Daurala industries officials, NGOs, governmental officials and other stake holders.
  2. Overhead water tank capacity was enhanced.
  3. large quantity of silt was removed to recharge the aquifers.
  4. Rainwater harvesting structures have been constructed.
  5. 1000 trees have also been planted.
  6. Any other relevant point.

(Any one point to be described)

(18.3)

  1. The NGO, the village community and people’s representatives sat together to find out sustainable solutions to the health problems.
  2. NGO conducted door to door survey to access the health status of the residents.
  3. Any other relevant point.

(Any one point to be examined)

Q49.2023 Main 64/2/1 · Q183 marks

Read the given source and answer the questions that follow :

The main sources of noise pollution are various factories, mechanized construction and demolition works, automobiles and aircraft, etc. There may be added periodical but polluting noise from sirens, loudspeakers used in various festivals, programmes associated with community activities. The level of steady noise is measured by sound level expressed in terms of decibels (dB).

Of all these sources, the biggest nuisance is the noise produced by traffic, because its intensity and nature depend upon factors, such as the type of aircraft, vehicle, train and the condition of road, as well as, that of vehicle (in case of automobiles). In sea traffic, the noise pollution is confined to the harbour due to loading and unloading activities being carried. Industries cause noise pollution but with varying intensity depending upon the type of industry.

Noise pollution is location specific and its intensity declines with increase in distance from the source of pollution, i.e. industrial areas, arteries of transportation, airport, etc. Noise pollution is hazardous in many metropolitan and big cities in India.

(18.1) Explain the meaning of noise pollution. 1

(18.2) Why is noise pollution hazardous in metropolitan cities in India ? 1

(18.3) “Noise pollution is location specific.” Explain with argument. 1

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/2/1

(18.1) Noise pollution refers to the state of unbearable and uncomfortable conditions to human beings. 1

(18.2) Due to industrial areas, arteries of transportation, airport, etc. 1

(18.3) Its intensity declines with increase in distance from source of pollution. 1

Q50.2026 Main 64/2/1 · Q285 marks

(a) Explain the causes of air pollution and suggest any three measures to overcome it. 2+3=5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/2/1

Causes of Air Pollution:

i. The increasing use of varieties of fuels as the source of energy, there is a marked increase in emission of toxic gases into the atmosphere resulting in the pollution of air.
ii. Combustion of fossil fuels, mining and industries are the main sources of air pollution.
iii. Solid waste disposal and sewage disposal is also responsible for air pollution.
iv. As these processes release oxides of sulphur and nitrogen, hydrocarbons, carbon-dioxide, carbon monoxide, lead and asbestos.
v. Any other relevant point.

(Any two points to be explained.) 2×1=2

Measures to overcome Air Pollution:

i. Use of non- conventional sources of energy.
ii. Control over mining and deforestation.
iii. In industries pollution free fuel should be used.
iv. Increase the height of chimneys and use of smoke stacks/ filters/ scrubbers in chimneys.
v. Use of Electric vehicles.
vi. Reduce, reuse and recycle the waste and sewage treatment plans to be promoted.
vii. More use of public transport.
viii. Any other relevant point.

(Any three points to be explained.) 3×1=3

2+3=5

Q51.2026 Main 64/2/1 · Q28 (OR)5 marks

(b) Explain the causes of noise pollution and suggest any three measures to overcome it. 2+3=5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/2/1

Causes of Noise Pollution :

i. Noise pollution refers to the state of unbearable and uncomfortable to human beings which is caused by noise from different sources.
ii. The main source of noise pollution are various factories, mechanised construction and demolition work.
iii. Automobiles and aircraft are also the source of noise pollution.
iv. Periodic noise from sirens, loudspeakers used in various programmes associated with community activities.
v. The biggest nuisance is the noise produced from traffic.
vi. Any other relevant point

(Any two points to be explained) 2×1=2

Measures to Overcome Noise pollution :

i. Machinery, equipments and generators should be fitted with silencers.
ii. All machinery can be redesigned to reduce noise.
iii. Noise absorbing material may be used.
iv. Personal use of earplugs and earphones.
v. Factories should not be located near the human settlements.
vi. Any other relevant point

(Any three points to be explained) 3×1=3

2+3=5

Q52.2026 Main 64/4/1 · Q245 marks

Explain the main causes of air pollution in India. Suggest measures to solve the problem. 2+3=5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/4/1

Causes of air pollution:

i) Combustion of fossil fuels.
ii) Industries and mining.
iii) Solid waste and sewage disposal.
iv) Any other relevant point.

(Any two points to be explained) 2×1=2

Measures to solve air pollution:

i) Use of renewable sources of energy.
ii) Use of public transport.
iii) Reduce use of fossil fuels.
iv) Planting trees.
v) Proper management of solid waste and sewage disposal.
vi) To generate public awareness.
vii) Any other relevant point.

(Any three points to be explained) 3×1=3

2+3=5

Q53.2026 Supp. 64/7/1 · Q245 marks

Explain the human-created processes of land degradation and suggest measures to reduce the problem of land degradation. 2+3=5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/7/1

Human-created processes of land degradation :

  1. Degraded land such as waterlogged and marshy areas, affected by salinity and alkalinity and land with and without scrub, which have largely been caused by human factors.
  2. Other causes are shifting cultivation area, degraded land under plantation crops, degraded forests, degraded pastures and mining and industrial wastelands.
  3. Any other relevant point.

(Any two points to be explained) 2×1=2

Measures to reduce the problem of land degradation :

  1. Water logging should be reduced.
  2. Shifting cultivation should be controlled.
  3. Managing soil fertility.
  4. Afforestation.
  5. Practice organic farming.
  6. Management of pasture land.
  7. Any other relevant point.

(Any three points to be explained) 3×1=3

2+3=5

Q54.2025 Main 64/4/1 · Q285 marks

Evaluate the impact of urban waste disposal problem and suggest any two measures to overcome it. 3+2=5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/4/1
  1. The household waste is disposed off either in public land or on private construction sites.
  2. The solid wastes of industrial units are collected and disposed off through public facilities at low lying public grounds.
  3. Solid wastes cause health hazards through creation of obnoxious smell and harboring of flies and rodents which act as carriers of diseases like typhoid, diphtheria etc.
  4. The waste causes frequent nuisance when these are carelessly handled, spread by wind and splittered through rainwater.
  5. River pollution from city-based industries and untreated sewage leads to serious health problems downstream.
  6. Any other relevant point.

(Any three points to be evaluated) 3

Measures to overcome :

  1. The sewage system should be more effective with modern technology.
  2. Local self-government/ Municipalities/ Corporations (Nagar Nigam) should be more responsible towards solid waste management.
  3. Cleanliness drive can be conducted at frequent intervals in all sectors for positive reinforcements.
  4. Any other relevant point.

(Any two measures to be given) 2

3+2=5

Q55.2025 Main 64/4/1 · Q28 (OR)5 marks

Suggest any five measures to solve the problem of land degradation in India. 5×1=5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/4/1
  1. Afforestation should be undertaken to control soil erosion, desertification etc.
  2. Use of irrigational methods in a judicious manner to avoid water logging, salinasation and alkalisation of the soil.
  3. To improve productive capacity of the land and the soil quality use organic farming or other scientific methods of farming.
  4. Shifting cultivation to be banned.
  5. The watershed management programme should be encouraged in degraded land areas to achieve sustainable development.
  6. Mining activities should be monitored.
  7. Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be suggested) 5×1=5

Q56.2025 Main 64/7/1 · Q245 marks

(a) “Urban centres in India are more differentiated in terms of the socio-economic, politico-cultural and other indicators of development.” Evaluate the statement with examples.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/7/1
  1. In urban areas there are farmhouses and high income group localities characterised by well developed urban infrastructures like wide roads, streetlights, water and sanitation facilities, lawns, well developed green belts, parks, playgrounds and provisions for individual security and right to privacy.
  2. At the other extreme of it are the slums, jhuggi-jhopari clusters and colonies of shanty structures.
  3. Inhabited by people who were forced to migrate from the rural areas in search of livelihood but could not afford proper housing and landed up living in slums – residential areas of least choice, dilapidated houses, poor hygienic conditions, poor ventilation, lack of basic amenities like drinking water, light and toilet facilities, etc.
  4. Open defecation, unregulated drainage systems, overcrowded narrow street patterns are serious health and socio-environmental hazards.
  5. The slum population works in low-paid, high risk-prone, unorganised sectors of the urban economy. Consequently, they are the undernourished, prone to different types of diseases and illness and can not afford to give proper education to their children.
  6. The poverty makes them vulnerable to drug abuse, alcoholism, crime, vandalism, escapism, apathy and ultimately social exclusion.
  7. Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be evaluated) 5×1=5

