Part A · Introductory Macroeconomics
1. National Income and Related Aggregates
Q1.2026 Main 58/1/1 · Q11 mark
In a two sector economy, the flow of factor payments moves from __________ to __________. (Choose the correct option to fill in the blanks)
- firms, households
- firms, government
- banks, households
- households, firms
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(A) firms, households
Q2.2026 Main 58/1/1 · Q51 mark
In an economy, exclusion of ___________ may lead to under estimation of the value of Gross Domestic Product (GDP). (Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)
(i) Barter Transactions
(ii) Services provided by family members
(iii) Illegal activities
(iv) Depreciation of Assets
Options:
- (i) and (ii)
- (ii) and (iii)
- (iii) and (iv)
- (i), (ii) and (iii)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(A) (i) and (ii)
Q3.2026 Main 58/1/1 · Q71 mark
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement 1: Final goods are those goods which normally lose their identity in the production process.
Statement 2: Final goods may get transformed during the consumption process by a consumer. (Choose the correct option)
Options:
- Statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false.
- Statement 1 is false and statement 2 is true.
- Both statements 1 and 2 are true.
- Both statements 1 and 2 are false.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(B) Statement 1 is false and statement 2 is true.
Q4.2026 Main 58/2/1 · Q21 mark
Income generated from Aircrafts of Air India operating between Canada and England would be added to the domestic income (NDPFC) of ________. (Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)
Options:
- Canada
- England
- Both Canada and England
- India
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(D) India
Q5.2026 Main 58/2/1 · Q51 mark
Read the following Flow chart carefully and choose the correct option:

Options:
- Transfer goods
- Capital goods
- Non-durable goods
- Semi-durable goods
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(B) Capital Goods
Q6.2026 Main 58/2/1 · Q71 mark
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement 1: Brokerage earned by a dealer of second hand cars is included in the estimation of National Income.
Statement 2: Imputed value of production for self-consumption is included in National Income.
In the light of the above given statements, choose the correct option from the following:
- Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
- Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(C) Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
Q7.2026 Main 58/3/1 · Q21 mark
Identify the variable(s) which may add to the future productive capacity of an economy:
I. Raw material
II. Fixed investment
III. Inventories with producers
(Choose the correct option)
Options:
- Only I
- Only II
- II and III
- I, II and III
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/3/1
(B) Only II
Q8.2026 Main 58/3/1 · Q31 mark
On the basis of the given table, estimate the value added by the Baker. (Amount in ₹ crore)
| Farmer | Baker |
|---|
| Total Production | 100 | 200 |
| Intermediate Consumption | 0 | 50 |
| Value Added | 100 | …(i)… |
(Choose the correct option)
Options:
- 200
- 250
- 100
- 150
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/3/1
(D) 150
Q9.2026 Main 58/4/1 · Q31 mark
To arrive at the value of National Income (NNPFC), ___________ must be added to ___________ at factor cost. (Choose the correct option to fill in the blanks)
Options:
- Depreciation, Net Domestic Product
- Depreciation, Gross Domestic Product
- Net Factor Income from Abroad, Net Domestic Product
- Net Indirect Taxes, Gross Domestic Product
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(C) Net Factor Income from Abroad, Net Domestic Product
Q10.2026 Main 58/4/1 · Q51 mark
Investment is defined as addition to the ___________.
(i) Stock of physical capital
(ii) Changes in the inventory
(iii) Consumption
(Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)
Options:
- Only (i)
- (i) and (ii)
- (i) and (iii)
- (i), (ii) and (iii)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(B) (i) and (ii)
Q11.2026 Main 58/5/1 · Q11 mark
‘‘The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) is underway to revise the base year of Gross Domestic Product (GDP). The base year is revised periodically to better capture the structural changes happening in the economy. The proposed new base year for the GDP is 2022 – 23.’’
The step taken by the Government of India is for revision of____ Gross Domestic Product (GDP), as it is measured at _____ prices. (Choose the correct option to fill in the blanks)
- Real, constant
- Nominal, current
- Real, current
- Nominal, constant
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(A) Real, constant
Q12.2026 Main 58/5/1 · Q51 mark
Following are the steps to measure National Income (NNPFC) by Value Added method:
(i) Calculate Domestic Income (NDPFC) by subtracting Depreciation and Net Indirect Taxes from GDPMP.
(ii) Estimate GDPMP by adding GVA of each firm.
(iii) Estimate and add Net Factor Income from Abroad to NDPFC to arrive at NNPFC.
(iv) Identify and classify the production units into primary, secondary and tertiary sector.
The correct order of arrangement of steps would be: (Choose the correct option)
Options:
- (ii), (iii), (i), (iv)
- (iv), (ii), (i), (iii)
- (iv), (ii), (iii), (i)
- (iii), (iv), (ii), (i)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(B) (iv), (ii), (i), (iii)
Q13.2026 Main 58/5/1 · Q71 mark
Read the following statements carefully :
Statement I: Positive externalities refer to the benefits a firm/an individual provides to another for which they are paid.
Statement II: In case of positive externalities, Gross Domestic Product (GDP) of an economy might lead to an overestimation of the actual welfare.
In the light of the given statements, choose the correct option from the following:
- Statement I is true and Statement II is false.
- Statement I is false and Statement II is true.
- Both Statements I and II are true.
- Both Statements I and II are false.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(D) Both Statements I and II are false.
Q14.2026 Supp 58/7/1 · Q21 mark
Identify which of the following option will be included while estimating the national income by income method. (Choose the correct option)
- Windfall gains
- Capital loss
- Mixed income
- Transfer income
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Supplementary), Set 58/7/1
(C) Mixed income
Q15.2026 Supp 58/7/1 · Q51 mark
Ayaan owns a transportation company and spent ₹ 30,000 in the year 2024 - 25 on the repair of all vehicles.
This will be classified as _____________ expenditure while estimating the National Income of India. (Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)
- Intermediate
- Consumption
- Investment
- Final
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Supplementary), Set 58/7/1
(A) Intermediate
Q16.2026 Supp 58/7/1 · Q71 mark
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement I: Stock variables are measurable at a particular point of time.
Statement II: A change in any stock variable in a given time period is a flow variable.
In the light of the given statements, choose the correct option from the following:
- Both Statements I and II are true.
- Both Statements I and II are false.
- Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.
- Statement I is false, but Statement II is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Supplementary), Set 58/7/1
(A) Both Statements I and II are true.
Q17.2025 Main 58/1/1 · Q21 mark
From the items given in Column-I and Column-II, choose the correct pair.
| Column-I | Column-II |
|---|
| (a) Income from Property | (i) Old age pension |
| (b) Income from Entrepreneurship | (ii) Profit |
| (c) Mixed Income | (iii) Rent free accommodation from an employer |
| (d) Compensation of Employees | (iv) Interest from capital |
Options:
- (a) – (i)
- (b) – (ii)
- (c) – (iii)
- (d) – (iv)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(B) (b) – (ii)
Q18.2025 Main 58/2/1 · Q51 mark
Value Addition = _____ – Value of Intermediate Consumption. (Choose the correct option(s) to complete the stated formula.)
(i) Domestic sales
(ii) Sales – change in stock
(iii) Value of output
(iv) (Number of units produced) × (Price per unit)
Options:
- (i) and (ii)
- (ii) and (iii)
- (ii), (iii) and (iv)
- (iii) and (iv)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(D) (iii) and (iv)
Q19.2025 Main 58/4/1 · Q21 mark
To arrive at the value of Gross Value Added at Factor Cost (GVAFC), _______must be ___________ to/from Gross Value Added at Market Price (GVAMP). (Choose the correct option to fill in the blanks)
- depreciation, added
- depreciation, subtracted
- Net Indirect Taxes, added
- Net Indirect Taxes, subtracted
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(D) Net Indirect Taxes, subtracted
Q20.2025 Main 58/5/1 · Q11 mark
To arrive at the value of Net Value Added at Market Price (NVAMP), _____________must be ____________to/from Gross Value Added at Market Price (GVAMP). (Choose the correct option to fill in the blanks)
- depreciation, added
- depreciation, subtracted
- net indirect taxes, subtracted
- net indirect taxes, added
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(B) depreciation, subtracted
Q21.2025 Main 58/6/1 · Q21 mark
Identify, which of the following items will not be included in estimating National Income of India. (Choose the correct option)
- Salary to Indian residents working at the Russian Embassy in India
- Income generated from smuggling
- Payments to farm workers in the form of foodgrains
- Interest paid by a firm to a bank
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/6/1
(B) Income generated from smuggling
Q22.2025 Main 58/7/1 · Q21 mark
Using the given information, complete the following table: (Choose the correct option)
| 2014-15 | 2016-17 |
|---|
| Nominal GDP | 6.5 | 9 |
| Real GDP | …(i)… | 7.2 |
| GDP Deflator | 100 | …(ii)… |
Options:
- 125, 100
- 125,110
- 6.5, 125
- 100, 6.5
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/7/1
(C) 6.5, 125
Q23.2025 Supp 58/S/1 · Q31 mark
Read the following statements carefully :
Statement 1: Real National Income is always less than Nominal National Income.
Statement 2: Real National Income is the money value of all the final goods and services produced by the normal residents of an economy in an accounting year, measured at the base year prices.
In the light of the given statements, choose the correct alternative from the following:
- Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
- Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Supplementary), Set 58/S/1
(B) Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
Q24.2024 Main 58/1/1 · Q21 mark
Identify the correct equation from the following:
- GDPMP = NNPFC + Depreciation
- NDPFC = NNPFC + Net Indirect Taxes
- GNPMP = GDPMP + Net Factor Income from Abroad
- NNPFC = NDPMP + Depreciation
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(C) GNPMP = GDPMP + Net Factor Income from Abroad
Q25.2024 Main 58/2/1 · Q51 mark
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement 1: Economic territory and political frontier of a nation are one and the same thing.
Statement 2: American Embassy in India is a part of the economic territory of India.
In the light of the given statements, choose the correct alternative from the following :
- Statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false.
- Statement 1 is false and statement 2 is true.
- Both statements 1 and 2 are true.
- Both statements 1 and 2 are false.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(D) Both statements 1 and 2 are false.
Q26.2024 Main 58/3/1 · Q21 mark
Identify which of the following statements is incorrect with reference to an economy.
- Excess of Gross National Product (GNP) over Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is possible.
- Excess of Gross Domestic Product (GDP) over Gross National Product (GNP) is possible.
- Equality between Gross National Product (GNP) and Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is possible.
- Sum of Gross National Product (GNP) and Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is always equal to zero (0).
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/3/1
(D) Sum of Gross National Product (GNP) and Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is always equal to zero (0). [1]
Q27.2024 Main 58/4/1 · Q71 mark
Read the following statements - Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose one of the correct alternatives given below:
Assertion (A): Real Gross Domestic Product is a better indicator of economic growth of a nation as compared to Nominal Gross Domestic Product.
Reason (R): Real Gross Domestic Product measures the value of goods and services at current year prices.
Alternatives:
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
- Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false. [1]
Q28.2024 Main 58/5/1 · Q21 mark
Identify, which of the following is not considered as ‘Normal Resident’ of India?
- An Indian citizen working in U.S.A. embassy located at New Delhi.
- An Indian officials working in Indian embassy in China.
- An Indian diplomats visiting Canada for a summit.
- An Indian working in an American Company located in New York for a period of more than 1 year.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(D) An Indian working in an American Company located in New York for a period of more than 1 year. [1]
Q29.2024 Supp 58/S/1 · Q31 mark
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement 1: Gross National Product (GNP) can be greater than Gross Domestic Product (GDP) in a two-sector economy.
Statement 2: Net factor income from abroad is zero in a two-sector economy.
In the light of the given statements, choose the correct alternative from the following:
- Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
- Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Supplementary), Set 58/S/1
(B) Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true. [1]
Q30.2023 Main 58/1/1 · Q2(a)1 mark
The difference between National Income at market price and National Income at factor cost is ________. (Choose the correct alternative to fill up the blank)
- net indirect taxes
- net factor income from abroad
- consumption of fixed capital
- market price
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(a) net indirect taxes
Q31.2023 Main 58/1/1 · Q2(b)1 mark
Identify which of the following represents only the real flow:

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(b)

Q32.2023 Main 58/2/1 · Q6(a)1 mark
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement 1: Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is the sum total of the gross market value of all the final goods and services added by all the sectors in the economy during a fiscal year.
Statement 2: Gross Value Added at Market Price (GVAMP) is equal to the excess of value of output over intermediate consumption.
In the light of the given statements, choose the correct alternative from the following:
- Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
- Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(c) Both Statements 1 and 2 are true
Q33.2023 Main 58/2/1 · Q6(b)1 mark
On the basis of the figure given below, identify the type of flow indicated by B and D: (Choose the correct alternative)

Alternatives:
- Real flow
- Money flow
- Nominal flow
- National flow
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(a) Real flow
Q34.2023 Main 58/3/1 · Q5(a)1 mark
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement 1: Stock variables are measured at a point of time.
Statement 2: Flow variables and stock variables are same.
In light of the given statements, choose the correct alternative from the following:
- Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
- Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/3/1
(a) Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
Q35.2023 Main 58/3/1 · Q5(b)1 mark
Identify, flow variable from the following: (Choose the correct alternative)
- Distance between Delhi and Amritsar
- Annual expenditure of a school
- Bank balance of Mr. Mukesh as on 31st March, 2022
- Investments of Mr. Mohit as on 31st December, 2021
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/3/1
(b) Annual expenditure of a school
Q36.2023 Main 58/4/1 · Q5(a)1 mark
Choose the correct alternative to fill in the blanks (i) and (ii) in the figure.

Alternatives:
- National, Production
- Factor, Production
- Factor, Consumption
- National, Consumption
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(c) Factor, Consumption
Q37.2023 Main 58/4/1 · Q5(b)1 mark
Operating Surplus does not include________. (Choose the correct alternative to fill up the blank)
- Interest
- Rent
- Profit
- Compensation of employees
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(d) Compensation of employees
Q38.2023 Main 58/5/1 · Q5(a)1 mark
From the statements given in Column I and Column II, choose the correct pair.
| Column I | | Column II |
|---|
| A. | Vegetable grown in the Personal garden | (i) | Non marketing activity |
| B. | A car used as a taxi | (ii) | Consumer good |
| C. | An air-conditioner used by household | (iii) | Capital good |
| D. | Scholarship given to students by government | (iv) | Factor income |
Alternatives:
- A-(i)
- B-(ii)
- C-(iii)
- D-(iv)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(a) A-(i)
Q39.2023 Main 58/5/1 · Q5(b)1 mark
Complete the table:
| Producer | Value of output | Intermediate Consumption | Value Added |
|---|
| Farmer | 2000 | - | 2000 |
| Baker | __(i)___ | 2000 | 2000 |
| Retail Seller | 4,400 | __(iii)___ | 400 |
| Total | __(ii)___ | 6,000 | __(iv)___ |
Alternatives:
- 4000, 10400, 4000, 4000
- 4000, 10400, 4000, 4400
- 2000, 6000, 6000, 4400
- 4000, 10400, 6000, 4000
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(b) 4000,10400,4000,4400
Q40.2023 Supp 58/C/1 · Q11 mark
Increase in Real Gross Domestic Product (GDP) implies _____________ in the economy. (Choose the correct alternative to fill up the blank)
- increase in the level of income
- increase in the general price level
- increase in flow of goods and services
- decrease in aggregate demand
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Supplementary), Set 58/C/1
(c) increase in flow of goods and services
Q41.SQP 2025-26 · Q21 mark
“Real Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is estimated to attain a level of ₹ 173.82 lakh crore in the year 2023-24. The corresponding Nominal GDP is estimated to stand at ₹ 295.36 lakh crore in the same year.”
Source: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetailm.aspx?PRID=2022323®=3&lang=1
On the basis of the given data, the value of GDP deflator would be _____. (Choose the correct option to fill up the blank)
- 295.36
- 58.85
- 169.92
- 173.82
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 · Marking Scheme
(C) 169.92
Q42.SQP 2025-26 · Q51 mark
Refer to the given diagram carefully:

The arrows C and D represent ______ Market. (Choose the correct option to fill up the blank)
- Factor
- Goods
- Stock
- Financial
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 · Marking Scheme
(A) Factor
Q43.SQP 2025-26 · Q71 mark
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement 1: Final Goods do not undergo any further transformation at the hands of any producer.
Statement 2: Final goods may get transformed during their consumption by the ultimate purchaser.
In light of the given statements, choose the correct option from the following:
- Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
- Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 · Marking Scheme
(C) Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
Q44.SQP 2026-27 · Q71 mark
Read the following statements: Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose the correct option from those given below:
Assertion (A): Goods such as cars, refrigerators etc. are non-durable in nature, regardless of whether they are used by households or firms.
Reason (R): Consumer durable goods and capital goods have a common feature of durability, even though they may have different end users.
Options:
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
- Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 · Marking Scheme
(D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Q45.2022 Main 58/1/1 · Q1(a)2 marks
Using a suitable example, distinguish between positive externalities and negative externalities.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 58/1/1
Positive externalities refer to benefits caused by one entity to another, without being paid for it. [½]
Whereas, negative externalities refer to the harms caused by one entity to another, without being penalised for it. [½]
For example: A new park developed by the municipal corporation raises the welfare of the locality, is an example of positive externalities. In case the same park is used by people for anti-social activities which leads to insecurity among the residents, is an example of negative externalities. [1]
(any other suitable example to be awarded marks)
Q46.2022 Main 58/1/1 · Q1(b)2 marks
Using a suitable example, distinguish between stock variables and flow variables.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 58/1/1
Stock variables are those variables whose quantity is measured at a particular point of time. [½]
Whereas, flow variables are those variables whose quantity is measured over a period of time. [½]
For example: Wealth is a stock variable and Income is a flow variable. [1]
(any other suitable example to be awarded marks)
Q47.2022 Main 58/2/1 · Q1(a)2 marks
State any two precautions to be adopted while estimating National Income by Income Method.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 58/2/1
Two precautions to be taken while estimating National Income are:
(i) Income from sale of shares is not included as such transactions are mere paper claims and do not lead to value addition. (There is no corresponding flow of goods and services) [1]
(ii) Windfall gains will not be included as there is no corresponding flow of goods and services. [1]
(any other relevant point/argument to be allotted marks)
Q48.2022 Main 58/2/1 · Q1(b)2 marks
Distinguish between 'Value of Output' and 'Value Addition'.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 58/2/1
Value of Output is the money value of all the final goods and services, produced during a year in an economy. [1]
Whereas, Value added is the excess of value of output over the value of intermediate consumption. [1]
Q49.2022 Main 58/3/1 · Q1(a)2 marks
When does Net Factor Income from Abroad (NFIA) show Negative Value?
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 58/3/1
Net Factor Income from Abroad shows negative value when the factor income earned from rest of the world is less than the factor income paid to the rest of the world. [2]
(to be marked as a whole)
Q50.2022 Main 58/3/1 · Q1(b)2 marks
State the meaning of retained earnings.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 58/3/1
Retained earnings refer to that part of the profit which the firms keep as reserve after paying the corporate tax and dividends. They are also known as undistributed profits. [2]
(to be marked as a whole)
Q51.2022 Main 58/4/1 · Q1(a)2 marks
Distinguish between Consumption goods and Capital goods.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 58/4/1
Consumption goods refer to those goods which directly satisfy the wants of the end user (consumer). [1]
Whereas, Capital goods are those final goods which help in production of other goods and services. [1]
(any other relevant point/reason/argument should be awarded marks accordingly)
Q52.2022 Main 58/4/1 · Q1(b)2 marks
Giving valid reasons, classify the following into stock and flow variables:
(i) Population of India as on 31st March, 2021
(ii) Domestic Income of Indian Economy during the fiscal year 2020-21
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(i) Population of India as on 31st March, 2021 is a stock variable as it is measured at a particular point of time. [1]
(ii) Domestic Income of Indian Economy during the fiscal year 2020-21 is a flow variable as it is measured over a period of time. [1]
Q53.2022 Main 58/5/1 · Q1(a)2 marks
Distinguish between Factor Income and Transfer Income.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 58/5/1
Factor income is the income received by the factors of production for rendering their services to the firms. [1]
Whereas, transfer income is unilateral income received without rendering any goods and services. [1]
Q54.2022 Main 58/5/1 · Q1(b)2 marks
Distinguish between Domestic Income and National Income.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 58/5/1
Domestic Income is the money value of all the final goods and services produced within the domestic territory by residents/non-residents of a country during an accounting year. [1]
Whereas, National Income refers to money value of all the final goods and services produced by the normal residents residing within/outside a country, during an accounting year. [1]
Q55.2022 Supp 58/6/1 · Q1(a)2 marks
Distinguish between Consumption goods and Capital goods.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Supplementary), Set 58/6/1
Consumption goods refer to those final goods which directly satisfy the wants of the end user/consumer. [1]
Whereas;
Capital goods are those final goods which help in the production of other goods and services. [1]
Q56.2022 Supp 58/6/1 · Q1(b)2 marks
“National income includes income earned by factors of production, within the domestic territory only.”
Defend or refute the given statement with valid reasons.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Supplementary), Set 58/6/1
The given statement is refuted, as national income is the factor income earned by the normal residents of a country, irrespective of whether earned within or outside the domestic territory. [2]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q57.2026 Main 58/1/1 · Q11(a)3 marks
Meera and Shahid are two classmates, who were comparing India’s economic growth over the years.
Meera referred to the increase in Gross Domestic Product (GDP) at current prices prevailing in market, while Sahid insisted on considering GDP after adjusting for inflation. Their debate on which of the two measures gives a true picture of people’s well-being, remained inconclusive.
Considering the above mentioned situation, elaborate with valid reason, which of the two variables is considered a better indicator of welfare and why?
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/1/1
Gross Domestic Product (GDP) after adjusting for inflation (Real GDP) is a better measure of welfare than GDP at current prices (Nominal GDP). [1]
Real GDP is a true indicator of economic growth of a country as it changes only with the change in physical output. Thus, it eliminates the effect of changes in prices, showing the real growth of the economy. [1]
In contrast, Nominal GDP might change with the change in output or/and change in prices. [1]
Q58.2026 Main 58/1/1 · Q11(b)3 marks
Two friends, Ravi and Harry were discussing whether the money received from sale of an old car should be included in India’s National income.
Ravi was of the view that it should be included in India’s National income while Harry did not agree with him.
They also had difference of opinion on the treatment of brokerage paid to the car dealer.
As their Economics teacher, state the treatments with valid arguments.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/1/1
Harry’s opinion is correct.
The money received from the sale of an old car will not be included in India’s National Income because its value was already included in the year it was originally produced. Hence, it does not contribute to the current flow of goods and services. [1½]
However, the brokerage paid to the car dealer is included in India’s National Income, as it represents payment for productive services rendered in the current year. [1½]
Q59.2026 Main 58/2/1 · Q113 marks
Calculate compensation of employees from the data given below:
| S. No. | Particulars | Amount (in ₹ crore) |
|---|
| (i) | Interest | 45 |
| (ii) | Profits after tax | 20 |
| (iii) | Consumption of fixed capital | 50 |
| (iv) | Gross Domestic Product at market price (GDPMP) | 200 |
| (v) | Rent | 25 |
| (vi) | Corporate Tax | 5 |
| (vii) | Goods and Services tax | 10 |
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/2/1
Net Domestic Product at Factor Cost (NDPFC) = (iv) - (iii) - (vii) [½]
= 200 – 50 – 10
= ₹ 140 crore [½]
NDPFC = Compensation of Employees + (v) + (i) + (vi) + (ii) [1]
Compensation of Employees = 140 – 25 – 45 – 5 – 20 [½]
= ₹ 45 crore [½]
Q60.2026 Main 58/3/1 · Q11(a)3 marks
State the meaning and any two components of Gross Domestic Capital formation.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/3/1
Gross Domestic Capital Formation refers to addition to the capital stock which includes replacement for the wear and tear which the capital stock undergoes. [1]
Two Components of Gross Domestic Capital Formation:
- Gross Domestic Fixed Capital Formation. [1]
- Inventory Investment. [1]
(Any other valid component to be awarded marks)
Q61.2026 Main 58/3/1 · Q11(b)3 marks
“It is not the nature of a good, rather the economic nature of its use, which determines whether it is a final good or not.”
Justify the given statement with valid arguments.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/3/1
A good can be classified as a final good or not, depending on the economic nature of its use. Once a good is sold to the consumer, it crosses the production boundary and any further transformation at the hands of the producer is not possible. Although it may undergo further transformation at the hands of the ultimate purchaser but it is non-economic in nature.
However, if the same product is used for further production or resale in the same year, it will be treated as an intermediate good as value addition at any further stage is possible. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q62.2026 Main 58/4/1 · Q11(a)3 marks
On the basis of the given data, estimate the value of Gross Domestic Product at Factor Cost (GDPFC):
| S. No. | Items | Amount (in ₹ crore) |
|---|
| (i) | Private final consumption expenditure | 800 |
| (ii) | Government final consumption expenditure | 700 |
| (iii) | Net imports | 200 |
| (iv) | Gross public investment | 100 |
| (v) | Inventory investment | 50 |
| (vi) | Gross residential construction investment | 300 |
| (vii) | Net indirect taxes | 70 |
| (viii) | Gross business fixed investment | 130 |
| (ix) | Consumption of fixed capital | 20 |
| (x) | Interest | 150 |
| (xi) | Net factor income paid to abroad | 100 |
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/4/1
Gross Domestic Product at Market Price (GDPMP)
= (i) + (ii) + {(iv) + (v) + (vi) + (viii)} – (iii) [1]
= 800 + 700 + {100 + 50 + 300 + 130} - 200 [½]
= ₹1880 crore [½]
Gross Domestic Product at Factor Cost (GDPFC) = GDPMP – (vii) [½]
= 1880 – 70
= ₹1810 crore [½]
Q63.2026 Main 58/4/1 · Q11(b)3 marks
Explain any two precautions to be kept in mind while estimating National Income by the Income method.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/4/1
Two precautions to be adopted while estimating National Income by Income method are:
- Income from sale of financial assets should not be included in the estimation of National Income, as such transactions are mere paper claims and do not add to the current flow of goods and services. [1½]
- Transfer income should not be included as such income is not earned through any productive activity and is unilateral in nature. [1½]
(Any other valid precaution to be awarded marks)
Q64.2026 Main 58/5/1 · Q113 marks
Estimate the value of ‘Income from Property and Entrepreneurship’ on the basis of the given data:
| S.No. | Items | Amount (in ₹ crore) |
|---|
| (i) | Wages and salaries | 1,300 |
| (ii) | Rent | 700 |
| (iii) | Employer’s contribution to social security schemes | 300 |
| (iv) | Royalty | 200 |
| (v) | Corporate tax | 100 |
| (vi) | Interest | 350 |
| (vii) | Consumption of fixed capital | 50 |
| (viii) | Dividends | 150 |
| (ix) | Savings of private corporate sector | 200 |
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/5/1
Income from Property and Entrepreneurship = (ii) + (iv) + (vi) + (v) + (ix) + (viii) [1½]
= 700 + 200 + 350 + 100 + 200 + 150 [1]
= ₹ 1,700 crore [½]
Q65.2026 Supp 58/7/1 · Q11(a)3 marks
From the following data of a hypothetical economy, calculate the value of National Income (NNPFC).
| S.No. | Particulars | Amount (in ₹ crore) |
|---|
| (i) | Mixed income of the self-employed | 550 |
| (ii) | Net factor income from abroad | (−) 50 |
| (iii) | Rent | 150 |
| (iv) | Consumption of fixed capital | 40 |
| (v) | Profits after tax | 250 |
| (vi) | Wages and salaries | 1700 |
| (vii) | Net indirect taxes | 50 |
| (viii) | Corporate tax | 150 |
| (ix) | Dividends | 50 |
| (x) | Net exports | (−) 40 |
| (xi) | Interest | 350 |
| (xii) | Social security contributions by employers | 80 |
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Supplementary), Set 58/7/1
National Income (NNPFC) = (vi) + (xii) + (iii) + (xi) + (viii) + (v) + (i) + (ii) [1½]
= 1700 + 80 + 150 + 350 + 150 + 250 + 550 + (−50) [1]
= ₹ 3,180 crore [½]
Q66.2026 Supp 58/7/1 · Q11(b)3 marks
Giving valid reasons, state whether the following will be included in India’s domestic income or not:
(i) Expenditure on stationery items by a firm
(ii) Interest received by a branch of State Bank of India (SBI) in Germany on loans it has extended.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Supplementary), Set 58/7/1
(i) Expenditure on stationery items by a firm will not be included in the estimation of domestic income. It is an intermediate consumption expenditure and including it would lead to the problem of double counting. [1½]
(ii) Interest received by a branch of State Bank of India (SBI) in Germany on loans will not be included in the estimation of domestic income, as it is the income generated outside the domestic territory of India. [1½]
Q67.2025 Main 58/1/1 · Q11(a)3 marks
Calculate the value of Net Value Added at Factor Cost (NVAFC):
| S. No. | Particulars | Amount (In ₹ crore) |
|---|
| (i) | Operating Surplus | 3,740 |
| (ii) | Increase in unsold stock | 600 |
| (iii) | Sales | 10,625 |
| (iv) | Purchase of raw materials | 2,625 |
| (v) | Consumption of fixed capital | 500 |
| (vi) | Subsidies | 400 |
| (vii) | Indirect taxes | 1,200 |
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/1/1
Net Value Added at Factor Cost (NVAFC) = (iii) + (ii) – (iv) – (v) – {(vii) – (vi)} [1½]
= 10,625 + 600 – 2,625 – 500 – {1,200 – 400} [1]
= ₹ 7,300 crore [½]
Q68.2025 Main 58/1/1 · Q11(b)3 marks
Distinguish between Net Factor Income from Abroad (NFIA) and Net Exports (X - M).
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/1/1
Net Factor Income from Abroad (NFIA) is the difference between factor income received from the rest of the world and factor income paid to the rest of the world. [1½]
Whereas;
Net Exports (X – M) is the difference between the value of exports of goods and services and the value of imports of goods and services. [1½]
Q69.2025 Main 58/2/1 · Q113 marks
State the meaning and significance of Gross Domestic Product (GDP) deflator.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/2/1
Gross Domestic Product (GDP) deflator is the ratio of nominal Gross Domestic Product (GDP) to real Gross Domestic Product (GDP). [1]
GDP deflator is a tool which is used to eliminate the effect of price fluctuations in the economy and to determine the real change in physical output of current year. GDP deflator helps in comparison of growth rate of the economy. [2]
Q70.2025 Main 58/4/1 · Q11(a)3 marks
Explain any two precautions pertaining to the Expenditure Method of estimation of National Income in a country.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/4/1
Two precautions to be taken while estimating National Income by Expenditure Method are:
- Expenditure on intermediate goods should not be included as it will lead to the problem of double counting. [1½]
- Expenditure on purchase of second-hand goods should not be included as it does not add to the flow of goods and services in the current year. [1½]
(Any other valid precaution to be awarded marks)
Q71.2025 Main 58/4/1 · Q11(b)3 marks
On the basis of the following hypothetical data: (in ₹ crore)
| Year | Nominal GDP | Nominal GDP (adjusted to base year prices) |
|---|
| 2020-21 | 3,000 | 5,000 |
| 2022-23 | 4,000 | 6,000 |
Calculate the percentage change in Real Gross Domestic Product (GDP) in the year 2022 – 23 using 2020 – 21 as the base year.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/4/1
Percentage change in Real Gross Domestic Product (GDP) in the year 2022-23
= (Change in Real GDP / Real GDP) x 100 [1½]
= {(6000 − 5000)/5000} x 100 [1]
= 20% [½]
Q72.2025 Main 58/5/1 · Q11(a)3 marks
State the steps pertaining to the estimation of National Income, under the Income Method.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/5/1
Steps pertaining to the estimation of National Income under the Income method:
1. Identify and classify production units into distinct heads namely primary, secondary and tertiary sector. [1]
2. Estimate and classify the factor income in different categories as Compensation of Employees, Operating Surplus and Mixed Income. The sum of factor income represents the contribution of the sectors to Domestic Income (NDPFC). [1]
3. Finally, estimate and add the value of Net Factor Income from Abroad (NFIA) to arrive at National Income (NNPFC). [1]
Q73.2025 Main 58/5/1 · Q11(b)3 marks
On the basis of the following hypothetical data, calculate the percentage change in Real Gross Domestic Product (GDP) in the year 2022-23, using 2020-21 as the base year. (All figures in ₹ crore)
| Year | Nominal GDP | Nominal GDP (Adjusted to Base Year Price) |
|---|
| 2020-21 | 3,000 | 5,000 |
| 2022-23 | 4,000 | 6,000 |
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/5/1
Percentage change in Real Gross Domestic Product (GDP) in the year 2022-23
= (Change in Real GDP / Real GDP) x 100 [1½]
= {(6000 − 5000)/5000} x 100 [1]
= 20% [½]
Q74.2025 Main 58/6/1 · Q12(a)3 marks
Calculate Domestic Income (NDPFC) from the data given below:
| S. No. | Particulars | Amount (in ₹ lakh) |
|---|
| (i) | Gross National Product at market price | 2,500 |
| (ii) | Consumption of fixed capital | 200 |
| (iii) | Goods and Services Tax | 20 |
| (iv) | Subsidies | 50 |
| (v) | Net Factor Income from Abroad | 50 |
| (vi) | Changes in Stock | 30 |
| (vii) | Unexpected loss of a fixed asset | 500 |
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/6/1
Domestic Income (NDPFC) = (i) – (ii) – (v) – {(iii) – (iv)} [1½]
= 2,500 – 200 – 50 – {20 – 50} [1]
= ₹ 2,280 lakh [½]
Q75.2025 Main 58/6/1 · Q12(b)3 marks
Define Net Factor Income from Abroad (NFIA) and discuss its components.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/6/1
Net Factor Income from Abroad (NFIA) is the difference between factor income received from the rest of the world and factor income paid to the rest of the world. [1½]
Components of NFIA:
- Net Compensation of Employees (COE) refers to the difference between compensation earned by normal residents from abroad and compensation paid to non-residents working within domestic territory. [½]
- Net Income from Property and Entrepreneurship refers to difference between income earned by residents from rent, interest, and profits and similar payments made to non-residents. [½]
- Net retained earnings refers to difference between retained earnings of resident companies overseas and foreign companies operating domestically. [½]
Q76.2025 Main 58/7/1 · Q11(a)3 marks
Calculate the value of ‘Sales’ from the following data:
| S. No. | Particulars | Amount (in ₹ lakh) |
|---|
| (i) | Subsidies | 200 |
| (ii) | Operating surplus | 500 |
| (iii) | Opening stock | 100 |
| (iv) | Closing stock | 600 |
| (v) | Intermediate consumption | 3,000 |
| (vi) | Consumption of fixed capital | 700 |
| (vii) | Profits | 750 |
| (viii) | Net Value Added at Factor Cost (NVAFC) | 2,000 |
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/7/1
Value of Sales = (viii) – {(iv) – (iii)} + (v) – (i) + (vi) [1½]
= 2,000 – (600 – 100) + 3,000 – 200 + 700 [1]
= ₹ 5,000 lakh [½]
Q77.2025 Main 58/7/1 · Q11(b)3 marks
State and explain any two precautions that must be taken while estimating national income by the income method.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/7/1
Two precautions to be taken while estimating National Income by Income method are:
- Transfer Income should not be included as they are unilateral in nature. [1½]
- Income from sale of second-hand goods should not be included as it does not add to the flow of goods and services in the economy in the current year. [1½]
(Any other valid precaution to be awarded marks)
Q78.2025 Supp 58/S/1 · Q113 marks
On the basis of the following data, estimate the value of National Income (NNPFC):
| S.No. | Items | Amount (in ₹ crore) |
|---|
| (i) | Private Final Consumption Expenditure | 1,000 |
| (ii) | Government Final Consumption Expenditure | 2,000 |
| (iii) | Gross Domestic Fixed Capital Formation | 1,000 |
| (iv) | Net Exports | 100 |
| (v) | Net Additions to Stock | 50 |
| (vi) | Consumption of Fixed Capital | 100 |
| (vii) | Net Factor Income from Abroad | 20 |
| (viii) | Net Indirect Taxes | 200 |
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Supplementary), Set 58/S/1
National Income (NNPFC) = (i) + (ii) + (iii) + (v) + (iv) – (vi) + (vii) – (viii) [1½]
= 1,000 + 2,000 + 1,000 + 50 + 100 – 100 + 20 – 200 [1]
= ₹ 3,870 crore [½]
Q79.2024 Main 58/1/1 · Q11(a)3 marks
On the basis of the data given below for an imaginary economy, estimate the value of Net Domestic Product at Factor Cost (NDPFC):
| S.No. | Items | Amount (in ₹ crore) |
|---|
| (i) | Gross Domestic Fixed Capital Formation | 200 |
| (ii) | Exports | 50 |
| (iii) | Government Final Consumption Expenditure | 320 |
| (iv) | Consumption of Fixed Capital | 35 |
| (v) | Household Final Consumption Expenditure | 470 |
| (vi) | Inventory Investment (Net) | (-)40 |
| (vii) | Imports | 60 |
| (viii) | Net Indirect Taxes | 50 |
| (ix) | Net Factor Income from Abroad | 20 |
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/1/1
Net Domestic Product at Factor Cost (NDPFC) = (v)+(iii)+(i)+(vi)+(ii-vii)-(iv)-(viii) [1½]
=470+320+200+(-40)+(50-60)-35-50 [1]
= ₹ 855 crore [½]
Q80.2024 Main 58/1/1 · Q11(b)3 marks
(i) Elaborate the concept of Externalities with the help of suitable example.
(ii) Define Operating Surplus.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(i) Externalities refer to benefits/harms which are caused by one entity to another without being paid/ penalised for it. [1½]
For example: Newly developed public park [½]
(Any other relevant example to be awarded marks)
(ii) Factor income earned in the form of rent, royalties, interest and profits are together called ‘Operating Surplus’. [1]
Q81.2024 Main 58/2/1 · Q123 marks
On the basis of the data given below, estimate the value of Gross National Product at Factor Cost (GNPFC):
| S. No. | Items | Amount (in ₹ crore) |
|---|
| (i) | Wages and Salaries | 2,000 |
| (ii) | Rent and Interest | 700 |
| (iii) | Corporate Tax | 500 |
| (iv) | Undistributed Profit | 300 |
| (v) | Consumption of Fixed Capital | 200 |
| (vi) | Dividend | 150 |
| (vii) | Net factor income from abroad | (-) 50 |
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/2/1
Gross National Product at Factor Cost (GNPFC) = (i)+ (ii)+(iii)+(iv)+(vi)+(v)+(vii) [1½]
= 2,000+ 700+ 500+ 300+150+200+(-50) [1]
= ₹ 3800 crore [½]
Q82.2024 Main 58/3/1 · Q11(a)3 marks
On the basis of the given data, estimate the value of National Income:
| S.No. | Items | Amount (in crore) |
|---|
| (i) | Government Final Consumption Expenditure | 110 |
| (ii) | Private Final Consumption Expenditure | 200 |
| (iii) | Gross Domestic Fixed Capital Formation | 30 |
| (iv) | Net Exports | (−) 40 |
| (v) | Increase in stock | 20 |
| (vi) | Consumption of Fixed Capital | 15 |
| (vii) | Indirect Taxes | 60 |
| (viii) | Subsidies | 15 |
| (ix) | Net Factor Income from Abroad | (−) 40 |
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/3/1
National Income (NNPFC) = (ii) + (i) + (iii) + (v) + (iv) − (vi) − {(vii) − (viii)} + (ix) [1½]
= 200 + 110 + 30 + 20 + (−40) − 15 − 60 + 15 + (−40) [1]
= 220 crore [½]
Q83.2024 Main 58/3/1 · Q11(b)3 marks
State any three precautions to be taken while estimating National Income by Expenditure Method.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/3/1
Three precautions to be taken while estimating National Income by Expenditure Method are:
- Expenditure on intermediate goods should not be included. [1]
- Expenditure on purchase of second-hand goods should not be included. [1]
- Expenditure on purchase of financial instruments (shares, bonds, debentures etc.) should not be included. [1]
(Any other valid precaution to be awarded marks)
Q84.2024 Main 58/4/1 · Q11(a)3 marks
Estimate the value of Net National Product at Factor Cost (NNPFC), using the following information:
| S. No. | Items | Amount (in ₹ crores) |
|---|
| (i) | Household Consumption Expenditure | 1,200 |
| (ii) | Business Fixed Investment Expenditure | 800 |
| (iii) | Government Final Consumption Expenditure | 500 |
| (iv) | Excess of Imports over Exports | 100 |
| (v) | Net Indirect Taxes | 150 |
| (vi) | Change in Inventory | (−) 50 |
| (vii) | Consumption of fixed capital | 200 |
| (viii) | Net factor Income from Abroad | 80 |
| (ix) | Public fixed investment | 70 |
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/4/1
Net National Product at Factor Cost (NNPFC) = (i) + (iii) + (ii) + (ix) + (vi) – (iv) – (vii) – (v) + (viii) [1½]
= 1,200 + 500 + 800 + 70 + (–50) – 100 – 200 − 150 + 80 [1]
= ₹ 2,150 crore [½]
Q85.2024 Main 58/4/1 · Q11(b)3 marks
“Disposition Phase of circular flow of Income involves flow of factor Income, which comprises of rent, wages, interest and profits from firms to households.”
Defend or refute the statement, giving valid reasons in support of your answer.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/4/1
The given statement is refuted. Disposition phase of circular flow of income indicates the flow of spending by the households on purchase of goods and services produced by firms.
Whereas, the aforesaid statement depicts the distribution phase which involves the flow of factor incomes, which comprises of rent, wages, interest and profits from firms to households. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q86.2024 Main 58/5/1 · Q11(a)3 marks
Calculate Net Value Added at Factor Cost (NVAFC) from the following data:
| S. No. | Particulars | Amount (in ₹ lakh) |
|---|
| (i) | Fixed capital goods (expected life span - 5 years) | 15 |
| (ii) | Domestic Sales | 200 |
| (iii) | Change in stock | (−) 10 |
| (iv) | Exports | 10 |
| (v) | Single use producer goods | 120 |
| (vi) | Net indirect taxes | 20 |
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/5/1
Depreciation on fixed capital goods = Fixed Capital / Expected Life Span = 15/5 = 3
Net Value Added at Factor Cost (NVAFC) = (ii) + (iv) + (iii) – (v) − Depreciation – (vi) [1½]
= 200 + 10 + (−10) – 120 – (3) – 20 [1]
= ₹ 57 lakh [½]
Q87.2024 Main 58/5/1 · Q11(b)3 marks
From the following data, estimate the value of Net Indirect Taxes (NIT):
| S. No. | Particulars | Amount (in ₹ crore) |
|---|
| (i) | Net National Product at Market Price (NNPMP) | 1,400 |
| (ii) | Net Factor Income from abroad | (−) 20 |
| (iii) | Gross National Product at Factor Cost (GNPFC) | 1,300 |
| (iv) | Consumption of Fixed Capital | 100 |
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/5/1
Net Indirect Taxes = (i) + (iv) – (iii) [1½]
= 1,400 + 100 – 1,300 [1]
= ₹ 200 crore [½]
Q88.2024 Supp 58/S/1 · Q113 marks
On the basis of the given data, estimate the value of Net Value Added at Factor Cost (NVAFC):
| S. No. | Items | Amount (in ₹ crore) |
|---|
| (i) | Sales | 1,000 |
| (ii) | Change in stock | 150 |
| (iii) | Purchase of raw material | 300 |
| (iv) | Gross Investment | 100 |
| (v) | Net Investment | 80 |
| (vi) | Net Indirect Taxes | 20 |
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Supplementary), Set 58/S/1
Net Value Added at Factor Cost (NVAFC) = (i) + (ii) – (iii) – [(iv) – (v)] – (vi) [1½]
= 1,000 + 150 – 300 – [100 – 80] – 20 [1]
= ₹ 810 crore [½]
Q89.2023 Main 58/1/1 · Q11(a)3 marks
Distinguish between ‘Value Addition’ and ‘Final Value of Output’.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/1/1
Value Addition refers to the excess of ‘Value of Output’ over the ‘Value of Intermediate Consumption’.
Value Addition = Value of Output – Value of Intermediate Consumption [1½]
Whereas;
Final Value of output refers to the total money value of goods and services produced during a given period of time.
Final Value of output = (Number of units produced) x (Price per unit) [1½]
Q90.2023 Main 58/1/1 · Q11(b)3 marks
Find the Value Added by Firm A, from the following information:
| S.No. | Particulars | Amount (in ₹ crore) |
|---|
| (i) | Purchase of factor inputs by Firm A | 5 |
| (ii) | Purchase of non-factor inputs by Firm A | 2 |
| (iii) | Sales by Firm A to other firms in the domestic economy | 10 |
| (iv) | Import of raw materials by firm A from rest of the world | 50 |
| (v) | Excess of opening stock over closing stock | 3 |
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/1/1
Value added = Value of output - Intermediate consumption
Value added by firm A = (iii)- (v) – (ii + iv) [1½]
= 10 - 3 –(2+50) [1½]
(No marks to be deducted for negative value in the answer)
Q91.2023 Main 58/2/1 · Q113 marks
On the basis of the data given below for an imaginary economy, estimate the value of Net Domestic Product at factor cost (NDPFC):
| S. No. | Items | Amount (₹ in crore) |
|---|
| (i) | Household Consumption Expenditure | 2,000 |
| (ii) | Government Final Consumption Expenditure | 1,500 |
| (iii) | Gross Domestic Fixed Capital Formation | 1,000 |
| (iv) | Net additions to stock | 300 |
| (v) | Exports | 700 |
| (vi) | Net Indirect Taxes | 350 |
| (vii) | Imports | 200 |
| (viii) | Consumption of Fixed Capital | 250 |
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/2/1
Net Domestic Product at Factor Cost (NDPfc)= (i)+(ii)+(iii)+(iv)+(v)–(vii)–(vi)-(viii) [1½]
= 2,000+1,500+1,000+300+700–200–350–250 [1]
= ₹ 4,700 crore [½]
Q92.2023 Main 58/3/1 · Q11(a)3 marks
Differentiate between ‘Value of Output' and 'Value Added’.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/3/1
Value of output refers to the total money value of goods and services produced during a given period of time.
Value of output = (Number of units produced) X (Price per unit) [1½]
Whereas;
Value Added refers to the excess of ‘Value of Output’ over the ‘Value of Intermediate Consumption’.
Value Added = Value of Output – Value of Intermediate Consumption [1½]
Q93.2023 Main 58/3/1 · Q11(b)3 marks
Justify the following statement:
"Depreciation is a fall in the value of an asset due to expected obsolescence."
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/3/1
Yes. Depreciation is the continuous fall in the value of an asset due to expected obsolescence. Value of fixed assets may fall owing to change in technology over a period of time.
(To be marked as a whole)
Q94.2023 Main 58/4/1 · Q113 marks
Suppose, the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) at market price of a country in a particular year was ₹ 1,100 crore. Net Factor Income from abroad was ₹ 100 crore. The value of Net Indirect Taxes was ₹ 150 crore and the National Income was ₹ 850 crore. Calculate the value of depreciation for the economy.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/4/1
National Income (NNPFC) = Gross Domestic Product at Market Price (GDPMP) – Depreciation + Net factor income from abroad – Net Indirect Taxes [1½]
850 = 1,100 – Depreciation + 100 – 150 [½]
Depreciation = 1,100 + 100 – 150 – 850 [½]
Depreciation = ₹ 200 crore [½]
Q95.2023 Main 58/5/1 · Q113 marks
Suppose only one Good 'X' is produced in the country. Output of Good X during year 2018 and 2019 were 100 units and 110 units respectively. The market price of the product during the two years was ₹ 50 and ₹ 55 per unit respectively.
Calculate the percentage change in Real Gross Domestic Product (GDP) in year 2019 using 2018 as the base year.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/5/1
| Year | Output (in units) | Market Price (₹ per unit) | Real GDP (in ₹) | |
|---|
| 2018 (Base Year) | 100 | 50 | 5,000 | [½] |
| 2019 (Current Year) | 110 | 55 | 5,500 | [½] |
Percentage (%) Change in Real GDP = (Change (Δ) in Real GDP ÷ Base Year Real GDP) × 100 [½]
= ((5,500 – 5,000) ÷ 5,000) × 100 [1]
= 10% [½]
(Any other relevant method to be allotted marks)
Q96.2023 Supp 58/C/1 · Q11(a)3 marks
Suppose in an imaginary economy, Gross Domestic Product (GDP) at market price in 2019-20 was ₹ 5,000 crore, National Income was ₹ 3,500 crore, Net Factor Income paid by the economy to rest of the world was ₹ 450 crore and the Net Indirect Taxes was ₹ 400 crore.
Estimate the value of consumption of fixed capital for the economy from the information given above.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Supplementary), Set 58/C/1
National Income (NNPFC) = GDPMP – Consumption of Fixed Capital - Net factor income paid by the economy to the rest of the world – Net Indirect Taxes [1½]
3,500 = 5,000 - Consumption of Fixed Capital – 450 – 400 [1]
Consumption of Fixed Capital = ₹ 650 crore [½]
Q97.2023 Supp 58/C/1 · Q11(b)3 marks
State any three precautions that are taken while estimating national income by production method.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Supplementary), Set 58/C/1
Three precautions that are taken while estimating national income by production method:
- Value of intermediate goods should not be included in the estimation of National Income, to avoid the problem of double counting (as their value has already been included in the value of final goods) [1]
- Imputed value of goods for self-consumption should be taken into consideration while estimating National Income, as it adds to the current flow of goods and services. [1]
- Sale and purchase of financial assets should not be included in the estimation of National Income, as such transactions are mere paper claims and do not lead to value addition. [1]
(Any other valid precaution to be allotted marks)
Q98.2022 Main 58/1/1 · Q6(a)3 marks
Estimate the value of Nominal Gross Domestic Product (GDP) for a hypothetical economy. The values of Real Gross Domestic Product (GDP) and Price Index are given as ₹ 500 crore and 125 respectively.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 58/1/1
Given,
Real GDP = ₹ 500 crore
Price index = 125
Price index = (Nominal GDP / Real GDP) × 100 [1]
∴ 125 = (Nominal GDP / 500) × 100 [1]
Or, Nominal GDP = (125 × 500)/100 [½]
Nominal GDP = ₹ 625 crore [½]
Q99.2022 Main 58/1/1 · Q6(b)3 marks
Giving valid reasons explain, which of the following will not be included in the estimation of National Income of India ?
(i) Purchase of shares of Sethi Ltd. by an investor in the Bombay Stock Exchange.
(ii) Salaries paid by Indian Embassy situated at Japan, to the local workers.
(iii) Depreciation on capital assets charged by firms.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(i) Purchase of shares of Sethi Ltd. by an investor in the Bombay Stock Exchange is a transaction, which is a mere paper claim and do not lead to any value addition and thus will not be included. [1]
(ii) Salaries paid by Indian Embassy situated at Japan, to the local workers is a factor income paid to non-residents and thus will not be included. [1]
(iii) Depreciation on capital assets is not included as it is a mere accounting entry that is needed to accommodate regular wear and tear of capital. [1]
Q100.2022 Main 58/2/1 · Q7(a)3 marks
Discuss briefly the problem of Double Counting, using a suitable example.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 58/2/1
Counting the value of a good or service more than once while estimating National Income by value added method is called double counting problem. [1]
This may be illustrated with the following example:
Suppose a farmer produces 50 kg of wheat and sells it for ₹ 500 to a flour mill owner. If intermediate cost for farmer is assumed to be zero, then the value added will be ₹ 500. For the flour mill owner, wheat is an intermediate good which is converted into flour and sold for ₹ 700 to a baker. For the baker, flour becomes an intermediate product which is converted into bread and sold to the final consumers for ₹ 1,000 as the final product.
In the given example, wheat is a final product for the farmer, flour for the flour mill owner, bread for the baker.
However, the value of wheat is included in the value of flour as well as in the value of bread. As a result, the value of wheat and flour are counted more than once. This may cause the problem of double counting. [2]
(marks to be allotted for tabulated example too)
Q101.2022 Main 58/2/1 · Q7(b)3 marks
Distinguish between Real Gross Domestic Product and Nominal Gross Domestic Product, using a suitable numerical example.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 58/2/1
Real Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is the money value of final goods and services measured at base year prices.
Whereas, Nominal Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is money value of final goods and services measured at current year’s prices.
For example, suppose a country produces only one product. In the year 2000 it had produced 100 units which was sold at ₹ 10 per unit. GDP at current price for year 2000 was ₹ 1,000.
In 2001, the same quantity is produced but is sold at ₹15 per unit.
In this case the Nominal GDP in 2001 was ₹ 1,500 (=100 × ₹ 15), however the Real GDP (in 2001) will be ₹ 1,000 (=100 × ₹ 10). [3]
(to be marked as a whole)
Q102.2022 Main 58/3/1 · Q6(a)3 marks
Giving valid reasons, explain how the following would be treated while estimating National income:
(a) Payment of indirect taxes by a firm.
(b) Purchase of goods by foreign tourists.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 58/3/1
(a) Payment of indirect taxes by a firm will not be included in national income as it is a transfer payment, occurring without any corresponding value addition. [1½]
(b) Purchase of goods by foreign tourists will be included in the national income as it is considered as exports of goods. [1½]
( no marks to be awarded if no / wrong reason(s) given)
Q103.2022 Main 58/3/1 · Q6(b)3 marks
Using the following information, calculate and analyse the value of Gross Domestic Product (GDP) deflator :
| Year | 2014-15 | 2016-17 |
|---|
| Nominal GDP | 6.5 | 9 |
| Real GDP | 6.5 | 7.2 |
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 58/3/1
| Year | 2014–15 | 2016–17 |
|---|
| Nominal GDP | 6·5 | 9 |
| Real GDP | 6·5 | 7·2 |
| GDP deflator = (Nominal GDP / Real GDP) × 100 | 100 | 125 |
[2]
Thus, we may say that the value of GDP deflator/price level has risen by 25% (125-100) over the given period of time. [1]
Q104.2022 Main 58/4/1 · Q9(a)3 marks
Briefly explain the different phases of circular flow of income.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 58/4/1
Three phases of circular flow of Income:
- Firms hire factor services from the households (owner of factor services). [1]
- Households receive factor income for rendering their services to the firms. [1]
- Households spend factor income earned on purchase of final goods and services produced by firms, thereby completing the circular flow. [1]
Q105.2022 Main 58/4/1 · Q9(b)3 marks
In an economy, if the Real Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is ₹ 300 crore and Price Index (with base = 100) is 110, calculate the Nominal Gross Domestic Product.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 58/4/1
Real GDP = (Nominal GDP / Price Index) × 100 [1]
300 = (Nominal GDP / 110) × 100 [1]
Nominal GDP = (300/100) × 110 [½]
Nominal GDP = ₹ 330 crores [½]
Q106.2022 Main 58/5/1 · Q6(a)3 marks
Giving valid reasons, explain how the following would be treated while estimating domestic income?
(i) Payment made by a Japanese tourist for goods purchased in India.
(ii) Broker’s commission on the sale of second-hand goods.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(i) It will be included in domestic income as goods purchased by Japanese tourist is the expenditure made by him in India. It will be considered as exports. [1½]
(ii) It will be included in domestic income because it is the income received by the broker in return for providing his factor services. [1½]
Q107.2022 Main 58/5/1 · Q6(b)3 marks
“Gross Domestic Product (GDP) as an indicator of welfare loses its significance if the distribution of income turns unequal.”
Justify the given statement with valid reason.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 58/5/1
A rise in Gross Domestic Product (GDP) may not benefit all the sections of the society in the same dimension. This is because a given rise in GDP may be concentrated in the hands of very few individuals or firms. For the rest, the income may not vary or may have fallen. In such a case, the welfare of the entire country may not increase despite the increase in GDP. [3]
(to be marked as a whole)
Q108.2022 Supp 58/6/1 · Q6(a)3 marks
On the basis of the following data, calculate the value of Gross Value Added (GVA) at Market Price:
| S. No. | Particulars | Amount (₹ in lakh) |
|---|
| (i) | Depreciation | 20 |
| (ii) | Domestic Sales | 200 |
| (iii) | Change in stock | (-) 10 |
| (iv) | Exports | 10 |
| (v) | Single Use Producer Goods | 120 |
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Supplementary), Set 58/6/1
GVAmp = (ii) + (iii) + (iv) – (v) [1½]
= 200 + (-10) + 10 - 120 [1]
= ₹ 80 lakh [½]
Q109.2022 Supp 58/6/1 · Q6(b)3 marks
Explain any two precautions that should be taken into account, while estimating National Income by Expenditure method.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Supplementary), Set 58/6/1
Two precautions of Expenditure Method are:
(i) Any expenditure on intermediate consumption should not be included, as it may lead to problem of double counting. [1½]
(ii) Expenditure on transfer payments should not be included, as these are unilateral in nature. [1½]
(any other valid precaution to be allotted marks)
Q110.SQP 2025-26 · Q113 marks
For a hypothetical economy, assuming there are only two firms (A and B) with equal Gross Value Added (GVA).
On the basis of the following data, estimate the value of Domestic Sales of Firm A:
| S. No. | Items | Amount (in ₹ crore) |
|---|
| (i) | Value of Output of Firm B | 1,000 |
| (ii) | Purchases by Firm A from Firm B | 300 |
| (iii) | Exports by Firm A | 200 |
| (iv) | Purchases by Firm B from Firm A | 250 |
| (v) | Additions to stock of Firm A | 150 |
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 · Marking Scheme
Gross Value Added of Firm B = (i) – (iv) [½]
= 1,000 – 250 = ₹ 750 crore [½]
Gross Value Added of Firm A = Gross Value Added of Firm B = ₹ 750 crore
Domestic Sales of Firm A = Gross Value Added of Firm A – (iii) – (v) + (ii) [1]
= 750 – 200 – 150 + 300 [½]
= ₹ 700 crore [½]
Q111.SQP 2026-27 · Q11(a)3 marks
Using the given estimates for a hypothetical economy, show that Gross Domestic Product at Market Price by Value-Added Method and Expenditure Method yields the same result.
| S. No. | Items | Amount (in ₹ crore) |
|---|
| (i) | Private Final Consumption Expenditure | 500 |
| (ii) | Value of Output | 1900 |
| (iii) | Government Final Consumption Expenditure | 400 |
| (iv) | Gross Domestic Capital Formation | 600 |
| (v) | Change in Stock | 100 |
| (vi) | Consumption of Fixed Capital | 30 |
| (vii) | Net Exports | 70 |
| (viii) | Intermediate Consumption | 330 |
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 · Marking Scheme
Value-Added Method:
Gross Domestic Product at Market Price = (ii) − (viii) [½]
= 1,900 – 330 [½]
= ₹ 1,570 crore [½]
Expenditure Method:
Gross Domestic Product at Market Price = (i) + (iii) + (iv) + (vii) [½]
= 500 + 400 + 600 + 70 [½]
= ₹ 1,570 crore [½]
Q112.SQP 2026-27 · Q11(b)3 marks
“Each factor of production contributes a distinct service in the production process and receives a specific reward in return.”
In the light of the given statement, answer the following questions:
(I) List any two factors of production and their respective remuneration earned.
(II) Define any one of the remuneration earned listed above.
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 · Marking Scheme
(I) Two factors of production and their respective remunerations earned are:
- Land - Rent [½ + ½]
- Capital - Interest [½ + ½]
(II) The remuneration earned by the Land can be defined as:
Rent: Income earned by the owner of the land (natural resources). [1]
Q113.2026 Main 58/1/1 · Q13(a)4 marks
For a hypothetical economy, assuming there are only two firms (X and Y) with equal values of Gross Value Added (GVA).
On the basis of the following data, estimate the value of Domestic Sales of both the firms (X and Y):
| S. No. | Items | Amount (in ₹ crore) |
|---|
| (i) | Value of Output of firm Y | 700 |
| (ii) | Purchases by firm X from firm Y | 200 |
| (iii) | Exports by firm X | 100 |
| (iv) | Purchases by firm Y from firm X | 150 |
| (v) | Additions to Stock of firm X | 50 |
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/1/1
Gross Value Added of Firm Y = (i) – (iv) [½]
= 700 – 150
= ₹ 550 crore [½]
Domestic Sales of Firm Y = Gross Value Added of Firm Y + (iv) [½]
= 550 + 150
= ₹ 700 crore [½]
Gross Value Added of Firm X = Gross Value Added of Firm Y = ₹ 550 crore
Domestic Sales of Firm X = Gross Value Added of Firm X – (iii) – (v) + (ii) [1]
= 550 – 100 – 50 + 200 [½]
= ₹ 600 crore [½]
Q114.2026 Main 58/1/1 · Q13(b)4 marks
Ms. Reeta D’Costa, retired from the post of Income Tax Commissioner in the year 2023.
Apart from her pension, she also receives the following from various sources:
- Rental income from a flat she owns.
- Interest income from her fixed deposits.
- Money sent by her children settled abroad.
Identify and classify, her monthly incomes into ‘factor income’ and ‘transfer income’, with valid reasons.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/1/1
Factor Income:
- Rental income from a flat she owns. [½]
- Interest income from her fixed deposits. [½]
- Retirement pension (Deferred Payment) [½]
Transfer Income:
- Money sent by her children settled abroad. [½]
Factor income is the income earned by the factors of production for rendering their services. [1]
Transfer income is the income received without rendering any productive service in return. [1]
Q115.2026 Main 58/2/1 · Q13(a)4 marks
Read the following text carefully:
“A country’s total National Income (NI) at the end of the year is ₹ 80,000 crore. During the same year, the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) increased by ₹ 10,000 crore. The depreciation on capital goods was ₹ 2,000 crore and National savings at the end of year is ₹ 15,000 crore. Additionally, country invested ₹ 8,000 crore in new capital goods industries.”
In the light of above text, categorise the items as ‘stock’ or ‘flow’ variables with valid arguments.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/2/1
Stock Variable: National Savings [½]
Flow Variables:
- National Income [½]
- Gross Domestic Product [½]
- Depreciation on capital goods [½]
- Investment on new capital goods [½]
Stock variables are those variables which are measured at a particular point of time whereas; flow variables are those variables which are measured over a period of time. [1½]
Q116.2026 Main 58/2/1 · Q13(b)4 marks
The value of Nominal Gross National Product (GNP) of an economy was ₹ 2,500 crore in a particular year. The value of Gross National Product (GNP) of that country during the same year, estimated at the prices of base year was ₹ 3,000 crore.
(i) Estimate the value of Gross National Product (GNP) deflator (in percentage).
(ii) “The price level has risen between the base year and the year under consideration.” Defend or refute the statement with suitable argument.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(i) Given, Nominal Gross National Product (GNP) = ₹ 2,500 crore
Gross National Product estimated at the prices of base year = ₹ 3,000 crore
Gross National Product (GNP) deflator (in percentage) = (Nominal GNP / Real GNP) x 100 [1]
= (2,500 / 3,000) x 100 [½]
= 83.33 [½]
(ii) The given statement is refuted. As the value of Gross National Product (GNP) deflator of 83.33 indicates that the price level in the year under consideration has reduced by 16.67% (100 - 83.33) compared to base year. [2]
Q117.2026 Main 58/5/1 · Q14(a)4 marks
A company named Tech Info Ltd. manufactures printers. The company purchases machinery from Germany to manufacture printers. These printers are sold in the domestic and foreign markets to households and dealers. The machinery purchased and printers manufactured, both can be classified as final goods.
Do you agree with the given statement? Give valid arguments in support of your answer.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/5/1
No.
Final Goods:
- Machinery purchased to manufacture printers [1]
- Printer Sold to Households [1]
Intermediate Good:
- Printer Sold to Dealer [1]
Final goods refer to those goods which are used either for consumption purposes or for investment purpose. [½]
Whereas, Intermediate goods refer to those goods which are either used for production or resale purposes in the same year. [½]
Q118.2026 Main 58/5/1 · Q14(b)4 marks
(i) Define Gross Investments.
(ii) Identify any two components of Gross Investments indicated in the given image.