Q57.2025 Main 64/7/1 · Q24 (OR)5 marks

(b) “The land degradation due to man-made processes has greater concern than natural processes.” Evaluate the statement with examples.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/7/1
  1. Faulty strategy of irrigation and agricultural development is degradation of land resources. This is serious because it may lead to depletion of soil fertility.
  2. Large tract of agricultural land has lost its fertility due to alkalisation and salinisation of soils and waterlogging.
  3. Excessive use of chemicals such as insecticides and pesticides has led to their concentration in toxic amounts in the soil profile.
  4. Leguminous crops have been displaced from the cropping pattern in the irrigated areas and duration of fallow has substantially reduced owing to multiple cropping.
  5. Rainfed areas in humid and semi-arid tropics also experience degradation of several types like soil erosion by water and wind erosion which are often induced by human activities.
  6. Wastelands such as degraded shifting cultivation areas, degraded land under plantation crops, degraded forests, degraded pastures.
  7. Large-scale cutting of trees for agriculture, urbanization, and industries leads to soil erosion, loss of fertility, and desertification.
  8. Excessive grazing by livestock depletes vegetation cover, leading to soil compaction, erosion, and desertification.
  9. Mining depletes natural resources, contaminates soil, and causes land subsidence.
  10. Excessive groundwater extraction leads to salinization and land degradation.
  11. Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be evaluated) 5×1=5

Q58.2025 Supp. 64/S/1 · Q285 marks

(a) “Indiscriminate use of water by people and industries is degrading water quality.” Examine the statement and suggest remedial measures. 3+2=5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/S/1
  1. Surface water available from river, canals, lakes etc. is never pure.
  2. It contains small quantities of suspended particles, organic and inorganic substances.
  3. When concentration of the substances increases, the water become polluted.
  4. Human beings pollute the water through agricultural, industrial and cultural activities.
  5. Any other relevant point.

(Any three points to be examined) 3×1=3

Remedial measures :

  1. Treatment of waste water.
  2. Enforcement of laws.
  3. Use of eco-friendly agricultural activities.
  4. Industrial effluent treatment.
  5. Judicious consumption.
  6. Recycle and reuse of water.
  7. Implementation of rainwater harvesting.
  8. Awareness campaign.
  9. Any other relevant point.

(Any two points to be explained.) 2×1=2

3+2=5

Q59.2025 Supp. 64/S/1 · Q28 (OR)5 marks

(b) “Urban waste disposal is becoming a serious problem in India.” Examine the statement and suggest remedial measures. 3+2=5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/S/1
  1. Most of the solid waste generated are left uncollected which accumulate on streets, in open spaces between houses.
  2. Untreated wastes ferment slowly and release toxic gases.
  3. Solid waste cause health hazard through creation of obnoxious smell.
  4. Harbouring of flies and rodents act as carriers of diseases like typhoid, diphtheria etc.
  5. These waste cause nuisance and spread by wind and splittered through rain water.
  6. Any other relevant point

(Any three points to be examined) 3×1=3

Remedial measures :

  1. Reduce consumption.
  2. Promote reusable items.
  3. Separate wet and dry waste.
  4. Encourage composting of organic waste like food scraps.
  5. Community participation.
  6. Any other relevant point

(Any two points to be explained.) 2×1=2

3+2=5

Q60.2024 Main 64/5/1 · Q285 marks

(a) Describe any two sources of air pollution in India and suggest any three measures to overcome the air pollution. 2 + 3 = 5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/5/1

Air Pollution (Sources)

  1. Combustion of coal, petroleum and diesel.
  2. Industrial carbon dioxide and monoxide.
  3. Solid waste disposal.
  4. Sewage disposal etc.
  5. Vehicular pollution.
  6. Any other relevant point.

(Any two points to be described) 2x1=2

Measures to overcome air pollution:

  1. Waste disposal should be done in a scientific manner.
  2. Maximum use of non-conventional sources of energy.
  3. Minimum use of conventional sources of energy particularly petroleum etc.
  4. Increasing afforestation
  5. Any other relevant point.

(Any three points to be described) 3x1=3

2+3=5

Q61.2024 Main 64/5/1 · Q28 (OR)5 marks

(b) Describe any two sources of water pollution in India. Suggest any three measures to overcome the water pollution. 2 + 3 = 5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/5/1

Water pollution: (Sources)

  1. Sewage disposal.
  2. Urban runoff.
  3. Toxic effluents from industries.
  4. Nuclear power plants.
  5. Any other relevant point.

(Any two points to be described) 2x1=2

Measures to control water pollution:

  1. Recycle of water
  2. Water treatments plants
  3. Change the cropping pattern.
  4. Less use of chemical fertilizers and pesticides in agriculture.
  5. Any other relevant point.

(Any three points to be described) 3x1=3

2+3=5

Q62.2023 Main 64/4/1 · Q285 marks

“Urban waste disposal has become a serious problem in India.” Justify the statement with examples. 5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/4/1
  1. The towns are overcrowded and congested.
  2. Enormous amount of solid waste is generated everyday and remains either uncollected or the bulk of this waste end up in the landfills.
  3. Inadequate methods of waste disposal lead to serious health and sanitation problems.
  4. Lack of proper place for dumping of urban waste material.
  5. The untreated garbage dumped on municipal land ferments and poses many problems. Like, toxic gases creating obnoxious smells and harboring of flies and rodents which act as the carriers of many diseases.
  6. Disposing industrial waste into rivers and water bodies cause water pollution.
  7. Industrial waste dumped on open land leads to pollution of ground water due to seepage of chemicals.
  8. The huge turn out of ashes and debris from industries, thermal power houses and building constructions or demolitions have posed serious problems.
  9. Any other relevant point.

To be justified by giving any five points. 5×1=5

Q63.2023 Supp. 64/C/1 · Q255 marks

Analyse any five objectives of ‘Namami Gange Programme’. 5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/C/1

The Union Government has launched the ‘Namami Gange Programme’ with the following objectives:

  1. Developing sewerage treatment systems in towns,
  2. Monitoring of industrial effluents,
  3. Development of river front,
  4. Afforestation along the bank to increase biodiversity,
  5. Cleaning of the river,
  6. Development of ‘Ganga Grams’ in Uttarakhand, UP, Bihar, Jharkhand and West Bengal, and
  7. Creating public awareness to avoid adding pollutants in to the river even in the form of rituals.
  8. Any other relevant point

(Any five points to be analyzed) 5×1=5

Q64.2022 Main 64/1/1 · Q75 marks

How are pollutants from human activities responsible for water pollution ? Explain with examples. 5 × 1 = 5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2022 (Main), Set 64/1/1

Pollutants from human activities :

  1. Human beings pollute the water through industrial, agricultural and cultural activities.
  2. Industries produce several undesirable products including industrial wastes, polluted waste water, poisonous gases, chemical residuals, heavy metals, dust and smoke etc.
  3. Most of the industrial wastes are disposed off in running water or lakes.
  4. Various types of chemicals used in modern agriculture are also pollution generating components.
  5. Cultural activities such as pilgrimage pollute the water sources.
  6. Religious fairs, tourism also pollute water sources.
  7. Any other relevant point.

Any five points to be explained. 5×1=5

Q65.2022 Main 64/2/1 · Q75 marks

How is ‘urban waste disposal’ a serious problem in India ? Suggest measures to solve this problem. 2+3=5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2022 (Main), Set 64/2/1
  1. In metropolitan cities like Mumbai, Kolkata, Chennai, etc. about 90% of the solid waste is collected and disposed, but in most of other cities and towns in the country about 30 to 50% of the waste generated are left uncollected.
  2. 20% of waste is uncollected in metropolitan cities.
  3. Waste accumulates on streets in open spaces between houses and open space.
  4. Wasteland leading to serious health hazards.
  5. Untreated wastes ferment slowly and release toxic biogas to the atmosphere.

Suggestions to solve the problem of Urban Waste.

  1. Use of high technology to treat the urban waste.
  2. Segregation of urban waste should be practised and mass awareness to be created.

(vi) Any other point.

Any five points to be explained. 1×5=5

Q66.2022 Main 64/3/1 · Q75 marks

Examine any five factors which are responsible for population flow from rural to urban areas in India. 5 × 1 = 5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2022 (Main), Set 64/3/1

Population flow from rural to urban areas in India :

  1. Poverty
  2. High population pressure on the land
  3. Lack of basic infrastructure facilities
  4. Lack of healthcare facilities
  5. Lack of education facilities
  6. Natural disasters like flood, drought, earthquake
  7. Security
  8. Any other relevant point

Any five factors to be examined. (TB II page 140,141) 1×5=5

Q67.2022 Main 64/4/1 · Q85 marks

(a) “Indiscriminate use of water by increasing population and industrial expansion has led to degradation of the quality of water considerably.” Analyse the statement. 1×5=5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2022 (Main), Set 64/4/1
  1. Surface water available from rivers, canals, lakes is never pure.
  2. It contains small quantities of suspended particles, organic and inorganic substances.
  3. As concentration of these substances increases, the water becomes polluted, in result it becomes unfit for use.
  4. The self purifying capacity of water is unable to purify the water.
  5. Water pollutants are also created from natural sources (erosion, landslides, decay and decomposition of plants and animal).
  6. Pollutants from human activities are the real causes of concern.
  7. Human beings pollute the water through industrial, agricultural and cultural activities.
  8. Industries produce several undesirable products including industrial waste, polluted waste water, poisonous gases etc.
  9. Any other relevant point.

(Any Five points to be explained) 1×5=5

Q68.2022 Main 64/4/1 · Q8 (OR)5 marks

(b) “The pressure on agricultural land increases not only due to the limited availability, but also by deterioration of quality of agricultural land.” Analyse the statement. 1×5=5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2022 (Main), Set 64/4/1
  1. Soil erosion
  2. Water logging
  3. Salinisation
  4. Alkalinisation
  5. Degraded land may not be wasteland but unchecked process of degradation may lead to the conversion to wasteland.
  6. Any other relevant point.

Any five points to be explained 1×5=5

Q69.2022 Main 64/5/1 · Q95 marks

(a) Explain the causes and consequences of air pollution.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2022 (Main), Set 64/5/1

Causes of Air Pollution :

  1. Emission of toxic gases
  2. Industrialisation—waste disposal
  3. Rapid increase of vehicles
  4. Combustion of fossil fuels
  5. Smoky fog
  6. Urbanisation
  7. Sewage disposal
  8. Any other relevant point

(Any three points to be explained) 1x3=3

Consequences of Air Pollution :

  1. Various diseases related to respiratory systems
  2. Various diseases related to nervous systems
  3. Various diseases related to circulatory systems
  4. Acid rains
  5. Harmful for flora and fauna
  6. Any other relevant point

(Any two points to be explained) 1x2=2

[TB-II, Pg-135–136 and 134] 3+2=5

Q70.2022 Main 64/5/1 · Q9 (OR)5 marks

(b) Explain the causes and consequences of water pollution.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2022 (Main), Set 64/5/1

Explain the causes and consequences of water pollution :

  1. Dissolved suspended solids - organic and inorganic
  2. Sewage disposal
  3. Toxic effluents from industries
  4. Use of chemicals in agriculture
  5. Any other relevant point

(Any three points to be explained) 1x3=3

Consequences of water pollution :

  1. Water-borne diseases
  2. Communicable diseases
  3. Shortage of water
  4. Increase in river water pollution
  5. Any other relevant point

(Any two points to be explained) 1x2=2

[TB-II, Pg-134–135] 3+2=5

Q71.SQP 2025-26 · Q265 marks

Explain the problems faced by slum dwellers in urban areas. How do these problems impact their quality of life? 3+2=5

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26

Urban centres in India are more differentiated in terms of the socio-economic, politico-cultural and other indicators of development. On one hand there are bunglows, high-rise apartments etc. and on the other, there are slums, jhuggi-jhopari clusters and colonies of shanty structures.

  1. Slums are inhabited by those people who were forced to migrate from the rural areas to these urban centres in search of livelihood but could not afford proper housing due to high rent and high costs of land.
  2. They occupy environmentally incompatible and degraded areas. Slums are residential areas of the least choice, dilapidated houses, poor hygienic conditions, poor ventilation, lack of basic amenities, like drinking water, light and toilet facilities, etc.
  3. Open defecation, unregulated drainage system and overcrowded narrow street patterns are serious health and socio environmental hazards.

Most of the slum population works in low-paid, high risk-prone, unorganised sectors of the urban economy. These conditions make their lives harder.

  1. Consequently, they are the undernourished, prone to different types of diseases and illness and cannot afford to give proper education to their children.
  2. The poverty makes them vulnerable to drug abuse, alcoholism, crime, vandalism, escapism, apathy and ultimately social exclusion.

3+2=5

Q72.SQP 2025-26 · Q26 (OR)5 marks

"Noise pollution has emerged as a serious problem despite being location specific." Analyse the statement and explain.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26
  1. Noise pollution refers to the state of unbearable and uncomfortable to human beings which is caused by noise from different sources. It is hazardous in many metropolitan and big cities in India.
  2. Its intensity declines with increase in distance from the source of pollution like in sea traffic, the noise pollution is confined to the harbour due to loading and unloading activities being carried.
  3. This matter has become a serious concern only in recent years due to a variety of technological innovations.
  4. The main sources of noise pollution are various factories, mechanised construction and demolition works, automobiles and aircraft, etc.
  5. Industries cause noise pollution but with varying intensity depending upon the type of industry.
  6. The biggest nuisance is the noise produced by traffic.
  7. As its intensity and nature depend upon factors such as the type of aircraft, vehicle, train and the condition of road, as well as, that of vehicle.
  8. There may be added periodical but polluting noise from sirens, loudspeakers used in various festivals, programmes associated with community activities.

(Any five or any other relevant points)

Q73.SQP 2026-27 · Q265 marks

The urban waste should be properly treated as a resource for various needs of mankind. Explain the measures that can help in changing urban waste into resources.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27

The urban wastes should be treated as resources and utilized for generating renewable energy and compost. (5)

  1. Untreated wastes ferment slowly and release toxic biogas to the atmosphere, including methane which can be harnessed to produce biogas. Rapid urbanisation has increased the volume of waste, but scientific management can convert it into useful products.
  2. Segregation of waste at source into biodegradable, non-biodegradable and hazardous waste is the first essential step. Biodegradable waste from households and markets can be converted into high-quality organic manure.
  3. Recycling of paper, plastic, glass and metals conserves raw materials, saves energy and reduces environmental pollution. Organic waste from households and markets can be converted into compost or vermicompost, which can be used in urban forestry and agriculture to improve soil fertility.and reduces dependence on chemical fertilisers.
  4. Waste-to-energy technologies, such as biogas plants and incineration, help generate electricity and reduce landfill pressure. Treated wastewater can be reused for irrigation, gardening and industrial purposes, conserving freshwater resources.
  5. Scientific landfills and methane recovery prevent soil and groundwater contamination. Public awareness, community participation and effective municipal governance are essential for sustainable waste management. Thus, proper treatment of urban waste supports a circular economy and sustainable development.
Q74.SQP 2026-27 · Q26 (OR)5 marks

How has noise pollution become hazardous in many big cities of India? Explain with examples.

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27
  1. Noise pollution refers to the state of unbearable and uncomfortable noise to human beings, which is caused from different sources. This matter has become a serious concern only in recent years due to a variety of technological innovations.
  2. The main sources of noise pollution are various factories, mechanised construction and demolition works, automobiles, and aircraft, etc.
  3. There may be added polluting noise from sirens, loudspeakers used in various festivals, programmes associated with community activities.
  4. The biggest nuisance is the noise produced by traffic. Its intensity and nature depend upon factors, such as the type of aircraft, vehicle, train, and the condition of the road, as well as that of the vehicle (in case of automobiles).
  5. In sea traffic, the noise pollution is confined to the harbour due to loading and unloading activities being carried. Industries cause noise pollution, but with varying intensity depending upon the type of industry. Noise pollution is location specific and its intensity declines with increase in distance.