(iii) Briefly explain any one component of Gross Investments.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(i) Gross investments refer to addition to the capital stock which includes replacement for the wear and tear which the capital stock undergoes. [1]
(ii) Two components indicated in the given image are:
- Gross Public Investment [½]
- Gross Residential Construction Investment [½]
(Any other valid indicated component to be awarded marks)
(iii) Gross Public Investment refers to the expenditure incurred by the government on creating fixed assets such as flyovers, roads, dams etc. [2]
(Any other valid component to be awarded marks)
Q119.2026 Supp 58/7/1 · Q13(a)4 marks
A local tea seller uses tea leaves, utensils, sugar, milk, water, ginger and a small gas stove to sell tea to customers.
Using this given information, categorize these items as intermediate or final goods. Explain the basis for distinguishing between these two categories.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Supplementary), Set 58/7/1
The items like Utensils, Small Gas Stove and Tea can be categorized as final goods as these goods are used either for consumption purposes or for investment purpose. [1½]
However, the items like Tea Leaves, Sugar, Milk, Water and Ginger can be categorized as Intermediate Goods, as these goods are used for further production/resale in the same year. [2½]
Q120.2026 Supp 58/7/1 · Q13(b)4 marks
“A petrochemical industrial unit was accused of causing groundwater pollution, deterioration in air quality and negatively impacting the health of residents in the nearby villages.”
Analyse the likely impact of this activity on the Gross Domestic Product of the nation and the welfare of people in general.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Supplementary), Set 58/7/1
The output of petrochemical industrial unit contributes to the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) through value addition in the economy. However, it generates negative externalities such as groundwater pollution, deteriorating air quality and health problems for people living in nearby villages. This will increase healthcare costs and reduce the overall quality of life. Therefore, GDP may increase but at the cost of welfare of people in general. [4]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q121.SQP 2025-26 · Q13(a)4 marks
Ms. Sarika is a retired government employee. Every month, she earns rental income from a property she owns. She has also invested in fixed deposit, which provide her with interest income. Occasionally, she receives cash transfers from her family members abroad.
Classify, Ms. Sarika’s income as factor income or transfer income, giving valid reasons in support of your answer.
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 · Marking Scheme
The income earned by Ms. Sarika in the form of rent and interest can be classified as factor income, as it is the income earned by the factors of production for rendering their services. [2]
Whereas;
Cash transfers received by Ms. Sarika from her family members abroad can be classified as transfer income as it is the income received without rendering any productive service in return. [2]
Q122.SQP 2025-26 · Q13(b)4 marks
“Under the Expenditure Method, the value of Gross Domestic Product (GDP) can be estimated by adding the final expenditure incurred by all the sectors of an economy.”
In the light of the given statement, explain the expenditure incurred by any two sectors.
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 · Marking Scheme
The final expenditure incurred by the sectors of an economy can be:
- Private Final Consumption Expenditure: It is the expenditure incurred by households and non-profit institutions serving households on final consumption of goods and services. [2]
- Net Exports: It refers to the excess of value of exports of goods and services over the value of imports of goods and services, during an accounting year. [2]
Q123.2022 Main 58/1/1 · Q9(a)5 marks
(i) From the following data, calculate the value of Gross National Product at Factor Cost (GNPFC):
| S. No. | Items | Amount in (₹ Crore) |
|---|
| (i) | Compensation of Employees | 12,000 |
| (ii) | Rent and Interest | 1,800 |
| (iii) | Indirect taxes | 1,120 |
| (iv) | Profits | 1,500 |
| (v) | Depreciation | 1,100 |
| (vi) | Subsidies | 210 |
| (vii) | Net Factor Income from Abroad | (-)120 |
| (viii) | Mixed Income of Self Employed | 1,300 |
(ii) Distinguish between Rent and Royalty.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(i) GNPFC = (i) + (ii) + (iv) + (v) + (vii) + (viii) [1½]
= 12,000 + 1,800 + 1,500 + 1,100 + (−)120 + 1,300 [1]
= ₹ 17,580 crore [½]
(ii) Rent is a factor income earned by the owners for lending their services such as land, building etc. [1]
Royalty is the income earned by a person /institution for lending Intellectual Property Rights and rights of sub soil assets. [1]
Q124.2022 Main 58/1/1 · Q9(b)5 marks
(i) Calculate the value of 'Net Value Added at Factor Cost' (NVAFC) using the given data:
| S. No. | Items | Amount in (₹ '000) |
|---|
| (i) | Sale of Rice in the market. | 580 |
| (ii) | Purchase of Tractor and Thrasher | 400 |
| (iii) | Procurement of Rice by the government | 20 |
| (iv) | Self consumption of Rice during the year | 15 |
| (v) | Expenditure on running and maintenance of Tractor and Thrasher. | 20 |
| (vi) | Fertilizer subsidies received from the government | 3 |
(ii) Distinguish between 'value of output' and 'value addition'.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(i) NVAFC = (i) + (iii) + (iv) − (v) + (vi) [1½]
= 580 + 20 + 15 − 20 + 3 [1]
= ₹ 598 thousand [½]
(ii) Value of output is the estimated money value of final goods and services, inclusive of change in stock and production for self consumption. [1]
Whereas, Value added is the excess of value of output over the value of intermediate consumption. [1]
Q125.2022 Main 58/2/1 · Q115 marks
Estimate the missing values (?), if the value of Gross Domestic Product at factor cost (GDPFC) by Expenditure Method and Income Method is ₹ 370 crore:
| S. No. | Items | Amount (in ₹ crore) |
|---|
| (i) | Compensation of Employees | 175 |
| (ii) | Private Final Consumption Expenditure | 210 |
| (iii) | Employers' Contribution to Social Security Schemes | 50 |
| (iv) | Net Indirect Taxes | 20 |
| (v) | Net Exports | (-) 20 |
| (vi) | Government Final Consumption Expenditure | ? |
| (vii) | Operating Surplus | ? |
| (viii) | Gross Domestic Fixed Capital Formation | 70 |
| (ix) | Mixed Income of Self-employed | 40 |
| (x) | Change in Stock | 60 |
| (xi) | Consumption of Fixed Capital | 70 |
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 58/2/1
GDPFC = (ii) + Government Final Consumption Expenditure + (viii + x) + (v) – (iv) [1]
370 = 210 + Government Final Consumption Expenditure + (70 + 60) + (−20) − 20 [1]
Government Final Consumption Expenditure = ₹ 70 crore [½]
GDPFC = (i) + Operating Surplus + (ix) + (xi) [1]
370 = 175 + OS + 40 + 70 [1]
Operating Surplus = ₹ 85 crore [½]
Q126.2022 Main 58/3/1 · Q11(a)5 marks
(i) From the following data, calculate Net Value Added at Factor Cost (NVAFC):
| S.NO | Particulars | Amount in (₹ crore) |
|---|
| (i) | Price per unit of output | 20 |
| (ii) | Output sold (units) | 1250 units |
| (iii) | Excise duty | 5,000 |
| (iv) | Consumption of fixed capital | 1,000 |
| (v) | Change in stock | (-)500 |
| (vi) | Single use producer goods | 6,000 |
(ii) Why there is a need to make distinction between final and intermediate goods?
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 58/3/1
(i) NVAFC = (i × ii) + (v) − (vi) − (iv) − (iii) [1½]
NVAFC = (20 × 1,250) + (−500) − 6,000 − 1,000 − 5,000 [½]
NVAFC = 25,000 − 12,500 [½]
NVAFC = ₹ 12,500 crore [½]
(ii) The distinction between final and intermediate goods is required to estimate the correct value of Gross Domestic Product (GDP). In the absence of this distinction, GDP may be over-estimated and may lead to problem of double counting. [2]
(to be marked as a whole)
Q127.2022 Main 58/3/1 · Q11(b)5 marks
(i) Discuss briefly the concept of 'Externalities', with suitable example.
(ii) Export are not a part of 'Net Factor Income from abroad'. Elaborate the reason behind the given statement.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 58/3/1
(i) Externalities refers to benefits (positive externalities) / harms (negative externalities) which are caused by one entity to another without being paid/penalised for it. [2]
For example: A new park developed by Municipal Corporation raises the welfare of the locality is the example of positive externalities. In case the same park is used by people for anti-social activities, this will lead to insecurity among the residents is an example of negative externalities. [1]
(ii) Net Factor Income from Abroad is the difference between factor incomes earned from rest of the world (ROW) and factor incomes paid to Rest Of the World (ROW).
Whereas, Exports refers to sale of goods and services by the country to the Rest Of the World, thus exports are not a part of Net Factor Income from Abroad. [2]
Q128.2022 Main 58/4/1 · Q12(a)5 marks
From the following data, show that the National Income will be same from both Income Method and Expenditure Method:
| S. No. | Items | Amount (in ₹ crore) |
|---|
| (i) | Net Exports | (-) 60 |
| (ii) | Net Indirect Taxes | 150 |
| (iii) | Operating Surplus | 740 |
| (iv) | Compensation of Employees | 1,400 |
| (v) | Net Factor Income from Abroad | 40 |
| (vi) | Mixed Income of Self- Employed | 1,000 |
| (vii) | Net Domestic Fixed Capital Formation | 500 |
| (viii) | Change in Stock | (-) 100 |
| (ix) | Depreciation | 100 |
| (x) | Private Final Consumption Expenditure | 2,000 |
| (xi) | Government Final Consumption Expenditure | 1,000 |
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 58/4/1
Income Method
NNPFC = (iv) + (iii) + (vi) + (v) [1½]
= 1,400 + 740 + 1,000 + 40 [1]
= ₹ 3,180 crores [½]
Expenditure Method
(ii) NNPFC = (x) + (xi) + [(vii + viii)] + (i) + (v) – (ii) [1]
= 2,000 + 1,000 + [500 + (–100)] + (–60) + 40 – 150
= ₹ 3,230 crores [1]
(MARKS ARE TO BE AWARDED EVEN IF THE VALUES OF NATIONAL INCOME ARE DIFFERENT)
Q129.2022 Main 58/4/1 · Q12(b)5 marks
(i) Calculate the operating surplus from the following data:
| S.No. | Items | Amount (in ₹ Crore) |
|---|
| (i) | Compensation of Employees | 300 |
| (ii) | Indirect Taxes | 200 |
| (iii) | Consumption of Fixed Capital | 100 |
| (iv) | Subsidies | 50 |
| (v) | Gross Domestic Product at Factor Cost (GDPfc) | 650 |
(ii) State and discuss briefly the three main components of Net Factor Income from Abroad
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(i) Operating surplus = (v) – (iii) – (i) [1]
= 650 - 100 - 300 [½]
Operating surplus = ₹ 250 crore [½]
(ii) Components of net factor income from abroad are as follows:
- Net compensation of employees [1]
- Net Income from property and entrepreneurship [1]
- Net retained earnings [1]
(with valid explanations)
Q130.2022 Main 58/5/1 · Q12(a)5 marks
(I) From the following data, calculate the value of operating surplus:
| S. No. | Items | Amount in (₹ crore) |
|---|
| (i) | Royalty | 5 |
| (ii) | Rent | 75 |
| (iii) | Interest | 30 |
| (iv) | Net domestic product at factor cost | 400 |
| (v) | Profit | 45 |
| (vi) | Dividends | 20 |
(II) Distinguish between ‘Fixed investment’ and ‘Inventory Investment’
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(I) Operating Surplus = (i) + (ii) + (iii) + (v) [1½]
= 5 + 75 + 30 + 45 [1]
= ₹ 155 crore [½]
(II) Fixed investment refers to addition to the stock of fixed assets in the hands of producers during an accounting year. [1]
Whereas, inventory investment is addition to the stock of inventory (unsold finished goods, semi-finished goods, raw material) with the producers during an accounting year. [1]
Q131.2022 Main 58/5/1 · Q12(b)5 marks
(I) From the following data, calculate the value of Compensation of Employees (COE):
| S. No. | Items | Amount in (₹ crore) |
|---|
| (i) | Old age pension | 2,000 |
| (ii) | Wages and salaries in cash | 60,000 |
| (iii) | Rent free accommodation to employees | 30,000 |
| (iv) | Employer’s contribution to provident fund | 7,500 |
| (v) | Payment of life insurance premium by the employees | 2,500 |
| (vi) | Contribution to provident fund by employees | 35,000 |
(II) Distinguish between stock and flow variables.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(I) Compensation of Employees (COE) = (ii) + (iii) + (iv) [1½]
= 60,000 + 30,000 + 7,500 [1]
= ₹ 97,500 crore [½]
(II) Stock refers to that quantity of an economic variable which is measured at a particular point of time. [1]
Whereas, flow is that quantity of economic variable which is measured over a period of time. [1]
Q132.2022 Supp 58/6/1 · Q135 marks
Case/ Source Based Question
Read the following text carefully. Answer questions number 13(a) and 13(b) on the basis of the given text and common understanding:
As for the first advance estimates of annual national income released by the National Statistical Office (NSO), India’s Real GDP is estimated to grow by 9.2% in 2021-22, as compared to a contraction of 7.3% of 2020-21.
According to NSO, investment and exports have achieved more than full recovery of the corresponding pre-pandemic 2019-20 levels. Similarly, private consumption has also improved to recover 97.1% of the corresponding pre-pandemic level and stands fully recovered in the second half of the financial year 2021-22. Private consumption expenditure is estimated to grow at 6.9% in 2021-22 as against a contraction of 9.1% in 2020-21.
Fixed investment in Indian economy is estimated to grow by 15% in 2021-22, as against a contraction of 10.8% in 2020-21. In 2021-22, exports and imports of goods and services are estimated to grow 16.5% and 29.4% (at constant prices), respectively.
Source: The Economic Times; 1st February, 2022
(a) Using the following data, calculate the percentage change in Real GDP: (Assume 2020-21 as base year) (2)
| Year | 2020-21 | 2021-22 |
|---|
| Estimated Real GDP | 7.3 | 9.2 |
(b) (i) State any two economic variables which have shown positive sign after the pandemic period. (2)
(ii) Define Real Gross Domestic Product. (1)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Supplementary), Set 58/6/1
(a) Percentage change in Real GDP = (Change in Real GDP / Real GDP) × 100 [1]
= ((9.2 - 7.3)/7.3) × 100 [½]
= 26.02 % [½]
(b) (i) Two economic variables which have shown positive sign after the pandemic period are:
- India’s real GDP is estimated to grow by 9.2 % in 2021-22 as compared to the corresponding figure of 7.3% in 2020-21. [1]
- Private consumption has also improved to recover approximately 97% of the corresponding pre-pandemic level and stands fully recovered in the second half of the financial year 2021-22. [1]
(ii) Real Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is defined as the money value of all the final goods and services produced within the domestic territory of an economy, measured at base year prices. [1]
Q133.2026 Main 58/3/1 · Q16(a)6 marks
Calculate the values of Operating Surplus and Gross Domestic Product at Market Price (GDPMP) from the following data :
| S.No. | Particulars | Amount (in ₹ crore) |
|---|
| (i) | Rent | 120 |
| (ii) | Profits | 200 |
| (iii) | Domestic Income | 720 |
| (iv) | Mixed Income | 70 |
| (v) | Wages and Salaries | 300 |
| (vi) | Indirect Taxes | 150 |
| (vii) | Subsidies | 50 |
| (viii) | Consumption of fixed capital | 200 |
| (ix) | Interest | 30 |
| (x) | Dividend | 120 |
| (xi) | Net factor income from abroad | 20 |
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/3/1
Operating Surplus = (i) + (ii) + (ix) [1½]
= 120 + 200 + 30 [1]
= ₹ 350 crore [½]
Gross Domestic Product at Market Price (GDPMP) = (iii) + (viii) + {(vi) - (vii)} [1½]
= 720 + 200 + (150 – 50) [1]
= ₹ 1,020 crore [½]
Q134.2026 Main 58/3/1 · Q16(b)6 marks
(i) Distinguish between Real Gross Domestic Product and Nominal Gross Domestic Product using a numerical example. [4]
(ii) Define the concept of ‘Externalities’. [2]
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/3/1
(i) Real Gross Domestic Product (GDP) refers to the market value of final goods and services produced in the domestic territory of an economy during a given period of time, measured at constant prices. [1]
Whereas;
Nominal Gross Domestic Product (GDP) refers to the market value of final goods and services produced in the domestic territory of an economy during a given period of time, measured at current year prices. [1]
For example, considering base year be 2022 and current year be 2025.
| Year | Price (in ₹) | Output (in units) | Real GDP (P0Q1) | Nominal GDP (P1Q1) | |
|---|
| 2022 | 10 | 100 | 1,000 | 1,000 | [1] |
| 2025 | 15 | 100 | 1,000 | 1,500 | [1] |
(Any other valid example to be awarded marks)
(ii) Externalities refer to benefits/harms which are caused by one entity to another without being paid/ penalised for it. [2]
Q135.2026 Main 58/4/1 · Q176 marks
Read the following passage carefully:
The domestic product measures the value of all goods and services arising out of economic activity within a country over a specific period, while National Income is the sum total of income earned by all factors of production as a result of the economic activities during a period of time.
National Income includes only those incomes which are derived directly from the current production of goods and services, which are called Factor Incomes.
When National Income is measured at current prices over a number of years, the changes in National Income would include the effect of the changes in production along with the changes in prices. This estimate compared over the period would not be an accurate measure of the overall real increase in production of the country or the economic welfare of the people of the economy.
Therefore, it would be necessary to eliminate the effect of prices, in other words, to recompute the whole series at given prices of one particular base year. National Income, thus computed, is termed as National Income at constant prices.
On the basis of the above passage and common understanding, answer the following questions:
(i) Differentiate between Domestic Product and National Product. [3]
(ii) ‘National Income measured at constant prices is a better measure of the overall real increase in production of the country.’
Justify the given statement with valid arguments. [3]
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(i) Domestic Product refers to the value of all final goods and services arising out of economic activity within the domestic territory of a country over a specific period of time. [1½]
Whereas;
National Product measures the value of all final goods and services arising out of economic activity undertaken by the normal residents of a country over a specific period of time. [1½]
(ii) National Income measured at constant prices is a better indicator of the overall real increase in production of the country as it changes only with the change in physical output. Thus, it eliminates the effect of changes in prices, showing the real growth of the economy.
In contrast, National Income measured at current year prices might change with the change in output or/and change in prices. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q136.2025 Main 58/1/1 · Q17(a)6 marks
(i) Explain any two precautions to be adopted while estimating National Income by Expenditure method.
(ii) “Higher Gross Domestic Product (GDP) always means higher per capita availability of goods in the economy.”
Defend or refute the given statement as the index of welfare of the people of that country.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(i) Two precautions to be adopted while estimating National Income by Expenditure Method are:
- Expenditure on intermediate goods should not be included as it will lead to the problem of double counting. [1½]
- Expenditure on purchase of second-hand goods should not be included as it does not add to the flow of goods and services in the current year. [1½]
(Any other valid precaution to be awarded marks)
(ii) The given statement is refuted. Gross Domestic Product (GDP) may not affect the welfare of all the sections of the society in the same dimension. This is because a given rise in GDP may not increase the per capita availability of goods due to concentration in a few hands. For the rest, the income may have fallen. In such a case, the welfare of the entire economy may not increase despite the increase in GDP. (To be marked as a whole) [3]
Q137.2025 Main 58/1/1 · Q17(b)6 marks
(i) Distinguish between Stock and flow variables, using suitable examples.
(ii) Explain the components of ‘Profit’ as per Income Method of estimating National Income (NNPFC).
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(i) Stock variables refer to those variables which are measured at a particular point of time. [1]
Example: National Wealth [½]
Flow variables refer to those variables which are measured over a period of time. [1]
Example: National Income (Any other valid example to be awarded marks) [½]
(ii) The components of ‘Profit’ as per Income Method of estimating National Income (NNPFC):
- Corporate Tax: Taxes imposed on the income made by the corporations (or private sector firms). [1]
- Undistributed Profits: Part of the profit earned by the private and government-owned firms which are not distributed among the factors of production. [1]
- Dividend: The residual profit which is distributed among the shareholders (owners of capital). [1]
Q138.2025 Main 58/2/1 · Q16(a)6 marks
(i) On the basis of the data given below, estimate the value of National Income (NNPFC)
| S. No. | Items | Amount (₹ in crore) |
|---|
| (1) | Private final consumption expenditure | 2,000 |
| (2) | Government final consumption expenditure | 1,500 |
| (3) | Gross domestic fixed capital formation | 1,000 |
| (4) | Addition to stock | 400 |
| (5) | Consumption of fixed capital | 50 |
| (6) | Net factor income from abroad | 100 |
| (7) | Net indirect Taxes | 200 |
| (8) | Net Exports | 700 |
(ii) Differentiate between Real Flow and Money Flow.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(i) National Income (NNPFC) = (1) + (2) + (3) + (4) + (8) – (5) + (6) – (7) [2]
= 2,000 + 1,500 + 1,000 + 400 + 700 – 50 + 100 – 200 [1½]
= ₹ 5,450 crore [½]
(ii) Real flow refers to the flow of goods and services between households and firms. [1]
Whereas;
Money flow refers to the flow of money in the form of factor payments and payment for goods and services between households and firms. [1]
Q139.2025 Main 58/2/1 · Q16(b)6 marks
(i) Gauhar, has recently completed her fashion designing studies and started a boutique. To produce dresses for sale, she purchased various materials, including a sewing machine, fabric, buttons and thread. These items are essential for producing the dresses.
Classify the material purchased by Gauhar as Final or Intermediate goods, giving valid reasons in support of the classifications.
(ii) “National Income is always equal to Domestic income in a two sector economy.”
Defend or refute the given statement with valid reasons.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(i) Sewing machine purchased by Gauhar for her boutique can be classified as a Final Good. [1]
As the same will be used for investment purposes. [1]
Fabric, buttons and thread can be classified as intermediate goods. [1]
As they are completely used up in the further production of goods and services in the same year. [1]
(ii) The given statement is defended.
National Income = Domestic Income + Net Factor Income from Abroad
In a two sector economy, due to no interaction with the external sector, Net Factor Income from Abroad has no significance. Hence, National Income is always equal to Domestic Income. (To be marked as a whole) [2]
Q140.2025 Main 58/4/1 · Q16(a)6 marks
(i) Suppose there are only three firms in an imaginary economy, viz. X, Y and Z. During a year, the following transactions took place in the economy:
(I) Firm X sold goods worth ₹ 20,000 to Firm Y and ₹ 12,000 to Firm Z.
(II) Firm Y sold goods worth ₹ 11,000 to Firm X and ₹ 35,000 to Firm Z.
(III) Firm Z sold goods worth ₹ 57,000 to households for final consumption.
On the basis of the given transactions, calculate the value of Gross Domestic Product at Market Price (GDPMP) in the economy.
(ii) Elaborate the likely impact of construction of two new Express Highways on the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) and Welfare in an economy.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(i)
| Firms | Value of Output (in ₹) (i) | Intermediate Consumption (in ₹) (ii) | Value Added (in ₹) {(i) – (ii)} |
|---|
| X | 20,000 + 12,000 | 11,000 | 21,000 [1] |
|---|
| Y | 11,000 + 35,000 | 20,000 | 26,000 [1] |
|---|
| Z | 57,000 | 12,000 + 35,000 | 10,000 [1] |
|---|
| 1,35,000 | 78,000 | 57,000 [1] |
| Gross Domestic Product at Market Price (GDPMP) |
(Any other valid method to be awarded marks)
(ii) The construction of two new Express Highways may impact the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) positively as improved infrastructure generally attracts higher investments in an economy and may lead to an increase in employment opportunities. It may also reduce travel time and average transportation costs. Consequently, increasing the well-being of citizens. (To be marked as a whole) [2]
Q141.2025 Main 58/4/1 · Q16(b)6 marks
(i) On the basis of the following data, estimate the value of National Income (NNPFC):
| S.No. | Items | Amount (in ₹ crore) |
|---|
| (i) | Household Consumption Expenditure | 800 |
| (ii) | Gross Business Fixed Capital Formation | 150 |
| (iii) | Gross Residential Construction Investment | 120 |
| (iv) | Government Final Consumption Expenditure | 270 |
| (v) | Excess of Imports over Exports | 20 |
| (vi) | Inventory Investments | 50 |
| (vii) | Gross Public Investments | 130 |
| (viii) | Net Indirect Taxes | 20 |
| (ix) | Net Factor Income from Abroad | (-) 25 |
| (x) | Consumption of Fixed Capital | 40 |
(ii) “All producer goods are essentially capital goods.”
Defend or refute the given statement, with the help of a suitable example.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(i) National Income (NNPFC) = (i) + (iv) + (ii) + (iii) + (vii) + (vi) - (v) - (x) + (ix) - (viii) [1½]
= 800 + 270 + 150 + 120 + 130 + 50 – 20 – 40 + (-25) -20 [1]
= ₹ 1,415 crore [½]
(ii) The given statement is refuted. Producer goods can be categorized as single-use producer goods (intermediate goods) and durable producer goods (capital goods). These goods are used for further production of goods and services. Intermediate goods are completely used up in the production process during the same year. Whereas, capital goods are used for more than one year. Thus, all producer goods are not essentially capital goods. (To be marked as a whole) [3]
Q142.2025 Main 58/5/1 · Q17(a)6 marks
(i) Suppose, there are only three firms in a hypothetical economy, viz. A, B and C. During a given period of time, the following transactions were undertaken by them:
(I) Firm A sold goods worth ₹ 2,000 to Firm B and ₹ 1,200 to Firm C.
(II) Firm B sold goods worth ₹ 1,100 to Firm A and ₹ 3,500 to Firm C.
(III) Firm C sold to households for final consumption, goods worth ₹ 5,700.
Estimate the value of Net Domestic Product at Market Price (NDPMP), assuming depreciation to be ₹ 120.
(ii) Explain the likely impact of construction of 2000 new schools providing high-quality education in a nation on Gross Domestic Product and Welfare in an economy.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(i)
| Firms | Value of Output (in ₹) (i) | Intermediate Consumption (in ₹) (ii) | Gross Value Added (in ₹) {(i)-(ii)} |
|---|
| A | 2,000 + 1,200 | 1,100 | 2,100 [½] |
|---|
| B | 1,100 + 3,500 | 2,000 | 2,600 [½] |
|---|
| C | 5,700 | 1,200 + 3,500 | 1,000 [½] |
|---|
| 13,500 | 7,800 | 5,700 [½] |
| Gross Domestic Product at Market Price (GDPMP) |
Net Domestic Product at Market Price (NDPMP) = GDPMP – Depreciation [½]
= 5,700 – 120
= ₹ 5,580 [½]
(Any other valid method to be awarded marks)
(ii) The construction of 2,000 new schools may impact the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) positively as construction generally attracts higher investments in an economy and may lead to an increase in employment opportunities. It may lead to provision of high-quality education, enhancing knowledge, skills, efficiency and increasing civic engagement. Consequently, the well-being of citizens will increase. (To be marked as a whole) [3]
Q143.2025 Main 58/5/1 · Q17(b)6 marks
(i) “All consumption goods are durable in nature.”
Defend or refute the given statement with a valid argument.
(ii) On the basis of the given data, estimate the value of National Income (NNPFC):
| S.No. | Items | Amount (in ₹ Crore) |
|---|
| (i) | Household Consumption Expenditure | 1,800 |
| (ii) | Gross Business Fixed Capital Formation | 1,150 |
| (iii) | Gross Residential Construction Expenditure | 1,020 |
| (iv) | Government Final Consumption Expenditure | 2,170 |
| (v) | Excess of Imports over Exports | 720 |
| (vi) | Inventory Investments | 540 |
| (vii) | Gross Public Investments | 1,300 |
| (viii) | Net Indirect Taxes | 240 |
| (ix) | Net Factor Income from Abroad | (- ) 250 |
| (x) | Consumption of Fixed Capital | 440 |
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(i) The given statement is refuted. Consumption goods can be categorised as durable and non-durable. Non-durable consumption goods, such as food, have a shorter lifespan. Whereas durable consumption goods, like cars and home appliances, can be used over an extended period usually more than one year. Hence, not all consumption goods are durable in nature. (To be marked as a whole) [3]
(ii) National Income (NNPFC) = (i) + (iv) + (ii) + (iii) + (vii) + (vi) – (v) – (x) + (ix) – (viii) [1½]
= 1,800 + 2,170 + 1,150 + 1,020 + 1,300 + 540 – 720 – 440 + (-250) – 240 [1]
= ₹ 6,330 crore [½]
Q144.2025 Main 58/6/1 · Q17(a)6 marks
(i) Suppose, there are only three firms in a hypothetical economy, viz. A, B, and C. During a given period of time, the following transactions were undertaken by them:
(I) Firm A sold goods worth ₹ 2,000 to Firm B and ₹ 1,200 to Firm C.
(II) Firm B sold goods worth ₹ 1,100 to Firm A and ₹ 3,500 to Firm C.
(III) Firm C sold to households for final consumption, goods worth ₹ 5,700.
Estimate the value of Net Domestic Product at Market Price (NDPMP) assuming depreciation to be ₹ 120. [3]
(ii) Explain the likely impact of the construction of 2000 new schools providing high-quality education in a nation on Gross Domestic Product and welfare in an economy [3]
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/6/1
(i)
| Firms | Value of Output (in ₹) (i) | Intermediate Consumption (in ₹) (ii) | Value Added (in ₹) {(i) – (ii)} |
|---|
| A | 2,000 + 1,200 | 1,100 | 2,100 [½] |
| B | 1,100 + 3,500 | 2,000 | 2,600 [½] |
| C | 5,700 | 1,200 + 3,500 | 1,000 [½] |
| 13,500 | 7,800 | 5,700 [½] |
| Gross Domestic Product at Market Price (GDPMP) |
Net Domestic Product at Market Price (NDPMP) = GDPMP – Depreciation [½]
= 5,700 – 120
= ₹ 5,580 [½]
(ii) The construction of 2,000 new schools may impact the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) positively as construction generally attracts higher investments in an economy and may lead to an increase in employment opportunities. It may lead to provision of high-quality education, enhancing knowledge, skills, efficiency and increasing civic engagement. Consequently, the well-being of citizens will increase. [3] (To be marked as a whole)
Q145.2025 Main 58/6/1 · Q17(b)6 marks
(i) Distinguish between Real Gross Domestic Product (GDP) and Nominal Gross Domestic Product. [3]
(ii) As per a news report dated April 11, 2023:
“Electric Vehicle sales crossed one million marks in FY 2023.”