(5)

Part C · Map Work

Map Work: World Map (Fundamentals of Human Geography)

Q1.2026 Main 64/1/1 · Q295 marks

In the given political outline map of the world, seven geographical features have been marked as A, B, C, D, E, F and G. Identify any five of them with the help of following information and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them : 5×1=5

A. A terminal station of Trans-Siberian Railway
B. A major sea port
C. A major air port
D. An international shipping canal
E. An area of ‘subsistence gathering’
F. An area of ‘commercial livestock rearing’
G. An area of ‘dairy farming’

Figure
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/1/1

A – St. Petersburg
B – Valparaiso
C – Nairobi
D – Panama
E – Tropical Africa
F – United States of America
G – South-Eastern Australia

(Attempt any five) 5×1=5

Figure
Q2.2026 Main 64/2/1 · Q295 marks

On the given political outline map of the world, seven geographical features have been marked as A, B, C, D, E, F and G. Identify any five with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them : 5×1=5

A. A major sea-port
B. A major air-port
C. A major shipping canal
D. A major area of ‘subsistence gathering’
E. A major area of ‘nomadic herding’
F. A major area of ‘commercial livestock rearing’
G. A major area of ‘extensive commercial grain farming’

Figure
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/2/1

A – Vancouver
B – Tokyo
C – Suez Canal
D – Amazon Basin
E – South-West Africa
F – New Zealand
G – Downs

(Attempt any five) 5×1=5

Figure
Q3.2026 Main 64/3/1 · Q295 marks

On the given political outline map of the World (on page 25), seven geographical features have been marked as A, B, C, D, E, F and G. Identify any five with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them. 5×1=5

A. A terminal station on the Trans-Australian Railway
B. A major sea port
C. A major international airport
D. An important inland waterway
E. An area of subsistence gathering
F. An area of extensive commercial grain farming
G. An area of mixed farming

Figure
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/3/1

A – Perth
B – San Francisco
C – Paris
D – St. Lawrence
E – Tropical Africa
F – Canterbury
G – Temperate Latitudes of S. America / S. Brazil

(Attempt any five) 5×1=5

Figure
Q4.2026 Main 64/4/1 · Q295 marks

On the given political outline map of the World (on page 25), seven geographical features have been marked as A, B, C, D, E, F and G. Identify any five with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them. 5×1=5

A. A major area of subsistence gathering
B. A major area of extensive commercial grain farming
C. A major area of nomadic herding
D. A major area of commercial livestock rearing
E. A terminal station of trans-continental railway
F. A major sea port
G. A major international airport

Figure
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/4/1

A – Amazon Basin
B – Velds
C – Tundra Region of Eurasia
D – United States of America
E – Vladivostok
F – Perth
G – London

(Attempt any five) 5×1=5

Figure
Q5.2026 Main 64/5/1 · Q295 marks

On the given political outline map of the World (on page 25), seven geographical features have been marked as A, B, C, D, E, F and G. Identify any five with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them. 5×1=5

A. A terminal station on Trans-Continental Railway
B. A major sea port
C. An international airport
D. A canal connecting Red Sea with Mediterranean Sea
E. An area of subsistence gathering
F. An area of nomadic herding
G. An area of extensive commercial grain farming

Figure
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/5/1

A – Vancouver
B – Aden
C – New Orleans
D – Suez Canal
E – Amazon Basin
F – Tropical Africa / Congo Basin
G – Downs

(Attempt any five) 1×5=5

Figure
Q6.2026 Supp. 64/7/1 · Q295 marks

On the given political outline map of the World (on page 25), seven geographical features have been marked as A, B, C, D, E, F and G. Identify any five with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them. 5×1=5

A. A major area of ‘subsistence gathering’
B. A major area of ‘commercial livestock rearing’
C. A major area of ‘commercial grain farming’
D. A major seaport
E. A terminal station of the trans-continental railway
F. A major seaport
G. A major airport

Figure
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/7/1

A – Northern Canada
B – Argentina
C – Velds
D – San Francisco
E – Perth
F – Aden
G – Paris

(Attempt any five) 5×1=5

Figure
Q7.2025 Main 64/1/1 · Q295 marks

On the given political outline Map of the World, seven geographical features have been marked as A, B, C, D, E, F and G. Identify any five with the help of following information and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them : 5 × 1 = 5

A. A major sea-port
B. A major airport
C. An inland waterway
D. A major area of nomadic herding
E. A major area of commercial livestock rearing
F. A major area of extensive commercial grain farming
G. A major area of mixed farming

Figure
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/1/1

A – Cape Town
B – Darwin
C – Panama Canal
D – Arabian Peninsula
E – Argentina
F – Downs
G – Eastern part of North America

(Answer any five) 5×1=5

Figure
Q8.2025 Main 64/2/1 · Q295 marks

On the outline political map of the world, seven geographical features have been marked as A, B, C, D, E, F and G. Identify any FIVE of them and write their names on the lines drawn near them : 5

A. Major sea port in Germany.
B. Terminal station of Trans-Siberian Railway.
C. An international airport.
D. An area of subsistence gathering.
E. An important waterway.
F. An area of ‘Nomadic Herding’.
G. An area of extensive commercial grain farming.

Figure
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/2/1

A – Hamburg
B – Vladivostok
C – Johannesburg
D – Northern Canada
E – Panama
F – Madagascar
G – Australian Downs

(Any five to be identified) 5×1=5

Figure
Q9.2025 Main 64/4/1 · Q295 marks

On the given political outline map of the world (on page 25), seven geographical features have been marked as A, B, C, D, E, F and G. Identify any five with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them. 5×1=5

A. A major sea port
B. A major airport
C. A terminal station of a trans-continental railway
D. A major area of nomadic herding
E. A major area of extensive commercial grain farming
F. A major area of commercial livestock rearing
G. A major area of subsistence gathering

Figure
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/4/1

A – New Orleans
B – Santiago
C – Perth
D – Madagascar
E – Velds
F – New Zealand
G – Tropical Africa

(Attempt any five) 1×5=5

Figure
Q10.2025 Main 64/5/1 · Q295 marks

On the given political outline map of the world (on page 25), seven geographical features have been marked as A, B, C, D, E, F and G. Identify any five with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them : 5×1=5

A. An area of nomadic herding
B. A major sea port
C. An area of extensive commercial grain farming
D. A major airport
E. An inland waterway
F. A major airport
G. A terminal station of a trans-continental railway

Figure
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/5/1

A – South-Western Africa
B – Melbourne
C – Pampas of Argentina
D – Mexico City
E – Suez Canal
F – Tokyo
G – St. Petersburg

(Any 5 to be identified) 5×1=5

Figure
Q11.2025 Main 64/6/1 · Q295 marks

On the given political outline map of the world (on page 25), seven geographical features have been marked as A, B, C, D, E, F and G. Identify any five with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them : 5×1=5

A. An area of extensive commercial grain farming
B. An area of subsistence gathering
C. A major sea port
D. A major airport
E. A major sea port
F. A major area of nomadic herding
G. An inland waterway

Figure
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/6/1

A – Prairies
B – Tropical Africa
C – North Cape
D – Mexico City
E – Cape Town
F – Tundra Region of Eurasia
G – Suez Canal

(Attempt any five) 5×1=5

Figure
Q12.2025 Main 64/7/1 · Q295 marks

On the given political outline map of the world (on page 25), seven geographical features have been marked as A, B, C, D, E, F and G. Identify any five with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them : 5×1=5

A. A major sea port
B. A major airport
C. A terminal station of Trans-Siberian Railway
D. An inland waterway
E. An area of commercial livestock rearing
F. An area of nomadic herding
G. A major sea port of South America

Figure
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/7/1

A – Hamburg
B – Johannesburg
C – Vladivostok
D – St. Lawrence (Seaway)
E – New Zealand
F – South West Africa
G – Rio De Janeiro

(Attempt any five) 5×1=5

Figure
Q13.2025 Supp. 64/S/1 · Q295 marks

On the given political outline map of the world (on page 25), seven geographical features have been marked as A, B, C, D, E, F and G. Identify any five with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them. 5×1=5

A. A major sea port
B. Terminal station of a trans-continental railway
C. An international airport
D. An area of subsistence gathering
E. An important waterway
F. An area of nomadic herding
G. An area of mixed farming

Figure
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/S/1

A – Yokohama
B – Perth
C – Aden
D – Amazon Basin
E – Panama
F – Tundra Region
G – Eastern USA / Eastern North America

(Attempt any five) 5×1=5

Figure
Q14.2024 Main 64/1/1 · Q295 marks

On the given political outline map of the World (on page 21), seven geographical features have been marked as A, B, C, D, E, F and G. Identify any five with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them : 5×1=5

A. An area of extensive commercial grain farming
B. A shipping canal
C. A major sea port in Australia
D. A major airport in Japan
E. A major sea port of South America
F. An area of subsistence gathering
G. A major inland waterway

Figure
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/1/1

A – Velds (South Africa)
B – Suez Canal
C – Perth
D – Tokyo
E – Rio De Janeiro
F – Tropical Africa
G – St. Lawrence

(Attempt any five) 5x1=5

Figure
Q15.2024 Main 64/2/1 · Q295 marks

On the given political outline map of the World (on page 25), seven geographical features have been marked as A, B, C, D, E, F and G. Identify any five with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them : 5×1=5

A. An area of ‘extensive commercial grain farming’
B. A terminal station of ‘Trans-Siberian Railway’
C. An area of ‘nomadic herding’
D. An area of ‘commercial livestock rearing’
E. A major sea port of Asia
F. A major international airport of Europe
G. A major shipping canal

Figure
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/2/1

A – Pampas
B – Vladivostok
C – Madagascar
D – New Zealand
E – Aden
F – London
G – Panama

(Attempt any five) 5×1=5

Figure
Q16.2024 Main 64/3/1 · Q295 marks

On the given political outline map of the World (on page 25), seven geographical features have been marked as A, B, C, D, E, F and G. Identify any five with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them : 5×1=5

A. A major area of subsistence gathering
B. A major area of nomadic herding
C. Terminal station of Trans-Siberian Railway
D. A major sea port of South America
E. A major airport of Asia
F. An inland waterway
G. A major shipping canal

Figure
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/3/1

A – Northern Eurasia
B – Madagaskar
C – St. Petesburg
D – Valparaiso
E – Aden
F – The Great Lakes – St. Lawrence Waterway
G – Panama Canal

(Attempt any five) 5×1=5

Figure
Q17.2024 Main 64/4/1 · Q295 marks

On the given political outline Map of the World, seven geographical features have been marked as A, B, C, D, E, F and G. Identify any FIVE correctly with the help of following information and write their correct names on the lines marked near them : 5 × 1 = 5

A. An area of extensive commercial grain farming

B. An area of commercial livestock rearing

C. Eastern most station of ‘Trans-Canadian Railways’

D. A major seaport of Asia

E. A major international airport of Europe

F. A shipping canal

G. An area of ‘Nomadic Herding’

Figure

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/4/1

See attached map (Do any five, 5x1=5):

A. Velds

B. United States of America

C. Halifax

D. Shanghai

E. London

F. Suez Canal

G. Tundra/Eurasia

Figure

Q18.2024 Main 64/5/1 · Q295 marks

On the given political outline map of the world, seven geographical features have been shown as A, B, C, D, E, F and G. Identify any five with the help of following information and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them : 5

A. A major sea-port

B. An international airport

C. An important shipping canal

D. An area of subsistence gathering

E. An area of nomadic herding

F. A terminal station of trans-continental railway.

G. An area of extensive commercial grain farming

Figure

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/5/1

Please see attached map (Attempt any five questions, 5x1=5):

A. New Orleans

B. Santiago

C. Suez Canal

D. Tropical Africa

E. Tundra Region

F. Halifax

G. Downs

Figure

Q19.2024 Supp. 64/S/1 · Q295 marks

On the given political outline map of the World (on page 25), seven geographical features have been marked as A, B, C, D, E, F and G. Identify any five with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them : 5×1=5

A. A major sea port
B. An international airport
C. An important shipping canal
D. An area of subsistence gathering
E. An area of nomadic herding
F. A trans-continental railway terminal station
G. A region of extensive commercial grain farming

Figure
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/S/1

A – Melbourne
B – Nairobi
C – Panama
D – Northern Canada
E – Mongolia and Central China / Central Asia
F – Vladivostok
G – Prairies

(Attempt any five) 5x1=5

Figure
Q20.2023 Main 64/1/1 · Q295 marks

On the given political outline map of the World (on page 21), seven geographical features have been marked as A, B, C, D, E, F and G. Identify any five with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them : 5×1=5

A. The largest country in Africa
B. An area of extensive commercial grain farming
C. A major seaport
D. A shipping canal
E. An international airport
F. The westernmost station of the Australian Trans-Continental Railway
G. The largest country in South America

Figure
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/1/1

A – Algeria
B – Pampas
C – Yokohama
D – Panama
E – Auckland
F – Perth
G – Brazil

(Attempt any five) 5×1=5

Figure
Q21.2023 Main 64/2/1 · Q295 marks

On the given political outline map of the world seven geographical features have been marked as A, B, C, D, E, F and G. Identify any five of them with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them :

A. The largest country of South America 1

B. An area of extensive commercial farming 1

C. Easternmost station of ‘Trans-Siberian Railway’. 1

D. A major sea-port 1

E. The shipping canal 1

F. An international airport of Asia 1

G. An international airport of Europe 1

Figure

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/2/1

Map Work. Identify any five (see attached map) 5x1=5

A. Brazil

B. Velds

C. Vladivostok

D. Auckland

E. Panama Canal

F. Mumbai

G. London

Figure

Q22.2023 Main 64/3/1 · Q295 marks

On the given political outline map of the World (on page 21), seven geographical features have been marked as A, B, C, D, E, F and G. Identify any five with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them : 5×1=5

A. A major airport in Australia
B. Largest country in terms of area in Europe
C. A major seaport in South America
D. A terminal station of Trans-Canadian Railway
E. A major area of subsistence gathering
F. Largest country in terms of area in Africa
G. Terminal station of Trans-Siberian Railway

Figure
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/3/1

A – Darwin
B – France
C – Rio de Janeiro
D – Vancouver
E – Tropical Africa
F – Algeria
G – Vladivostok

(Attempt any five) 5×1=5

Figure
Q23.2023 Main 64/4/1 · Q295 marks

On the given political outline map of the World (on page 21), seven geographical features have been marked as A, B, C, D, E, F and G. Identify any five with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them : 5×1=5

A. An international airport in South America
B. A canal linking Atlantic Ocean with Pacific Ocean
C. A major seaport in Australia
D. A terminal station of Trans-Siberian Railway
E. A major area of commercial livestock rearing
F. An area of extensive commercial grain farming
G. A major seaport in Asia

Figure
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/4/1

A – Santiago
B – Panama Canal
C – Sydney
D – Vladivostok
E – Steppes/Central Eurasia
F – Velds
G – Karachi

Any five out of seven items to be evaluated. 5×1=5

Figure
Q24.2023 Main 64/5/1 · Q295 marks

On the given political outline map of the world seven geographical features have been marked as A, B, C, D, E, F and G. Identify any five and name them on the lines marked near them. 5

A. An International Airport in Asia.
B. A canal linking Red sea with Mediterranean sea.
C. A major seaport in North America.
D. A terminal station on the Trans-Australian Railway.
E. A major area of nomadic herding in Africa.
F. A major area of extensive commercial grain farming.
G. International airport of Europe.

Figure
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/5/1

A – Aden
B – Suez Canal
C – San Francisco
D – Perth
E – South West Africa
F – Pampas
G – London

Any five items to be evaluated. 5×1=5

Figure
Q25.2023 Supp. 64/C/1 · Q295 marks

On the given political outline map of the World (on page 21), seven geographical features have been marked as A, B, C, D, E, F and G. Identify any five with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them : 5×1=5

A. A major area of nomadic herding
B. A major sea-port
C. A major airport
D. Terminal station of eastern end of Trans-Siberian Railway
E. The largest country of Europe
F. A shipping canal
G. An area of commercial livestock rearing

Figure
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/C/1

A – Madagascar
B – North Cape
C – London
D – Vladivostok
E – France
F – Panama Canal
G – Argentina

(Attempt any five) 5×1=5

Figure
Q26.SQP 2025-26 · Q295 marks

On the given political map of the World, seven geographical features have been marked as A, B, C, D, E, F and G. Identify any five with the help of the following information and write their correct names.

Figure
  1. Name a major seaport of Europe.
  2. Name an important seaport located in South Africa.
  3. Name the canal that connects Atlantic Ocean and Pacific Ocean
  4. Name an area of subsistence gathering in South America.
  5. Name one major airport of South America.
  6. Name the easternmost terminal station of Trans-Siberian Railway.
  7. Name the area of extensive commercial grain agriculture in Australia.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26

A Hamburg

B Capetown

C Panama Canal

D Amazon Basin

E Santiago

F Vladivostok

G Downs

Q27.SQP 2026-27 · Q295 marks

On the given political map of the World, seven geographical features have been marked as A, B, C, D, E, F and G. Identify any five with the help of the following information and write their correct names.