Analyse its impact on Gross Domestic Product (GDP) and economic welfare. [3]
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/6/1
(i) Real Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is the money value of all the final goods and services produced in the domestic territory of an economy, measured at base year prices. [1½]
Whereas;
Nominal Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is the money value of all the final goods and services produced in the domestic territory of an economy, measured at current year prices. [1½]
(ii) The increased sales of Electric Vehicles (EVs) is expected to have positive impacts on both Gross Domestic Product (GDP) and welfare. An increase in the sale of EVs directly contributes to the value addition, in turn GDP of an economy. Moreover, EVs are eco-friendly as they do not produce pollutants and are energy efficient. Consequently, the well-being of citizens will increase thereby creating positive externalities. [3] (To be marked as a whole)
Q146.2025 Main 58/7/1 · Q16(a)6 marks
(i) “Domestic income is always less than national income.”
Do you agree with the given statement? Support your answer with valid arguments. [3]
(ii) Distinguish between positive externalities and negative externalities with suitable examples. [3]
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/7/1
(i) No. Net Factor Income from Abroad (NFIA) needs to be added to Domestic Income to arrive at the value of National Income. Domestic Income will be less than National Income, when NFIA is positive, i.e. factor income from abroad is greater than factor income to abroad. Whereas, Domestic Income will be more than National Income, when NFIA is negative i.e. factor income from abroad is less than factor income to abroad. On the other hand, if NFIA is zero, Domestic income will be equal to National Income. [3] (To be marked as a whole)
(ii) Positive externalities refer to benefits caused by one entity to another without being paid for it. [1]
Example: Newly developed public park. [½]
Whereas;
Negative externalities refer to harms caused by one entity to another, without being penalised for it. [1]
Example: Smoke emitted by a factory. [½]
(Any other suitable example to be awarded marks)
Q147.2025 Main 58/7/1 · Q16(b)6 marks
(i) “In a two-sector economy, consumption expenditure by households is always equal to aggregate expenditure on goods and services produced by the firms.”
Do you agree with the given statement ? Support your answer with a valid explanation. [3]
(ii) “Problem of Double Counting leads to overestimation of output in an economy.”
Justify the given statement with the help of suitable example. [3]
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/7/1
(i) Yes. In a two-sector economy model, households are the owners of factors of production (Land, Labour, Capital, Entrepreneur). Firms combine these factors of production to produce goods and services. They make factor payments (Rent, Wages, Interest, Profits) to households, which in turn, are completely spent by the households on the consumption of final goods and services.
Thus, the income earned by the factors of production flows back to the production units in the form of aggregate consumption expenditure. [3] (To be marked as a whole)
(ii) Problem of double counting refers to counting the value of goods and services more than once. This leads to an overestimation of the output in the economy. [1½]
Example: A farmer had produced ₹ 100 worth of wheat for which no inputs were required. The baker had to buy ₹ 50 worth of wheat to produce bread worth ₹ 200. To estimate the net contribution of the baker, the value of wheat (₹ 50) needs to be subtracted from the value of bread. Otherwise, ₹ 50 worth of wheat will be counted twice leading to the problem of double counting. [1½]
Q148.2025 Supp 58/S/1 · Q166 marks
Read the following text carefully:
The Gross Domestic Product (GDP) deflator, is an important indicator of inflation. It represents the ratio of the total value of goods and services produced by an economy in a specific year at current prices to the prices that were in effect during a designated base year. This ratio highlights the proportion of GDP growth that can be attributed to rising prices instead of an actual increase in production levels.
The GDP price deflator indicates the difference between nominal GDP and real GDP. Nominal GDP differs from real GDP as the former doesn’t include inflation, while the latter does.
The GDP deflator automatically adjusts for changes in consumption habits and introduction of new products and services. This feature enables it to reflect shifts in investment and consumption trends.
For the GDP deflator, the ‘basket’ for each year consists of all goods produced domestically, weighted according to the market value of total consumption for each item.
On the basis of given text and common understanding, answer the following questions:
(a) State the meaning of Gross Domestic Product (GDP) deflator and its significance. [3]
(b) Elaborate how Real Gross Domestic Product is different from Nominal Gross Domestic Product. [3]
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Supplementary), Set 58/S/1
(a) Gross Domestic Product (GDP) deflator is the ratio of nominal Gross Domestic Product (GDP) to real Gross Domestic Product (GDP). [1]
GDP deflator is a tool which is used to eliminate the effect of price fluctuations in the economy and to determine the real change in physical output of current year. GDP deflator helps in comparison of growth rate of the economy. [2]
(b) Real Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is the market value of all the final goods and services produced in the domestic territory of an economy, measured at base year prices. [1½]
Whereas;
Nominal Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is market value of all the final goods and services produced in the domestic territory of an economy, measured at current year prices. [1½]
Q149.2024 Main 58/1/1 · Q176 marks
(a) Discuss briefly the concept of circular flow of income in a two-sector model.
(b) “Real Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is a better indicator of economic growth of a nation as compared to the Nominal Gross Domestic Product (GDP).”
Do you agree with the given statement? Justify your answer with a valid hypothetical numerical example.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(a) In a two-sector economy model, households are the owners of factors of production (Land, Labour, Capital, Entrepreneur). Firms combine these factors of production to produce goods and services. They make factor payments (Rent, wages, Interest, Profits) to households, which in turn, are spent by the households on the consumption of final goods and services.
Thus, the income earned by the factors of production flows back to the production units in the form of aggregate consumption expenditure. Thereby, completing the circular flow of income. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
(b) Yes. Real Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is the money value of all the final goods and services produced in the domestic territory of an economy, measured at base year prices. Whereas, Nominal Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is money value of all the final goods and services produced in the domestic territory of an economy, measured at current year prices.
For example:
| Year | Price (in ₹) | Output (in units) | Real GDP (P0Q1) | Nominal GDP (P1Q1) |
|---|
| 2010 (Base Year) | 10 | 100 | 1,000 | 1,000 |
| 2011 (Current Year) | 15 | 100 | 1,000 | 1,500 |
Real GDP is a better indicator to make comparison in terms of physical output and it eliminates the effect of price change. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q150.2024 Main 58/2/1 · Q176 marks
Read the following text carefully:
Decisions taken by factors of production in the production process often may affect the stakeholders indirectly. Such impacts at times are huge but are not accounted for, while estimating national income. Economists call them as externalities and they can be positive or negative.
In this regard, many economists suggest carbon pricing as an important tool to ensure ecological balance.
Carbon pricing tries to control greenhouse gas emissions by either placing a fee on emitting or offering subsidies on lesser emission. Through instruments like carbon tax, green cess, eco tax, etc. economists suggest moving towards greener technology eliminating such negative externalities.
On the basis of the given text and common understanding, answer the following questions:
(i) Define externalities.
(ii) Differentiate between positive and negative externalities.
(iii) Elaborate how and why carbon pricing should be promoted.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(i) Externalities refer to benefits/harms which are caused by one entity to another without being paid/ penalised for it. [1]
(ii) Positive externalities refer to benefits caused by one entity to another, without being paid for it. [1]
Whereas;
Negative externalities refer to the harms caused by one entity to another, without being penalised for it. [1]
(iii) Carbon pricing should be promoted by either placing a fee on emitting or offering subsidies on lesser emission. Through instruments like carbon tax, green cess, eco tax, etc. economy moves toward greener technology, eliminating negative externalities. Hence, carbon pricing is an important tool to ensure ecological balance. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q151.2024 Main 58/3/1 · Q16(a)6 marks
(i) Explain the concept of circular flow of income in a two-sector economy. 3
(ii) “Gross Domestic Product (GDP) and sum of Gross Value Added (GVA) in an economy are always equal.”
Justify the given statement with valid arguments. 3
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/3/1
(i) In a two-sector economy model, households are the owners of factors of production (Land, Labour, Capital, Entrepreneur). Firms combine these factors of production to produce goods and services. They make factor payments (Rent, Wages, Interest, Profits) to households, which in turn, are spent by the households on the consumption of final goods and services.
Thus, the income earned by the factors of production flows back to the production units in the form of aggregate consumption expenditure, thereby completing the circular flow of income. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
(ii) Gross Domestic Product (GDP) measures the market value of all the final goods and services produced within the domestic territory of a country, during an accounting year.
Gross Value Added (GVA) measures the value addition by each production unit in an economy, during an accounting year.
Therefore, the sum of Gross Value Added (GVA) by the three sectors is always equal to the Gross Domestic Product of the economy. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q152.2024 Main 58/3/1 · Q16(b)6 marks
(i) “Gross Domestic Product (GDP) Deflator is represented by the ratio of Real GDP and Nominal GDP.”
Do you agree with the given statement? Justify your answer with valid arguments and a hypothetical numerical example. 4
(ii) State the meaning of ‘Income from Property and Entrepreneurship’. 2
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/3/1
(i) No. GDP deflator is the ratio of Nominal GDP to Real GDP. [1]
| Year | Price (in ₹) | Output (in units) | Real GDP | Nominal GDP | GDP Deflator (Nominal GDP/Real GDP) × 100 |
|---|
| 2010 | 10 | 100 | 1,000 | 1,000 | (1,000/1,000) × 100 = 100 |
| 2015 | 15 | 100 | 1,000 | 1,500 | (1,500/1,000) × 100 = 150 |
As indicated in the above example, the value of GDP is changing due to change in the prices only, the volume of output being unchanged. [3]
(Any other valid example to be awarded marks)
(ii) Factor income earned in the form of rent, royalties, interest and profits are together called ‘Income from Property and Entrepreneurship’ [2]
Q153.2024 Main 58/4/1 · Q176 marks
(a) “In the past few decades, Indian economy has been fairly benefitted by positive externalities created by rapid rise in infrastructure.”
Justify the given statement with valid arguments. 3
(b) State the steps pertaining to the estimation of National Income by Value Added Method. 3
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(a) In the past few decades, Indian economy has experienced a rapid rise in infrastructure. Infrastructural development is a core element in promoting economic growth and attracting foreign investment for sustainable production and productivity. The benefits of infrastructural development may be enjoyed by the people without paying for the same. Hence, such infrastructural development adds to the welfare in an economy and creates positive externalities. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
(b) Steps pertaining to the estimation of National Income under the Value Added method:
- Identify and classify production units into distinct heads namely into primary, secondary, and tertiary sector. [1]
- Estimate and add Gross Value Added of each sector to arrive at Gross Domestic Product at Market Price. [1]
- Finally, estimate and deduct the value of Depreciation, Net Indirect Taxes and add Net Factor Income from Abroad to arrive at National Income (NNPFC). [1]
Q154.2024 Main 58/5/1 · Q176 marks
(a) As per The Economic Times report, dated April 11, 2023
“Electric Vehicle sales cross 10 Lakh mark in financial year 2022-23.”
Analyse the likely impacts of this news on Gross Domestic Product (GDP) and Welfare. 3
(b) Discuss briefly, the circular flow of income in a two sector economy model. 3
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(a) The increased sales of electric vehicles may have positive impacts on both GDP and welfare. An increase in sales of E-vehicles directly contributes to the value addition in the economy which in turn leads to increase in Gross Domestic Product.
Electric vehicles are generally considered environment-friendly and improve public welfare. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
(b) In a two-sector economy model, households are the owners of factors of production (Land, Labour, Capital, Entrepreneur). Firms combine these factors of production to produce goods and services. They make factor payments (Rent, Wages, Interest, Profits) to households, which in turn, are spent by the households on the consumption of final goods and services.
Thus, the income earned by the factors of production flows back to the production units in the form of aggregate consumption expenditure, thereby completing the circular flow of income. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q155.2024 Supp 58/S/1 · Q166 marks
(a) Differentiate between stock variables and flow variables with suitable example. 3
(b) “Externalities can be classified into negative or positive, however it is not necessary that they will be directly correlated with the Gross Domestic Product.”
Do you agree with the given statement? Give valid reasons in support of your answer. 3
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Supplementary), Set 58/S/1
(a) Stock variables are the variables which are measured at a particular point of time. For example: National Wealth [1 + ½]
Whereas;
Flow variables are the variables which are measured over a period of time. For instance: National Income [1 + ½]
(b) Yes, externalities may not directly correlate with the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) as externalities do not have any market in which they can be bought/sold. GDP does not take into account any such negative/positive impact on the third-party as they are not penalised/paid for such harms/benefits. Consequently, it may lead to overestimation/underestimation of the actual welfare of the economy. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q156.2023 Main 58/1/1 · Q166 marks
(a) “National income is always greater than domestic income”. Do you agree with the given statement? Support your answer with a valid reason. (3)
(b) In the estimation of Gross Domestic Product (GDP) using expenditure method, focus lies only on expenditure by the residents of the country.” Do you agree with the given statement? Give valid reasons for your answer. (3)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(a) No. Net factor income from abroad (NFIA) is the component which depicts the difference between National income (NNPFC) and Domestic income (NDPFC). National income can be less than the domestic income in case of negative NFIA i.e. when, Factor Income from abroad < Factor Income to abroad. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
(b) No. This is because Gross Domestic Product (GDP) by expenditure method takes into account the aggregate spending on all the final goods and services in the domestic territory, whether incurred by the residents or non-residents during a given period of time. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q157.2023 Main 58/2/1 · Q16(a)6 marks
(i) "Many goods and services which may contribute to welfare, but are not included in estimating Gross Domestic Product (GDP)." Do you agree with the given statement? Give valid reason in support of your answer. (3)
(ii) With suitable examples, distinguish between final goods and intermediate goods. (3)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(i) Yes, there are many goods and services that may contribute to welfare in an economy but may not be included in the estimation of Gross Domestic Product. These transactions are referred to as non-market transactions. Transactions like domestic services rendered by a home maker contribute to welfare but are not included in the estimation of GDP as they are not paid for. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
(ii) Final Goods refer to those goods which are either used for consumption purpose or for investment purpose. For example: A shirt purchased by a consumer. [1½]
Whereas;
Intermediate goods are those goods which are either used for resale or further production purposes in the same year. For example: Cloth used by a firm to manufacture shirts. [1½]
Q158.2023 Main 58/2/1 · Q16(b)6 marks
(i) Using a suitable numerical example, distinguish between Real Gross Domestic Product (GDP) and Nominal Gross Domestic Product (GDP). (4)
(ii) State the meaning of 'normal resident' of a country. (2)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(i) Real Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is the money value of all the final goods and services produced in the domestic territory of an economy, measured at base year prices. [1]
Whereas;
Nominal Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is money value of final goods and services produced in the domestic territory of an economy, measured at current year prices. [1]
For example, considering base year be 2000 and current year be 2001
| Year | Price (in ₹) | Output (in units) | Real GDP (P0Q1) | Nominal GDP (P1Q1) |
|---|
| 2000 | 10 | 100 | 1,000 | 1,000 |
| 2001 | 15 | 100 | 1,000 | 1,500 |
[1½]
It is evident from the above data that nominal GDP is more than real GDP owing to an increase in price without any corresponding change in output level. [½]
(ii) Normal resident of a country refers to an individual or an institution who ordinarily resides in a country and whose centre of economic interest also lies in that country. [2]
Q159.2023 Main 58/3/1 · Q176 marks
Read the following text carefully:
In India, after Covid-19 period, household and private sector consumption, as measured by Private Final Consumption Expenditure (PFCE), was ₹ 39.7 trillion in nominal terms in Q1 FY23, compared with ₹ 28.4 trillion for the same period last year, and ₹ 39.2 trillion in the fourth quarter (Q4) of 2021-22 (FY22).
As a percentage of Nominal GDP, PFCE was 61.1 per cent, compared with 55.5 per cent in Q1 FY22. However, in real terms at constant prices, PFCE grew just 9.88 per cent, compared with Q1 of 2019-20-the year before the Covid-19 pandemic.
"Recovery in domestic demand is reflected in the growth rates of PFCE and Gross Fixed Capital Formation (GFCF) over the corresponding quarter of the previous year," said D.K. Srivastava. GFCF came in at ₹ 19 trillion in Q1 FY23, compared with ₹ 14.4 trillion in Q1 FY22. However, it was slightly lower than ₹20.2 trillion in Q4 FY22.
In the media briefing after the GDP numbers, Finance Secretary T.V. Somanathan said this trend was expected as GFCF in present Q1 was usually lower than the previous year's Q4.
On the basis of the given text and common understanding, answer the following questions:
(a) Compare and analyse the trends of change in PFCE as a percentage of GDP, both in real and nominal terms. (4)
(b) "Private Final Consumption Expenditure is an important factor determining Gross Domestic Product at Market Price." Justify the given statement. (2)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/3/1
(a) Household and private sector consumption, as measured by Private Final Consumption Expenditure(PFCE) was at 39.7 trillion in nominal term in Q 1 FY 23 compared with 28.4 trillion for the same period last year and 39.2 trillion in the fourth quarter of 2021-22. As a percentage of nominal GDP, PFCE was 61.1 %, compared with 55.5% in Q 1 FY 22. In real terms, PFCE grew just 9.88%, compared with Q1 of 2019-20. [4]
(To be marked as a whole)
(b) Private final consumption expenditure (PFCE) refers to the expenditure incurred by the household sector on all types of consumer goods.
It is a measure of total amount spent by consumers on the purchase of final goods and services. Therefore, it is an important factor determining Gross Domestic product at Market Price. [2]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q160.2023 Main 58/4/1 · Q166 marks
(a) "Machine purchased by a firm is always a capital good." Do you agree with the given statement? Give valid reasons for your answer. (3)
(b) Define the following: (3)
(i) Net Exports
(ii) Externalities
(iii) Problem of Double Counting.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(a) No. Capital goods are those final goods which help in the production of other goods and services. A machine purchased by a firm will be a capital good when it is used for the production of other goods and services. However, if it is purchased by a firm for resale purposes in the same year, it will not be considered as a capital good. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
(b)
(i) Net Export refers to the excess of the value of exports of goods and services over the value of imports of goods and services of an economy, during an accounting year. [1]
(ii) Externalities refer to benefits (positive externalities)/ harms (negative externalities) which are caused by one entity to another without being paid/ penalised for it. [1]
(iii) Problem of double counting refers to the counting of the value of a good or service, more than once in the estimation of national income. [1]
Q161.2023 Main 58/5/1 · Q16(a)6 marks
(I) How should the following be treated in estimating National Income of a Country? Give valid reasons.
(i) Profits earned by Foreign Banks in India.
(ii) Expenditure on upgradation of fixed asset by a firm.
(II) Suppose in a financial year, the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) at market price of a country was ₹1,100 crore. Net factor income from Abroad was ₹100 crore, the net indirect taxes was ₹150 crore and National income was ₹850 crore.
Calculate the value of depreciation, on the basis of above information.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(I)
(i) Profits earned by foreign banks in India should not be included in the National Income because it is a factor income paid to non-residents. [1½]
(ii) Expenditure on upgradation of fixed asset by a firm should be included in the National Income, as it is a part of capital formation. [1½]
(II)
National Income (NNPFC) = Gross Domestic Product at Market Price (GDPMP) – Depreciation + Net factor income from abroad – Net Indirect Taxes [1½]
850 = 1,100 – Depreciation + 100 – 150 [½]
Depreciation = 1,100 + 100 – 150 – 850 [½]
Depreciation = ₹ 200 crore [½]
Q162.2023 Main 58/5/1 · Q16(b)6 marks
(I) "While estimating Gross Domestic Product (GDP) by expenditure method, entire focus is on expenditures incurred by the residents of the country."
Do you agree with the given statement? Give valid reason in support of your answer.
(II) Calculate the value of Domestic Income from the following data:
| S.No. | Particulars | Amount in (₹ crore) |
|---|
| (i) | Rent and Royalties | 1,300 |
| (ii) | Net Indirect Taxes | 200 |
| (iii) | Wages & Salaries (in cash & in kind) | 1,700 |
| (iv) | Corporate Tax | 400 |
| (v) | Depreciation | 400 |
| (vi) | Retained Earnings | 300 |
| (vii) | Dividends | 400 |
| (viii) | Net Factor Income from Abroad | (-) 120 |
| (ix) | Mixed Income of Self Employed | 1,400 |
| (x) | Change in Stock | (-) 200 |
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(I) No. This is because Gross Domestic Product (GDP) by expenditure method takes into account the aggregate spending on all the final goods and services in the domestic territory, whether incurred by the residents or non-residents during a given period of time. [3] (To be marked as a whole)
(II) Domestic Income (NDPFC) = (iii) + (i) + (iv) + (vi) + (vii) + (ix) [1½]
= 1,700 + 1,300 + 400 + 300 + 400 + 1,400 [1]
= ₹ 5,500 crore [½]
Q163.2023 Supp 58/C/1 · Q16(a)6 marks
(i) State the meaning of domestic income.
(ii) Discuss briefly how distribution of income affects the welfare of an economy.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Supplementary), Set 58/C/1
(i) Domestic Income is the sum total of income earned by the factors of production (wages, profits, rent, interest) within the domestic territory of a country, during an accounting year. [2]
(ii) Distribution of income is one of the limitations of using GDP as an index of welfare.
A rise in Gross Domestic Product (GDP) may not benefit all sections of society in the same dimension. The benefit of increase in GDP may be concentrated in the hands of a few individuals while the majority of people may remain deprived of such benefits. This may lead to inequitable distribution of income.
Hence, the welfare of the entire economy may not increase despite the increase in GDP. [4]
(Any other valid explanation to be allotted marks)
(To be marked as a whole)
Q164.2023 Supp 58/C/1 · Q16(b)6 marks
From the following data show that, Net Value Added at factor cost (NVAFC) is equal to the sum of factor income:
| S.No. | Particulars | Amount (in ₹ crore) |
|---|
| i. | Consumption of Fixed Capital | 90 |
| ii. | Imports of raw material | 120 |
| iii. | Change in stock | 240 |
| iv. | Goods and Services Tax | 60 |
| v. | Domestic sales | 2,160 |
| vi. | Distributed profits | 180 |
| vii. | Retained earnings | 120 |
| viii. | Purchase of raw material | 840 |
| ix. | Exports | 240 |
| x. | Rent and Royalty | 90 |
| xi. | Compensation of employees | 720 |
| xii. | Interest | 540 |
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Supplementary), Set 58/C/1
Net Value Added at Factor Cost (NVAFC) = v + ix + iii – viii – i – iv [1½]
= 2160 + 240 + 240 – 840 – 90 – 60 [1]
= ₹ 1,650 crore [½]
Factor income = xi + x + xii + vi + vii [1½]
= 720 + 90 + 540 + 180 + 120 [1]
= ₹ 1,650 crore [½]
Q165.SQP 2026-27 · Q166 marks
Refer to the given text carefully:
India’s economic ascent continues to capture global attention. Already the world’s fourth largest economy, the nation is charting a confident course toward becoming the third largest economy by 2030, with Gross Domestic Product (GDP) projected at USD 7.3 trillion. The current growth phase reflects the strength of decisive policymaking, structural reforms, and India’s deepening global integration. With growth accelerating, India has once again outpaced global peers, reinforcing its position as the fastest-growing major economy. This surge is supported by resilient domestic demand, moderating inflation and higher labour force participation. A revival in domestic investment and strong investor sentiment signals a stable and broad-based economy. As these reforms gather pace and consumption remains optimistic, India’s economic outlook continues to upbeat, signalling sustained momentum and growth across sectors.
Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is one of the primary indicators of overall economic performance which reflects the rate at which the country is expanding. As per the latest data, the GDP of India (adjusted for inflation) is estimated to grow by 8.2% in Q2 of FY 2025-26 against the growth rate of 5.6% during Q2 of FY 2024-25. Each sector of the economy is playing a pivotal role in the growth of the country.
Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2195990®=3&lang=1 (adapted and modified)
On the basis of the given text and common understanding, answer the following questions:
(I) Define Gross Domestic Product.
(II) “GDP of India, adjusted for inflation, is estimated to grow by 8.2% in Q2 of FY 2025.”
Elucidate whether the given projection represents Nominal GDP or Real GDP. Also, explain any one benefit of using this particular measure.
(III) Comment upon the strong global position of India’s economy stating the major reasons for its recent growth surge.
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 · Marking Scheme
(I) Gross Domestic Product (GDP) refers to the market value of final goods and services produced in the domestic territory of an economy during a given period of time. [1]
(II) Real Gross Domestic Product refers to the market value of final goods and services produced in the domestic territory of an economy during a given period of time, measured at constant prices, i.e., adjusted for inflation. Hence, the projection represents Real GDP. [1]
Real GDP is a better indicator of economic growth as it is affected by only physical output and it eliminates the effect of price change. [1]
(III) India holds a strong global position and is moving towards becoming the third largest economy by 2030. This strength is driven by decisive policymaking and structural reforms, resilient domestic demand, moderating inflation, higher labour force participation, revival of domestic investment, strong investor confidence and deeper global integration, leading to broad-based and sustained economic growth. [3]
Part A · Introductory Macroeconomics
2. Money and Banking
Q1.2026 Main 58/1/1 · Q21 mark
Read the following statements: Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose the correct option from those given below:
Assertion (A): Money is of perishable nature and is generally accepted by all at any point of time.
Reason (R): Money serves as a store of value, facilitating individuals to transfer purchasing power from the present to the future.
Options:
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
- Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Q2.2026 Main 58/1/1 · Q91 mark
“In the Indian Banking System, the Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) plays a vital role in controlling the credit creation capacity of the Commercial Banks, as it __________.” (Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)
- ensures that all the deposits are converted into liquid assets.
- requires banks to maintain a percentage of deposits in the form of liquid assets.
- sets the maximum interest rate which the banks can charge on loans.
- promote banks from lending beyond a specific proportion of their total reserves.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(B) requires banks to maintain a percentage of deposits in the form of liquid assets.
Q3.2026 Main 58/1/1 · Q101 mark
‘In an economy, the currency held by the public, Net Demand Deposits with Commercial Banks and Net Time Deposits with Commercial Banks stand at ₹ 1,42,000 crore, ₹ 22,000 crore and ₹ 86,000 crore respectively.
The value of Money Supply (M1) would be ₹ __________ crore. (Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)
Options:
- 2,50,000
- 86,000
- 1,64,000
- 1,42,000
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(C) 1,64,000
Q4.2026 Main 58/2/1 · Q31 mark
Identify, that function of money, which has effectively solved the problem of ‘double coincidence of wants’ in a transaction.
Options:
- Standard of deferred payments
- Store of value
- Measure of value
- Medium of exchange
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(D) Medium of exchange
Q5.2026 Main 58/2/1 · Q81 mark
Sumit deposited ₹ 10 lakh in his savings account. The deposits made by him is a part of ________ in the M1 measure of money supply. (Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)
Options:
- Currency held by public
- Interbank deposits
- Demand deposits with commercial banks
- Term deposits with Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(C) Demand deposits with commercial banks
Q6.2026 Main 58/2/1 · Q101 mark
Identify, which one of the following is not a function of Reserve Bank of India as a bank, agent and advisor to the government.
Options:
- Carries out banking business of the government.
- Manages national debt.
- Advises on financial matters.
- Conducts periodic inspections.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(D) Conducts periodic inspections.
Q7.2026 Main 58/4/1 · Q21 mark
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement I: The measurement of value makes it easier to compare the relative worth of two commodities.
Statement II: Money facilitates the act of sale and purchase of goods and services.
In the light of the given statements, choose the correct option from the following:
- Statement I is true and Statement II is false.
- Statement I is false and Statement II is true.
- Both Statements I and II are true.
- Both Statements I and II are false.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(C) Both Statements I and II are true.
Q8.2026 Main 58/4/1 · Q61 mark
Suppose, a banking system received primary deposits of ₹ 1,000 and as a result commercial banks created credit worth ₹ 5,000.
The value of Reserve Ratio in the given situation would be ___________ percent. (Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)
- 10
- 20
- 25
- 40
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(B) 20
Q9.2026 Main 58/4/1 · Q91 mark
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) performs the function of Banker to the Banks by acting as a:
(i) Clearing House
(ii) Custodian of Cash Reserves
(iii) Lender to the Government
(iv) Periodic inspection of Banks
Options:
- (i) and (ii)
- (ii) and (iii)
- (i), (ii) and (iv)
- (i) and (iv)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(C) (i), (ii) and (iv)
Q10.2026 Main 58/5/1 · Q31 mark
Money supply is a _______ variable, as it refers to the total volume of money held by the _______ at a particular point of time. (Choose the correct option to fill in the blanks)
- stock, banks
- flow, banks
- stock, public
- flow, public
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(C) stock, public
Q11.2026 Main 58/5/1 · Q81 mark
Suppose, for a hypothetical economy, Reserve Ratio (RR) decreases from 25% to 20%, the total deposits would ___________ to ₹ ___________, if primary deposits are ₹ 1,000. (Choose the correct option to fill in the blanks)
- increase, 5,000
- decrease, 5,000
- increase, 4,000
- decrease, 4,000
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(A) increase, 5,000
Q12.2026 Main 58/5/1 · Q101 mark
Liabilities for any firm are its debt/what it owes to others. Contrary to that, for a bank ___________ are the main liability. (Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)
- loans
- reserves
- deposits
- assets
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(C) deposits
Q13.2026 Supp 58/7/1 · Q31 mark
“Anil purchased a house costing ₹ 30 lakhs. For this, he took a bank loan, which he agreed to repay over a period of 25 years in fixed monthly instalments.”
Identify the function of money indicated in the above situation. (Choose the correct option)
- Medium of exchange
- Standard of deferred payments
- Medium of exchange and standard of deferred payments
- Store of value
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Supplementary), Set 58/7/1
(C) Medium of exchange and standard of deferred payments
Q14.2026 Supp 58/7/1 · Q81 mark
Suppose the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) decides to keep the reserve ratio equal to 10%. The total deposits created will be ____________ times the primary deposit. (Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)
- ∞ (Infinity)
- 1 (Unity)
- 0 (Zero)
- 10 (Ten)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Supplementary), Set 58/7/1
(D) 10 (Ten)
Q15.2026 Supp 58/7/1 · Q101 mark
“In recent times, the Reserve Bank of India has reduced the Repo Rate (RR).”
The most likely objective of the Reserve Bank of India behind this policy change is to ____________ the borrowing cost and ____________ liquidity in the economy. (Choose the correct option to fill in the blanks)
- decrease, decrease
- increase, increase
- decrease, increase
- increase, decrease
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Supplementary), Set 58/7/1
(C) decrease, increase
Q16.2025 Main 58/1/1 · Q41 mark
“Irfaan (a student) borrows ₹ 80,000 to finance his college fee. He plans to begin repaying the loan six months after his graduation, making payments over a span of ten years.”
Based on above text, identify the indicated function of money. (Choose the correct option)
Options:
- Medium of Exchange
- Unit of Account
- Standard of Deferred Payments
- Store of Value
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(C) Standard of Deferred Payments
Q17.2025 Main 58/1/1 · Q81 mark
In the context of the Commercial Banks, which of the following statements are correct? (Choose the correct option)
(I) Deposits received are liabilities for Commercial Banks.
(II) They are creator of credit in the economy.
(III) They accept deposits from general public.
(IV) They accept deposits on behalf of Reserve Bank of India.
Options:
- (I), (II), and (III)
- (II) and (III)
- (I) and (II)
- (I) and (IV)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(A) (I), (II) and (III)
Q18.2025 Main 58/2/1 · Q11 mark
The monetary policy is formulated by the _____ in the Indian economy. (Choose the correct option to fill up the blank)
- Central Government
- State Governments
- Reserve Bank of India
- World Bank
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(C) Reserve Bank of India
Q19.2025 Main 58/2/1 · Q71 mark
As the Banker to the Bank, Reserve Bank of India performs all functions except _____. (Choose the correct option to fill up the blank)
- Purchase and sale of securities on behalf of general public
- Maintaining current account for Commercial Banks
- Clearing and settlement of Interbank transactions
- Facilitating governmental transactions
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(A) Purchase and sale of securities on behalf of general public
Q20.2025 Main 58/6/1 · Q51 mark
Central Bank can decrease the money supply in the economy by ___________. (Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)
- lowering the cash reserve
- increasing the bank rate
- lowering the bank rate
- purchase of G-Secs (Government Securities)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/6/1
(B) increasing the bank rate
Q21.2025 Main 58/6/1 · Q61 mark
If the total credit created by the banks is ₹ 500 and Reserve Ratio is 20%, the value of primary deposits would be ___________. (Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)
- ₹ 200
- ₹ 300
- ₹ 100
- ₹ 500
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/6/1
(C) ₹ 100
Q22.2025 Main 58/7/1 · Q31 mark
____________ releases data of money supply in India. (Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)
- Corporation Bank
- Reserve Bank of India
- Commercial Banks
- State Bank of India
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/7/1
(B) Reserve Bank of India
Q23.2025 Main 58/7/1 · Q51 mark
Commercial banks are regarded as money creators because: (Choose the correct option)
- they purchase securities from the Central Bank.
- loans provided by them create deposits.
- they act as a banker to the government.
- they regulate the lending rate in the economy
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/7/1
(B) loans provided by them create deposits.
Q24.2025 Main 58/7/1 · Q81 mark
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement 1: Open Market Operations refers to purchase/sale of Government Securities (G-Sec) by the Central Bank.
Statement 2: To decrease money supply, Central Bank will sell the Government Securities to commercial banks.
In the light of the given statements, choose the correct option from the following :
- Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
- Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/7/1
(C) Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
Q25.2025 Supp 58/S/1 · Q21 mark
In an imaginary economy, maintaining a Cash Reserve Ratio of 20% with primary deposits of ₹ 1,000, the total derivative deposits created by banks would be ₹ __________. (Choose the correct alternative to fill in the blank)
- 5,000
- 1,000
- 4,000
- 3,000
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Supplementary), Set 58/S/1
(C) 4,000
Q26.2025 Supp 58/S/1 · Q101 mark
Identify, which of the following are the correct features of money supply in an economy. (Choose the correct alternative)
(i) It is a stock concept.
(ii) It includes money held by banks and government.
(iii) It is a flow concept.
(iv) It includes money held by households and firms.
Alternatives:
- (i) and (iv)
- (ii) and (iii)
- (iii) and (iv)
- (i) and (ii)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Supplementary), Set 58/S/1
(A) (i) and (iv)
Q27.2024 Main 58/1/1 · Q51 mark
Identify the incorrect feature(s) of money supply (M1) from the following:
(i) It is measured at a point of time.
(ii) It does not include stock of money held by the government.
(iii) It is always the currency in the hands of the Central Bank of a nation.
Alternatives:
- (i) and (ii)
- (ii) and (iii)
- (ii) only
- (iii) only
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(D) (iii) only
Q28.2024 Main 58/1/1 · Q71 mark
Find the missing figures and choose the correct alternative:
| Round | Deposits | Loans (80%) | Reserve Ratio (20%) |
|---|
| I | 5000 | 4000 | ..(i).. |
| II | 4000 | ..(ii).. | 800 |
| … | … | … | … |
| … | … | … | … |
| Total | ..(iii).. | ..(iv).. | 5000 |
Alternatives:
- 1000, 800, 20000, 25000
- 5000, 3200, 25000, 20000
- 1000, 3200, 25000, 20000
- 1000, 800, 20000, 25000
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(C) 1000, 3200, 25000, 20000
Q29.2024 Main 58/2/1 · Q61 mark
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement 1: Money is a commodity which is generally accepted as a medium of exchange.
Statement 2: Money solved the problem of double coincidence of wants.
In the light of the given statements, choose the correct alternative from the following:
- Statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false.
- Statement 1 is false and statement 2 is true.
- Both statements 1 and 2 are true.
- Both statements 1 and 2 are false.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(C) Both statements 1 and 2 are true.
Q30.2024 Main 58/2/1 · Q91 mark
Identify the incorrect statement with reference to Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR):
- It is a certain percentage of demand and time deposit liabilities that every bank must keep as cash reserves with the Central Bank.
- It is fixed by the Central Bank.
- It is not binding on the commercial banks.
- It is a tool used by the Central Bank to control the credit creation in the economy.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(C) It is not binding on the commercial banks.
Q31.2024 Main 58/3/1 · Q51 mark
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement 1: Reserve ratio and Credit creation process are inversely related.
Statement 2: Central Bank of an economy performs the vital function of controlling the credit creation process.
In light of the given statements, choose the correct alternative from the following:
- Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
- Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/3/1
(C) Both Statements 1 and 2 are true. [1]
Q32.2024 Main 58/3/1 · Q71 mark
Choose the correct alternative to complete the given schedule :
| Round | Deposits | Loans (90%) | Reserve Ratio (10%) |
|---|
| I | 2000 | 1800 | 200 |
| II | ...(i)... | ...(ii)... | 180 |
| ... | ... | ... | ... |
| ... | ... | ... | ... |
| Total | ...(iii)... | ...(iv)... | 2000 |
Alternatives:
- 2000, 1620, 20000, 18000
- 1800, 180, 2000, 18000
- 1620, 180, 2000, 18000
- 1800, 1620, 20000, 18000
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/3/1
(D) 1800, 1620, 20000, 18000 [1]
Q33.2024 Main 58/4/1 · Q21 mark
The Central Bank can reduce the Money Supply in the economy by ___________ the ______________. (Fill up the blanks with correct alternative.)
- increasing, bank rate
- decreasing, cash reserve ratio
- decreasing, bank rate
- buying, government securities
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(A) increasing, bank rate [1]
Q34.2024 Main 58/4/1 · Q61 mark
Identify the incorrect feature(s) of the Money Supply in an economy, from the following:
(i) It is measured during a period of time.
(ii) It includes stock of money held by the government of a nation.
(iii) It always represents the currency held with Central Bank of the Nation.
Alternatives :
- (i) only
- (ii) and (iii)
- (i) and (ii)
- (i), (ii) and (iii)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii) [1]
Q35.2024 Main 58/5/1 · Q51 mark
“Mr. Sahotra borrowed funds from bank for purchasing a new house”.
From the above statement, identify the indicated function of money:
- Medium of exchange
- Store of value
- Unit of account
- Standard of deferred payments
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(D) Standard of deferred payments [1]
Q36.2024 Main 58/5/1 · Q71 mark
If in an economy the initial deposits are ₹ 4,000 crore and Reserve Ratio (RR) is 10%. The value of total deposit created would be ₹ ______ crore. (Fill up the blank with the correct alternative)
- 4,000
- 40,000
- 2,000
- 20,000
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(B) 40,000 [1]
Q37.2024 Supp 58/S/1 · Q21 mark
___________ is the total volume of money held by the public, for the purpose of disposing off, at a particular point of time. (Choose the correct alternative to fill in the blank)
- Term deposits
- Demand for money
- Money supply
- Credit creation
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Supplementary), Set 58/S/1
(C) Money supply [1]
Q38.2024 Supp 58/S/1 · Q51 mark
Suppose in a hypothetical economy, the Central Bank increases the reserve ratio from 10% to 25%. Keeping the amount of initial deposits constant at ₹ 1,000 crore, the amount of total money creation would be ₹_______ crore. (Choose the correct alternative to fill in the blank)
- 10,000
- 4,000
- 6,000
- 5,000
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Supplementary), Set 58/S/1
(B) 4,000 [1]
Q39.2023 Main 58/1/1 · Q11 mark
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement 1: Primary deposits are the cash deposits by general public with commercial banks.
Statement 2: Secondary deposits are those deposits which arise on account of credit provided by the commercial banks to the people.
In light of the given statements, choose the correct alternative from the following:
- Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
- Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(c) Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
Q40.2023 Main 58/1/1 · Q31 mark
The rate at which commercial banks borrow from the Reserve Bank of India to meet their long-term requirements is known as ______ (Choose the correct alternative to fill up the blank)
- Margin requirement
- Bank rate
- Repo rate
- Reverse repo rate
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(b) Bank rate
Q41.2023 Main 58/1/1 · Q51 mark
Read the following news report carefully:
“The central bank has imposed fine on Hisar Urban Cooperative Bank Ltd. and Andaman and Nicobar State Cooperative Bank Ltd. for violation of banking norms”
According to the given report, identify the function of the central bank.
- Issue of currency
- Banker to the public
- Banker to the Government
- Banker’s Bank
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(d) Banker’s Bank
Q42.2023 Main 58/2/1 · Q41 mark
Ms. Iqra Ansari, a teacher, was explaining in her class about various types of deposits with the commercial banks. She quoted that-
"These deposits form a part of M1 measure of money supply and are payable on demand by the commercial banks."
Identify the type of deposits she was explaining about and choose the correct alternative:
(i) Demand Deposits
(ii) Time Deposits
(iii) Post Office Deposits
Alternatives:
- Only (i)
- Only (ii)
- (i) and (ii)
- (i), (ii) and (iii)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(a) Only (i)
Q43.2023 Main 58/2/1 · Q10(a)1 mark
In the Indian economy, _________are issued by the Reserve Bank of India and acts as legal tender money.
(i) Coins of all denomination
(ii) Currency notes of various denominations, except one rupee note
(iii) Demand deposits
Alternatives:
- Only (i)
- Only (ii)
- Only (iii)
- (i) and (ii)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(b) Only (ii)
Q44.2023 Main 58/2/1 · Q10(b)1 mark
__________ formulates the Monetary Policy in the economy. (Fill up the blank with correct alternative)
- Commercial Banks
- International Monetary Fund
- Central Bank
- Central Government
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(c) Central Bank
Q45.2023 Main 58/3/1 · Q31 mark
Identify, which of the following is not a function of the Reserve Bank of India. (Choose the correct alternative)
- Controller of money supply
- Credit provider to commercial banks
- Central agency preparing the annual budget of the Government
- Issuer of currency
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/3/1
(c) Central agency preparing the annual budget of the Government
Q46.2023 Main 58/3/1 · Q71 mark
If the central bank wants to reduce money supply in the economy, it may ____. (Choose the correct alternative to fill up the blank)
(i) increase Bank Rate
(ii) reduce Cash Reserve Ratio
(iii) sell securities in the open market
(iv) buy securities in the open market
Alternatives:
- (i) and (iii)
- (ii), (iii) and (iv)
- (i), (iii) and (iv)
- (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/3/1
(a) (i) and (iii)
Q47.2023 Main 58/4/1 · Q31 mark
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) __________ government securities in a bid to _______the stock of money in the economy. (Choose the correct alternative to fill up the blanks)
- sells, decrease
- purchases, decrease
- sells, increase
- purchases, not change
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(a) sells, decrease
Q48.2023 Main 58/4/1 · Q71 mark
Demand Deposits include ____________. (Choose the correct alternative to fill up the blank)
- Currency and coins held with the public.
- Other deposits with the Government
- Savings Account Deposits and Fixed Deposits
- Current Account Deposits and Fixed Deposits
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(c) or (d)
Q49.2023 Main 58/5/1 · Q11 mark
‘Money is an asset which can be stored for use in future.’
In the light of given statement, identify the function of money. (Choose the correct alternative)
- A measure of value
- A standard of deferred payment
- A store of value
- A medium of exchange
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(c) A store of value
Q50.2023 Main 58/5/1 · Q71 mark
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement 1: Money supply (M1) in India does not include 'demand deposits' with commercial banks.
Statement 2: Money supply (M1) refers to, assets available with the Commercial Banks during a particular period of time.
In the light of the given statements, choose the correct alternative.
- Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
- Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
- Both statements 1 and 2 are true.
- Both statements 1 and 2 are false.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(d) Both statements 1 and 2 are false
Q51.2023 Supp 58/C/1 · Q81 mark
In order of encourage investments in the economy, the Central Bank may _________. (Choose the correct alternative to fill up the blank)
- reduce Cash Reserve Ratio
- increase Cash Reserve Ratio
- increase Bank Rate
- sell off government securities in open market
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Supplementary), Set 58/C/1
(a) reduce Cash Reserve Ratio
Q52.SQP 2025-26 · Q31 mark
“Money is non-perishable and is acceptable to anyone at any point of time.”
Identify, the function of money indicated in the aforesaid statement and choose the correct option.
- Store of Value
- Medium of Exchange
- Unit of Account
- Standard of Deferred Payments
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 · Marking Scheme
(A) Store of Value
Q53.SQP 2025-26 · Q81 mark
On the basis of the given information, Money Supply (M1) would be ₹ _____ crore. (Choose the correct option)
| S.No. | Components | Amount (in ₹ crore) |
|---|
| (i) | Currency held by the Public | 320 |
| (ii) | Net Demand Deposits with Commercial Banks | 260 |
| (iii) | Net Time Deposits with Commercial Banks | 200 |
Options:
- 580
- 780
- 675
- 875
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 · Marking Scheme
(A) 580
Q54.SQP 2025-26 · Q101 mark
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) was established in the year _____. (Choose the correct option to fill up the blank)
- 1934
- 1935
- 1936
- 1937
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 · Marking Scheme
(B) 1935
Q55.SQP 2026-27 · Q21 mark
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement 1: M1 measure of money supply constitutes currency and demand deposits held by the public.
Statement 2: Demand deposits are those deposits with commercial banks, that can be withdrawn on demand by the depositors.
In light of the given statements, choose the correct option from the following:
- Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
- Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 · Marking Scheme
(C) Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
Q56.SQP 2026-27 · Q91 mark
Shraddha Kapur initially lived in a barter-based system where exchanging goods was difficult owing to practical problems. After the introduction of money, she could easily buy goods using currency and repay her loan in fixed instalments over time. This change made transactions easier and future payments reliable.
The functions of money highlighted in the above text are ________ and _______. (Choose the correct option to fill up the blank)
- Store of value and medium of exchange
- Measure of value and standard of deferred payments
- Medium of exchange and standard of deferred payments
- Measure of value and store of value
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 · Marking Scheme
(C) Medium of exchange and standard of deferred payments
Q57.2026 Main 58/1/1 · Q123 marks
“Under the provisions stated in the Section 20 and Section 21 of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Act, 1934, the RBI is mandated to handle the banking operations of the Government of India.”
In the light of the given statement, elaborate the indicated function of the Reserve Bank of India.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/1/1
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) serves as banker to the government, managing its accounts, receiving deposits and processing payments. Exchanges, remittances and various banking operations are facilitated by the RBI on behalf of the government.
In addition to this, during any financial crisis, RBI provides credit to the government to ensure its smooth functioning and to support the state in managing its obligations effectively. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q58.2026 Main 58/2/1 · Q12(a)3 marks
“When initial deposits in the credit creation process remains same, the total amount of credit created rises as the value of money multiplier increases.”
Defend or refute the above statement with the help of hypothetical numerical example.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/2/1
The given statement is defended.
| Case | Initial Deposits | Money Multiplier (1/RR) | Credit Created (Initial Deposit x Money Multiplier) |
|---|
| I | 1,000 | 4 | 1,000 x 4 = ₹ 4,000 [1½] |
| II | 1,000 | 5 | 1,000 x 5 = ₹ 5,000 [1½] |
The above example depicts that there exists a direct relationship between money multiplier and the total amount of credit created by the commercial banks.
(Any other valid alternative solution to be awarded marks)
Q59.2026 Main 58/2/1 · Q12(b)3 marks
“The Central Bank maintains reserves of all commercial banks and use to settle interbank claims.”
Do you agree with the given statement? Give valid explanation in support of your answer.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/2/1
Yes. The Central Bank acts as the banker to banks and performs the clearing house function. Since, it maintains the cash reserves of all commercial banks it becomes convenient for the Central Bank to settle their mutual claims. The Central Bank adjusts these obligations by making entries without any physical transfer of cash. This process ensures smooth, quick and efficient settlement of such interbank transactions. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q60.2026 Main 58/4/1 · Q123 marks
(a) Define Money Supply. [1]
(b) Explain any one component of money supply. [2]
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(a) Money supply refers to the total volume of money held by the public at a particular point of time. [1]
(b) Net Demand Deposits (DD) held by commercial banks is one of the components of money supply. These are chequable deposits that can be withdrawn by the account-holder on demand. [2]
(Any other valid component to be awarded marks)
Q61.2026 Main 58/5/1 · Q12(a)3 marks
“Repo Rate and Bank Rate are two different measures, but a change in either of them may have the similar implication on the money supply in an economy.”
Defend or refute the given statement, giving valid explanation in support of your answer.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/5/1
The given statement is defended. Repo Rate and Bank Rate are the rates at which the Central Bank lends money to the commercial banks, the key difference lies in terms of short-term and long-term needs.
A change in either of them will have the similar implication on the money supply in the economy. A decrease in Repo/Bank Rate by the Central Bank will encourage the commercial banks to decrease their lending rates making the credit more affordable for the general public, thereby, encouraging the borrowings. Consequently, money supply will rise and vice versa. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q62.2026 Main 58/5/1 · Q12(b)3 marks
“The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the sole authority for issuing currency notes in India, with an exception of ₹1 denomination that is issued by the Ministry of Finance.”
Do you agree with the given statement? Explain the rationale behind the monopoly enjoyed by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on this front.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/5/1
Yes. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the sole authority for issuing currency in India, except for the ₹1 note and coins, which are issued by the Ministry of Finance.
The monopoly of RBI ensures uniformity in note circulation and strengthens public faith in the currency system. Furthermore, it enables the RBI to effectively regulate the money supply and maintain the value of rupee (₹). [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q63.2026 Supp 58/7/1 · Q123 marks
“The RBI is implementing a phased reduction of the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) from 4% to 3%.”
In the light of the given information, explain the rationale behind the Reserve Bank of India’s policy initiative to promote credit expansion.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Supplementary), Set 58/7/1
The reduction in Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) from 4% to 3% by Reserve Bank of India (RBI) leads to reduction in the amount of reserves to be maintained by the Commercial Banks. This enhances the lending capacity of the Commercial Banks, thereby, increasing the availability of credit in the economy. Consequently, promoting credit expansion. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q64.2025 Main 58/7/1 · Q123 marks
Identify and explain any one function of the Central Bank as indicated in the image given below:

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/7/1
One of the indicated functions of the Central Bank i.e. Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the Banker’s Bank and Supervisor. [1]
RBI accepts deposits from commercial banks and also advances loans to them as and when required. It maintains reserves of all commercial banks and utilizes it to settle inter-bank claims. Being the supreme authority of the banking system, it acts as the financier of last recourse to the commercial banks. RBI supervises, regulates and controls the commercial banks. [2]
(Any other valid function to be awarded marks)
Q65.2022 Main 58/3/1 · Q103 marks
If in an economy Bank rate is increased, how will it affect the demand for credit? Explain.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 58/3/1
Bank rate is the rate at which the Central Bank lends to the commercial banks for long term requirements.
Any increase in bank rate will force commercial banks to increase their lending rates. This will make borrowing to general public dearer, thereby reducing demand for credit in the economy. [3]
(to be marked as a whole)
Q66.2022 Supp 58/6/1 · Q83 marks
In an economy, if there is a fall in Bank Rate, how would it affect the demand for credit? Explain.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Supplementary), Set 58/6/1
Reduction in the bank rate (by the Central Bank), may lead to a fall in the lending rates by the commercial banks. Consequently, loans available at lower rates may encourage the general public to borrow more. This may result in an increase in the demand for credit in the economy. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q67.SQP 2025-26 · Q12(a)3 marks
“The statutory requirement of the Reserve Ratio (RR) acts as a limit to the amount of credit that banks can create.”
Justify the given statement with the valid explanation.
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 · Marking Scheme
Reserve Ratio is the percentage of deposits that every commercial bank must keep as reserves and rest of the deposits can be used to give loans. Reserve Ratio is fixed by the Central Bank to avoid ‘over lending’ by commercial banks. This is legally binding to all commercial banks.
Hence, the statutory requirement of the Reserve Ratio acts as a limit to the amount of credit that banks can create. [3]
Q68.SQP 2025-26 · Q12(b)3 marks
“The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) provides several banking services to the Government.”
Do you agree with the given statement? Give valid explanation in support of your answer.
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 · Marking Scheme
Yes. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) serves as the Government's banker, managing its accounts, receiving deposits, and processing payments. Exchanges, remittances and various banking operations are facilitated by the RBI on behalf of the government.
In addition to this, during any financial crisis, RBI provides credit to the government to ensure its smooth functioning and to support the state in managing its obligations effectively. [3]
Q69.2026 Main 58/3/1 · Q154 marks
“The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has decided to increase the loan amount to 90% of the security value, from the prior rate of 80%.”
In the light of above statement, identify the type of monetary measure exercised by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and its likely impacts on the Aggregate Demand of the economy.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/3/1
The monetary measure being exercised in the text above by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is Margin Requirement. [1]
Margin requirement refers to the difference between the amount of the loan and the value of the security offered by the borrower against the loan. An increase in the loan amount to 90% of the security value, from the prior rate of 80% reflects a reduction in margin requirement which in turn encourages the public to borrow more. Consequently, money supply will increase leading to increase in the Aggregate Demand in the economy. [3]
Q70.2026 Main 58/4/1 · Q154 marks
Read the following passage carefully :
“The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Governor announced a 50 basis points reduction in the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) to 4% during the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) address on December 6. The Governor noted that this move reflects a balanced approach towards managing liquidity while ensuring economic stability.”
Based on the above passage and common understanding, answer the following questions:
(i) Explain the rationale and the likely impact of the decision taken by the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) of Reserve Bank of India (RBI). [3]
(ii) Define Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR). [1]
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(i) The decision of the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) to reduce Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) addresses the deflationary pressure in the economy. The rationale behind this reduction was to ensure infusion of greater liquidity in the economy to maintain overall economic stability. [1]
Reduction in the CRR will lead to greater availability of funds with the commercial banks, which may increase the lending capacity of commercial banks. Thereby, reducing CRR, will increase the money supply and Aggregate Demand in the economy, ultimately addressing the issue of deficient demand. [2]
(ii) Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) refers to the percentage of deposits which commercial banks are required to keep as cash reserves with the Central Bank. [1]
Q71.2025 Main 58/1/1 · Q144 marks
Suppose in an economy, primary deposits are ₹ 500, if the Reserve Ratio is 25%. Estimate the total deposits created and the total lending by the banking system.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/1/1
Given, Primary Deposits = ₹ 500
Reserve Ratio = 25%
Total deposits = Primary deposits × 1/Reserve Ratio [1]
= 500 × 1/0.25 [½]
= ₹ 2,000 [½]
Total lending = Total deposits – Primary deposits [1]
= 2,000 – 500 [½]
= ₹ 1,500 [½]
Q72.2025 Main 58/2/1 · Q14(a)4 marks
Justify the following statements with valid arguments:
(i) Money supply in an economy is an example of a stock variable.
(ii) The Central Bank provides several Banking services to the government.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(i) Money Supply is a stock variable as it is the total volume of money held by the public at a particular point of time. [2]
(ii) The Central Bank as a banker to the Government maintains accounts of the government. It accepts receipts, makes payments, carries out exchange, remittance and other banking operations on behalf of the government. It also provides loans to the government to meet its requirements. [2]
Q73.2025 Main 58/2/1 · Q14(b)4 marks
Assuming for a hypothetical economy, Central Bank increases the Reserve Ratio from 20% to 25% and the total primary deposits stand at ₹ 1,000.
Explain the effect of rise in Reserve Ratio on credit creation by commercial banks.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/2/1
Given, Primary Deposits = ₹ 1,000
| Case | Reserve Ratio (RR) | Credit Multiplier (1/RR) | Credit Creation (Primary Deposits x Credit Multiplier) |
|---|
| I | 20% = 0.2 | 1/0.2 = 5 | 1,000 x 5 = ₹ 5,000 [1½] |
| II | 25% = 0.25 | 1/0.25 = 4 | 1,000 x 4 = ₹ 4,000 [1½] |
With the increase in Reserve Ratio from 20% to 25%, the amount of credit creation falls from ₹ 5,000 to ₹ 4,000. Hence, there exists an inverse relationship between Reserve Ratio and the amount of credit creation. [1]
Q74.2025 Main 58/6/1 · Q154 marks
“In the 1990s, on the advice of Reserve Bank of India (RBI), the Government of India took a decision of hypothecation of gold reserves to different nations.”
In the light of the above statement, discuss briefly the role of the Central Bank as Banker, Agent, and Adviser to the Government.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/6/1
Central Bank acts as the banker to the government. It accepts receipts and makes payments for the government, and carries out exchange, remittance and other banking operations. The Central Bank also provides short-term credit to the government, so that the government can meet any shortfalls in receipts over disbursements.
As the government’s banker, the Central Bank also has the responsibility of managing the public debt.
As indicated in the above text, the Central Bank also advises the government on various financial, economic and monetary matters. [4] (To be marked as a whole)
Q75.2025 Supp 58/S/1 · Q13(a)4 marks
In what ways do alterations in margin requirements impact the ease with which households and firms can obtain credit?
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Supplementary), Set 58/S/1
Margin requirement refers to the difference between the amount of the loan and value of the security offered by the borrower against the loan. An increase in margin requirement implies a decrease in the amount of loan available to households and firms on the security offered. However, a decrease in margin requirement implies an increase in the amount of loan available to households and firms on the security offered.
Thus, an alteration in margin requirement may change the quantum of credit available to households and firms. [4] (To be marked as a whole)
Q76.2025 Supp 58/S/1 · Q154 marks
Suppose in a hypothetical economy, reserve ratio changes from 10% to 20% and the value of primary deposits are ₹ 1,000 crore.
Calculate the change in the amount of money creation when reserve ratio changes from 10% to 20%.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Supplementary), Set 58/S/1
Given, primary deposits ₹ 1,000 crore and change in Reserve Ratio from 10% to 20% the change in amount of money creation is depicted as follows:
| Case | Primary Deposits (in ₹ crore) | Reserve Ratio (RR) | Money Multiplier (1/RR) | Amount of Money Creation (Primary Deposits x Money Multiplier) |
|---|
| I | 1,000 | 0.1 | 1/0.1 = 10 | 1,000 x 10 = ₹ 10,000 [2] |
| II | 1,000 | 0.2 | 1/0.2 = 5 | 1,000 x 5 = ₹ 5,000 [2] |
It may be concluded from the two cases shown in the table that, with ₹ 1,000 crore of primary deposits and change in Reserve Ratio (RR) from 10% to 20%, the amount of money creation reduces from ₹ 10,000 crore to ₹ 5,000 crore.
Q77.2024 Main 58/1/1 · Q144 marks
Justify the following statements with valid arguments:
(a) The Central Bank is the sole currency issuing authority of an economy.
(b) Money serves as a measure of standard of deferred payments.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(a) The Central Bank has the sole authority for issuing currency in the economy. This ensures uniformity in the issue of currency and it gives the Central Bank control over the money supply in the economy. [2]
(b) Deferred payments are contracted to be made at some future date. Money facilitates such transactions of borrowing and lending. Hence, money serves as a standard of deferred payments. [2]
Q78.2024 Main 58/1/1 · Q154 marks
Read the following text carefully from ‘The Economic Times’ dated 8th June, 2023:
The Reserve Bank of India’s (RBI’s) rate setting panel unanimously decided to keep the benchmark lending rate unchanged at 6·5%. The committee voted to remain focused on the withdrawal of accommodating monetary policy.
On the basis of given text and common understanding, answer the following questions:
(a) Identify and discuss the economic issue indicated in the above text.
(b) Discuss the likely consequence on money supply if the rate setting panel would have decreased the said rate.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(a) Inflation in the economy may be the economic issue indicated in the above text. [1]
The situation of excess demand may be the underlying cause behind the decision taken by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to keep the benchmark lending rate unchanged at 6·5%. [1]
(Any other valid economic issue may be awarded marks)
(b) If the rate setting panel would have decreased the benchmark lending rate, the commercial banks may reduce their lending rates. Consequently, it may encourage the borrowings by the general public leading to an increase in the money supply in the economy. [2]
Q79.2024 Main 58/2/1 · Q154 marks
Reserve Bank of India undertakes the important function of managing the government's banking transactions.
Discuss the above stated function performed by the Reserve Bank of India.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/2/1
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) acts as a banker to both central as well as state governments. The RBI maintains account, accepts receipts and makes payments for the government and carries out exchange, remittance and other banking operations. It advances credit/loan to the government to meet its requirements in case of crisis. [4]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q80.2024 Main 58/3/1 · Q14(a)4 marks
“Open Market Operations by Reserve Bank of India (RBI) help in regulating money supply in the economy.”
Justify the given statement with valid arguments.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/3/1
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) can regulate the money supply in the economy by the sale/ purchase of government securities in the open market.
When RBI sells government securities, the availability of funds with commercial banks reduces, which in turn curtails their lending capacity. Consequently, the money supply in the economy falls.
On the contrary, when RBI buys government securities, the availability of funds with commercial banks rises, which in turn increases their lending capacity. Consequently, the money supply in the economy rises. [4]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q81.2024 Main 58/3/1 · Q14(b)4 marks
Elaborate the ‘Government’s Bank and Advisor’ function of the Central Bank of a nation.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/3/1
The Central Bank acts as a banker to both central as well as state governments. The Central Bank maintains account, accepts receipts and makes payments for the government and carries out exchange, remittance and other banking operations. It advances credit/loan to the government to meet its requirements in case of crisis.
As a financial advisor, the Central Bank advises the government on various financial and economic matters. [4]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q82.2024 Main 58/4/1 · Q144 marks
Elaborate the ‘Banker's Bank and Supervisor’ function of the Reserve Bank of India.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/4/1
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) accepts the deposits from commercial banks and also advances loans to them as and when required. It maintains reserves of all commercial banks and utilizes it to settle inter-bank claims.
Being the supreme authority of the banking system, it acts as the financier of last recourse to the commercial banks. It forwards short-term credit to the commercial banks against approved securities.
The RBI supervises, regulates and controls the commercial banks. The regulation of banks may be related to their licensing, branch expansion, liquidity of assets, management, amalgamation and liquidation. [4]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q83.2024 Main 58/5/1 · Q154 marks
“Open Market Operation by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) helps in regulating money supply in the economy.”
Justify the given statement.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/5/1
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) can regulate the money supply in the economy by the sale/ purchase of government securities in the open market.
When RBI sells government securities, the availability of funds with commercial banks reduces, which in turn curtails their lending capacity. Consequently, the money supply in the economy falls.
On the contrary, when RBI buys government securities, the availability of funds with commercial banks rises, which in turn increases their lending capacity. Consequently, the money supply in the economy rises. [4]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q84.2024 Supp 58/S/1 · Q144 marks
“The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) performs the same function for the government as the commercial banks perform for the general public.”
Discuss briefly any two such functions performed by the Central Bank for the Government of India.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Supplementary), Set 58/S/1
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) as the banker to the government maintains account, accepts receipts and makes payments, carries out exchange, remittance, and other banking operations.
The Reserve Bank of India advances loans to the government to meet its requirements, in case of financial crisis. Thus, the Reserve Bank of India facilitates the same banking functions for the government just as the commercial banks do for the general public. [4]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q85.2023 Main 58/1/1 · Q144 marks
Read the following news published on September 26, 2022:
“The central bank has increased the benchmark lending rate by 140 basis points”
Identify the likely cause and consequences behind this action taken by the Reserve Bank of India.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/1/1
Inflation in the economy may be the cause behind the rise in the benchmark lending rate by the Central bank. [1]
This step may force the commercial banks to increase the cost of borrowing for the general public. It may discourage the general public from taking loans. As a result, it may lead to fall in Aggregate Demand and subsequent fall in inflation. [3]
(Any other valid explanation to be allotted marks)
Q86.2023 Main 58/1/1 · Q15(a)4 marks
Explain the ‘Government’s Bank’ function of the central bank.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/1/1
The central bank acts as a banker to the Government. It maintains the banking accounts of the government for the purpose of receiving/making payments on its behalf. It provides loans to the government, as per its requirements. The central bank also purchases/ sells government securities in the open market on behalf of the government.
(To be marked as a whole)
Q87.2023 Main 58/1/1 · Q15(b)4 marks
Using a hypothetical numerical example, explain the effect of rise in Reserve Ratio on credit creation by the commercial banks.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/1/1
Reserve ratio (RR) is the minimum reserves that a commercial bank must maintain as per the directions of the central bank. Credit creation is inversely related to the reserve ratio.
Example: Suppose the initial deposit is ₹1000
| Case | Reserve Ratio (RR) | Credit Multiplier (1/RR) | Credit Creation (Initial Deposit x Credit Multiplier) |
|---|
| I | 0.2 | 1/0.2 = 5 | 1,000 x 5 = ₹5,000 |
| II | 0.5 | 1/0.5 = 2 | 1000 x 2 = ₹2,000 |
The above example, depicts the effect of rise in Reserve Ratio on credit creation by the commercial banks.
(To be marked as a whole)
(Any other valid example/explanation to be allotted marks)
Q88.2023 Main 58/2/1 · Q134 marks
"The process of credit creation by commercial banks comes to an end when the total of required reserves become equal to the initial deposits."
With the help of a numerical example, prove that the given statement is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/2/1
The given statement is true. This can be proved with the help of the following example:
The process of credit creation is based on the assumptions that:
- entire banking system is a single unit.
- all transactions are routed through the bank only.
| Deposits | Loans | Reserves (20%) |
|---|
| 1 | 1000 | 800 | 200 |
| 2 | 800 | 640 | 160 |
| 3 | 640 | 512 | 128 |
| … | … | … | … |
| … | … | … | … |
| Total | 5000 | 4000 | 1000 |
When a commercial bank receives initial/primary deposits (say ₹ 1,000), as per the requirement of the Central Bank, it has to maintain some reserves. The remaining amount is made available for loans. The lent sum of money is received back in the next round of deposits as secondary deposits.
Total deposit creation = Initial deposits x 1/Reserve Ratio
= 1,000 x 1/0.2
= ₹ 5,000
This process of deposit, reserve and lending continues till initial deposits become equal to the sum total of reserves.
(To be marked as a whole)
Q89.2023 Main 58/3/1 · Q14(a)4 marks
Read the following information carefully:
"The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), recently increased the Repo Rate by 50 basis points. The Rate stands today at 5.40%, whereas Reverse Repo Rate was left unchanged at 3.35%."
Answer the following questions:
(i) Identify the nature of the two monetary policy measures mentioned in the above text. (1)
(ii) Elaborate the likely economic rationale behind the increase in Repo Rate by the Monetary Policy Committee. (3)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/3/1
(i) The two monetary policy measures mentioned in the above text are of quantitative nature. [1]
(ii) An increase in the repo rate will force the commercial banks to increase the lending rates, which may make borrowing costlier to the general public. It may discourage general public from borrowing funds. As a result, Aggregate Demand in the economy may decrease, thereby controlling the inflationary pressures in the economy. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q90.2023 Main 58/3/1 · Q154 marks
Using a suitable numerical example, explain the credit creation process of the banking system, in a hypothetical economy.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/3/1
The process of money creation is based on the assumptions that:
- entire banking system is a single unit.
- all transactions are routed through the bank only.
When a commercial bank receives initial/primary deposits (say ₹ 1,000), as per the requirement of the Central Bank, it has to maintain some reserves. The remaining amount is made available for loans. The lent sum of money is received back in the next round of deposits as secondary deposits. This process of deposit, reserve and lending continues till initial deposits become equal to the sum total of reserves.
| Round | Deposits | Loans | Reserves (20%) |
|---|
| 1 | 1000 | 800 | 200 |
| 2 | 800 | 640 | 160 |
| 3 | 640 | 512 | 128 |
| … | … | … | … |
| … | … | … | … |
| Total | 5000 | 4000 | 1000 |
Total deposit creation = Initial deposits X 1/Reserve Ratio
= 1000 x 1/0.2
= ₹ 5,000
Hence, total deposits of ₹ 5000 are created.
(To be marked as whole)
(Any other valid explanation to be allotted marks)
Q91.2023 Main 58/4/1 · Q154 marks
Read the following text carefully:
"After setting up a working group to study the possibility of a Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC) in India in 2020, the RBI revealed a concept note on digital rupee (e-Rupee) on 7th October, 2022."
"The e-Rupee will provide an additional option to the currency available forms of money. It is substantially not different from bank notes, but being digital it is likely to be easier, faster and cheaper."
RBI said that it broadly defines CBDC as the legal tender issued by a central bank in a digital form. It is akin to paper currency in a different form.
On the basis of the above text and common understanding, answer the following questions:
(a) Identify and discuss the function of central bank indicated above text. (3)
(b) State any two advantages of digital rupee. (1)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(a) The function being discussed here is the Bank Of issue or Currency Authority. [1]
In India, the Central bank has the sole authority for issuing currency in the economy. This ensures uniformity in the issue of currency and it gives the central bank, control over the money supply. [2]
(b) Two advantages of Digital Rupee:
(Any two) [1]
(Any other valid explanation to be allotted marks)
Q92.2023 Main 58/5/1 · Q144 marks
As per the following news published in “The Hindu” on 6th August, 2022:
“The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) of the Reserve Bank of India raised the Repo Rate by 50 basis points."
Identify and explain the likely cause and consequences behind this type of action taken by the Reserve Bank of India.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/5/1
Inflation in the economy may be the cause behind the rise in repo rate by the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) of Reserve Bank of India (RBI). [1]
This step may force commercial banks to increase the lending rates. It may discourage the borrowings by the general public. This may lead to fall in Aggregate Demand and thus may result in fall in rate of inflation. [3]
(Any other valid explanation to be allotted marks)
Q93.2023 Main 58/5/1 · Q15(a)4 marks
Explain the role of Central Bank as Governments' agent and advisor.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/5/1
As Government’s agent, the Central Bank accepts receipts and makes payment on behalf of the government. For instance, Central Bank issues government securities such as bonds, treasury bills, etc. It makes all arrangements in connection with the floatation, conversion or redemption of these securities. It manages the national debt on behalf of the government.
As the Government’s financial advisor, the Central Bank advises the government on all economic, financial and monetary matters. [4]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q94.2023 Main 58/5/1 · Q15(b)4 marks
Define Reverse Repo Rate. Discuss briefly, how this instrument helps in controlling credit creation by commercial banks.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/5/1
Reverse Repo Rate is the rate of interest at which commercial banks can park their surplus funds with the Central Bank. [1]
In order to control the credit creation capacity of the commercial banks, the Central Bank may increase/decrease Reverse Repo Rate. This induces commercial banks to transfer more/less funds to the Central Bank which in turn reduces/ increases the lending capacity of the commercial banks.
As a result, credit creation by commercial banks may be reduced/ increased. [3]
Q95.SQP 2026-27 · Q13(a)4 marks
Like individual consumers, businesses and organisation of all kinds, banks need their own mechanism to transfer funds and settle inter-bank transactions, such as borrowing from and lending to other banks and customer transactions.
Source: https://rbidocs.rbi.org.in/rdocs/Publications/PDFs/RWF15012018_FCD40172EE58946BAA647A765DC942BD5.PDF
Identify and explain the function fulfilled by the Reserve Bank of India in the aforesaid statement.
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 · Marking Scheme
The highlighted function fulfilled by the Reserve Bank of India is Banker’s Bank. [1]
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) accepts the deposits from commercial banks and also advances loans to them as and when required. It maintains reserves of all commercial banks and utilizes it to settle inter-bank claims. As the highest authority in the banking system, it also supports banks during financial distress by acting as the lender of last resort and provides short-term credit to the commercial banks against approved securities. [3]
Q96.SQP 2026-27 · Q13(b)4 marks
(I) Define Cash Reserve Ratio.
(II) In the process of credit creation, the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) fixed by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) plays a crucial role. On 6th June 2025, the RBI reduced the CRR by 100 basis points.
Assuming the entire banking system functions as a single bank and all transactions are routed through banks, analyse the impact of this change on the total money creation in the banking system.
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 · Marking Scheme
(I) Cash Reserve Ratio refers to certain minimum percentage of net demand and time liabilities which banks are required to keep with the Central Bank in the form of cash. [1]
(II) The total amount of credit creation in an economy depends upon the amount of initial deposits and Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR). Keeping primary deposits constant, a decrease in the CRR by the Reserve Bank of India may lead to greater availability of funds with commercial banks. This may increase the lending capacity of commercial banks. Thus, increasing the total credit creation in the economy. [3]
Q97.2026 Main 58/3/1 · Q176 marks
Read the following passage carefully:
Any institution which accepts deposits from the public and advances loans is a bank. Banks are broadly categorised into:
- Commercial Banks, and
- Central Bank.
Commercial banks accept deposits from public and use these deposits for giving loans. Banks keep a fraction of deposits as reserves. Generally, all depositors do not demand their money at the same time. The Central Bank of a country is responsible for controlling credit creation. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) regulates the money supply in India through its monetary policy.
On the basis of the above passage and common understanding, answer the following questions:
(i) State the meaning of a Bank. [1]
(ii) Mention any two traits that distinguish Central Bank from Commercial Banks. [2]
(iii) “Open market operation is the tool used by Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to regulate money supply in the economy.”
Justify the given statement with valid arguments. [3]
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/3/1
(i) A Bank is an institution which accepts deposits from the public and advances loans. [1]
(ii) Two traits that distinguish Central Bank from Commercial Bank are:
- Commercial banks accept deposits and grant loans to the public whereas, Central bank does not directly deal with the public. [1]
- Commercial banks create credit whereas, the Central Bank is responsible for controlling credit creation in the economy. [1]
(Any other valid trait to be awarded marks)
(iii) The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) can regulate the money supply in the economy by the sale/ purchase of government securities in the open market. When RBI sells government securities, the availability of funds with commercial banks reduces, which in turn curtails their lending capacity. Consequently, the money supply in the economy reduces.
On the contrary, when RBI buys government securities, the availability of funds with commercial banks rises, which in turn increases their lending capacity. Consequently, the money supply in the economy rises. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q98.2025 Main 58/4/1 · Q176 marks
(a) Elaborate the process of Credit Creation using a suitable numerical example.
(b) Read the following text carefully:
"This function of money provides different items to be evaluated against a common standard. It allows comparison of prices and keeping financial records."
(i) On the basis of the given text, identify the indicated function of money.
(ii) List any other two functions of money.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(a) The process of credit creation is based on the assumptions that:
- entire banking system is a single unit.
- all transactions are routed through the bank only.
| Rounds | Deposits | Loans | Reserves (20%) |
|---|
| I | 1,000 | 800 | 200 |
| II | 800 | 640 | 160 |
| III | 640 | 512 | 128 |
| … | … | … | … |
| Total | 5,000 | 4,000 | 1,000 |
When a commercial bank receives primary deposits (say ₹ 1,000), it has to maintain some statutory reserves (say 20%). The remaining amount is made available for loans. The lent sum of money is received back in the next round of deposits as secondary deposits.
Total Deposits = Primary Deposits x 1/Reserve Ratio
= 1000 x 1/0.2
= ₹ 5,000
This process continues till sum total of reserves becomes equal to primary deposits. (To be marked as a whole) [4]
(b) (i) The indicated function of money is ‘Unit of account’. [1]
(ii) Two other functions of money are:
- Medium of exchange. [½]
- Standard of deferred payments. (Any other valid function to be awarded marks) [½]
Q99.2025 Main 58/5/1 · Q166 marks
(a) “In a country, routine economic operations rely on a stable medium, to facilitate transactions for maintaining smooth economic activities.”
Discuss briefly the indicated function of money.
(b) State the meaning and components of M1 measure of money supply.
(c) State the formula to compute Credit Multiplier.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(a) The indicated function of money is ‘medium of exchange’. [1]
Money acts as a universally acceptable medium for any transaction. Money serves as a medium for buying/selling goods and services. It eliminates the limitation of lack of double coincidence of wants by facilitating exchange in the market. [2]
(b) M1 measure of money supply refers to the total volume of money held by the public at a particular point of time in the economy. [1]
The two components of M1 measure of money supply are:
- Currency (notes and coins) held by the public. [½]
- Net demand deposits held by commercial banks. [½]
(c) Credit Multiplier = 1/Reserve Ratio [1]
Q100.2023 Main 58/2/1 · Q176 marks
Read the following text carefully. Answer the given questions on the basis of the same and common understanding:
On 30th September 2022, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) raised Repo Rate for the fourth time in a row. The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) decided to raise the policy rate by 50 basis points. (1 basis point = 1/100 th of a percent). After this announcement, the new repo rate stands at 5.9%, while the reverse repo rate continues to stand at 3.35%.
Commercial banks borrow money from the Central Bank, when there is a shortage of funds. With the surge in the repo rate, borrowings by general public will become costlier. This is because, as RBI hikes its repo rate, it becomes costly for the banks to borrow short term funds from the Central Bank.
As a result, the banks hike the rates at which customers borrow money from them to compensate for the hike in the repo rate. This happens because banks offer loans to retail consumers at an interest rate which is generally, directly proportional to the repo rate.
The increase of 0.50 percent in repo rate will lead to a higher interest rate on loans for borrowers, implying that the Equated Monthly Instalments (EMIs) for repaying the existing loans will also increase.
Source: https://www.businessstandard.com/article/economicpolicy/rbi-monetary policy-repo-rate-up-by-50bps-here-s-how-it-will-impact-you-122093000267 (Edited)
(a) Define ‘Repo Rate’. (1)
(b) Outline the recent change made by the Monetary Policy Committee of Reserve Bank of India in the repo rate. (1)
(c) "Increase in repo rate is an important tool used by Monetary Policy Committee to combat the situation of inflation in the Economy." Justify the given statement. (4)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(a) Repo rate refers to the rate at which the Central Bank lends to the commercial banks for their short-term requirements. [1]
(b) The Monetary Policy Committee of Reserve Bank of India raised the repo rate by 50 basis points. [1]
(c) To deal with the situation of inflation, the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) of Reserve Bank of India has increased the repo rate.
An increase in repo rate will force the commercial banks to increase their lending rates making the credit costlier for the general public. Thereby, discouraging the borrowings. Consequently, Aggregate Demand will fall and thereby correcting the problem of inflation in the economy. [4]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q101.2023 Supp 58/C/1 · Q176 marks
(i) “As per announcement made by the Governor of Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on May 4, 2022, it has been decided to increase the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) by 50 basis points from 4% to 4.5%.”
Analyse the impact of this step of RBI on total credit creation in the economy.
(ii) Explain the ‘Store of Value’ function of money.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Supplementary), Set 58/C/1
(i) The total amount of credit creation in an economy depends upon the amount of initial deposits and cash reserve ratio (CRR). An increase in the CRR by RBI may lead to lesser availability of deposits with commercial banks. This may curtail the lending capacity of commercial banks. Thus, adversely affecting the total credit creation in the economy. [3] (To be marked as a whole)
(ii) Money in the form of wealth can be stored easily for future use. Money is the most convenient and economical way to transfer purchasing power from present to future use. It is durable in nature and occupies less space for storage. [3] (To be marked as a whole)
Part A · Introductory Macroeconomics
3. Determination of Income and Employment
Q1.2026 Main 58/1/1 · Q41 mark
In an economy, when __________ is insufficient to achieve the level of output corresponding to the full employment, the difference is termed a deflationary gap. (Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)
Options:
- ex-ante Aggregate Demand
- ex-post Aggregate Demand
- ex-ante Aggregate Supply
- ex-post Aggregate Supply
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(A) ex-ante Aggregate Demand
Q2.2026 Main 58/1/1 · Q61 mark
Identify, which of the following is true at the Break Even level of Income. (Choose the correct option)
Options:
- Slope of Consumption Curve = Slope of Saving Curve
- Average Propensity to Consume (APC) = Average Propensity to Save (APS)
- Slope of Saving Curve = Unity (1)
- Average Propensity to Consume (APC) = Unity (1)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(D) Average Propensity to Consume (APC) = Unity (1)
Q3.2026 Main 58/2/1 · Q11 mark
Choose the correct consumption function from the options given below with reference to the illustrated given diagram.

Options:
- C = 100 + 0.7Y
- C = 100 + 0.8Y
- C = 100 – 0.7Y
- C = 100 – 0.8Y
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(A) 100 + 0.7Y
Q4.2026 Main 58/2/1 · Q61 mark
The Aggregate Demand (AD) curve lies parallel to consumption curve, indicating that both have ________. (Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)
- same components
- different slope
- same slope
- inverse relationship
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(C) same slope
Q5.2026 Main 58/3/1 · Q51 mark
Select the correct formula to calculate the value of Marginal Propensity to Save (MPS):
I. Change in Savings (ΔS) / Change in Consumption (ΔC)
II. Change in Savings (ΔS) / Change in Income (ΔY)
III. 1 – Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC)
IV. Change in Income (ΔY) / Change in Savings (ΔS)
Options:
- I, II, III and IV
- II and III
- Only III
- Only II
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/3/1
(B) II and III
Q6.2026 Main 58/3/1 · Q71 mark
Suppose in a hypothetical economy, Y = 50 + 0·8Y + 100, where Y = National Income.
The value of Investment Multiplier (K) would be ___________. (Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)
Options:
- 5
- 0·2
- 50
- 0·8
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/3/1
(A) 5
Q7.2026 Main 58/3/1 · Q91 mark
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement I: At the break-even level of income, the value of slope of the consumption curve is zero.
Statement II: Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC) refers to the change in consumption per unit change in income.
In the light of the given statements, choose the correct option from the following:
- Statement I is true and Statement II is false.
- Statement I is false and Statement II is true.
- Both Statements I and II are true.
- Both Statements I and II are false.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/3/1
(B) Statement I is false and Statement II is true.
Q8.2026 Main 58/4/1 · Q11 mark
Assuming for an imaginary economy, consumption at zero level of income and break-even level of income is ₹ 50 and ₹ 200 respectively.
Choose the correct value of Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC), from the following:
- 0.8
- 0.9
- 0.75
- 0.85
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(C) 0.75
Q9.2026 Main 58/4/1 · Q71 mark
Study the given image carefully:
The line LK represents _________ curve.

(Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)
Options:
- Consumption
- Aggregate Supply
- Aggregate Demand
- Investment
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(C) Aggregate Demand
Q10.2026 Main 58/4/1 · Q81 mark
Read the following statements: Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose the correct option from those given below:
Assertion (A): Government can control the situation of deficient demand through its taxation policy.
Reason (R): Reduction in tax rates by the government leads to increase in the disposable income of the people.
Options:
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
- Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
Q11.2026 Main 58/5/1 · Q21 mark
With reference to the given diagram, OL indicates __________

(Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)
(i) Autonomous Consumption
(ii) Autonomous Investment
(iii) Induced Consumption
(iv) Induced Investment
Options:
- Only (i)
- Only (ii)
- Sum of (i) and (ii)
- Sum of (i) and (iii)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(C) Sum of (i) and (ii)
Q12.2026 Main 58/5/1 · Q61 mark
An economy may operate at a level below full employment due to a deficiency in Aggregate Demand (AD) leading to a/an ___________ employment equilibrium.
(i) Full
(ii) Over
(iii) Under
(Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)
Options:
- Only (i)
- Only (ii)
- Only (iii)
- (ii) and (iii)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(C) Only (iii)
Q13.2026 Supp 58/7/1 · Q11 mark
Refer to the given diagram. At which level of income will the value of Average Propensity to Save (APS) be zero? (Choose the correct option)

Options:
- Level O
- Level OY1
- Level OY2
- Level OY3
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Supplementary), Set 58/7/1
(B) Level OY1
Q14.2026 Supp 58/7/1 · Q61 mark
Under the Keynesian theory, ‘Reference line’ is a straight line passing through the origin drawn at an angle of __________. (Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)
- 25°
- 45°
- 55°
- 75°
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Supplementary), Set 58/7/1
(B) 45°
Q15.2025 Main 58/1/1 · Q51 mark
Suppose, the saving curve of an economy makes an intercept at a negative value of ₹ 50 crores. In the economy, 20% of an increase in income is saved.
In the light of above context, identify the value of investment multiplier (K):
Options:
- 2
- 5
- 10
- ∞ (infinite)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(B) 5
Q16.2025 Main 58/1/1 · Q71 mark
Suppose, the value of Average Propensity to Consume (APC) is 0.8 and National Income is ₹ 4,000 crores, the value of saving would be ₹ ________ crores. (Choose the correct option to fill up the blank)
Options:
- 100
- 200
- 500
- 800
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(D) 800
Q17.2025 Main 58/2/1 · Q31 mark
In the Keynesian Economics, _____ starts from the origin and is always drawn at an angle of 45°. (Choose the correct option to fill up the blank)
- Consumption curve
- Aggregate demand curve
- Reference line
- Investment curve
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(C) Reference line
Q18.2025 Main 58/2/1 · Q61 mark
Suppose for an economy, autonomous consumption stands as ₹ 100 crore and total consumption is ₹ 130 crores. The value of induced consumption would be ₹ _____ crore. (Choose the correct option to fill up the blank)
- 30
- 80
- 100
- 130
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(A) 30
Q19.2025 Main 58/2/1 · Q81 mark
Read the following statements: Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose one of the correct options given below:
Assertion (A): If the value of Marginal Propensity to Save is 0.5, Marginal Propensity to Consume will be equal to Marginal Propensity to Save.
Reason (R): Sum of Marginal Propensity to Consume and Marginal Propensity to Save always equals to unity.
Options:
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
- Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
Q20.2025 Main 58/2/1 · Q101 mark
To arrive at the value of equilibrium level of income, there must exists an equality between ex-ante _____ and ex-ante _____. (Choose the correct option to fill up the blank)
(i) Aggregate Demand, Aggregate Supply
(ii) Aggregate Demand, Savings
(iii) Aggregate Demand, Investment
(iv) Savings, Investment
Options:
- (i) and (ii)
- (i) and (iv)
- (ii) and (iii)
- (iii) and (iv)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(B) (i) and (iv)
Q21.2025 Main 58/4/1 · Q11 mark
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement 1: The government may reduce the repo rate, to control deflationary gap prevailing in the economy.
Statement 2: The government may reduce the deflationary gap, by selling off government securities (G-Sec) in the open market.
In the light of the given statements, choose the correct option from the following:
- Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
- Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(D) Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.
Q22.2025 Main 58/4/1 · Q61 mark
Under the Keynesian theory, ‘Reference Line’ is a straight line passing through the origin drawn at an angle of __________. (Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)
- 25°
- 40°
- 45°
- 70°
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(C) 45°
Q23.2025 Main 58/4/1 · Q71 mark
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement 1: Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC) refers to the consumption per unit of income.
Statement 2: As the income increases, the proportionate increase in the level of consumption is always more than the increase in the level of income.
In the light of the given statements, choose the correct option from the following:
- Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
- Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(D) Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.
Q24.2025 Main 58/4/1 · Q101 mark
In a two-sector economy, the Aggregate Demand can be determined by adding __________ and __________. (Choose the correct option to fill in the blanks)
- consumption, investments
- investments, savings
- consumption, savings
- savings, exports
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(A) consumption, investments
Q25.2025 Main 58/5/1 · Q41 mark
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement 1: During deflationary gap, the Central Bank of a country may increase the repo rate.
Statement 2: The government can reduce the deflationary gap by purchasing Government Securities (G-Sec) in the open market.
In the light of the given statements, choose the correct option from the following:
- Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
- Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(D) Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.
Q26.2025 Main 58/5/1 · Q51 mark
Under the Keynesian theory, ‘Reference Line’ is a straight line passing through the origin drawn at an angle of _________________. (Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)
- 25°
- 45°
- 55°
- 75°
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(B) 45°
Q27.2025 Main 58/5/1 · Q71 mark
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement 1: Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC) exhibits the consumption per unit of income.
Statement 2: As the national income of a country rises, the proportionate increase in the consumption is always more than the increase in the income.
In the light of the given statements, choose the correct option from the following:
- Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
- Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(D) Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.
Q28.2025 Main 58/5/1 · Q81 mark
In a two-sector economy, Aggregate Supply can be determined by adding ___________ and _____________. (Choose the correct option to fill in the blanks)
- consumption, investments
- investments, savings
- consumption, savings
- savings, exports
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(C) consumption, savings
Q29.2025 Main 58/6/1 · Q11 mark
If the value of Investment Multiplier (K) is 5, the relevant saving function would be ___________. (Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)
- S = – 60 + 0.25 Y
- S = – 60 + 0.75 Y
- S = – 60 + 0.20 Y
- S = – 60 + 0.60 Y
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/6/1
(C) S = – 60 + 0.20 Y
Q30.2025 Main 58/6/1 · Q31 mark
If an upward sloping straight line consumption function makes an intercept at the Y-axis at a positive coordinate, it implies that Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC)______ and Average Propensity to Consume (APC)_______ as the income increases. (Choose the correct option to fill in the blanks)
- remains constant, rises
- rises, rises
- remains constant, falls
- falls, falls
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/6/1
(C) remains constant, falls
Q31.2025 Main 58/6/1 · Q71 mark
Using the given information, complete the following table: (Choose the correct option)
Income (Y) (in ₹ crore) | Savings (in ₹ crore) | Consumption (in ₹ crore) | Average Propensity to Consume (APC) |
|---|
| 0 | …(i)… | 30 | - |
| 100 | 0 | …(ii)… | 1 |
| 200 | 30 | 170 | 0.85 |
| 300 | 60 | 240 | 0.8 |
Options:
- –30, 120
- 30, 120
- 0, 70
- –30, 100
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/6/1
(D) –30, 100
Q32.2025 Main 58/6/1 · Q91 mark
Suppose in an economy, planned spendings are greater than planned outputs.
Identify the correct option with respect to effects on the economy:
(i) Decrease in planned inventories in the economy
(ii) Rise in National Income
(iii) Decrease in real output level in the economy
(iv) Decrease in employment level in the economy
Options:
- Only (i)
- (i) and (ii)
- (iii) and (iv)
- (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/6/1
(B) (i) and (ii)
Q33.2025 Main 58/7/1 · Q61 mark
Suppose, the consumption function is given as:
C = 205 + 0.9 Y (where C = Total Consumption and Y = National Income)
The value of Investment Multiplier (K) would be ____________. (Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)
- 0.09
- 10.0
- 0.9
- 9.0
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/7/1
(B) 10.0
Q34.2025 Main 58/7/1 · Q71 mark
Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC) exhibits the slope of __________ function. (Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)
- Saving
- Consumption
- Production
- Cost
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/7/1
(B) Consumption
Q35.2025 Main 58/7/1 · Q91 mark
Aggregate expenditure in the economy during an accounting year is also known as __________. (Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)
- Autonomous investment
- Aggregate supply
- Aggregate demand
- Induced investment
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/7/1
(C) Aggregate demand
Q36.2025 Main 58/7/1 · Q101 mark
The 45° line in Keynesian economics indicates __________. (Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)
- Income > Consumption
- Savings > Investments
- Consumption > Income
- Income = Consumption
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/7/1
(D) Income = Consumption
Q37.2025 Supp 58/S/1 · Q11 mark
Suppose in an economy there exist autonomous investments, which are independent of the level of income. Graphically, the autonomous investments curve would be __________. (Choose the correct alternative to fill in the blank)
- a straight line parallel to y-axis
- a straight line parallel to x-axis
- an upward sloping straight line at x-intercept, in the positive quadrant
- a downward sloping straight line at y-intercept
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Supplementary), Set 58/S/1
(B) a straight line parallel to x-axis
Q38.2025 Supp 58/S/1 · Q41 mark
In the Keynesian economic analysis, determination of equilibrium income in the short-run is usually expressed as _________. (Choose the correct alternative to fill in the blank)
(i) Ex-ante Aggregate Demand = Ex-ante Aggregate Supply
(ii) Consumption (C) + Investment (I) = Savings
(iii) Consumption (C) + Investment (I) = National Income
(iv) Ex-ante Savings = Ex-ante Investments
Alternatives :
- (i) and (ii)
- (i) and (iv)
- (i), (ii) and (iv)
- (i), (iii) and (iv)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Supplementary), Set 58/S/1
(D) (i), (iii) and (iv)
Q39.2025 Supp 58/S/1 · Q61 mark
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement 1: The value of Average Propensity to Save (APS) can be greater than one.
Statement 2: Break-even point is the level at which level of consumption is equal to the income.
In the light of the given statements, choose the correct alternative from the following:
- Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
- Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Supplementary), Set 58/S/1
(B) Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
Q40.2025 Supp 58/S/1 · Q81 mark
From the following statements, identify the incorrect statement in case of underemployment equilibrium. (Choose the correct alternative)
- Resources are fully and efficiently utilised.
- An existence of excessive production capacity in the economy.
- Aggregate supply is equal to Aggregate demand below full employment level.
- Resources are not fully and efficiently utilised.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Supplementary), Set 58/S/1
(A) Resources are fully and efficiently utilised.
Q41.2024 Main 58/1/1 · Q11 mark
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement 1: If in an economy the level of income increases (∆Y), it will always proportionately increase the level of consumption (∆C).
Statement 2: Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC) and Marginal Propensity to Save (MPS) are always equal to each other.
In the light of the given statements, choose the correct alternative from the following:
- Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
- Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(D) Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.
Q42.2024 Main 58/1/1 · Q31 mark
Read the following statements- Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose the correct alternative given below:
Assertion (A): Full employment situation refers to absence of involuntary unemployment.
Reason (R): Under full employment situation, all the willing and able bodied people get employment at the prevailing wage rate.
Alternatives:
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
- Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
Q43.2024 Main 58/1/1 · Q61 mark
Total consumption expenditure by households under Keynesian Economics is a combination of ______ and ______. (Choose the correct alternative to fill in the blanks)
- Autonomous Consumption, Autonomous Investments
- Autonomous Investments, Induced Consumption
- Induced Investments, Autonomous Investments
- Autonomous Consumption, Induced Consumption
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(D) Autonomous Consumption, Induced Consumption
Q44.2024 Main 58/1/1 · Q91 mark
Suppose for a hypothetical economy:
C = 100 + 0·75Y (where C = Consumption and Y = Income)
I0 = 400 (I0 = Autonomous Investment)
Value of Investment Multiplier (K) would be ____________. (Choose the correct alternative to fill in the blank)
- 5
- 4
- 6
- 3
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(B) 4
Q45.2024 Main 58/2/1 · Q11 mark
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement 1: A consumption function describes the relationship between consumption and savings.
Statement 2: Consumption function consists of two components - autonomous consumption and induced consumption.
In the light of the given statements, choose the correct alternative from the following:
- Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
- Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(B) Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
Q46.2024 Main 58/2/1 · Q71 mark
Suppose in an imaginary economy, autonomous consumption = ₹ 500 crore and marginal propensity to consume = 0.8. The saving function for the economy would be _________. (Choose the correct alternative to fill in the blank)
- 500 + 0.8Y
- (-) 500 + 0.8Y
- 500 + 0.2Y
- (-) 500 + 0.2Y
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(D) (-) 500 + 0.2Y
Q47.2024 Main 58/2/1 · Q81 mark
Read the following statements: Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose the correct alternative from those given below:
Assertion (A): The maximum value of Marginal Propensity to Save (MPS) can be unity.
Reason (R): At the break-even level of income, savings are zero.
Alternatives:
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
- Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
Q48.2024 Main 58/2/1 · Q101 mark
Read the following statements: Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose the correct alternative from those given below:
Assertion (A): The equilibrium level of income is determined, when ex-ante spending and ex-ante output are equal.
Reason (R): The equilibrium level of income may or may not be the same as the full employment level of output.
Alternatives :
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
- Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
Q49.2024 Main 58/3/1 · Q11 mark
Read the following statements: Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose the correct alternative from those given below:
Assertion (A): Voluntarily unemployed people are those able bodied people who are not willing to work at the prevailing wage rate.
Reason (R): There exists zero involuntary unemployment at full employment level of equilibrium.
Alternatives:
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
- Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
- Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/3/1
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A). [1]
Q50.2024 Main 58/3/1 · Q31 mark
Inflationary gap in an economy may exist when _________ at full employment level.
(Choose the correct alternative to fill in the blank)
- Actual Aggregate Demand > Potential Aggregate Demand
- Actual Aggregate Demand < Potential Aggregate Demand
- Actual Aggregate Demand < Potential Aggregate Demand
- Actual Aggregate Demand = Potential Aggregate Demand
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/3/1
(A) Actual Aggregate Demand > Potential Aggregate Demand [1]
Q51.2024 Main 58/3/1 · Q61 mark
In order to discourage any fall in Aggregate Demand, the Government of India may _______ the ________ (Choose the correct alternative to fill in the blanks)
- decrease, repo rate
- increase, reverse repo rate
- decrease, government expenditure
- decrease, tax rate
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/3/1
(D) decrease, tax rate [1]
Q52.2024 Main 58/3/1 · Q91 mark
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement 1: Constant rate of change of consumption (ΔC) with respect to change in income (ΔY), is the reason for the straight line consumption curve.
Statement 2: Marginal rate of change between consumption and income is defined as Average Propensity to Consume (APC).
In light of the given statements, choose the correct alternative from the following:
- Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
- Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/3/1
(A) Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false. [1]
Q53.2024 Main 58/4/1 · Q41 mark
If a straight line consumption function makes a positive intercept at the Y-axis, it implies that the Marginal Propensity to Consume ________ and Average Propensity to Consume ___________as the level of income rises. (Fill up the blanks with correct alternative.)
- remains constant, rises
- falls, falls
- rises, rises
- remains constant, falls
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(D) remains constant, falls [1]
Q54.2024 Main 58/4/1 · Q81 mark
From the given table, identify that level of income, where Average Propensity to Save (APS) becomes Zero. (Choose the correct alternative.)
| Income (₹ crore) | 0 | 50 | 100 | 200 | 300 | 400 |
|---|
| Consumption (₹ crore) | 50 | 75 | 100 | 150 | 200 | 250 |
|---|
Alternatives:
- 50
- 100
- 200
- 0
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(B) 100 [1]
Q55.2024 Main 58/4/1 · Q91 mark
Read the following statements carefully
Statement 1: Consumption and Savings are the components of National output of an economy.
Statement 2: Higher level of Income often leads to lower savings.
In the light of the given statements, choose the correct alternative from the following :
- Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
- Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(A) Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false. [1]
Q56.2024 Main 58/4/1 · Q101 mark
Arrange the following in the correct sequential order, if the government of a nation is trying to curtail the situation of inflationary gap:
(i) Decrease in disposable income
(ii) Increase in taxes
(iii) Decrease in Aggregate Demand
Alternatives
- (i), (ii), (iii)
- (iii), (ii), (i)
- (ii), (iii), (i)
- (ii), (i), (iii)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(D) (ii), (i), (iii) [1]
Q57.2024 Main 58/5/1 · Q11 mark
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement 1: Ex-post savings and Ex-post investments are equal at all levels of income.
Statement 2: Under the effective demand principle, the equilibrium output is equal to ex-ante Aggregate Demand (AD).
In the light of the given statements, choose the correct alternative from the following:
- Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
- Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(C) Both Statements 1 and 2 are true. [1]
Q58.2024 Main 58/5/1 · Q31 mark
In a hypothetical economy, if entire additional income is consumed, the value of investment multiplier would be _________. (Fill up the blank with correct alternative.)
- One (1)
- Zero (0)
- Between zero (0) and one (1)
- Infinity (∞)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(D) Infinity (∞) [1]
Q59.2024 Main 58/5/1 · Q61 mark
From the given table, identify that level of income, where Average Propensity to Save (APS) becomes zero: (Choose the correct alternative.)
| Income (₹ crore) | 0 | 50 | 100 | 200 | 300 | 400 |
|---|
| Consumption (₹ crore) | 50 | 75 | 100 | 150 | 200 | 250 |
|---|
Alternatives:
- 50
- 100
- 200
- 0
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(B) 100 [1]
Q60.2024 Main 58/5/1 · Q91 mark
Identify, what does the shaded area (ΔEFG), in the given figure indicate?