A -An Area of nomadic herding
B-A major seaport of Canada
C- A major seaport of Asia
D- An airport in Asia
E- An airport in Australia
F- A man made Canal
G- A waterway of North America

Figure

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27

A- Northern part of Eurasia
B- Vancouver
C- Kolkata
D- Jeddah
E- Darwin
F- Panama Canal
G- St. Lawrence waterway

(1×5)

Part C · Map Work

Map Work: India Map (India: People and Economy)

Q1.2026 Main 64/1/1 · Q305 marks

On the given political outline map of India, locate and label any five of the following seven geographical features with appropriate symbols : 5 × 1 = 5

30.1 A state with the highest density of population (2011).
30.2 A state leading in the production of tea.
30.3 An iron-ore mining area in southern Chhattisgarh.
30.4 A major area of bauxite mining in Odisha.
30.5 An oil refinery in Uttar Pradesh.
30.6 A major seaport located at the head of Gulf of Kuchchh.
30.7 An international airport in Punjab.

Figure
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/1/1

30.1 Bihar
30.2 Assam
30.3 Bailadila/ Durg/ Dantewara/ Rajhara
30.4 Koraput / Kalahandi / Sambalpur / Bolangir
30.5 Mathura
30.6 Kandla / Deendayal port
30.7 Amritsar / Raja Sansi / Sri Guru Ram Dass Jee

(Any five) 5×1=5

Figure
Q2.2026 Main 64/2/1 · Q305 marks

On the given political outline map of India, locate and label any five of the following seven geographical features with appropriate symbols : 5 × 1 = 5

30.1 The state leading in the production of sugarcane.
30.2 An oil refinery located in Bihar
30.3 Important coal mines located in West Bengal
30.4 Important iron-ore mines located in Coastal Maharashtra
30.5 Important manganese mines located in Madhya Pradesh
30.6 A major sea-port located in Odisha
30.7 An important international airport in Telangana

Figure
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/2/1

30.1 Uttar Pradesh
30.2 Barauni
30.3 Raniganj
30.4 Ratnagiri
30.5 Balaghat
30.6 Paradwip
30.7 Hyderabad

(Attempt any five) 5×1=5

Figure
Q3.2026 Main 64/3/1 · Q305 marks

On the given political outline map of India (on page 27), locate and label any five of the following seven geographical features with appropriate symbols : 5×1=5

(30.1) State leading in the production of rice
(30.2) State leading in the production of wheat
(30.3) Easternmost iron-ore mining area in Odisha
(30.4) Coal mining area in Tamil Nadu
(30.5) An oil refinery in Bihar
(30.6) A major sea port in Gujarat
(30.7) An international airport located in Assam

Figure
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/3/1

(30.1) West Bengal
(30.2) Uttar Pradesh
(30.3) Mayurbhanj
(30.4) Neyveli
(30.5) Barauni
(30.6) Kandla (Deen Dayal Port)
(30.7) Guwahati

(Attempt any five) 5×1=5

Figure
Q4.2026 Main 64/4/1 · Q305 marks

On the given political outline map of India (on page 27), locate and label any five of the following seven geographical features with the appropriate symbols : 5×1=5

(30.1) The state leading in tea production
(30.2) The iron-ore mines in coastal Maharashtra
(30.3) An oil refinery located in Bihar
(30.4) The coal mines located in West Bengal
(30.5) A major sea port located in Andhra Pradesh
(30.6) An international airport located in Telangana
(30.7) The state having the lowest population density (2011)

Figure
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/4/1

(30.1) Assam
(30.2) Ratnagiri
(30.3) Barauni
(30.4) Raniganj
(30.5) Vishakhapatnam
(30.6) Hyderabad
(30.7) Arunachal Pradesh

(Attempt any five) 5×1=5

Figure
Q5.2026 Main 64/5/1 · Q305 marks

On the given political outline map of India (on page 27), locate and label any five of the following seven geographical features with appropriate symbols : 5×1=5

(30.1) The state with lowest density of population (2011)
(30.2) The state leading in the production of Coffee
(30.3) Iron-ore mines located in Western Maharashtra
(30.4) Bauxite mines located in Madhya Pradesh
(30.5) An oil refinery in Bihar
(30.6) A major sea port situated on Mahanadi delta
(30.7) An international airport in Kerala

Figure
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Main), Set 64/5/1

30.1 Arunachal Pradesh
30.2 Karnataka
30.3 Ratnagiri
30.4 Katni / Balaghat
30.5 Barauni
30.6 Paradwip
30.7 Thiruvananthapuram

(Attempt any five) 1×5=5

Figure
Q6.2026 Supp. 64/7/1 · Q305 marks

On the given political outline map of India (on page 27), locate and label any five of the following seven geographical features with appropriate symbols. 5×1=5

(30.1) The state leading in the coffee production
(30.2) Bauxite mines located in Odisha
(30.3) Iron-ore mines located in eastern Maharashtra
(30.4) An oil refinery located in Uttar Pradesh
(30.5) Copper mines located in southern Jharkhand
(30.6) An iron-ore exporting major seaport located in Odisha
(30.7) A major international airport located in Gujarat

Figure
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/7/1

30.1 Karnataka
30.2 Koraput
30.3 Chandrapur
30.4 Mathura
30.5 Singhbhum
30.6 Paradwip
30.7 Ahmedabad

(Attempt any five) 5×1=5

Figure
Q7.2025 Main 64/1/1 · Q305 marks

On the given political outline map of India, locate and label any five of the following seven geographical features with appropriate symbols : 5 × 1 = 5

30.1 The state with the lowest population density (2011).
30.2 The state leading in the production of sugarcane.
30.3 A major sea port in Gujarat.
30.4 A copper mining centre in Jharkhand.
30.5 A manganese mining centre in Madhya Pradesh.
30.6 An Iron-ore mining centre in Maharashtra.
30.7 An international airport in Karnataka.

Figure
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/1/1

30.1 Arunachal Pradesh
30.2 Uttar Pradesh
30.3 Kandla
30.4 Hazaribagh / Singhbhum
30.5 Balaghat
30.6 Ratnagiri / Chandrapur
30.7 Bengaluru

For 30.4 any one [Hazaribagh or Singhbhum] can be considered. For 30.6 any one [Chandrapur or Ratnagiri] can be considered. 5×1=5

Figure
Q8.2025 Main 64/2/1 · Q305 marks

On the given political outline map of India, locate and label any five of the following geographical features with appropriate symbols. 5 × 1 = 5

30.1 Important iron ore mines in Odisha.
30.2 An important seaport in Kerala.
30.3 A copper mine in Rajasthan.
30.4 An oil refinery in Bihar.
30.5 An international airport in Punjab.
30.6 A state with highest density of population.
30.7 A state leading in the production of jute.

Figure
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/2/1

30.1 Mayurbhanj / Kendujhar
30.2 Kochi
30.3 Khetri
30.4 Barauni
30.5 Amritsar
30.6 Bihar
30.7 West Bengal

Note : 30.1 any one (Mayurbhanj and Kendujhar) can be considered. (Any five to be attempted) 5×1=5

Figure
Q9.2025 Main 64/4/1 · Q305 marks

On the given political outline map of India (on page 27), locate and label any five of the following seven geographical features with appropriate symbols : 5×1=5

(30.1) The state leading in the production of wheat
(30.2) An oil refinery in Bihar
(30.3) A major sea port of Andhra Pradesh
(30.4) Important coal mines located in West Bengal
(30.5) Important iron ore mines located in Odisha
(30.6) Important manganese mines located in Karnataka
(30.7) An important international airport in Punjab

Figure
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/4/1

30.1 Uttar Pradesh
30.2 Barauni
30.3 Vishakapatnam
30.4 Raniganj
30.5 Mayurbhanj / Kendujhar / Sundergarh (Any One)
30.6 Shimoga / Chitradurga / Tumakuru (Any One)
30.7 Amritsar

(Attempt any five) 5×1=5

Figure
Q10.2025 Main 64/5/1 · Q305 marks

On the given political outline map of India (on page 27), locate and label any five of the following seven geographical features with appropriate symbols : 5×1=5

(30.1) The state leading in the production of rice
(30.2) An oil refinery in Uttar Pradesh
(30.3) The sea port situated at the head of Vembanad Kayal
(30.4) Important bauxite mines located in southern Odisha
(30.5) The international airport in Assam
(30.6) Important iron ore mines located in southern Chhattisgarh
(30.7) Important copper mines located in southern Rajasthan

Figure
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/5/1

30.1 West Bengal
30.2 Mathura
30.3 Kochchi
30.4 Koraput
30.5 Guwahati
30.6 Bailadila
30.7 Khetri / Udaipur

For 30.7 any one from (Udaipur / Khetri) will be evaluated. (Any 5 items to be located and labelled) 5×1=5

Figure
Q11.2025 Main 64/6/1 · Q305 marks

On the given political outline map of India (on page 27), locate and label any five of the following seven geographical features with appropriate symbols : 5×1=5

(30.1) The state leading in the production of cotton
(30.2) Iron ore mines located in southern part of Chhattisgarh
(30.3) Copper mines located in northern part of Jharkhand
(30.4) A major sea port of Goa
(30.5) An international airport in Gujarat
(30.6) A sea port built to relieve the pressure of Kolkata sea port
(30.7) The state leading in the production of tea

Figure
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/6/1

(30.1) Gujarat
(30.2) Bailadila
(30.3) Hazaribagh
(30.4) Marmagao
(30.5) Ahmedabad
(30.6) Haldia
(30.7) Assam

(Attempt any five) 5×1=5

Figure
Q12.2025 Main 64/7/1 · Q305 marks

On the given political outline map of India (on page 27), locate and label any five of the following seven geographical features with appropriate symbols : 5×1=5

(30.1) The state with the highest population density
(30.2) The leading rice producing state
(30.3) Important iron ore mines located in coastal Maharashtra
(30.4) Important coal mines located in Tamil Nadu
(30.5) A major sea port in Gujarat
(30.6) An international airport in Punjab
(30.7) An oil refinery in Uttar Pradesh

Figure
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Main), Set 64/7/1

(30.1) Bihar
(30.2) West Bengal
(30.3) Ratnagiri
(30.4) Neyveli
(30.5) Kandla
(30.6) Amritsar
(30.7) Mathura

(Attempt any five) 5×1=5

Figure
Q13.2025 Supp. 64/S/1 · Q305 marks

On the given political outline map of India (on page 27), locate and label any five of the following seven geographical features with appropriate symbols. 5×1=5

(30.1) Important iron ore mines located in Western Maharashtra.
(30.2) An important sea port in Andhra Pradesh.
(30.3) Bauxite mines in Southern Odisha.
(30.4) An oil refinery located in Bihar.
(30.5) An international airport located in Tamil Nadu.
(30.6) A state with the lowest density of population as per 2011 census.
(30.7) A state leading in the production of tea.

Figure
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/S/1

(30.1) Ratnagiri
(30.2) Vishakhapatnam
(30.3) Koraput
(30.4) Barauni
(30.5) Chennai
(30.6) Arunachal Pradesh
(30.7) Assam

(Attempt any five) 5×1=5

Figure
Q14.2024 Main 64/1/1 · Q305 marks

On the given political outline map of India (on page 23), locate and label any five of the following seven geographical features with appropriate symbols : 5×1=5

(30.1) Tuticorin : Major sea port
(30.2) Khetri : Copper mines
(30.3) An international airport in Punjab
(30.4) Leading rice producing state
(30.5) State with the highest density of population
(30.6) Oil refinery in Uttar Pradesh
(30.7) Jharia : Coal mines

Figure
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/1/1

(30.1) Tuticorin
(30.2) Khetri
(30.3) Amritsar
(30.4) West Bengal
(30.5) Bihar
(30.6) Mathura
(30.7) Jharia

(Attempt any five) 5x1=5

Figure
Q15.2024 Main 64/2/1 · Q305 marks

On the given political outline map of India (on page 27), locate and label any five of the following seven geographical features with appropriate symbols : 5×1=5

(30.1) State with highest density of population
(30.2) State leading in cotton production
(30.3) State leading in rice production
(30.4) Major iron-ore mines of Maharashtra
(30.5) An oil refinery of Uttar Pradesh
(30.6) A major sea port of Odisha
(30.7) An international airport of Assam

Figure
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/2/1

(30.1) Bihar
(30.2) Gujarat
(30.3) West Bengal
(30.4) Ratnagiri
(30.5) Mathura
(30.6) Paradwip
(30.7) Guwahati

(Attempt any five) 5×1=5

Figure
Q16.2024 Main 64/3/1 · Q305 marks

On the given political outline map of India (on page 27), locate and label any five of the following seven geographical features with appropriate symbols : 5×1=5

(30.1) The state with the lowest level of population density
(30.2) The leading state in the production of sugarcane
(30.3) The leading state in the production of coffee
(30.4) Katni : Major bauxite mines
(30.5) Barauni : Oil refinery
(30.6) Paradwip : Major sea port
(30.7) Hyderabad : Major airport

Figure
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/3/1

(30.1) Arunachal Pradesh
(30.2) Uttar Pradesh
(30.3) Karnataka
(30.4) Katni
(30.5) Barauni
(30.6) Paradwip
(30.7) Hyderabad

(Attempt any five) 5×1=5

Figure
Q17.2024 Main 64/4/1 · Q305 marks

Locate and label any five of the following geographical features on the given political outline Map of India with appropriate symbols : 5 × 1 = 5

30.1 A state with highest population density

30.2 State leading in the production of coffee

30.3 Hazaribagh : Copper mines

30.4 Neyveli : Coal mines

30.5 Ratnagiri : Iron ore mines

30.6 Haldia : Major seaport

30.7 Ahmedabad : Major international airport

Figure

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/4/1

See attached map (Do any five, 5x1=5):

30.1 Bihar

30.2 Karnataka

30.3 Hazaribagh

30.4 Neyveli

30.5 Ratnagiri

30.6 Haldia

30.7 Ahmedabad

Figure

Q18.2024 Main 64/5/1 · Q305 marks

Locate and label any five of the following geographical features with appropriate symbols on the given political outline map of India : 5

30.1 A state leading in the production of coffee.

30.2 An oil refinery in Uttar Pradesh.

30.3 An important coal mining area in West Bengal.

30.4 A major seaport along the coast of Goa.

30.5 A state with highest population density.

30.6 An international airport in Gujarat.

30.7 An iron-ore mining area in Chhattisgarh.

Figure

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Main), Set 64/5/1

Please see attached map (Attempt any five questions, 5x1=5):

30.1 Karnataka

30.2 Mathura

30.3 Raniganj

30.4 Marmagao

30.5 Bihar

30.6 Ahmedabad

30.7 Bailadila

Figure

Q19.2024 Supp. 64/S/1 · Q305 marks

On the given political outline map of India (on page 27), locate and label any five of the following seven geographical features with appropriate symbols : 5×1=5

(30.1) The state leading in the production of cotton
(30.2) An oil refinery in Bihar
(30.3) An important bauxite mining area in Odisha
(30.4) A sea port along the coast of Andhra Pradesh
(30.5) An international airport in Kerala
(30.6) A coal mining area in Tamil Nadu
(30.7) The state with the highest density of population

Figure
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/S/1

(30.1) Gujarat
(30.2) Barauni
(30.3) Koraput / Sambalpur / Kalahandi / Bolangir
(30.4) Vishakhapattnam
(30.5) Thiruvananthapuram
(30.6) Neyveli
(30.7) Bihar

(Attempt any five) 5x1=5

Figure
Q20.2023 Main 64/1/1 · Q305 marks

On the given political outline map of India (on page 23), locate and label any five of the following seven geographical features with appropriate symbols : 5×1=5

(30.1) The state with highest density of population
(30.2) The easternmost city of India having more than 10 million population
(30.3) The leading cotton producing state
(30.4) Oil Refineries located in Uttar Pradesh
(30.5) Coal mines located in Tamil Nadu
(30.6) Major seaport located in Odisha
(30.7) International Airport located in Punjab

Figure
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/1/1

30.1 Bihar
30.2 Kolkata
30.3 Gujarat
30.4 Mathura
30.5 Neyveli
30.6 Paradwip
30.7 Amritsar

(Attempt any five) 5×1=5

Figure
Q21.2023 Main 64/2/1 · Q305 marks

On the given political outline Map of India, locate and label any five of the following geographical features with appropriate symbols :