I. Consumption > Income
II. Saving = Zero (0)
III. Consumption < Income
IV. Saving < Zero (0)
Alternatives:
- I and II
- II and III
- III and IV
- I and IV
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(B) (II) and (III) or (C) III and IV [1]
Q61.2024 Supp 58/S/1 · Q61 mark
Identify, which of the following options exhibits the proportional relation between consumption and disposable income.
- Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC) /Average Propensity to Consume (APC)
- Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC) < Average Propensity to Consume (APC)
- Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC) = Average Propensity to Consume (APC)
- Marginal Propensity to Consume = 1
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Supplementary), Set 58/S/1
(C) Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC) = Average Propensity to Consume (APC) [1]
Q62.2024 Supp 58/S/1 · Q71 mark
In an economy, break-even level of income can be determined, when _______.
(i) Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC) = Marginal Propensity to Save (MPS)
(ii) Income (Y) = Consumption (C)
(iii) Savings (S) = 0
(iv) Average Propensity to Consume (APC) = Average Propensity to Save (APS)
(Choose the correct alternative to fill in the blank)
Alternatives:
- Only (i)
- (i) and (ii)
- (ii) and (iii)
- (i) and (iv)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Supplementary), Set 58/S/1
(C) (ii) and (iii) [1]
Q63.2024 Supp 58/S/1 · Q91 mark
For a hypothetical economy, it is known that:
Average Propensity to Save (APS) = 0.4
Income (Y) = ₹100 crore
Autonomous Consumption (c̅) = ₹ 10 crore
The value of investment multiplier would be __________. (Choose the correct alternative to fill in the blank)
- 5
- 2
- 4
- 10
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Supplementary), Set 58/S/1
(B) 2 [1]
Q64.2024 Supp 58/S/1 · Q101 mark
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement 1: Average Propensity to Consume (APC) represents the change in total income with respect to a given change in total consumption.
Statement 2: When income changes, change in consumption (ΔC) can never exceed the change in income (ΔY).
In the light of the given statements, choose the correct alternative from the following:
- Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
- Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Supplementary), Set 58/S/1
(B) Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true. [1]
Q65.2023 Main 58/1/1 · Q6(a)1 mark
If the value of investment multiplier = 4 and Dissavings = (-) 60, identify the correct Saving function from the following :
- S = (-) 60 + 0·25 Y
- S = (-) 60 + 0·75 Y
- S = (-) 60 + 0·20 Y
- S = (-) 60 + 0·60 Y
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(a) S = (-) 60 + 0·25 Y
Q66.2023 Main 58/1/1 · Q6(b)1 mark
For the given Consumption function, C = 205 + 0·9 Y, the value of investment multiplier would be ___________ (Choose the correct alternative to fill up the blank)
- 0·09
- 10·0
- 0·9
- 9·0
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(b) 10·0
Q67.2023 Main 58/1/1 · Q71 mark
Read the following statements: Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose the correct alternative given below:
Assertion (A): Before reaching the Break-Even level of income, the value of Average Propensity to Consume (APC) is greater than one.
Reason (R): The Average Propensity to Consume (APC) is the ratio of the total consumption and total income.
Alternatives:
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
- Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
Q68.2023 Main 58/1/1 · Q91 mark
Identify which of the following equations is true. (Choose the correct alternative)
- MPC + MPS = 0
- MPC + MPS = 1
- MPC + MPS > 1
- MPC + MPS < 1
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(b) MPC + MPS = 1
Q69.2023 Main 58/1/1 · Q101 mark
A situation in which an able-bodied person is not willing to work at the existing wage rate, is referred to as __________ situation. (Choose the correct alternative to fill up the blank)
- Full employment
- Involuntary unemployment
- Voluntary unemployment
- Disguised unemployment
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(c) Voluntary unemployment
Q70.2023 Main 58/2/1 · Q31 mark
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement 1: The induced consumption shows, the direct relation between consumption and income.
Statement 2: With a certain increase in income, induced consumption also increases.
In the light of the given statements, choose the correct alternative from the following:
- Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
- Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(c) Both Statements 1 and 2 are true
Q71.2023 Main 58/2/1 · Q9(a)1 mark
Read the following statements - Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose one of the correct alternatives given below:
Assertion (A): At the break-even level of income, the value of Average Propensity to Consume (APC) is zero.
Reason (R): Sum of Average Propensity to Consume (APC) and Average Propensity to Save (APS) is always equal to one.
Alternatives:
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
- Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(d) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Q72.2023 Main 58/2/1 · Q9(b)1 mark
_________ refers to that level of Aggregate Demand, which can be met by the corresponding supply in the economy. (Fill up the blank with correct alternative)
- Autonomous Consumption
- Effective demand
- Excess Demand
- Deficient Demand
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(b) Effective Demand
Q73.2023 Main 58/3/1 · Q11 mark
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement 1: Savings function can be derived from Consumption function.
Statement 2: Consumption curve must always start from the point of origin.
In light of the given statements, choose the correct alternative from the following:
- Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
- Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/3/1
(a) Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
Q74.2023 Main 58/3/1 · Q6(a)1 mark
If in an economy, the value of Investment Multiplier is 5 and dissavings (-)100 crore, the relevant savings at income level of ₹1,400 crore would be ₹ ____ crore. (Choose the correct alternative to fill up the blank)
- 80
- 180
- 140
- 240
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/3/1
(b) 180
Q75.2023 Main 58/3/1 · Q6(b)1 mark
The range of value of Investment Multiplier is always between _____ and _______ (Choose the correct alternative to fill up the blanks)
- zero (0), infinity (∞)
- one (+ 1), infinity (∞)
- zero (0), one (+ 1)
- minus one (-1), plus one (+ 1)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/3/1
(b) one (+ 1), infinity (∞)
Q76.2023 Main 58/3/1 · Q91 mark
Read the following statements: Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose the correct alternative from those given below.
Assertion (A): Ex-ante savings and Ex-ante investments are never equal to each other.
Reason (R): At equilibrium level of income, aggregate demand may not be equal to the aggregate supply.
Alternatives:
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
- Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
- Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/3/1
One mark to be allotted to all the candidates
Q77.2023 Main 58/3/1 · Q101 mark
Read the following statements: Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose the correct alternative from those given below.
Assertion (A): The value of Average Propensity to Consume (APC) can never be zero or negative.
Reason (R): Average Propensity to Consume (APC) is independent of the level of income.
Alternatives:
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
- Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
- Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/3/1
(c) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
Q78.2023 Main 58/4/1 · Q11 mark
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement 1: Investment is defined as addition to the physical capital and changes in the inventory.
Statement 2: At equilibrium level of income, ex-post investments and ex-post savings are always equal.
In light of the given statements, choose the correct alternative from the following:
- Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
- Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(c) Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
Q79.2023 Main 58/4/1 · Q6(a)1 mark
If the Marginal Propensity to Save (MPS) is 0.5, what will be the value of investment multiplier? (Choose the correct alternative)
- 1
- 2
- 1.6
- 1.45
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(b) 2
Q80.2023 Main 58/4/1 · Q6(b)1 mark
An increase in National Income occurs by ₹ 3,000 crore, as investments increased by ₹1,200 crore. The value of investment multiplier would be _________. (Choose the correct alternative to fill up the blank)
- 2
- 2.5
- 4
- 5
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(b) 2.5
Q81.2023 Main 58/4/1 · Q91 mark
Read the following statements: Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose the correct alternative given below.
Assertion (A): Excess demand does not lead to any increase in the level of real output.
Reason (R): Excess demand creates a gap between actual demand and desired demand corresponding to full employment level.
Alternatives:
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
- Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
- Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
Q82.2023 Main 58/4/1 · Q101 mark
Read the following statements: Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose the correct alternative given below.
Assertion (A): Rich people have lower Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC) as compared to poor people.
Reason (R): Consumption curve makes an intercept on the y-axis at a point above the origin.
Alternatives:
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
- Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
- Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
Q83.2023 Main 58/5/1 · Q31 mark
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement 1: In a two sector economy, consumption expenditure and investment expenditure are the two components of Aggregate Demand.
Statement 2: Aggregate demand curve always start from point of origin with positive slope.
In the light of given statements, choose the correct alternative from the following:
- Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
- Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
- Both statements 1 and 2 are true.
- Both statements 1 and 2 are false.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(a) Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false
Q84.2023 Main 58/5/1 · Q6(a)1 mark
If in an economy, the Investment Multiplier is 4 and Autonomous Consumption is ₹30 crore, the relevant consumption function would be ________. (Fill up the blank with correct alternative)
- C=30+0.75 Y
- C=(-) 30+ 0.25 Y
- C=30+0.25 Y
- C=(-) 30 - 0.25 Y
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(a) C= 30 + 0.75 Y
Q85.2023 Main 58/5/1 · Q6(b)1 mark
If increase in National Income is equal to increase in Savings, the value of Marginal propensity to Consume would be ___________. (Fill up the blank with correct alternative)
- equal to unity
- greater than one
- less than one
- equal to zero
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(d) equal to zero
Q86.2023 Main 58/5/1 · Q91 mark
Read the following statements - Assertion(A) and Reason (R). Choose one of the correct alternatives given below:
Assertion (A): Full employment refers to, absence of involuntary unemployment.
Reason (R): Under full employment situation, all willing and able bodied people get employment at prevailing wage rate.
Alternatives:
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
- Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
Q87.2023 Main 58/5/1 · Q101 mark
In an economy, the value of Marginal Propensity to Save (MPS) is 0.25, what will be the value of increase in income, if investments increased by ₹200 crores?
- ₹ 200 crores
- ₹ 150 crores
- ₹ 1,000 crores
- ₹ 800 crores
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(d) ₹ 800 crore
Q88.2023 Supp 58/C/1 · Q71 mark

In the given figure, what does the gap ‘EF’ represent? (Choose the correct alternative)
- Deflationary gap
- Inflationary gap
- Excess demand
- Full employment equilibrium
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Supplementary), Set 58/C/1
(a) Deflationary gap
Q89.2023 Supp 58/C/1 · Q91 mark
Average Propensity to Consume refers to ____________. (Choose the correct alternative to fill up the blank)
- level of income at which savings are equal to income
- additional income that is not saved
- ratio of savings to the income
- ratio of consumption to the income
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Supplementary), Set 58/C/1
(d) ratio of consumption to the income
Q90.2023 Supp 58/C/1 · Q101 mark
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement 1 : Ex-ante savings represent value of planned savings.
Statement 2 : Savings are directly related to the level of national income.
In light of the given statements, choose the correct alternative from following:
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.
- Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
- Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Supplementary), Set 58/C/1
(a) Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
Q91.SQP 2025-26 · Q11 mark
With reference to the given diagram, which of the following is true at point B? (Choose the correct option)

- Slope of Consumption Curve = 0
- Average Propensity to Consume = 0
- Slope of Saving Curve = 1
- Average Propensity to Consume = 1
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 · Marking Scheme
(D) Average Propensity to Consume = 1
Q92.SQP 2025-26 · Q61 mark
Deflationary Gap refers to the gap by which ___________ falls short of the Aggregate Demand required to establish full employment equilibrium. (Choose the correct option to fill up the blank)
- ex-ante Aggregate Demand
- ex-post Aggregate Demand
- ex-ante Aggregate Supply
- ex-post Aggregate Supply
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 · Marking Scheme
(B) ex-post Aggregate Demand
Q93.SQP 2026-27 · Q61 mark
Refer to the given diagram carefully:

The slope of Consumption Curve would be ______. (Choose the correct option to fill up the blank)
Options:
- 1
- 0.8
- 0.25
- 0.75
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 · Marking Scheme
(D) 0.75
Q94.SQP 2026-27 · Q101 mark
The value of investment multiplier ranges between ______ and ________. (Choose the correct option to fill up the blank)
- 0,1
- -1, 1
- 1, infinity
- 0, infinity
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 · Marking Scheme
(C) 1, infinity
Q95.2022 Main 58/1/1 · Q22 marks
Justify the following statement with valid argument:
‘At higher levels of income people generally have lower Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC).’
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 58/1/1
At a lower level of income, a consumer generally spends a larger proportion of his/her income on consumption expenditure (basic survival requirement). As the income increases, owing to the psychological behaviour of a rational consumer he tends to save more.
Hence, at higher levels of income people generally have lower Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC). [2]
(to be marked as a whole)
Q96.2022 Main 58/1/1 · Q4(a)2 marks
Calculate equilibrium level of income for a hypothetical economy, for which it is given that:
(i) Autonomous Investments (Io) = ₹ 2,500 crores, and
(ii) Consumption Function; C = 1000 + 0.8Y
where C = Consumption and Y = Income.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 58/1/1
Given, C = 1,000 + 0·8Y
I = ₹2,500 crores
At the equilibrium level, Y = C + I [½]
Therefore, Y = 1,000 + 0·8Y + 2500 [½]
Y − 0·8Y = 3,500 [½]
Equilibrium level of Income(Y) = ₹ 17,500 crore [½]
Q97.2022 Main 58/1/1 · Q4(b)2 marks
Calculate, change in Income (ΔY) for a hypothetical economy, for which it is given that:
(i) Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC) = 0.75, and
(ii) Change in Investments (ΔI) = ₹ 20,000 crore.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 58/1/1
Given, ΔI = ₹ 20,000 crore
MPC = 0·75
As we know
Multiplier(K) = 1/(1 − MPC) = 1/(1 − 0·75) = 1/0·25 = 4 [1]
We know, K = ΔY/ΔI [½]
4 = ΔY/20,000
Change in Income (ΔY) = ₹ 80,000 crore [½]
Q98.2022 Main 58/2/1 · Q3(a)2 marks
Justify the following statement:
"Full employment is an essential condition to be fulfilled under Keynesian Economics Principles."
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 58/2/1
The given statement is not an essential condition. According to Keynesian theory, an economy may attain equilibrium even at less than full employment level of income as well. [2]
(to be marked as a whole)
Q99.2022 Main 58/2/1 · Q3(b)2 marks
"Involuntary Unemployment is a situation where an able bodied person unwilling to work does not get work at the prevailing wage rate." Do you agree with the given statement? Elucidate briefly.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 58/2/1
The given statement is not true. Involuntary unemployment is the situation in which, all those who are willing and able to work at existing wage rate, do not get work. [2]
(to be marked as a whole)
Q100.2022 Main 58/2/1 · Q42 marks
State and discuss any one component of Aggregate Demand in a two-sector economy.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 58/2/1
Consumption Expenditure (C) refers to total expenditure incurred by households and non-profit institutions on purchase of goods and services during an accounting year. There exists a positive relation between income and consumption expenditure, i.e., higher the income, higher shall be the consumption expenditure. [2]
(to be marked as a whole)
(marks to be allotted, if Investment is explained as a component of AD)
Q101.2022 Main 58/2/1 · Q52 marks
Calculate the Equilibrium level of Income for an imaginary economy, if it is given that:
(a) Consumption function, C = 500 + 0·80 Y
Where C = Consumption, Y = Income
(b) Autonomous Investments (I) = ₹ 1,000 crore.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 58/2/1
Given, Consumption Function C = 500 + 0·8 Y
Autonomous Investment (I) = ₹ 1,000 crore
We know that, at equilibrium level
Y = C + I [½]
Y = 500 + 0·8 Y + 1,000 [½]
0·2 Y = 1,500 [½]
Y = ₹ 7,500 crore [½]
Thus , Equilibrium level of Income = ₹ 7,500 crore
Q102.2022 Main 58/3/1 · Q2(a)2 marks
On the basis of following schedule, answer the given questions:
| Income (in ₹ crores) | 0 | 50 | 100 | 150 | 200 |
|---|
| Savings (in ₹ crores) | -20 | -10 | 0 | 30 | 60 |
a) Calculate Marginal Propensity to Save (MPS) at 150 crores level of income.
b) What is the value of Autonomous Consumption?
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 58/3/1
(a) MPS = ΔS/ΔY [½]
= (30 − 0)/(150 − 100) = 30/50 = 0.6 [½]
(b) According to the question, at zero level of income S = (-)20
Therefore, correspondingly the value of Autonomous Consumption (C̄) would be 20 [1]
Q103.2022 Main 58/3/1 · Q2(b)2 marks
In an economy 75 percent of the increase in income is spent on consumption. Investment increased by ₹ 1,000 crore.
Calculate the total increase in income on the basis of given information.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 58/3/1
Given MPC = 0·75, ΔI = ₹1,000 crore
Multiplier (K) = 1/(1 − MPC) [½]
= 1/(1 − 0.75) = 4 [½]
We know that; K = ΔY/ΔI [½]
4 = ΔY/1,000
ΔY = ₹ 4,000 crore [½]
Q104.2022 Main 58/3/1 · Q32 marks
“Excess demand creates greater opportunities of employment in the economy. Defend or refute the given statement with valid explanation.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 58/3/1
The given statement is refuted. Excess demand is a situation when AD > AS corresponding to full employment level in the economy. Under the situation of full employment there is no further possibility/scope of creating more employment opportunities. At full employment level, it is assumed that all the resources are already fully and efficiently employment. [2]
(to be marked as a whole)
Q105.2022 Main 58/4/1 · Q2(a)2 marks
You are given the consumption function of an imaginary economy, C = 100 + 0.8Y, where C = Consumption and Y = Income.
Calculate:
(i) The value of Marginal Propensity to Save (MPS)
(ii) The level of income at Break-Even Point
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(i) Given, C = 100 + 0·8Y
We know that, MPC + MPS = 1
MPS = 1 – MPC [½]
MPS = 1 – 0·8 = 0.2 [½]
(ii) As we know, at break-even point; Y = C
Y = 100 + 0.8Y [½]
0.2 Y = 100
Y = ₹ 500 [½]
Q106.2022 Main 58/4/1 · Q2(b)2 marks
S = -60 + 0.1 Y is the saving function, where S is Saving and Y is National Income and Investment Expenditure (I) is ₹ 4,000 crore in an economy. Calculate the Equilibrium level of Income.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 58/4/1
Given, S = –60 + 0·1Y
I = ₹ 4,000 crores
We know that, at equilibrium; S = I [½]
−60 + 0·1Y = 4,000 [½]
0·1Y = 4,060 [½]
Y = 4,060/0·1 ⇒ ₹ 40,600 crores [½]
Q107.2022 Main 58/4/1 · Q3(a)2 marks
If planned savings exceed planned investments in an economy, state its likely impact on output and employment.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 58/4/1
When planned savings exceeds planned investments it means households are planning to consume less than what the firms expected. As a result, planned inventory would rise above the desired level. To manage the inventories at the desired level, producers may contract production, reducing the employment and income level. [2]
(to be marked as whole)
Q108.2022 Main 58/4/1 · Q3(b)2 marks
If planned savings fall short of planned investments in an economy, state its likely impact on output and employment.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 58/4/1
When planned savings are less than the planned investments it means households are planning to consume more than what the firms expected. As a result, planned inventory would fall below the desired level. To bring back the inventories at the desired level, producers may expand production raising the level of employment and output. [2]
(to be marked as whole)
Q109.2022 Main 58/5/1 · Q2(a)2 marks
“In an economy, the autonomous consumption is ₹ 100 and Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC) is 0.6. If the equilibrium level of Income is ₹ 2,000, then the autonomous investment is ₹ 300.”
Justify the statement with valid calculation.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 58/5/1
Given, Autonomous Consumption (C̄) = ₹ 100
Marginal Propensity to Consume = 0·6
Equilibrium level of Income (Y) = ₹ 2,000
We know that at equilibrium level, Y = C + I; Y = c̄ + MPC(Y) + Ī [½]
2,000 = 100 + 0·6 (2,000) + Ī [½]
2,000 = 1300 + Ī [½]
Ī = ₹ 700 [½]
Thus, it is proved that the given statement is false. Because the correct value of Autonomous Investment is ₹ 700.
(any other alternative method to be awarded marks)
Q110.2022 Main 58/5/1 · Q2(b)2 marks
An Economy is in equilibrium, calculate the Marginal Propensity to Save (MPS) from the following:
(i) National Income (Y) = ₹ 4,400
(ii) Autonomous Consumption (C̄) = ₹ 1,000
(iii) Investment Expenditure (I) = ₹ 70
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 58/5/1
Given, National Income = ₹ 4,400
Autonomous Consumption = ₹ 1,000
Investment Expenditure = ₹ 70
We know that at equilibrium level, Y = C + I; Y = c̄ + MPC(Y) + Ī [½]
4,400 = 1,000 + MPC(4,400) + 70 [½]
MPC = 0·76 [½]
MPS = 1 - 0.76 = 0.24 (MPS = 1 - MPC) [½]
(any other valid calculation i.e., through saving function may also be awarded marks.)
Q111.2022 Main 58/5/1 · Q32 marks
‘Consumption function curve of an involuntary unemployed worker starts from some positive level on Y-axis at zero level of income.’
Justify the given statement.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 58/5/1
Consumption function curve of an unemployed person starts from some positive level on Y-axis, as Autonomous Consumption is independent of level of income. Autonomous Consumption signifies the minimum level of consumption which is essential for survival. [2]
(to be marked as a whole)
Q112.2022 Supp 58/6/1 · Q32 marks
In a hypothetical economy, when savings are zero, it is given that:
(a) the level of Income = ₹ 100 crore, and
(b) Autonomous Consumption (c̄) = ₹ 40 crore
Calculate the value of Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC) in the economy.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Supplementary), Set 58/6/1
Given; Y = ₹ 100 crore and c̄ = ₹ 40 crore
When S = 0; C = Y (break-even point) [½]
Hence, C = ₹ 100 crore
We know, C = c̄ + MPC(Y) [½]
100 = 40 + MPC (100) [½]
MPC = 60/100 = 0.6 [½]
Q113.2022 Supp 58/6/1 · Q4(a)2 marks
State the meaning of Effective Demand.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Supplementary), Set 58/6/1
Effective demand refers to that level of aggregate demand which is fully met by the corresponding supply in the economy. [2]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q114.2022 Supp 58/6/1 · Q4(b)2 marks
Distinguish between Voluntary unemployment and Involuntary unemployment.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Supplementary), Set 58/6/1
Voluntary unemployment refers to a situation where an able-bodied person is not willing to work at the prevailing wage rate. [1]
Whereas,
Involuntary unemployment refers to a situation where an able-bodied person who is willing to work at the prevailing wage rate, is not getting work. [1]
Q115.2022 Main 58/1/1 · Q83 marks
Using a hypothetical example, elaborate the working of investment multiplier in an economy.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 58/1/1
The working of multiplier is based on the fact one’s expenditure is other’s income. Suppose the increase in investment is by ₹ 4,000 crore and marginal propensity to consume is 0.5: [½]
| Round | Increase in investment (ΔI) (₹ in crore) | Increase in income (ΔY) (₹ in crore) | Increase in consumption (ΔC) (₹ in crore) | Increase in savings (ΔS) (₹ in crore) |
|---|
| 1 | 4000 | 4000 | 2000 | 2000 |
| 2 | — | 2000 | 1000 | 1000 |
| 3 | — | 1000 | 500 | 500 |
| 4 | — | 500 | 250 | 250 |
| — | — | . | . | . |
| — | — | . | . | . |
| Total | 4000 | 8000 | 4000 | 4000 |
|---|
[1½]
The above table shows that an increase in investment of ₹ 4,000 crore leads to a total increase of ₹ 8,000 crore in income. [1]
(any alternative presentation to be awarded marks)
Working Note:
K = 1/(1 − MPC) = 1/(1 − 0.5) = 1/0.5 = 2
K = ΔY/ΔI
2 = ΔY/4000
ΔY = 8000 crore
(marks not to be deducted if working note is not given)
Q116.2022 Main 58/2/1 · Q83 marks
"In a hypothetical economy, planned savings fall short of planned investments, leading to fall in employment and income."
Do you agree with the given statement? Support your answer with a valid explanation.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 58/2/1
The given statement is not true. When planned savings are less than the planned investments it means households are planning to consume more than what the firms expected. As a result, planned inventory would fall below the desired level. To bring back the inventories at the desired level, producers may expand production raising the employment and income level. [3]
(to be marked as a whole)
Q117.2022 Main 58/2/1 · Q93 marks
Define Inflationary Gap. State, how the government can control the situation of inflationary gap, using the taxation policy.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 58/2/1
Inflationary gap refers to the situation when Aggregate Demand is greater than Aggregate Supply, corresponding to full employment level of output. [1]
The government may raise the existing taxes rates/levy new taxes to reduce the disposable income in the hands of general public. This will help to manage inflationary situation in the economy. [2]
Q118.2022 Main 58/4/1 · Q103 marks
Discuss briefly the working process of investment multiplier (K), assuming that Change in Investment (ΔI) is ₹ 4,000 crore and Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC) is 0.5.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 58/4/1
The working of multiplier is based on the fact ‘one’s expenditure is other’s income’. [½]
Given, the increase in investment is ₹ 4,000 crores and Marginal Propensity to Consume is 0·5:
| Rounds | ΔI | ΔY | ΔC | ΔS |
|---|
| 1 | 4000 | 4000 | 2000 | 2000 |
| 2 | | 2000 | 1000 | 1000 |
| 3 | | 1000 | 500 | 500 |
| — | | — | — | — |
| Total | 4000 | 8000 | 4000 | 4000 |
|---|
[1½]
The above table shows that an increase in investment of ₹ 4,000 crores leads to a total increase of ₹ 8,000 crores [1]
(any alternative presentation/explanation should also be awarded marks)
Working Note: (marks not to be deducted if working note is not given)
K = 1/(1 − MPC) = 1/(1 − 0.5) = 1/0.5 = 2
K = ΔY/ΔI
2 = ΔY/4,000
ΔY = ₹ 8,000 crore
Q119.2022 Main 58/5/1 · Q83 marks
“The Government has raised the exemption limit for the payment of Income tax from ₹2 lakh to ₹2.5 lakh.”
If the situation of deficient demand is prevailing in the economy, what will be the impact of this action taken by the Government?
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 58/5/1
In the given situation of deficient demand, an increase in the exemption limit by the Government would lead to decrease in the tax burden on the households, resulting an increase in disposable income.
Thus, Aggregate Demand (AD) will increase and deficient demand will be managed accordingly. [3]
(to be marked as a whole)
Q120.2026 Main 58/1/1 · Q154 marks
Refer the given image carefully:

Explain any two measures that can be taken by the Central Bank to control the indicated macroeconomic problem.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/1/1
To deal with the situation of highlighted macroeconomic problem i.e. inflation, the Central Bank may use the following measures:
- Repo Rate: A rise in repo rate will force the commercial banks to increase the lending rates, making the credit dearer for the general public, discouraging the borrowings. Consequently, Aggregate Demand will fall thus correcting the problem of inflation in the economy. [2]
- Open Market Operations: The Central Bank can sell government securities in the open market, thereby, reducing the availability of funds with the commercial banks for lending. Consequently, Aggregate Demand will fall thus correcting the problem of inflation in the economy. [2]
(Any other valid interpretation and explanation of the image to be awarded marks)
Q121.2026 Main 58/2/1 · Q154 marks
Read the following text carefully:
“The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) announced a 50 basis point Repo Rate cut to 5.50% from 6%.”
In the light of the given text and common understanding, answer the following questions:
(i) Identify the economic issue indicated in the above text. [1]
(ii) Explain the likely causes and consequences of this step of RBI on the economy. [3]
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(i) The economic issue indicated in the above text may be prevailing deflation in the economy. [1]
(ii) The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) announced a 50 basis point Repo Rate cut to 5.50% from 6% with an objective to curb deflationary situation by increasing Aggregate Demand. [1]
A cut in Repo Rate may encourage the commercial banks to decrease their lending rates. Consequently, making credit more affordable for the general public. This may stimulate borrowings, leading to an increase in Aggregate Demand in the economy. [2]
Q122.2026 Main 58/3/1 · Q144 marks
Estimate the value of incremental investment if, equilibrium level of income increases by ₹ 50,000 crore and half of additional income is always saved in the economy.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/3/1
Given, Increase in Income (ΔY) = ₹ 50,000 crore
Marginal Propensity to Save (MPS) = 0.5
As we know,
Investment Multiplier (K) = 1/MPS [1]
= 1/0.5 = 2 [½]
Investment Multiplier (K) = Change in Income (ΔY) / Change in Investment (ΔI) [1½]
2 = 50,000 / Change in Investment (ΔI) [½]
Change in Investment (ΔI) = ₹ 25,000 crore [½]
Q123.2026 Main 58/4/1 · Q14(a)4 marks
Explain the adjustment mechanism, if in an economy, ex-ante Aggregate Demand (AD) is more than ex-ante Aggregate Supply (AS).
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/4/1
When ex-ante Aggregate Demand is more than ex-ante Aggregate Supply, it means that the households and firms are planning to consume more than what the firms are planning to produce. Thus, the inventories with the producers will fall below the desired level. As a result, the producers may increase the output to restore the desired stock of inventories till the equilibrium level of output is attained. [4]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q124.2026 Main 58/4/1 · Q14(b)4 marks
Explain the process of working of Investment Multiplier, for a hypothetical economy with Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC) as 0.8 and Incremental Investment as ₹ 2,000 crore.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/4/1
The working process of the Investment Multiplier is based on the assumption that one’s expenditure is another’s income. [1]
For the given hypothetical economy, the change in investment is of ₹ 2,000 crore Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC) is 0.8.
| Round | Increase in investment (ΔI) (₹ in crore) | Increase in income (ΔY) (₹ in crore) | Increase in consumption (ΔC) (₹ in crore) | Increase in savings (ΔS) (₹ in crore) |
|---|
| 1 | 2,000 | 2,000 | 1,600 | 400 |
| 2 | — | 1,600 | 1,280 | 320 |
| 3 | — | 1,280 | . | . |
| — | — | . | . | . |
| Total | 2,000 | 10,000 | 8,000 | 2,000 |
[2]
Thus, an increase in investment (ΔI) of 2,000 leads to a total increase in national income (ΔY) by 10,000, which is 5 times the increase in investment.
Investment Multiplier = 1/(1−MPC) [½]
= 1/(1−0.8) = 5 [½]
(Any other valid explanation to be awarded marks)
Q125.2026 Main 58/5/1 · Q154 marks
Read the following text carefully:
“With an objective to improve the growth momentum by stimulating domestic private consumption and investment, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) announced a reduction in Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) by 100 basis points (1%).”
Based on the above text and common understanding, answer the following questions:
(i) Explain the likely cause behind the step taken by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
(ii) Briefly explain the impact of the step taken by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on the Aggregate Demand (AD).
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(i) The likely cause behind reduction in Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) by Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is to stimulate private consumption and investment in the economy, thereby controlling deficient demand/ deflation. [2]
(ii) A decrease in the CRR by the Reserve Bank of India may lead to greater availability of funds with commercial banks. This may increase the lending capacity of commercial banks. Thereby, increasing the money supply and Aggregate Demand in the economy ultimately addressing the issue of deficient demand. [2]
Q126.2026 Supp 58/7/1 · Q154 marks
(a) State the meaning of ‘Effective Demand’.
(b) Explain the adjustment mechanism to restore equilibrium in the economy, if ex-ante Aggregate Demand exceeds ex-ante Aggregate Supply.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Supplementary), Set 58/7/1
(a) Effective Demand is that level of Aggregate Demand (AD) which can be met by the corresponding Aggregate Supply (AS) in the economy. [1]
(b) When ex-ante Aggregate Demand exceeds ex-ante Aggregate Supply, it means that the households and firms are planning to consume more than what the firms are planning to produce. This will lead will lead to unintended decumulation of inventories. To bring back the inventories to the desired level producers may increase the output. This adjustment mechanism will continue till the equilibrium level of output is restored. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q127.2025 Main 58/1/1 · Q15(a)4 marks
In an economy; C = 200 + 0.75 Y (where C is consumption expenditure and Y is National Income). Investment expenditure is ₹ 4,000 Crore.
Calculate the following:
(i) Equilibrium level of income.
(ii) Total consumption expenditure at equilibrium income level.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/1/1
Given,
C = 200 + 0.75 Y
Investment Expenditure = ₹ 4,000 crore
As we know,
(i) At equilibrium level of income, Y = C + I [1½]
Y = 200 + 0.75Y + 4,000 [1]
Y = ₹ 16,800 crore [½]
(ii) Total consumption expenditure at equilibrium level of income = 200 + 0.75 Y
= 200 + 0.75 (16,800) [½]
= ₹ 12,800 crore [½]
Q128.2025 Main 58/1/1 · Q15(b)4 marks
Explain the adjustment mechanism in case ex-ante savings are greater than ex-ante investments.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/1/1
When ex-ante savings are greater than ex-ante investments, it means households are planning to consume less than what the firms expected them to consume.
This will lead to unintended accumulation of inventories. To bring back the inventory to the desired level, producers may intend to decrease production in the economy. This mechanism will continue till the equilibrium is reinstated. (To be marked as a whole) [4]
Q129.2025 Main 58/2/1 · Q134 marks
(A) On the basis of the given image, explain the steps which may be taken by the Government of India to control the indicated macroeconomic issue.

(B) Define ‘Open Market Operations’.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(A) The highlighted issue is inflation. To control inflation, the government may:
- increase the tax rates which may decrease the disposable income (purchasing power) in the hands of the general public. Consequently, it may lead to a fall in Aggregate Demand, thereby correcting the situation of inflation. [1½]
- decrease the public expenditure which may decrease the level of income in the economy. Consequently, it may lead to a fall in Aggregate Demand, thereby correcting the situation of inflation. [1½]
(B) Open Market Operations refers to buying/selling of government securities by the Central Bank from/to the general public in the open market. [1]
Q130.2025 Main 58/2/1 · Q154 marks
Suppose for an economy, government proposes project for construction of expressways with an incremental investment of ₹ 1200 crore. Assuming, 80% of increase in income is spent on consumption.
Estimate the following on the basis of above information:
(a) Change in income (ΔY).
(b) Change in consumption (ΔC).
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/2/1
Given, Change in Investment (ΔI) = ₹ 1,200 crore
Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC) = 0.8
(a) As we know,
Investment Multiplier (K) = 1/(1 − MPC) [½]
= 1/(1 − 0.8) = 5 [½]
Change in Income (ΔY) = K × Change in Investment (ΔI) [½]
= 5 × 1,200 [½]
Change in Income (ΔY) = ₹ 6,000 crore
(b) Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC) = Change in Consumption (ΔC)/Change in Income (ΔY) [1]
0.8 = Change in Consumption (ΔC)/6,000 [½]
Change in Consumption (ΔC) = ₹ 4,800 crore [½]
Q131.2025 Main 58/4/1 · Q144 marks
Assuming for a hypothetical economy:
(i) Autonomous Consumption Expenditure (c̄) = ₹ 250 crore
(ii) Marginal Propensity to Save (MPS) = 0.2
(iii) Autonomous Investments (I0) = ₹ 200 crore
Estimate the Break-even level of Income and Equilibrium level of Income, on the basis of information given above.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/4/1
Given, Autonomous Consumption Expenditure (c̄) = ₹ 250 crore
Marginal Propensity to Save (MPS) = 0.2
Autonomous Investments (I0) = ₹ 200 crore
Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC) = 1 – MPS
= 1- 0.20 = 0.80
As we know, at Break-even level of income; Y = C [1]
Y = c̄ + (MPC) Y
Y = 250 + 0.80 Y [½]
Y = ₹ 1,250 crore [½]
At equilibrium level of income; Y = C + I [1]
Y = (250 + 0.80Y) + 200 [½]
Y = ₹ 2,250 crore [½]
Alternate Solution
As we know, at Break-even level of income; S = 0
S = - c̄ + (MPS) Y [1]
0 = - 250 + 0.20 Y [½]
Y = ₹ 1,250 crore [½]
As we know, at equilibrium; S = I [1]
-250 + 0.20 Y = 200 [½]
Y = ₹ 2,250 crore [½]
(Any other alternate solution to be awarded marks)
Q132.2025 Main 58/4/1 · Q154 marks
Read the following text carefully:
According to a report issued by a research organisation, there is a sharp decline in the overall demand in the economy, particularly in the private consumption segment. This dip in the macro economic variables, highlights the urgent need for strategic actions to stimulate economic activities.
On the basis of the given text and common understanding, explain the measure which the government may take to solve the indicated problem.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/4/1
The highlighted issue is deflation. To control deflation, the government may:
- decrease the tax rates which may increase the disposable income (purchasing power) in the hands of the general public. Consequently, it may lead to a rise in Aggregate Demand, thereby correcting the situation of deflation. [2]
- increase the public expenditure which may increase the level of income in the economy. Consequently, it may lead to a rise in Aggregate Demand, thereby correcting the situation of deflation. [2]
Q133.2025 Main 58/5/1 · Q144 marks
Suppose for two imaginary economies A and B, the value of Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC) stands at 0·8 and 0·6 respectively.
For both the economies, Autonomous Consumption (c̄) = ₹ 400 crore and Investment Expenditure (I) = ₹ 2,000 crore.
Calculate the following:
(a) Break-even level of income for Economy A.
(b) Equilibrium level of income for Economy B.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/5/1
Given,
Autonomous Consumption (c̄) = ₹ 400 crore
Investment expenditure (I) = ₹ 2,000 crore
For economy A, Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC) = 0.8
For economy B, Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC) = 0.6
(a) As we know, at break-even level for economy A; Y = C [1]
Y = c̄ + (MPC) Y
Y = 400 + 0.8Y [½]
Y = ₹ 2,000 crore [½]
(b) Equilibrium level of income for economy B; Y = C + I [1]
Y = c̄ + (MPC) Y + I
Y = 400 + 0.6Y + 2000 [½]
Y = ₹ 6,000 crore [½]
Q134.2025 Main 58/5/1 · Q154 marks
Read the following text carefully:
In an economy, a significant reduction in Aggregate demand raised concerns about future growth prospects of the country. This economic downturn underscores the urgent need for strategic measures to boost confidence of households and stimulate economic activities.
Based on the above text and common understanding, explain the measures which the government may take to stabilise the indicated situation.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/5/1
The highlighted issue is deflation. To control deflation, the government may:
- decrease the tax rates which may increase the disposable income (purchasing power) in the hands of the general public. Consequently, it may lead to a rise in Aggregate Demand, thereby correcting the situation of deflation. [2]
- increase the public expenditure which may increase the level of income in the economy. Consequently, it may lead to a rise in Aggregate Demand, thereby correcting the situation of deflation. [2]
Q135.2025 Main 58/6/1 · Q134 marks
(a) Estimate the value of Aggregate Demand (AD) in an imaginary economy: [3]
(i) Autonomous Investment (I0) = ₹ 100 crore
(ii) Marginal Propensity to Save (MPS) = 0.2
(iii) Level of Income (Y) = ₹ 4,000 crore
(iv) Autonomous Consumption Expenditure (c̅) = ₹ 50 crore
(b) State the meaning of propensity to consume. [1]
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/6/1
(a) Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC) = 1 – MPS
= 1 – 0.2 = 0.8
As we know, Aggregate Demand (AD) = C + I [1½]
= c̅ + (MPC) Y + I
= 50 + (0.8) x 4,000 + 100 [1]
= ₹ 3,350 crore [½]
(b) Propensity to Consume refers to tendency of individuals to spend a portion of their income on consumption. [1]
Q136.2025 Main 58/6/1 · Q14(a)4 marks
“An economy is operating at under-employment level of income.”
What does this situation indicate? Discuss any one fiscal measure to tackle this situation.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/6/1
The aforesaid situation indicates the problem of Deficient Demand. [1]
To tackle the situation of Deficient Demand in the economy, the government may decrease the tax rate which may increase the disposable income (purchasing power) in the hands of the general public. Consequently, it may lead to a rise in Aggregate Demand (AD), thereby correcting the situation of deficient demand. [3]
(Any other valid measure to be awarded marks)
Q137.2025 Main 58/6/1 · Q14(b)4 marks
Elaborate using a hypothetical numerical example, how a given initial increase in investment affects the level of final income of the economy.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/6/1
The working of the multiplier is based on the fact that one’s expenditure is another’s income. Suppose the increase in investment is (ΔI) by ₹ 1,000 crore and the Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC) is 0.8:
| Round | Increase in investment (ΔI) (in crore) | Increase in income (ΔY) (in crore) | Increase in consumption (ΔC) (in crore) | Increase in savings (ΔS) (in crore) |
|---|
| 1 | 1,000 | 1,000 | 800 | 200 |
| 2 | — | 800 | 640 | 160 |
| 3 | — | 640 | 512 | 128 |
| — | — | . | . | . |
| — | — | . | . | . |
| Total | 1,000 | 5,000 | 4,000 | 1,000 |
Thus, the above table reflects an increment in investment (ΔI) of ₹ 1,000 crore, which results in multiple effect on income. Thereby, increasing income to ₹ 5,000 crore. [4]
Working Note:
K = 1/(1 − MPC) = 1/(1 − 0.8) = 5
K = ΔY/ΔI
5 = ΔY/1,000
ΔY = ₹ 5,000 crore
(To be awarded as a whole)
(No marks to be awarded for working notes)
(Any other valid numerical example to be awarded marks)
Q138.2025 Main 58/7/1 · Q134 marks
(i) “In an economy, ex-ante investment (I) exceeds ex-ante savings (S).”
Explain the likely impact of the given situation on output, employment and income. [3]
(ii) Define excess demand. [1]
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/7/1
(i) When ex-ante investment (I) exceeds ex-ante savings (S) it means households are planning to consume more than what the firms expected them to consume. This will lead to unintended decumulation of inventories. To restore the desired/intended level of inventories, producers may expand production in the economy which may increase the output, employment and income level. [3] (To be marked as a whole)
(ii) Excess demand refers to a situation when Aggregate Demand (AD) exceeds Aggregate Supply (AS) corresponding to the full employment level of output. [1]
Q139.2025 Main 58/7/1 · Q154 marks
“Margin requirements are extremely helpful in correcting the situation of deflationary gap in an economy”.
Justify the given statement with valid arguments.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/7/1
Margin requirement refers to the difference between the amount of the loan and the value of the security offered by the borrower against the loan. To correct the situation of the deflationary gap, the Central Bank may reduce the margin requirement. It may lead to an increase in the amount of loan available on the security offered. This will increase the availability of credit and consequently, the Aggregate Demand in the economy will increase. Thus, by altering the margin requirements, the Central Bank can alter the amount of loans made against securities by the banks. [4] (To be marked as a whole)
Q140.2025 Supp 58/S/1 · Q13(b)4 marks
Assuming for a hypothetical economy, government induces an additional investment of ₹ 1,000 crore and 80 percent of additional income is spent on consumption.
Estimate the values of the following:
(i) Investment multiplier (K)
(ii) Change in income (ΔY)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Supplementary), Set 58/S/1
Given, Change in Investment (ΔI) = ₹ 1,000 crore
Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC) = 80% = 0.8
(i) Investment Multiplier (K) = 1/(1 − MPC) [1]
= 1/(1 − 0.8) [½]
= 5 [½]
(ii) Change in Income (ΔY) = K x ΔI [1]
= 5 x 1,000 [½]
= ₹ 5,000 crore [½]
Q141.2025 Supp 58/S/1 · Q144 marks
On the basis of the given figure, answer the following questions:

(a) Identify AB and CD curves. [1]
(b) Briefly discuss the reason for AB curve starting from point A (Y-intercept). [2]
(c) State the significance of OY level of income. [1]
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Supplementary), Set 58/S/1
(a) In the given figure:
- AB represents the Consumption Curve. [½]
- CD represents the Savings Curve. [½]
(b) Consumption curve (AB) starts from point A on the Y-axis, representing the Autonomous Consumption, which is the minimum level of consumption by households for their survival needs. It is the amount of consumption expenditure at zero level of income i.e. level of consumption which is independent of income. [2]
(c) At OY level of income, savings are zero as the consumption expenditure is exactly equal to income. This represents the Break-even level of income. [1]
Q142.2024 Main 58/1/1 · Q13(a)4 marks
Complete the following table. Construct/Express the Consumption function at ₹ 200 crore level of income.
| Income (Y) (in ₹ Crore) | Savings (in ₹ Crore) | Average Propensity to Consume (APC) | Marginal Propensity to Save (MPS) |
|---|
| 0 | (-) 30 | - | - |
| 100 | ……. | 1 | ……. |
| 200 | ……. | 0.85 | ……. |
| 300 | ……. | 0.8 | ……. |
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/1/1
| Income (Y) (in ₹ Crore) | Saving (in ₹ Crore) | Average Propensity to Consume (APC) | Marginal Propensity to Save (MPS) |
|---|
| 0 | (-) 30 | - | - |
| 100 | 0 | 1 | 0.3 |
| 200 | 30 | 0.85 | 0.3 |
| 300 | 60 | 0.8 | 0.3 |
[½ × 6 = 3]
Consumption function, C = c̄ + bY
C = 30 + 0.7Y [1]
(Alternate answer for which marks may be awarded-Consumption at ₹ 200 crore level of income = ₹ 170)
Working Note:
At an income level of ₹ 200 crore, Marginal Propensity to Save (MPS) = 0.3 and Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC) = 1- MPS ⇒ 1- 0.3 = 0.7
(Marks not to be deducted if working note is not given)
Q143.2024 Main 58/1/1 · Q13(b)4 marks
“In an economy, ex-ante Aggregate Supply is less than ex-ante Aggregate Demand.”
Explain its impact on the level of output, income and employment.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/1/1
In an economy, if ex-ante Aggregate Supply is less than ex-ante Aggregate Demand, it implies that households are planning to consume more than what the firms expected them to. This will lead to an unintended fall in inventories. To restore the desired level of inventories, producers may plan to expand production. As a result, there may be an increase in the level of output, employment and income in the economy. [4]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q144.2024 Main 58/2/1 · Q134 marks
For a hypothetical economy, assume the government increased an infrastructural investment by ₹10,000 crore. 80% of additional income is consumed in the economy. Estimate the increase in income and the corresponding increase in consumption expenditure in the economy.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/2/1
Given, ∆I = ₹ 10,000 crore
Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC) = 80% of additional income consumed i.e. 0.8
As we know,
K = 1/(1−MPC) [1]
= 1/(1−0.8) = 5 [½]
Increase in Income (∆Y) = K x ∆I [1]
= 5 x 10,000
= ₹ 50,000 crore [½]
MPC = ∆C/∆Y [½]
0.8 = ∆C/50,000
∆C = ₹ 40,000 crore [½]
Q145.2024 Main 58/2/1 · Q14(a)4 marks
“If actual demand for final goods falls short of the actual output of final goods corresponding to full employment level, it may lead to an unintended accumulation of inventories."
Do you agree with the given statement? Give valid reasons in support of your answer.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/2/1
Yes. If the actual demand for final goods falls short of the actual output corresponding to full employment level, it implies that demand by all the consumers and firms is less than the level of output produced at full employment level. Consequently, it may lead to an increase in the stock of unsold goods lying with the firms. Thereby, it may lead to an unintended accumulation of inventories. [4]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q146.2024 Main 58/2/1 · Q14(b)4 marks
Complete the following table. Construct the Consumption function at ₹ 200 crore level of income.
| Income (Y) (in ₹ Crore) | Savings (in ₹ Crore) | Average Propensity to Consume (APC) | Marginal Propensity to Save (MPS) |
|---|
| 0 | (-) 50 | - | - |
| 100 | ……. | 1 | ……. |
| 200 | ……. | 3/4 | ……. |
| 300 | ……. | 2/3 | ……. |
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/2/1
| Income (Y) (in ₹ Crore) | Saving (in ₹ Crore) | Average Propensity to Consume (APC) | Marginal Propensity to Save (MPS) |
|---|
| 0 | (-) 50 | - | - |
| 100 | 0 | 1 | 0.5 |
| 200 | 50 | 3/4 | 0.5 |
| 300 | 100 | 2/3 | 0.5 |
[½ × 6 = 3]
Consumption function, C = c̄ + bY
C = 50 + 0.5 Y [1]
(Alternate answer for which marks may be awarded-Consumption at ₹ 200 crore level of income = ₹ 150)
Working Note:
At an income level of ₹ 200 crore, Marginal Propensity to Save (MPS) = 0.5 and Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC) = 1- MPS ⇒ 1- 0.5 = 0.5
(Marks not to be deducted if working note is not given)
Q147.2024 Main 58/3/1 · Q134 marks
Elaborate the two components of Aggregate Supply in a two-sector economy.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/3/1
In a two-sector economy, Aggregate Supply comprises of:
- Consumption (C): It refers to the total value of final goods and services that the household sector is planning to buy, during a given period of time. There exists a direct relationship between Consumption (C) and Income (Y). [2]
- Savings (S): Savings is that part of income which is not consumed. There exists a direct relationship between Savings (S) and Income (Y). [2]
Q148.2024 Main 58/3/1 · Q154 marks
(a) For a hypothetical economy, the government incurs an additional investment expenditure of ₹ 5,000 crore. Assuming that the Marginal Propensity to Save (MPS) becomes half from its present level of 20%, estimate the change in income due to this fall in Marginal Propensity to Save (MPS). 3
(b) State the meaning of autonomous investment. 1
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/3/1
(a) Given, Change in Investment (ΔI) = ₹ 5,000 crore
| MPS | Investment Multiplier K = 1/MPS | Change in Income (ΔY) ΔY = K × ΔI (₹ in crore) | |
|---|
| 0.20 | 1/0.2 = 5 | 5 × 5,000 = 25,000 | [1] |
0.10 (½ × 20%) | 1/0.1 = 10 | 10 × 5,000 = 50,000 | [1] |
Hence, with the change in MPS from 0·20 to 0·10,
Increase in Income (ΔY) = 50,000 – 25,000 = ₹ 25,000 crore [1]
(b) Investments which are independent of the level of income in an economy, are known as Autonomous Investment. [1]
Q149.2024 Main 58/4/1 · Q134 marks
Suppose, the Indian Government decides to boost public investments with a defence project of ₹ 40,000 crore.
Explain the likely impacts of the given situation on the Income, Employment and Output of the economy, assuming all other factors constant.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/4/1
Assuming all other factors constant, any increase in investments generally leads to multiple increase in final income which in turn leads to increase in employment.
If the Indian government decides to infuse additional investment of ₹ 40,000 crore in the defence project, it would lead to increase in demand for goods and services leading to rise in output and employment, and consequent increase in income. [4]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q150.2024 Main 58/4/1 · Q15(a)4 marks
Suppose an economy is in equilibrium. From the following data, calculate Investment Expenditure in the economy:
(i) National Income = ₹ 40,000 crore
(ii) Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC) = 0.8
(iii) Autonomous Consumption (c̅) = ₹ 100 crore
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/4/1
Given, Y = ₹ 40,000 crore
Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC) = 0·8
Autonomous Consumption = ₹ 100 crore
At equilibrium level of income, Y = C + I [1]
Y = c̅ + (MPC)Y + I [1]
40,000 = 100 + (0.8) × 40,000 + I [1½]
Investment Expenditure (I) = 7,900 crore [½]
Q151.2024 Main 58/4/1 · Q15(b)4 marks
“With the objective to correct deflation, Reserve Bank of India may decrease the Bank rate.”
Discuss the rationale behind the step taken by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/4/1
To correct the situation of deflation, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) may decrease the bank rate, which may lead to a reduction in the lending rates by the commercial banks. This may make borrowing cheaper for the general public. Thereby, encouraging them to borrow more. As a result, Aggregate Demand in the economy may increase, consequently correcting the situation of deflation in the economy. [4]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q152.2024 Main 58/5/1 · Q134 marks
Suppose, an economy is in equilibrium. From the following data, calculate investment expenditure in the economy:
(a) National Income (Y) = ₹ 10,000 crore
(b) Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC) = 0.8
(c) Autonomous Consumption (c̅) = ₹100 crore
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/5/1
Given, National Income (Y) = ₹ 10,000 crore
Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC) = 0.8
Autonomous Consumption (c̅) = ₹ 100 crore
At equilibrium level of income, Y = C + I [1]
Y = c̅ + (MPC) Y + I [1]
10,000 = 100 + (0.8) × 10,000 + I [1½]
I = ₹ 1,900 crore [½]
Q153.2024 Main 58/5/1 · Q14(a)4 marks
(i) “With an objective to reduce inflation, government may reduce public Expenditure.”
Discuss the rationale behind such a step which may be taken by the Government. 3
(ii) Define Effective Demand Principle. 1
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(i) Government through its public expenditure policy can control the situation of inflation. Reduced public expenditure by the government will lead to a fall in the money supply in an economy. Consequently, it leads to a reduction in the level of Aggregate Demand. This helps to tackle the situation of inflation prevailing in the economy. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
(ii) Effective Demand Principle indicates that level of Aggregate Demand which can be met by the corresponding Aggregate Supply in the economy. [1]
Q154.2024 Main 58/5/1 · Q14(b)4 marks
(i) State the meaning of ‘unintended accumulation of inventories’. 1
(ii) “In an economy, Aggregate Demand (AD) is more than Aggregate Supply (AS).”
Elaborate the possible impacts of the same, on the level of output, income and employment. 3
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(i) Unintended accumulation of inventories refers to an increase in the stock of unsold goods with the firms due to an unexpected fall in sales. [1]
(ii) When Aggregate Demand is more than Aggregate Supply, it implies that households are planning to consume more than what the firms expected them to. This will lead to an unintended fall in inventories. To restore the desired level of inventories, producers may plan to expand production. As a result, there may be an increase in the level of output, employment and income in the economy. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q155.2024 Supp 58/S/1 · Q13(a)4 marks
Assume the following for a hypothetical economy:
(i) Autonomous Consumption Expenditure (C̅) = ₹ 25 crore
(ii) Marginal Propensity to Save (MPS) = 0.1
(iii) Level of Income (Y) = ₹ 2,000 crore
(iv) Autonomous Investment (I) = ₹ 25 crore
Is the economy in equilibrium situation? Justify your answer with valid calculations.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Supplementary), Set 58/S/1
Given, Autonomous Consumption Expenditure (C̅) = ₹ 25 crore
Marginal Propensity to Save (MPS) = 0.1
Level of Income (Y) = ₹ 2,000 crore
Autonomous Investment (I) = ₹ 25 crore
Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC) = 1 − MPS
1 − 0.1 = 0.9
At equilibrium level of income, Y = C + I [1]
Substituting the value of Y in (C + I)
C + I = C̅ + (MPC)Y + I [1]
= 25 + 0.9 × 2000 + 25 [½]
= 1,850 crore [½]
Y > C + I at an income level of 2,000 crore. [½]
Thus, the economy is not in equilibrium at an income level of 2,000 crore. [½]
Alternative answer:
At equilibrium level of income, S = I [1]
Substituting the value of Y in S
S = −C̅ + (MPS)Y [1]
= −25 + 0.1 × 2000 [½]
= 175 crore [½]
S > I at an income level of 2,000 crore. [½]
Thus, the economy is not in equilibrium at an income level of 2,000 crore. [½]
Q156.2024 Supp 58/S/1 · Q13(b)4 marks
“When ex-ante Aggregate Demand (AD) falls short of ex-ante Aggregate Supply (AS) it results in fall in unintended inventories.”
Defend or refute the given statement, giving valid arguments.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Supplementary), Set 58/S/1
The given statement is refuted.
If ex-ante Aggregate Demand falls short of ex-ante Aggregate Supply, it implies that households and firms are planning to buy less than what the firms expected them to. As a result, inventories will be piled up with the producers, which may lead to unintended accumulation of inventories. [4]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q157.2024 Supp 58/S/1 · Q154 marks
Study the following image:

(i) Identify the indicated situation.
(ii) Explain any two steps which may be taken by RBI to correct the situation.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Supplementary), Set 58/S/1
(i) The above image indicates the situation of inflation. [1]
(ii) To combat the situation of inflation, the two steps taken by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) may be:
- The Government Securities are sold by the RBI in the open market. It will reduce the availability of funds with commercial banks, which in turn curtails their lending capacity. Consequently, the money supply in the economy falls. Thereby, decreasing Aggregate Demand and thus reducing inflation in the economy. [1½]
- The increase in the Bank Rate by the RBI, leads to an increase in the lending rates by the commercial banks. This makes borrowing costlier for the general public. Thereby, discouraging them from borrowing more. As a result, Aggregate Demand in the economy falls, consequently reducing inflation. [1½]
(Any other valid step to be awarded marks)
Q158.2023 Main 58/1/1 · Q134 marks
Describe the adjustment mechanism, if ex-ante savings are less than ex-ante investments.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/1/1
If ex-ante savings are less than ex-ante investments, it means that the buyers are intending to buy more than what the producers are intending to produce. Thus, the inventories will fall below the desired level. To restore the desired level of inventories, producers may intend to increase output and employment in the economy. This mechanism will continue till the equilibrium is reinstated.
(To be marked as a whole)
Q159.2023 Main 58/2/1 · Q14(a)4 marks
"In an economy ex-ante Aggregate Demand is more than ex-ante Aggregate Supply."
Explain its impact on the level of output, income and employment.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/2/1
When ex-ante Aggregate Demand is more than ex-ante Aggregate Supply, it means that households are planning to consume more than what the firms expect them to. This will lead to unintended fall in inventories. To restore the desired /intended level of inventories, producers may expand production. As a result, there may be an increase in the level of output, employment and income in the economy.
(To be marked as a whole)
Q160.2023 Main 58/2/1 · Q14(b)4 marks
For a hypothetical economy, assuming there is an increase in the Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC) from 75% to 90% and change in investment to be ₹1,000 crore.
Using the concept of investment multiplier, calculate the increase in income due to change in Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC).
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/2/1
Given, Change in Investment (ΔI) = ₹ 1,000 crore
| MPC | Investment Multiplier K = 1/(1−MPC) | Change in Income (ΔY) ΔY = K x ΔI (₹ in crore) |
|---|
| 0.75 | 1/(1− 0.75) = 4 | 4 x 1,000 = 4,000 [1½] |
| 0.90 | 1/(1− 0.90) = 10 | 10 x 1,000 = 10,000 [1½] |
Hence, with the change in MPC from 0·75 to 0·90
Increase in income = 10,000 – 4,000 = ₹ 6,000 crore [1]
Q161.2023 Main 58/3/1 · Q134 marks
Suppose the following information is given about a hypothetical economy:
C = 100 +0.75 Y (where, C = Consumption and Y = Income)
Io=200 (Io = Autonomous Investment)
Calculate the following on the basis of the given information:
(a) Equilibrium Level of Income
(b) Aggregate Demand at Equilibrium Level of Income
(c) Marginal Propensity to Save
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/3/1
Given, C = 100 + 0.75Y; Io = 200
(a) We know that;
At equilibrium level of income
Y = C+I [½]
Y = (100 + 0.75Y) + 200 [½]
0.25Y = 300 [½]
Y = 1,200 [½]
(b) At the Equilibrium level of income
AD = Y [½]
∴ AD = 1,200 [½]
(c) MPS = 1 – MPC [½]
MPS = 1 – 0.75 = 0.25 [½]
(Any other valid method to be allotted marks)
Q162.2023 Main 58/3/1 · Q14(b)4 marks
Suppose an imaginary economy is facing a situation of deficient demand in the short run time period.
Discuss briefly, the probable impacts of the same on the economy.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/3/1
Deficient Demand may have an adverse impact on output, employment and income level.
As Aggregate Demand is less than Aggregate Supply at full employment level of income, this may lead to unintended accumulation of inventories. To restore desired/intended level of inventories, producers may contract production which in turn may reduce the employment, output, and income level in the economy. Lack of demand for goods and services may also lead to a fall in the general price level in the economy.
(To be marked as a whole)
Q163.2023 Main 58/4/1 · Q134 marks
Suppose consumption function for an economy is C = 80 + 0.75 Y (where C = consumption function and Y = national income) and the investment expenditure is ₹ 200 crore.
Estimate the following:
(a) Equilibrium level of income
(b) Values of consumption and saving at equilibrium level of income
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/4/1
Given, C = 80 + 0.75Y
I = 200 crore
As we know, at the equilibrium level, Y = C+I [½]
Y=(80 + 0.75Y) + 200 [1]
Y= 280/0.25 = ₹ 1,120 crore [½]
At equilibrium level of Income; Y = 1,120 crore
C = 80 + 0.75 (1120) [½]
C = 920 crore [½]
Y=C+S [½]
S=1120-920 = 200 crore [½]
(Any other valid calculation/method to be allotted marks correctly)
Q164.2023 Main 58/4/1 · Q144 marks
Discuss briefly, how the government can control the situation of deflation using the following:
(a) Taxation Policy
(b) Government Expenditure Policy
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(a) Taxation Policy: To control deflation, the government may reduce the tax rates. This step may increase the disposable income (purchasing power) in the hands of the general public. Consequently, it may lead to a rise in Aggregate Demand, thereby controlling the situation of deflation. [2]
(b) Government Expenditure Policy: To control deflation, the government may raise public expenditure. This step may result in an increase in the level of Aggregate Demand in the economy by raising the income of people. [2]
(To be marked as whole)
Q165.2023 Main 58/5/1 · Q134 marks
If planned savings exceeds planned investments in an economy, explain its likely impact on income, output and employment.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/5/1
When planned savings exceeds planned investments it means households are planning to consume less than what the firms expected them to consume.
This will lead to unintended accumulation of inventories. To restore the desired/intended level of inventories, producers may contract production which in turn reduces the employment, output and income level. [4]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q166.2023 Supp 58/C/1 · Q13(a)4 marks
State the meaning of the following:
(i) Investment multiplier
(ii) Full employment
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Supplementary), Set 58/C/1
(i) Investment multiplier is the ratio of the total change in final income to a given change in initial investment. [2]
(ii) Full employment refers to a situation where all those who are willing and able to work at the prevailing wage rate, are getting work. [2]
Q167.2023 Supp 58/C/1 · Q13(b)4 marks
Describe the adjustment mechanism, if ex-ante aggregate demand (AD) is less than ex-ante aggregate supply (AS).
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Supplementary), Set 58/C/1
When ex-ante Aggregate Demand (AD) is less than ex-ante Aggregate Supply (AS), it means that households are planning to consume lesser than what the firms expect them to. This may lead to the unintended accumulation of inventories.
To bring back the inventories to the desired level, producers may reduce output (AS) till it becomes equal to the Aggregate Demand and there is no further tendency to change. [4]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q168.2023 Supp 58/C/1 · Q144 marks
From the following data about an economy, calculate:
(a) Equilibrium level of national income
(b) Total consumption expenditure at equilibrium level of national income
(i) C = 200 + 0.75 Y, where C = Consumption, Y = Income
(ii) Investment expenditure (I0) = ₹ 4,000 crore
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Supplementary), Set 58/C/1
(a) Given, C = 200 + 0.75 Y
Investment expenditure (Io) = ₹ 4,000 crore
As we know that, at equilibrium; Y = C + I [½]
Y = (200 + 0.75 Y) + 4000 [½]
0.25Y = 4200 [½]
Y = 4200/0.25
Y = ₹ 16,800 crore [½]
(b) Total consumption expenditure at equilibrium level of national income
C = c̄ + bY
= 200 + 0.75 (16800) [1]
= 200 + 12600 [½]
= ₹ 12,800 crore [½]
Q169.SQP 2025-26 · Q154 marks
Refer to the given image carefully:

Explain any two indicated measures taken by the Central Bank to control the highlighted macroeconomic issue.
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 · Marking Scheme
To deal with the situation of highlighted macroeconomic issue i.e. inflation, the Central Bank may use the following measures:
- Repo Rate: A rise in repo rate will force the commercial banks to increase the lending rates, making the credit dearer for the general public, discouraging the borrowings. Consequently, Aggregate Demand will fall thus correcting the problem of inflation in the economy. [2]
- Open Market Operations: The Central Bank can sell government securities in the open market, thereby, reducing the availability of funds with the commercial banks for lending. Consequently, Aggregate Demand will fall thus correcting the problem of inflation in the economy. [2]
Q170.SQP 2026-27 · Q154 marks
Assuming for a hypothetical simplified economy,
Consumption function, C = 150 + 0.8 Y
Autonomous Investment (Io) = 250
Full employment level of income (Yf) = 1,600
(I) Determine the equilibrium level of income.
(II) Outline whether the economy is facing the situation of excess demand or deficient demand and state its impact on the level of output, employment and general price level in the economy.
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 · Marking Scheme
Given,
Consumption function, C = 150 + 0.8 Y
Autonomous Investment (Io) = 250
Full employment level of income (Yf) = 1,600
(I) At equilibrium level of income, Y = C + I [1]
Y = 150 + 0.8Y + 250 [½]
0.2Y = 400
Y = 2,000 [½]
(II) The economy is facing the problem of excess demand as equilibrium level of income (2,000) is greater than the given full employment level of income (1,600). [1]
The situation of Excess Demand will lead to an increase in General Price Level in the economy with no change in the level of output and employment. [1]
Q171.2022 Main 58/1/1 · Q105 marks
‘India has been dealing with the problem of Deficient Demand, since the imposition of Covid lockdown in March 2020’.
State and discuss any two monetary policy measures to combat the situation of Deficient Demand in India.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 58/1/1
Two monetary measures which may be used to solve the problem of deficient demand are:
(i) Under Deficient Demand situation, the Central Bank may reduce the bank rate, which further decreases the lending rates of commercial banks. This induces the public to borrow more funds and ultimately leads to an increase in Aggregate Demand [2½]
(ii) Under Deficient Demand situation, the Central Bank may purchase securities from open market. It will increase the money supply in the hands of the public and enhances the purchasing power and ultimately increases level of Aggregate Demand in the economy. [2½]
(any other monetary measure to be awarded marks)
Q172.2022 Main 58/3/1 · Q125 marks
State and discuss any two monetary tools to control inflationary pressures in the economy.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 58/3/1
Two monetary measures to control inflationary pressures in the economy are
(i) INCREASE IN REPO RATE: To deal with the situation of inflation, the Central Bank may increase the repo rate. An increase in repo rate may force the commercial banks to increase their lending rates which may make borrowing costlier to the general public. Consequently, Aggregate Demand may fall and help in controlling inflationary pressures in the economy. [2½]
(ii) INCREASE IN REVERSE REPO RATE: To deal with the situation of inflation, reverse repo rate may be increased by the Central Bank. It may encourage the commercial banks to park their surplus funds with Central Bank. As a result, credit creating capacity of the commercial banks may be reduced. Consequently, Aggregate Demand may fall and help in controlling inflationary pressures in the economy. [2½]
(any other tool with relevant explanation)
Q173.2022 Main 58/4/1 · Q115 marks
Explain the concept of deficient demand. How can government spending policy be helpful in correcting the situation of deficient demand?
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 58/4/1
Deficient demand refers to a situation when Aggregate Demand falls short of Aggregate Supply corresponding to full employment level of output in an economy. [2]
The government may plan to increase its spending, to correct deficient demand. This may lead to increase in disposable income (purchasing power) in the hands of the general public. Thus, Aggregate Demand will rise and deficient demand will be managed accordingly. [3]
Q174.2022 Main 58/5/1 · Q115 marks
‘Investment multiplier and Marginal Propensity to Consume are directly related to each other.’
Explain with the help of numerical example.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 58/5/1
Investment multiplier (K) and Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC) are directly related.
Now, suppose the value of MPC = 0·6
Then, the value of K = 1/(1 − MPC) [1]
= 1/(1 − 0·6) = 1/0·4 = 2.5 [1½]
If the value of MPC changes from 0.6 to 0.8 then,
the value of K = 1/(1 − 0·8) = 1/0·2 = 5 [1½]
Thus, it is clear from illustration mentioned above that there exists direct relation between MPC and investment multiplier. As MPC increases the value of investment multiplier also increases. [1]
(any other valid point/reason/argument/example should be awarded marks accordingly)
Q175.2022 Supp 58/6/1 · Q125 marks
Explain any two fiscal measures to correct the situation of deficient demand.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Supplementary), Set 58/6/1
Two fiscal measures which may be used to solve the problem of deficient demand are:
(i) Decrease in taxes may lead to an increase in the money at the disposal of the public. In turn, this may push the consumption and investment expenditure in the economy, thereby correcting the deficient demand. [2½]
(ii) Increase in government expenditure may increase the purchasing power in the hands of the public. This may increase the aggregate expenditure in the economy, thereby correcting the deficient demand. [2½]
Q176.2026 Main 58/1/1 · Q16(a)6 marks
“Income of an economy increased from ₹ 20,000 to ₹ 50,000 crore. Savings of the economy increased from ₹ 2,000 crore to ₹ 10,000 crore.”
(i) Calculate Average Propensity to Consume (APC) and Average Propensity to Save (APS), before and after the rise in income. [4]
(ii) Draw appropriate conclusion regarding the behaviour of Average Propensity to Consume (APC) as his income increases. [2]
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(i)
| Income (Y) (in ₹ crore) | Savings (S) (in ₹ crore) | Consumption (C = Y - S) (in ₹ crore) | APC (C/Y) | APS (S/Y) |
|---|
| 20,000 | 2,000 | 18,000 | 18000/20000 = 0.9 | 2000/20000 = 0.1 |
| 50,000 | 10,000 | 40,000 | 40000/50000 = 0.8 | 10000/50000 = 0.2 |
[1+1] (first row), [1+1] (second row)
(Any other valid alternative solution to be awarded marks)
(ii) From the given data, it can be concluded that as income increases from ₹ 20,000 to ₹ 50,000 crore, value of Average Propensity to Consume (APC) falls from 0.9 to 0.8, thereby establishing an inverse relationship between the level of income and APC. [2]
Q177.2026 Main 58/1/1 · Q16(b)6 marks
“Under a study, examining the spending habits of a hypothetical economy, it was observed that even households with zero income managed to consume basic necessities.
As the income of people increased, their consumption also increased, but not as rapidly as income.”
Based on the given text and common understanding, answer the following questions:
(i) Identify and elaborate the type of consumption indicated in the first para of the above text. [3]
(ii) Explain, the reason behind the positive slope of Aggregate Demand Curve. [3]
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(i) The type of consumption indicated in the above paragraph is Autonomous Consumption. [1]
Autonomous Consumption is independent of level of income. Autonomous Consumption signifies the minimum level of consumption which is essential for survival. [2]
(ii) Aggregate Demand (AD) is the sum of consumption and investment. Based on the assumption that, investment is autonomous, thereby, when income rises, consumption also rises, which leads to a rise in Aggregate Demand. Hence, Aggregate Demand curve slopes upward, reflecting a direct relationship between income and Aggregate Demand. [3]
Q178.2026 Main 58/2/1 · Q16(a)6 marks
(I) Estimate the value of subsistence level of consumption expenditure from the following data about an economy which is in equilibrium: [3]
(i) National Income (Y) = ₹ 1,200 crore
(ii) Marginal Propensity to Save (MPS) = 0.20
(iii) Investment Expenditure (Ī) = ₹ 100 crore
(II) “An economy facing an increase in unintended accumulation of inventories would try to reduce Aggregate Demand.”
Defend or refute the above statement with valid arguments. [3]
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(I) Given, National Income (Y) = ₹ 1,200 crore
Marginal Propensity to Save (MPS) = 0.20
Investment Expenditure (Ī) = ₹ 100 crore
Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC) = 1 – MPS
= 1 – 0.2
= 0.8
As we know, at equilibrium level of income, Y = C + I
Y = c̄ + (MPC)Y + Ī [1½]
1,200 = c̄ + (0.8 x 1,200) + 100 [1]
c̄ = ₹ 140 crore [½]
(Any other valid alternate solution to be awarded marks)
(II) The given statement is refuted. An unintended accumulation of inventories reflects that the households and firms are planning to consume less than what the firms are planning to produce. Thus, the producers may reduce the output to clear the undesired stock of inventories. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
(Any other valid argument/explanation to be awarded marks)
Q179.2026 Main 58/2/1 · Q16(b)6 marks
(I) Complete the following table: [3]
| Situation | Change in Investment (ΔI) | Change in Income (ΔY) | Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC) | Investments Multiplier (K) |
|---|
| (a) | 200 | (i) | 0.8 | (ii) |
| (b) | (iii) | 2000 | (iv) | 4 |
| (c) | 1000 | (v) | 0.5 | (vi) |
(II) Identify the monetary measures being referred to in the following statements. Discuss whether the tool would be used during a situation of excess demand or deficient demand. [3]
(i) Selling off government securities (G-Sec) to public by the central bank.
(ii) Encourage commercial banks to park their surplus funds with the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(I)
| Situation | Change in Investment (ΔI) | Change in Income (ΔY) | Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC) | Investments Multiplier (K) |
|---|
| (a) | 200 | 1000 | 0.8 | 5 |
| (b) | 500 | 2000 | 0.75 | 4 |
| (c) | 1000 | 2000 | 0.5 | 2 |
[½x6 =3]
(II) (i) The monetary measure being referred to in the aforesaid statement is ‘Open Market Operations.’ [½]
The Central Bank sells the government securities in the open market to reduce the money supply in the economy and correct the situation of excess demand. [1]
(ii) The monetary measure being indicated in the above statement is Reverse Repo Rate. [½]
To deal with the situation of excess demand the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) may increase the Reverse Repo Rate thereby reducing the lending capacity of the commercial banks, reducing the money supply and Aggregate Demand in the economy. [1]
Q180.2026 Main 58/5/1 · Q16(a)6 marks
Assume, for a hypothetical economy, the following data is given:
| Income (Y) | Consumption (C) | Investment (I) | Aggregate Demand (AD) |
|---|
| 0 | 40 | 20 | 60 |
| 100 | 120 | 20 | - |
| 200 | 200 | 20 | - |
| 300 | 280 | 20 | 300 |
(i) Calculate the missing values in the given schedule.
(ii) Define the term ‘Effective Demand’.
(iii) On the basis of the given data, it can be said that the equilibrium level of income is 200.
Do you agree? If not, explain the adjustment mechanism that may take place to attain equilibrium level of income.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(i)
| Income (Y) | Consumption (C) | Investment (I) | Aggregate Demand (AD) | Marks |
|---|
| 0 | 40 | 20 | 60 | |
| 100 | 120 | 20 | 140 | ½ |
| 200 | 200 | 20 | 220 | ½ |
| 300 | 280 | 20 | 300 | |
(ii) Effective Demand refers to that level of Aggregate Demand (AD) which can be met by the corresponding Aggregate Supply (AS) in the economy. [2]
(iii) No. At 200 level of Income (Y), Aggregate Demand (AD) is greater than the Aggregate Supply (AS).
When ex-ante Aggregate Demand is more than ex-ante Aggregate Supply, it means that the households and firms are planning to consume more than what the firms are planning to produce. Thus, the inventories with the producers will fall below the desired level. As a result, the producers may increase the output to restore the desired stock of inventories till the equilibrium level of output is attained. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q181.2026 Main 58/5/1 · Q16(b)6 marks
Suppose, in an economy, every ₹ 1 increase in investment expenditure leads to an increase of ₹ 4 in the National Income.
Calculate the following:
(i) Value of Investment Multiplier (K).
(ii) Change in consumption expenditure, if the income changes from ₹ 400 to ₹ 500.
(iii) “Sum of Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC) and Marginal Propensity to Save (MPS) is always equal to one.”
Justify the given statement with the help of a suitable argument.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(i) Given, Change in Investment Expenditure (ΔI) = ₹ 1
Change in National Income (ΔY) = ₹ 4
Investment Multiplier (K) = ΔY/ΔI [½]
= 4/1 = 4 [½]
(ii) Given, Income (Y) changes from ₹ 400 to ₹ 500
Change in Income (ΔY) = 100
Investment Multiplier (K) = 1/(1 − MPC)
4 = 1/(1 − MPC) [1]
MPC = 0.75 [½]
As we know, MPC = ΔC/ΔY [1]
Change in Consumption (ΔC) = 0.75 × 100
= ₹ 75 [½]
(iii) We know that, Income earned may either be consumed or saved, i.e.;
Y = C + S [½]
Change in Income (ΔY) = Change in Consumption (ΔC) + Change in Savings (ΔS)
ΔY = ΔC + ΔS [½]
Dividing both sides of the above equation by ΔY
ΔY/ΔY = ΔC/ΔY + ΔS/ΔY [½]
1 = MPC + MPS [½]
Thus, the sum of Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC) and Marginal Propensity to Save (MPS) is always equal to one.
Q182.2026 Supp 58/7/1 · Q16(a)6 marks
(i) ‘‘Suppose, in an economy, a given rise in investment expenditure results in a five-fold increase in National Income.’’
Calculate the rise in the investment expenditure if the change in income was ₹ 2,000 crore.
(ii) Explain any one fiscal measure which the government of the nation can initiate to curtail the situation of inflationary gap in the economy.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Supplementary), Set 58/7/1
(i) Given,
Investment Multiplier (K) = 5
Change in Income (ΔY) = ₹ 2,000 crore
ΔY = 5 × Change in Investment (ΔI) [1½]
2000 = 5 × ΔI [1]
Change in Investment (ΔI) = ₹ 400 crore [½]
(ii) To curtail the situation of inflation, the government may increase the tax rates which may decrease the disposable income (purchasing power) in the hands of the general public. Consequently, it may lead to a fall in Aggregate Demand, thereby correcting the inflationary gap. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
(Any other valid measure to be awarded marks)
Q183.2026 Supp 58/7/1 · Q16(b)6 marks
(i) In a hypothetical economy, whenever the income increases, savings of the households increase by 20%. Their consumption expenditure which is independent of the level of income is ₹ 200 crore. The autonomous investment expenditure is ₹ 100 crore. Calculate the Equilibrium level of Income.
(ii) The Central Bank announced that it will conduct auctions of government securities (G-Sec) for a total of ₹ 80,000 crore through open market operations.
In the light of the information given above, analyse the likely impact of such open market operations of the Central Bank on the aggregate demand of the Indian economy.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Supplementary), Set 58/7/1
(i) Given, Marginal Propensity to Save (MPS) = 0.2
Consumption which is independent of level of income (C̄) = ₹ 200 crore
Autonomous investment expenditure (I) = ₹ 100 crore
Marginal Propensity to Consume = 1 – Marginal Propensity to Save (MPS)
= 1 – 0.2
= 0.8
As we know that, at equilibrium level of income; Y = C + I [1]
Y = C̄ + (MPC)Y + I [½]
Y = 200 + 0.8Y + 100 [1]
Y = ₹ 1,500 crore [½]
(ii) The proposed auction of government securities (G-Sec) by the Central Bank, worth ₹ 80,000 crore through Open Market Operations (OMO), will lead to fall in the availability of funds with the commercial banks. Consequently, lending capacity of commercial banks will fall leading to decrease in the money supply, which will in turn reduce the Aggregate Demand in the economy. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q184.2025 Main 58/1/1 · Q166 marks
Read the following text carefully:
Union Food and Consumer Affairs Minister said that the Central Government has taken many proactive steps in the past few years to control retail prices of food items. He said that the government aims to keep inflation under control without compromising the country’s economic growth. Retail inflation inched up to a three-month high of 5.55% in November 2023 driven by higher food prices. Inflation has been declining since August 2023, when it touched 6.83%. 140 new price monitoring centres had been set up by the Central Government to keep a close watch on wholesale and retail prices of essential commodities.
The Government has banned the export of many food items like wheat, broken rice, non-basmati white rice, onions etc. It has also reduced import duties on edible oils and pulses to boost domestic supply and control price rise.
On the basis of the given text and common understanding, answer the following questions:
(a) Mention the number of new price monitoring centres set up by government.
(b) State any two proactive measures taken by government to boost domestic supply and reduction in prices.
(c) Explain any one monetary measure used to control inflation.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(a) 140 new price monitoring centres had been set up by the Central Government. [1]
(b) Two proactive measures taken by government to boost domestic supply and reduction in prices are:
- Ban on the export of many food items. [1]
- Reduction in import duties on edible oils and pulses. [1]
(c) To deal with the situation of inflation, the Central Bank may increase the repo rate.
An increase in repo rate will force commercial banks to increase their lending rates making the credit costlier. Thereby, discouraging the borrowings by the general public and leading to a subsequent fall in the Aggregate Demand. Thus, controlling the problem of inflation in the economy. (To be marked as a whole) [3]
(Any other valid measure to be awarded marks)
Q185.SQP 2025-26 · Q16(a)6 marks
(I) Suppose in an economy, the Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC) is 0.8. The government introduced an investment project of ₹ 1,000 crore which led to a manyfold increase in National Income (Y) and Consumption Expenditure (C). [3]
Estimate:
(a) Value of Investment Multiplier (k)
(b) Missing Values of (i) and (ii)
| Rounds | Change in Investment (ΔI) | Change in Income (ΔY) | Change in Consumption (ΔC) | Change in Savings (ΔS) |
|---|
| I | 1,000 | 1,000 | 800 | 200 |
| II | | 800 | 640 | 160 |
| … | | … | … | … |
| … | | … | … | … |
| | (i) | (ii) | 1,000 |
(II) “Sum of the Average Propensity to Consume (APC) and Average Propensity to Save (APS) is always equal to one.”
Justify the given statement with the help of a suitable argument. [3]
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 · Marking Scheme
(I) (a) Investment Multiplier (k) = 1/(1 − MPC) [½]
= 1/(1 − 0.8) = 5 [½]
(b) (i) Change in Income (ΔY) = k x ΔI [½]
= 5 x 1,000 = ₹ 5,000 crore [½]
(ii) Change in Consumption (ΔC) = MPC x ΔY [½]
= 0.8 x 5,000 = ₹ 4,000 crore [½]
(II) Income is either consumed or saved, i.e.;
Y = C + S -------- (i)
Dividing both sides of the equation (i) by Y
Y/Y = C/Y + S/Y
1 = APC + APS
Thus, sum of the Average Propensity to Consume (APC) and Average Propensity to Save (APS) is always equal to one. [3]
Q186.SQP 2025-26 · Q16(b)6 marks
(I) Suppose in a hypothetical economy, people save 20% of their additional income. Ex-Ante Investments equals ₹ 100 and the equilibrium level of income stands at ₹ 700. Calculate dissavings at zero level of income. [2]
(II) Define Effective Demand. Explain the adjustment mechanism to attain the level of Effective Demand, if ex-ante Aggregate Demand is more than ex-ante Aggregate Supply. [4]
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 · Marking Scheme
(I) Given, Marginal Propensity to Save (MPS) = 20% = 0.2
Ex-Ante Investments (I) = ₹ 100
Equilibrium level of Income (Y) = ₹ 700
As we know, at Equilibrium level of Income; S = I [½]
-C̅ + (MPS) Y = I [½]
-C̅ + (0.2) 700 = 100 [½]
- C̅ = - 40 [½]
Thus, dissavings at zero level of income = ₹ 40
(II) Effective Demand refers to that level of Aggregate Demand, which can be met by the corresponding Aggregate Supply in the economy. [1]
If ex-ante Aggregate Demand is more than ex-ante Aggregate Supply, it means that the households and firms are planning to consume more than what the firms intend to produce. Thus, the inventories will fall below the desired level. To restore the desired level of inventories, producers may increase output and employment in the economy. This mechanism will continue till the equilibrium is reinstated and effective demand can be restored. [3]
Q187.SQP 2026-27 · Q17(a)6 marks
(I) State and explain the two components of Consumption Function.
(II) After assessing prevailing liquidity and financial conditions, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on December 23, 2025, announced that it would conduct Open Market Operations (OMO) purchase auctions of Government of India securities totalling ₹ 2,00,000 crore (USD 22.34 billion).
Briefly state the rationale behind the step taken by the Reserve Bank of India. Explain its implications on Aggregate Demand.
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 · Marking Scheme
(I) Two components of Consumption Function are:
- Autonomous Consumption: It refers to the minimum level of consumption that takes place even when income is zero. [½ + 1]
- Induced Consumption: It refers to that part of consumption which varies directly with the level of income. [½ + 1]
(II) The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) announced on December 23, 2025, that it would carry out Open Market Operations (OMO) purchase auctions of Government of India securities worth ₹2,00,000 crore to address the situation of deflation. [1]
By purchasing government securities in the open market, the RBI aims to infuse more liquidity, which increases the availability of funds with the commercial banks for lending. As a result, this may lead to increase in Aggregate Demand. [2]
Q188.SQP 2026-27 · Q17(b)6 marks
(I) State whether the following statements are true or false, giving valid reasons in support of your answer:
(a) Average Propensity to Consume (APC) at break-even level of income is always equal to one.
(b) When ex-ante savings is more than ex-ante investments, it may lead to decumulation of inventories.
(II) The Aggregate Demand curve becomes distant from the Investment Curve with the increase in the level of income.
Defend or refute the given statement, giving valid reasons in support of your answer.
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 · Marking Scheme
(I) (a) True. At the break-even level of income, consumption is equal to income and savings are zero. Average Propensity to Consume (APC) is consumption per unit of income (APC = C/Y). Therefore, at the break-even level of income when C = Y, APC becomes 1. [2]
(b) False. When ex-ante savings exceeds ex-ante investments it means households are planning to consume less than what the firms expected them to consume. This will lead to unintended accumulation of inventories. [2]
(II) The given statement is defended. The vertical distance between the Aggregate Demand (AD) curve and the Investment curve is represented by consumption. With the increase in income as the investment remains constant, whereas, induced consumption increases. Thereby, Aggregate Demand curve becomes distant from the Investment Curve. [2]
Part A · Introductory Macroeconomics
4. Government Budget and the Economy
Q1.2026 Main 58/3/1 · Q11 mark
Read the following statements: Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose the correct option from those given below:
Assertion (A): Borrowing requirements of the government include interest obligations on debt as well.
Reason (R): The goal of measuring primary deficit is to correct the prevailing fiscal imbalances.
Options:
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
- Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/3/1
(C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
Q2.2026 Main 58/3/1 · Q81 mark
“Consumption of a good by a person does not reduce the amount available for consumption by others. Consumers consuming such goods are known as free-riders.”
Identify the type of goods indicated in the above text.
Options:
- Public goods
- Private goods
- Joint venture goods
- Self-consumption goods
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/3/1
(A) Public goods
Q3.2025 Main 58/1/1 · Q61 mark
Read the following statements: Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose the correct option from those given below:
Assertion (A): Public goods are those goods that are collectively consumed by the public.
Reason (R): Public goods are excludable and rivalrous in nature.
Options:
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
- Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
Q4.2025 Main 58/1/1 · Q101 mark
From the set of terms given in Column-I and Column-II, choose the correct pair:
| Column-I | Column-II |
|---|
| (a) Non-tax Revenue | (i) Goods and Services Tax |
| (b) Indirect Tax | (ii) Free-rider |
| (c) Capital expenditure | (iii) Borrowings |
| (d) Private goods | (iv) Rivalrous in nature |
Options:
- (a) - (i)
- (b) - (ii)
- (c) - (iii)
- (d) - (iv)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(D) (d) – (iv)
Q5.2025 Main 58/2/1 · Q21 mark
Identify, which of the following is not to be considered while estimating Revenue Deficit of a country. (Choose the correct option)
- Wages and salaries paid by the government
- Interest payments made by the Central Government
- Direct Tax Collection
- Expenditure incurred on construction of flyover
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(D) Expenditure incurred on construction of flyover
Q6.2025 Main 58/2/1 · Q41 mark
Read the following statements: Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose one of the correct options given below:
Assertion (A): In case of public goods no one can be excluded from enjoying the benefits.
Reason (R): Public goods are non-rivalrous and non-excludable in nature.
Options:
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
- Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
Q7.2025 Main 58/2/1 · Q91 mark
The budget under, which the government may spend an amount equal to the revenue it collects is referred as _____ Budget. (Choose the correct option to fill up the blank)
- Surplus
- Deficit
- Balanced
- Deflationary
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(C) Balanced
Q8.2025 Main 58/4/1 · Q31 mark
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement 1: Public goods are those goods for which the payments are made by all the entities in the country.
Statement 2: Private goods are those goods which are provided by the government of a country at subsidised rates.
In the light of the given statements, choose the correct option from the following:
- Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
- Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(D) Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.
Q9.2025 Main 58/4/1 · Q51 mark
Read the following statements- Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Choose the correct alternative from the options given below:
Assertion (A): Direct taxes are imposed on income/profits of individuals/companies.
Reason (R): The burden of payment of direct taxes cannot be shifted to any other entity.
Options:
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
- Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
Q10.2025 Main 58/4/1 · Q81 mark
The main objective of measuring the primary deficit is to highlight present ____________. (Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)
- fiscal imbalances
- fiscal balances
- recovery of loans
- cash grant-in-aid
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(A) fiscal imbalances
Q11.2025 Main 58/5/1 · Q21 mark
Identify, which of the following does not represent a public good. (Choose the correct option)
- Free vaccines provided by the government
- Defence services provided by the military
- Purchase of railway ticket by an individual
- Street light installed by a city municipality
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(C) Purchase of railway ticket by an individual
Q12.2025 Main 58/5/1 · Q61 mark
According to the data presented in the Union Budget 2023-24, the total receipts of the government (other than borrowings), and the total expenditure are estimated as ₹ 20 lakh crore and ₹ 45 lakh crore respectively. Therefore, the value of _______deficit would be ₹ 25 lakh crore. (Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)
- revenue
- fiscal
- trade
- primary
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(B) fiscal
Q13.2025 Main 58/5/1 · Q91 mark
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement 1: Foreign aids are the capital receipts for the government.
Statement 2: Disinvestments may lead to a decrease in the assets of the government.
In the light of the given statements, choose the correct option from the following:
- Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
- Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(C) Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
Q14.2025 Supp 58/S/1 · Q51 mark
Expenditure incurred by the Government of India on the construction of 8-lanes Delhi-Mumbai Expressway can be classified as _________ expenditure of the government, as it may lead to __________ in the value of assets. (Choose the correct alternative to fill in the blanks)
- revenue, increase
- revenue, reduction
- capital, increase
- capital, reduction
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Supplementary), Set 58/S/1
(C) capital, increase
Q15.2025 Supp 58/S/1 · Q71 mark
Identify, which of the following is not to be considered while estimating the revenue deficit of an economy. (Choose the correct alternative)
- Goods and Services Tax (GST) collection
- Income from fines and penalties
- Interest payments
- Expenditure on acquisition of land and buildings
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Supplementary), Set 58/S/1
(D) Expenditure on acquisition of land and buildings
Q16.2025 Supp 58/S/1 · Q91 mark
The budget in which government’s total planned spending is equal to total planned revenue is referred to as __________ budget. (Choose the correct alternative to fill in the blank)
- Surplus
- Deficit
- Micro
- Balanced
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Supplementary), Set 58/S/1
(D) Balanced
Q17.2023 Main 58/2/1 · Q11 mark
"In the Annual Budget 2022-23, the Government of India set up disinvestment targets of ₹ 65,000 crore".
Such proceeds from disinvestment can be classified as ___________receipts in the Government Budget as it leads to _________of the Government. (Choose the correct alternative)
- capital, decrease in assets
- revenue, increase in assets
- capital, increase in liabilities
- revenue, decrease in liabilities
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(a) capital, decrease in assets
Q18.2023 Main 58/2/1 · Q81 mark
In order to tackle the problem of rising general price level in an economy, government may come up with a surplus budget to achieve the budget objective of _________.
(i) reallocation of resources
(ii) price stability
(iii) redistribution of income
Alternatives:
- (i) only
- (ii) only
- (iii) only
- (i) and (iii)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(b) (ii) only
Q19.2023 Supp 58/C/1 · Q21 mark
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement 1: Tax is a legally compulsory payment.
Statement 2: Direct taxes are capital receipts of the government.
In light of the given statements, choose the correct alternative from the following:
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.
- Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
- Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Supplementary), Set 58/C/1
(c) Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
Q20.2023 Supp 58/C/1 · Q41 mark
Read the following statements: Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose the correct alternative from those given below:
Assertion (A): Recovery of loans is a revenue receipt for the government.
Reason (R): Recovery of loans leads to decline in financial assets of the government.
Alternatives:
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
- Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
- Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Supplementary), Set 58/C/1
(d) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Q21.2023 Supp 58/C/1 · Q61 mark
A tax whose burden cannot be shifted to others is imposed generally on_________. (Choose the correct alternative to fill up the blank)
- producer of goods
- seller of goods
- buyer of goods
- income earners
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Supplementary), Set 58/C/1
(d) income earners
Q22.SQP 2026-27 · Q11 mark
Identify, which of the following expenditure falls under the category of capital expenditure. (Choose the correct option)
(i) Payment of salaries to central government employees.
(ii) Construction of new national highways under Bharatmala Pariyojana.
(iii) Interest payment by the government on past loans from World Bank.
(iv) Expenditure on installation of the Kavach automatic train protection system.
Options:
- (i) and (ii)
- (ii) and (iv)
- (ii) and (iii)
- (i) and (iv)
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 · Marking Scheme
(B) (ii) and (iv)
Q23.SQP 2026-27 · Q41 mark
Suppose, for a given year, the fiscal deficit of an economy is estimated at ₹5,000 crore. The total government expenditure is ₹18,000 crore, while non-tax revenue and capital receipts (excluding borrowings) together amount to ₹3,000 crore. (Choose the correct option to fill up the blank)
The tax revenue of the government is ₹ ________ crore.
Options:
- 10,000
- 12,000
- 13,000
- 15,000
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 · Marking Scheme
(A) 10,000
Q24.SQP 2026-27 · Q51 mark
The Government of India in its Union Budget 2026-27 has decided to exempt fish caught by Indian fishing vessels operating in the Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) and on the High Seas from duty.
Identify the objective behind the initiative taken by the Government of India as stated above. (Choose the correct option)
- Allocation Function
- Distribution Function
- Stabilisation Function
- Disposition Function
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 · Marking Scheme
(A) Allocation Function
Q25.2025 Main 58/2/1 · Q12(a)3 marks
“The government generally levies higher Goods and Services Tax (GST) on socially undesirable products like cigarettes, tobacco, liquor etc.”
Identify and explain the indicated government budget objective in the above statement.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/2/1
The highlighted government budget objective is the ‘allocation function’. [1]
The government may influence the allocation of resources by imposing higher taxes on the production of socially undesirable products like cigarettes, tobacco, liquor etc. Consequently, the resources will be withdrawn from the production of these undesirable products and reallocated to the production of goods which are beneficial for the society. [2]
Q26.2025 Main 58/2/1 · Q12(b)3 marks
Two friends Ramesh (a software engineer) and Pihu (a bakery owner) are discussing their contribution to the nation’s economy through tax payments. Ramesh earns ₹ 8,00,000 per year, which makes him liable to pay income tax. Pihu pays Goods and Service Tax (GST) on the sale of cakes and pastries.
On the basis of the given text, identify whether Ramesh is paying a direct tax or an indirect tax. Explain valid differences between two types of taxes.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/2/1
Ramesh is paying a direct tax. [1]
Direct taxes are those taxes whose impact and incidence lies on the same entity. In other words, the liability of paying direct taxes can’t be shifted. [1]
Whereas;
Indirect taxes are those taxes whose impact and incidence may lie on different entities. In other words, the liability of paying indirect taxes can be shifted. [1]
Q27.2025 Main 58/4/1 · Q123 marks
“Taxation is an effective tool to reduce the inequalities of income.”
Justify the given statement with valid reasons.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/4/1
Government can use taxation as an effective tool to reduce inequalities of income, as it affects the disposable income of people. It may impose higher taxes on the rich and may provide subsidies to the economically weaker sections of the society on education, health services etc. By adopting these measures, the government may try to bridge the gap between the rich and the poor. (To be marked as a whole) [3]
Q28.2025 Main 58/5/1 · Q123 marks
“As per the Economic Survey of India 2022-23, due to the outbreak of geopolitical conflict, the result was higher international prices for fertilizer and fuel. Thus, there was a higher fuel and fertilizer subsidy requirement for supporting the people.”
On the basis of given text, identify and explain the indicated objective of the government budget.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/5/1
The indicated government budget objective is the ‘stabilisation function’. [1]
The stabilisation function aims at controlling large-scale fluctuation in prices through the government’s taxation and expenditure policy. The government may incur expenditure on providing fuel and fertilizer subsidy in order to ensure price stability. [2]
Q29.2025 Supp 58/S/1 · Q12(a)3 marks
(i) Define ‘tax’. [1]
(ii) On the basis of the given image, identify and categorize two items into direct and indirect taxes. [2]