30.1 State with the highest level of urbanization 1

30.2 State with the lowest level of density of population 1

30.3 The leading coffee producing state 1

30.4 Khetri – copper mines 1

30.5 Jamnagar – Oil refinery 1

30.6 The Northern terminal station of North-South Corridor. 1

30.7 Tuticorin – major sea-port 1

Figure

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/2/1

See Attached Map. (Attempt any five) 5x1=5

30.1 Goa

30.2 Arunachal Pradesh

30.3 Karnataka

30.4 Khetri

30.5 Jamnagar

30.6 Srinagar

30.7 Tuticorin

Figure

Q22.2023 Main 64/3/1 · Q305 marks

On the given political outline map of India (on page 23), locate and label any five of the following seven geographical features with appropriate symbols : 5×1=5

(30.1) A state with highest level of urbanization
(30.2) A city with more than 10 million population in Maharashtra
(30.3) A state leading in the production of tea
(30.4) Mayurbhanj – iron-ore mines
(30.5) Balaghat – manganese mines
(30.6) Kochi – seaport
(30.7) Ahmedabad – Airport

Figure
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/3/1

30.1 Goa
30.2 Mumbai
30.3 Assam
30.4 Mayurbhanj
30.5 Balaghat
30.6 Kochi
30.7 Ahmedabad

(Any five) 5×1=5

Figure
Q23.2023 Main 64/4/1 · Q305 marks

On the given political outline map of India (on page 23), locate and label any five of the following seven geographical features with appropriate symbols : 5×1=5

(30.1) The state with lowest level of population density
(30.2) The city of West Bengal having more than 10 million population
(30.3) The state leading in the production of cotton
(30.4) Bailadila – iron-ore mines
(30.5) Mathura – oil refinery
(30.6) Marmagao – seaport
(30.7) An international airport in Assam

Figure
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/4/1

30.1 Arunachal Pradesh
30.2 Kolkata
30.3 Gujarat
30.4 Bailadila
30.5 Mathura
30.6 Marmagao
30.7 Guwahati (Gowahati)

Any five out of seven items to be evaluated. 5×1=5

Figure
Q24.2023 Main 64/5/1 · Q305 marks

On the given political outline map of India, locate and label any five of the following : 5

30.1 A state with highest level of population density.
30.2 A state with highest level of urbanisation.
30.3 A state leading in the production of jute.
30.4 Koraput-bauxite mines.
30.5 Jharia coal mines.
30.6 Mangaluru seaport.
30.7 An international airport in Punjab.

Figure
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Main), Set 64/5/1

30.1 Bihar
30.2 Goa
30.3 West Bengal
30.4 Koraput – bauxite mines
30.5 Jharia coal mine
30.6 Mangaluru seaport
30.7 Amritsar

Any 5 items to be evaluated. 5×1=5

Figure
Q25.2023 Supp. 64/C/1 · Q305 marks

On the given political outline map of India (on page 23), locate and label any five of the following seven geographical features with appropriate symbols : 5×1=5

(30.1) The state with the highest level of population on density
(30.2) A city of more than 10 million population located in Karnataka
(30.3) The leading sugarcane producing state
(30.4) Hazaribagh – Copper mines
(30.5) Neyveli – Coal mines
(30.6) Sea-port located in Odisha
(30.7) International airport located in Assam

Figure
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023 (Supplementary/Compartment), Set 64/C/1

30.1 Bihar
30.2 Bengaluru
30.3 Uttar Pradesh
30.4 Hazaribagh
30.5 Neyveli
30.6 Paradwip
30.7 Guwahati

(Attempt any five) 5×1=5

Figure
Q26.2022 Main 64/1/1 · Q105 marks

On the given political outline map of India, locate and label any five from the following ‘geographical features’ with appropriate symbols : 1 × 5 = 5

10.1 Bauxite mines located in Odisha.
10.2 Ratnagiri-iron-ore mines.
10.3 An oil refinery in Uttar Pradesh.
10.4 Hazribagh copper mines.
10.5 The eastern-most station on the East-West corridor.
10.6 The Southern-most metropolitan city connected by Golden Quadrilateral.

Figure
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2022 (Main), Set 64/1/1

10.1 Koraput
10.2 Ratnagiri
10.3 Mathura
10.4 Hazaribagh
10.5 Silchar
10.6 Chennai

(Any five) 1×5=5

Figure
Q27.2022 Main 64/2/1 · Q105 marks

On the given political outline map of India (on page 11), locate and label any five from the following geographical features with appropriate symbols : 5×1=5

(10.1) Ratnagiri – Iron-ore mines
(10.2) Shimoga – Manganese mines
(10.3) Jamnagar – Oil refinery
(10.4) Eastern-most station of the East-West Corridor
(10.5) Neyveli – Coal mines
(10.6) Southern-most metropolitan city connected by ‘Golden Quadrilateral’

Figure
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2022 (Main), Set 64/2/1

Answer not given in the official marking scheme.

(The marking scheme only reprints the map question; its listed answers are for the Visually Impaired version: 10·1 Maharashtra, 10·2 Bihar, 10·3 Karnataka, 10·4 Silchar, 10·5 Jharkhand, 10·6 Chennai. 1×5=5)

Q28.2022 Main 64/3/1 · Q105 marks

On the given political outline map of India, locate and label any five from the following Geographical features with appropriate symbols : 1 × 5 = 5

10.1 Raniganj – Coal mines

10.2 Balaghat – Manganese mines

10.3 Khetri – Copper mines

10.4 Jamnagar – Oil refineries.

10.5 The southern-most station of North-South Corridor.

10.6 The eastern-most metropolitan city connected by golden quadrilateral.

Figure
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2022 (Main), Set 64/3/1

10.1 Raniganj - Coal mines.

10.2 Balaghat - Manganese mines

10.3 Khetri - Copper mines

10.4 Jamnagar Oil refineries.

10.5 The southern most station of North-South Corridor (Kanyakumari).

10.6 The eastern-most metropolitan city connected by golden quadrilateral (Kolkata).

Figure

1×5=5

Q29.2022 Main 64/4/1 · Q105 marks

On the given political outline map of India (on page 11), locate and label any five from the following geographical features with appropriate symbols : 5×1=5

(10.1) Oil refinery located in Bihar
(10.2) Khetri – Copper mines
(10.3) Katni – Bauxite mines
(10.4) Coal mines located in West Bengal
(10.5) Western Terminal of East-West Corridor
(10.6) Eastern-most ‘metropolitan’ city connected by ‘Golden Quadrilateral’

Figure
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2022 (Main), Set 64/4/1

10.1 Barauni
10.2 Khetri
10.3 Katni
10.4 Raniganj
10.5 Porbandar
10.6 Kolkata

(Any five) 1×5=5

Figure
Q30.2022 Main 64/5/1 · Q105 marks

Locate and label the following features in the given outline political map of India (Attempt any 5) : 1×5=5

(10.1) Bokaro - Coal mines 1

(10.2) Singhbhoom - Copper mines 1

(10.3) Jamnagar - Oil refinery 1

(10.4) Bailadila - Iron-ore mines 1

(10.5) The northern most metropolitan city connected with Golden Quadrilateral 1

(10.6) The eastern terminal station of East-West corridor 1

Figure
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2022 (Main), Set 64/5/1

Map of India (Location and Labelling) — please see attached map.

(10.1) Bokaro

(10.2) Singhbhoom

(10.3) Jamnagar

(10.4) Bailadila

(10.5) Delhi

(10.6) Silchar

Figure

Any five 5x1=5

Q31.SQP 2025-26 · Q305 marks

Locate and label any five of the following geographical features on the Political Outline map of India with appropriate symbols:

  1. An important iron ore mine in Odisha.
  2. Southernmost seaport of India
  3. An oil refinery in Gujarat
  4. The state with highest population density.
  5. The state leading in the production of tea
  6. An international airport in Karnataka.
  7. An important coal mine in West Bengal
Figure
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26

A. Mayurbhanj

B. Tuticorin

C. Jamnagar

D. Bihar

E. Assam

F. Bengaluru

G. Raniganj

Q32.SQP 2026-27 · Q305 marks

Locate and label any five of the following geographical features on the Political Outline map of India with appropriate symbols:

A. The State with the lowest population density
B. An important seaport in Odisha
C. An important coal mine in Tamil Nadu
D. Bailadila -iron ore mines
E. An oil refinery in Gujarat
F. The State leading in the production of Sugarcane
G. An international airport in Kerala

Figure

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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27

A. Arunachal Pradesh
B. Paradwip
C. Neyveli
D. Bailadila iron-ore mines, Chattisgarh
E. Jamnagar
F. Uttar Pradesh
G. Thiruvananthapuram

(1×5)

Figure