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Supplementary), Set 58/S/1
(i) Tax is a compulsory unilateral payment imposed by the government on the households or firms. [1]
(ii) Direct Taxes: Corporate Tax, Personal Income Tax [1]
Indirect Taxes: Goods and Services Tax, Custom, Excise Duty [1]
Q30.2025 Supp 58/S/1 · Q12(b)3 marks
“The government through its budgetary policy may intervene to expand or reduce demand in an economy.”
In the light of the given statement, discuss briefly the budgetary objectives the government is trying to achieve.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Supplementary), Set 58/S/1
The budgetary objective highlighted in the given statement is Economic Stability. Under the situation of inflation/ deflation, the government may increase/ decrease taxes and decrease/ increase expenditure to reduce/ expand Aggregate Demand in an economy. Thus, through its budgetary policy the government may control price fluctuations in an economy. [3] (To be marked as a whole)
Q31.2023 Supp 58/C/1 · Q123 marks
From the following data, calculate Revenue deficit and Primary deficit:
| S.No. | Particulars | Amount (in ₹ crore) |
|---|
| i. | Tax revenue | 47 |
| ii. | Capital receipts | 34 |
| iii. | Non-tax revenue | 10 |
| iv. | Borrowings | 32 |
| v. | Revenue expenditure | 80 |
| vi. | Interest payments | 20 |
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Supplementary), Set 58/C/1
Revenue Deficit = v – (i + iii) [½]
= 80 – (47 + 10) [½]
= ₹ 23 crore [½]
Primary Deficit = iv – vi [½]
= 32 – 20 [½]
= ₹ 12 crore [½]
Q32.SQP 2026-27 · Q123 marks
Refer to the given cartoon strip carefully:

Analyse the impact of introduction of Goods and Service Tax in improving the efficiency of the taxation system and benefitting the overall economy.
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 · Marking Scheme
The introduction of Goods and Service Tax (GST) has simplified the tax structure by subsuming a variety of indirect taxes like VAT, excise duty, service tax etc. across the country. It has reduced the cost of business operations and cascading effect of various taxes on consumers. Moreover, with the implementation of GST the overall cost of production has reduced, making Indian products/services more competitive in the domestic and international markets. It has ensured higher transparency in the taxation system thereby enhancing the ease of doing business. [3]
Q33.2026 Main 58/3/1 · Q13(a)4 marks
Distinguish between Revenue Expenditure and Capital Expenditure with the help of suitable examples.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/3/1
Revenue expenditure is the expenditure of the government that neither leads to creation of assets nor reduction in liabilities of the government. [1½]
For example: Salaries paid to government employees. [½]
Whereas;
Capital expenditure is the expenditure of the government that either leads to creation of assets or reduction in liabilities of the government. [1½]
For example: Construction of flyovers. [½]
(Any other valid example to be awarded marks)
Q34.2026 Main 58/3/1 · Q13(b)4 marks
Using suitable examples, distinguish between Revenue Receipts and Capital Receipts.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/3/1
Revenue receipts are the receipts of the government that neither lead to increase in liabilities nor reduction in assets of the government. [1½]
For example: Taxes received by the government. [½]
Whereas;
Capital receipts are the receipts of the government that either lead to increase in liabilities or reduction in assets of the government. [1½]
For example: Proceeds from disinvestment. [½]
(Any other valid example to be awarded marks)
Q35.2025 Main 58/1/1 · Q134 marks
“Under the Ayushmaan Bharat Scheme, the government provides free medical treatment to the poorer section of the society.”
Identify and explain the nature of budget expenditure and its objective, indicated in the given statement.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/1/1
The highlighted statement exhibits the Revenue Expenditure. Revenue expenditure is the expenditure that neither leads to creation of assets nor leads to reduction in liabilities of the government.
The indicated objective of the government budget is the ‘Redistribution Function’.
Free medical treatment under the Ayushmaan Bharat Scheme aims to bring equity in the income distribution in the economy. Such services to poorer sections of society reduce their medical expenses, leaving higher disposable income in their hands. Thereby bridging the gap between the rich and the poor. (To be marked as a whole) [4]
Q36.2023 Main 58/2/1 · Q154 marks
With suitable examples, distinguish between Direct taxes and Indirect taxes.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/2/1
Direct Taxes refer to those taxes whose impact and incidence lie on the same entity. Its burden cannot be shifted.
For example: Wealth tax, Corporate tax etc. [2]
Whereas;
Indirect Taxes refer to those taxes whose impact and incidence may lie on different entities. Its burden can be shifted.
For example: Goods and services tax, Excise duty etc. [2]
(Any other valid definition/ explanation/ example to be allotted marks)
Q37.2026 Main 58/1/1 · Q176 marks
Refer the given text carefully:
According to the Economic Survey 2024-25, the government budget's projections for the fiscal year 2025-26 indicate that gross direct tax revenue will rise by 12.7%, while gross indirect tax collections are expected to grow by 8.3% relative to FY 2024-25. Direct taxes include income tax and corporate tax, reflecting earnings and profits of households and firms. It plays a key role in revenue growth of the government. Indirect taxes encompass Goods and Services Tax (GST), custom duties and other transaction-based levies.
Higher growth rate projected for direct taxes suggests a push to enhance tax buoyancy through improved compliance and reforms. On the other hand, indirect taxes are expected to benefit from consumption trends and Goods and Services Tax (GST) administration improvements. The balance tax strategy aims to mobilise resources while supporting fiscal consolidation and sustainable economic growth.
On the basis of the above passage and common understanding, answer the following questions:
(i) Differentiate between the two types of taxes indicated in the above text, with suitable examples. [4]
(ii) Elaborate the likely consequences of the tax projections made by the government. [2]
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(i) The two types of taxes indicated in the above text are direct and indirect taxes.
Direct taxes are those taxes whose impact and incidence lies on the same entity. In other words, the liability of paying direct taxes can’t be shifted. [1½]
For example: Income tax etc. [½]
Whereas;
Indirect taxes are those taxes whose impact and incidence may lie on different entities. In other words, the liability of paying indirect taxes can be shifted. [1½]
For example: Goods and Services Tax (GST) etc. [½]
(Any other valid example to be awarded marks)
(ii) The projected increase in tax revenues is likely to strengthen the government’s revenue base. Overall, this balanced tax strategy will help mobilise resources, support fiscal consolidation and promote sustainable economic growth. [2]
Q38.2026 Main 58/2/1 · Q176 marks
Read the following text carefully:
The government has allocated ₹ 15.27 lakh crore for major sectors, ranging from defence to rural development to social welfare to commerce and so on. Government expenditure goes to paying states’ share of taxes and duties. Around 19% is spent on interest payments and 16% on central sector schemes, with subsidies, pension and other payments contributing 19%. Government revenue is divided between borrowings and other liabilities, which account for massive 27% of the incoming cash, Income tax revenue of around 19% Goods and Services Taxes (GST) and other taxes of around 18%; Corporation taxes account for around 17%.
The next highest provision on this list is ₹ 2.66 lakh crore for rural development. This will include expenditure on rural infrastructure project and increased outlay for the popular MGNREGA scheme.
On the basis of given text and common understanding, answer the following questions:
(i) Identify the major sources of government revenue and state what percentage does each one of them contribute. [3]
(ii) Discuss the need to allocate funds among different sectors of the economy. [3]
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(i) The major sources of government revenue as indicated in the text are borrowings and other liabilities, which account for a massive 27% of the incoming cash, Income tax revenue of around 19%, Goods and Services Taxes (GST) and other taxes of around 18% and Corporation taxes account for around 17%. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
(ii) The government has allocated ₹15.27 lakh crore across key sectors such as defence, rural development etc. This substantial allocation aims to strengthen national security, promote rural growth, enhance social welfare and boost economic activities. It reflects the government’s focus on balanced and comprehensive development with infrastructural upgradation, employment generation and overall economic growth in the country. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
(Any other valid explanation to be awarded marks)
Q39.2026 Main 58/4/1 · Q16(a)6 marks
(i) “The Credit Linked Subsidy Scheme (CLSS) is a key component of the Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (PMAY), aimed at providing affordable housing for the Economically Weaker Sections (EWS), Lower-income Groups (LIG), and Middle-income Groups (MIG) in India.”
Identify and explain the government budget objective highlighted in the above statement. [3]
(ii) Differentiate between the two types of tax revenue sources of the government. [3]
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(i) The highlighted government budget objective is the ‘Redistribution Function’. [1]
Government can reduce inequalities of income through taxes and public expenditure like subsidies. The Credit Linked Subsidy Scheme (CLSS) of the government aims at providing affordable housing for the Economically Weaker Sections (EWS), Lower-income Groups (LIG) and Middle-income Groups (MIG) in India. It will reduce the financial burden on these groups and will promote equitable distribution of income, thereby bridging the gap between rich and poor. [2]
(ii) The two types of tax revenue sources of the government are Direct Taxes and Indirect Taxes.
Direct taxes are those taxes whose impact and incidence lies on the same entity. In other words, the liability of paying direct taxes can’t be shifted. [1½]
Whereas;
Indirect taxes are those taxes whose impact and incidence may lie on different entities. In other words, the liability of paying indirect taxes can be shifted. [1½]
Q40.2026 Main 58/4/1 · Q16(b)6 marks
(i) Medha, an economics student, was studying about the expenditure on defence incurred by the government in the form of acquiring new platforms (jets, submarines etc.), and salaries and pensions of armed forces personnel.
She classified both the expenditures as capital expenditure.
Do you agree with Medha’s views? Give valid explanation in support of your answer. [3]
(ii) If, for an economy, Primary Deficit is ₹ 1,000 crore and interest payments are 20% of total borrowings of the government, then calculate the value of fiscal deficit. [3]
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(i) No. The expenditure on salaries and pensions of armed forces personnel is revenue expenditure as it neither leads to creation of assets nor reduces liabilities of the government. [1½]
However, expenditure incurred by the government on acquiring new platforms (jets, submarines etc.) is capital expenditure as it leads to the creation of assets for the government. [1½]
(ii) Primary Deficit (PD) = Fiscal Deficit (FD) – Interest Payment (IP) [1½]
1000 = FD – 20% of FD [½]
1000 = 80% of FD
FD = (1000 X 100)/80 [½]
Fiscal Deficit = ₹ 1,250 crore [½]
Q41.2026 Main 58/5/1 · Q176 marks
Read the following passage carefully:
According to the Economic Survey 2024 – 25, the government’s budget projections for the fiscal year 2025 – 26 indicate that gross direct tax revenue will rise by 12.7%, while gross indirect tax collections are expected to grow by 8.3% relative to FY 2024 – 25.
Direct taxes include income tax and corporate tax, reflecting earnings and profits of households and firms. It plays a key role in revenue growth of the government. Indirect taxes encompass Goods and Service Tax (GST), custom duties and other transaction-based levies.
Higher growth rate projected for direct taxes suggests a push to enhance tax buoyancy through improved compliance and reforms. On the other hand, indirect taxes are expected to benefit from consumption trends and Goods and Services Tax (GST) administration improvements. The balance tax strategy aims to mobilise resources while supporting fiscal consolidation and sustainable economic growth.
On the basis of the above passage and common understanding, answer the following questions:
(i) Differentiate between the two types of taxes indicated in the above text, with suitable examples.
(ii) Elaborate the likely consequences of the tax projections made by the government.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(i) The two types of taxes indicated in the above text are direct and indirect taxes.
Direct taxes are those taxes whose impact and incidence lies on the same entity. In other words, the liability of paying direct taxes can’t be shifted. [1½]
For example: Income tax etc. [½]
Whereas;
Indirect taxes are those taxes whose impact and incidence may lie on different entities. In other words, the liability of paying indirect taxes can be shifted. [1½]
For example: Goods and Services Tax (GST) etc. [½]
(Any other valid example to be awarded marks)
(ii) The higher growth rate projected for direct taxes suggests a push to enhance tax buoyancy through improved tax compliance and reforms, while indirect taxes are expected to benefit from consumption trends and Goods and Services Tax (GST) administration improvements. [2]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q42.2026 Supp 58/7/1 · Q176 marks
Read the following text carefully:
According to the federal government’s budget document, India will spend ₹ 4.57 trillion ($ 52.81 billion) on subsidies for food, fertilisers and rural employment schemes in the next financial year.
The federal government has budgeted a collective spending of ₹ 4.54 trillion for the current fiscal year ending March 31 across the three types of subsidies, as per the government’s revised estimates. The allocation for the government’s flagship rural jobs guarantee programme has been retained at ₹ 860 billion while that for fertilisers has been marginally lowered to ₹ 1.67 trillion from ₹ 1.71 trillion revised estimate for 2024-25.
The country has budgeted ₹ 2.03 trillion for food subsidy for the upcoming financial year at slightly above the ₹ 1.97 trillion revised estimate for the ongoing fiscal year.
On the basis of the above text and common understanding related to economics, answer the following questions:
(i) Explain the objective of government budget indicated in the text.
(ii) Identify the category of budgetary expenditure to which subsidies belong and explain the reason in support of your answers.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Supplementary), Set 58/7/1
(i) The objective of the Government Budget indicated in the above text is Allocation Function. The aim of the government to allocate substantial funds for food & fertiliser subsidies and the rural employment schemes is to redirect resources towards priority sectors for economic development. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
(ii) Budgetary expenditure incurred on subsidies can be classified as Revenue Expenditure. [1]
The expenditures on subsidies can be classified as Revenue Expenditure as it neither create assets nor reduce liabilities of the government. [2]
Q43.2025 Main 58/6/1 · Q166 marks
Read the following text carefully:
Government provides certain goods and services which cannot be provided by the market mechanism. Examples of such goods are national defence, roads, government administration, etc. which are referred to as public goods.
There are two major differences between public and private goods. One, the benefits of public goods are available to all and are not only restricted to one particular consumer. For example, if a person wears a shirt, it will not be available to others. It is said that this person’s consumption stands in rival relationship to the consumption of others. However, if we consider a public park or measures to reduce air pollution, the benefits will be available to all. One person’s consumption of a good does not reduce the amount available for consumption for others and so several people can enjoy the benefits, that is, the consumption of many people is not ‘rivalrous’.
Two, in the case of private goods, anyone who does not pay for the goods can be excluded from enjoying its benefits. If you do not buy a ticket, you will not be allowed to watch a movie at a local cinema hall. However, in the case of public goods, there is no feasible way of excluding anyone from enjoying the benefits of the good. That is why public goods are called non-excludable. Even if some users do not pay, it is difficult and sometimes impossible to collect fees for the public good. These non-paying users are known as ‘free-riders’. Consumers will not voluntarily pay for what they can get for free and for which there is no exclusive title to the property being enjoyed. The link between the producer and consumer which occurs through the payment process is broken and the government must step in to provide for such goods.
On the basis of the given text and common understanding, answer the following questions:
(a) Describe how the Government’s role in providing public goods impacts community welfare. [3]
(b) Define free-riders. Explain the challenges posed by the free-riders in the context of public goods. [3]
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/6/1
(a) Public goods refer to those goods and services which cannot be provided by the market mechanism. The government’s provision for public goods ensures the availability of goods that can be collectively consumed by the public where one person’s consumption of a good does not reduce the amount available for consumption for others and so several people can enjoy the benefits, thus promoting community welfare. [3] (To be marked as a whole)
(b) Non-paying users of public goods are known as ‘free-riders’. [1]
People do not pay for public goods as they are available free of cost, to one and all. The government must intervene to provide such non-exclusive goods, as these goods are not owned by individuals. Thus, the financial burden of public goods is borne by the government. [2]
Q44.2025 Main 58/7/1 · Q176 marks
Read the following text carefully :
The Union Budget 2025-26 introduces a series of measures aimed at strengthening the Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSME) sector. It recognizes the role of MSMEs as one of the key engines in India’s journey of development, along with agriculture, investment and exports.
As a vital contributor to India’s industrial landscape, the MSME sector plays a crucial role in manufacturing sector, exports and employment generation.
The new budgetary provisions aim to build on this strong foundation by fostering innovation, enhancing competitiveness and ensuring better access to resources.
Furthermore, the Government’s ongoing initiatives like the Udyam registration portal, PM Vishwakarma, PMEGP, SFURTI, and the Public Procurement Policy continue to demonstrate a combined effort towards integrating and empowering MSMEs.
On the basis of given text and common understanding, answer the following questions:
(a) “MSMEs play a pivotal role in the India’s journey of development”
Do you agree with the given statement? Give valid reason in support of your answer. [3]
(b) Explain key measures initiated by the Government for strengthening MSMEs. [3]
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/7/1
(a) Yes, Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSME) sector is one of the key engines in India’s journey of development, along with agriculture, investment, and exports. The MSME sector plays a pivotal role in manufacturing sector, exports and employment generation. [3] (To be marked as a whole)
(b) The key measures initiated by the Government for strengthening MSMEs are supportive initiatives like Udyam registration portal, PM Vishwakarma, PMEGP, SFURTI, and the Public Procurement Policy to integrate and empower MSMEs. [3] (To be marked as a whole)
Q45.2024 Main 58/1/1 · Q16(a)6 marks
Classify the following as Revenue receipts or Capital receipts. Give valid arguments in support of your answer:
(i) Interest received on loan.
(ii) Disinvestment receipts from the sale of a government company.
(iii) Financial assistance by the Government of USA for promoting girl education in India.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(i) Interest received on loan is a revenue receipt because it neither creates any liability nor causes a reduction in assets of the government. [2]
(ii) Disinvestment receipts from sale of a government company are capital receipts as it causes a reduction in assets of the government. [2]
(iii) Financial assistance by the Government of USA for promoting girl education in India is a revenue receipt as it neither creates any liability nor causes a reduction in assets of the government. [2]
Q46.2024 Main 58/1/1 · Q16(b)6 marks
(i) Study the following chart carefully and analyse the changing trends in the government expenditure on:
(I) Transport
(II) Rural Development

(ii) Distinguish between ‘fiscal deficit’ and ‘revenue deficit’.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(i) As indicated in the given chart:
(I) Transport: The expenditure on transport accounted for ₹ 3.32 lakh crore in the year 2021-22. In the year 2022-23, a Revenue expenditure of ₹ 3.90 lakh crore was allocated for this sector. Out of the total budget expenditure of the year 2023-24, ₹ 5.17 lakh crore was allocated to transport. [2]
(II) Rural Development: In the year 2021-22, the expenditure on rural development accounted for ₹ 2.29 lakh crore. In the year 2022-23, of the total revenue expenditure ₹ 2.43 lakh crore was allocated for rural development. ₹ 2.38 lakh crore was allocated for the development of rural sector from the total budget expenditure in the year 2023-24. [2]
(ii) Fiscal deficit refers to excess of the government’s total expenditure over its total receipts excluding borrowing for a fiscal year. [1]
Whereas;
Revenue Deficit refers to the excess of government’s revenue expenditure over revenue receipts for a fiscal year. [1]
Q47.2024 Main 58/2/1 · Q16(a)6 marks
(i) Distinguish between direct tax and indirect tax with the help of suitable examples.
(ii) Explain the ‘redistribution of income’ objective of the Government Budget.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(i) Direct taxes are those taxes whose impact and incidence lies on the same entity. In other words, the liability of paying direct taxes can’t be shifted. For example: income tax. [1+½]
Whereas;
Indirect taxes are those taxes whose impact and incidence may lie on different entities. In other words, the liability of paying indirect taxes can be shifted. For example: GST. [1+½]
(ii) The government budget objective of ‘Redistribution of Income’ aims to bring about equality in the distribution of income.
Government can reduce inequalities of income through taxes and public expenditure. It may impose high taxes on the rich to reduce their disposable income. Furthermore, government may incur more public expenditure for the welfare of the poor, like providing free services etc. By adopting these measures, the government tries to bridge the gap between the rich and the poor. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q48.2024 Main 58/2/1 · Q16(b)6 marks
(i) Suppose the following data is presented for an imaginary economy:
| S. No. | Items | Amount (in ₹ crore) |
|---|
| (i) | Tax Receipts | 1,200 |
| (ii) | Revenue Expenditure | 3,700 |
| (iii) | Non-Tax Receipts | 2,000 |
| (iv) | Recovery of Loans | 145 |
| (v) | Capital Expenditure | 500 |
| (vi) | Disinvestment | 120 |
| (vii) | Interest Payments | 1,070 |
Calculate Revenue Deficit and Fiscal Deficit.
(ii) Differentiate between public provision and public production.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(i) Revenue Deficit = (ii) – {(i) + (iii)} [1]
= 3,700 – 1,200 – 2,000 [½]
= ₹ 500 crore [½]
Fiscal Deficit = {(ii) + (v)} – {(i) + (iii) + (iv) + (vi)} [1]
= 3,700 + 500 – 1,200 – 2,000 – 145 – 120 [½]
= ₹ 735 crore [½]
(ii) Public provision refers to those goods that are financed through the government budget and can be used without any direct payment by public. [1]
Whereas;
Public production relates to those goods which are directly produced by the government. [1]
Q49.2024 Main 58/3/1 · Q176 marks
(a) On the basis of the given information, calculate the values of the following:
(i) Fiscal Deficit 2
(ii) Primary Deficit 1
| S. No. | Items | Amount (in ₹ crore) |
|---|
| (i) | Capital Expenditure | 30 |
| (ii) | Revenue Receipts | 20 |
| (iii) | Revenue Deficit | 20 |
| (iv) | Interest Payments | 10 |
| (v) | Non - Debt Creating Capital Receipts | 50% of Revenue Receipts |
(b) State any two examples of private goods. 1
(c) Distinguish between ‘Public Provision’ and ‘Public Production’. 2
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/3/1
(a) Non- Debt Creating Capital Receipts = 50% of Revenue Receipts
= (50/100) × 20 = ₹ 10 crore [½]
Fiscal Deficit = (iii) + (i) − Non-Debt Creating Capital Receipts [½]
= 20 + 30 − 10 [½]
= ₹ 40 crore [½]
Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit – (iv) [½]
= 40 – 10 = ₹ 30 crore [½]
(b) Examples of private goods are:
- Mobile phone purchased by an individual [½]
- Water bottle purchased by an individual [½]
(Any other valid example to be awarded marks)
(c) Public provision refers to those goods that are financed through the government budget and can be used without any direct payment by public. [1]
Whereas;
Public production relates to those goods which are directly produced by the government. [1]
Q50.2024 Main 58/4/1 · Q16(a)6 marks
With valid reasons, classify the following into Capital receipts or Revenue receipts of the government:
(i) Dividend received by the government from a Maharatan company.
(ii) Receipts of the government from sale of shares of a Public Sector Undertaking (PSU) in open market.
(iii) Debt cleared by Sri Lanka Government to the Indian Government.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(i) It is a revenue receipt as it neither creates any liability nor reduces any asset of the government. [2]
(ii) It is a capital receipt as it reduces the assets of the government. [2]
(iii) It is a capital receipt as it reduces the assets of the government. [2]
Q51.2024 Main 58/4/1 · Q16(b)6 marks
(i) ‘Government Budget can be a useful instrument in reducing inequalities in the distribution of income and wealth in an economy.’
Do you agree with the given statement? Present valid arguments in favour of your answer. 4
(ii) State the meaning and formula of Fiscal deficit. 2
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(i) Yes. The government budget objective of ‘Redistribution of Income’ aims to bring about equality in the distribution of income. Government can reduce inequalities of income through taxes and public expenditure. It may impose high taxes on the rich to reduce their disposable income. Furthermore, government may incur more public expenditure for the welfare of the poor, like providing free services etc. By adopting these measures, the government tries to bridge the gap between the rich and the poor. [4]
(To be marked as a whole)
(ii) Fiscal deficit refers to excess of the government’s total expenditure over its total receipts excluding borrowing for a fiscal year. [1]
Fiscal Deficit = Total Expenditure – Total receipts excluding borrowings [1]
(Any other valid formula to be awarded marks)
Q52.2024 Main 58/5/1 · Q16(a)6 marks
(i) Distinguish between Revenue Expenditure and Capital Expenditure of a government, with suitable example. 3
(ii) “Under the ‘Production Linked Incentive’ scheme, the Government of India offers various benefits like reduced import-export duties, incentives to investors, tax-rebates etc.”
In the light of above statement, identify and explain the Budget objective and its likely consequences. 3
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(i) The expenditure incurred by the government that neither leads to any creation of assets nor reduction in liabilities is referred to as Revenue Expenditure. For example: Salaries paid to government employees. [1 + ½]
Whereas;
The expenditure incurred by the government that either leads to any creation of assets or reduction in liabilities is referred to as Capital Expenditure. For example: Construction of flyovers. [1 + ½]
(ii) The highlighted government budget objective is the ‘allocation function’. [1]
The government may influence the allocation of resources by granting subsidies/tax rebates on the production of products that are socially beneficial.
Consequently, with the ‘Production Linked Incentive’ Scheme, the government seeks to fulfill socio-economic goals and enhance national output and employment opportunities. [2]
Q53.2024 Main 58/5/1 · Q16(b)6 marks
(i) “Under ‘Zero Defect, Zero Effect’ (ZED) scheme, the government of India provides up to 80% subsidy to Mini, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs).”
Identify and explain the objective of government budget, highlighted in the above text. 3
(ii) Distinguish between Direct tax and Indirect tax with suitable examples. 3
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(i) The highlighted government budget objective is the ‘allocation function’. [1]
With the subsidies to Mini, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs), the government may seek to enhance national output and employment opportunities and achieve socio-economic goals. In a country like India, such steps are fruitful for the overall growth of the nation. [2]
(ii) Direct taxes are those taxes whose impact and incidence lies on the same entity. In other words, the liability of paying direct taxes can’t be shifted. For example: income tax. [1+½]
Whereas;
Indirect taxes are those taxes whose impact and incidence may lie on different entities. In other words, the liability of paying indirect taxes can be shifted. For example: GST. [1+½]
Q54.2024 Supp 58/S/1 · Q17(a)6 marks
(i) “The Union Budget 2023 – 24 had proposed an allocation of ₹ 22,138 crore to the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprise (MSME) Ministry.”
Identify and explain the objective that the government is trying to achieve with the proposed expenditure. 4
(ii) State the formulae for calculating fiscal deficit and revenue deficit. 2
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Supplementary), Set 58/S/1
(i) The highlighted government budget objective is the ‘allocation function’. [1]
The government with the proposed allocation of ₹ 22,138 crore to the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprise (MSME) Ministry may seek to enhance national output and employment opportunities. In a country like India, such steps are fruitful for achieving socio-economic goals and overall growth of the nation. [3]
(ii) Fiscal Deficit = Total Expenditure – Total Receipts (excluding borrowings) [1]
Revenue Deficit = Revenue Expenditure – Revenue Receipts [1]
Q55.2024 Supp 58/S/1 · Q17(b)6 marks
(i) “Tax revenues, an important component of revenue receipts, can be further classified into two categories.”
Imagine yourself as a member of Department of Revenue of the Government of India. Help your friend to identify and differentiate between the two categories of taxes. 3
(ii) “A budget can be deficit, surplus or balanced.”
Do you agree with the given statement? Give valid reasons in support of your answer. 3
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Supplementary), Set 58/S/1
(i) The two categories of taxes are direct taxes and indirect taxes. [1]
Direct taxes are those taxes whose impact and incidence lie on the same entity. [1]
Whereas;
Indirect taxes are those taxes whose impact and incidence may lie on different entities. [1]
(ii) Yes, a budget can be deficit, surplus or balanced, it depends on the total receipts and expenditure.
Balance Budget: When the total receipts of the government equal its total expenditure.
Surplus Budget: When the total receipts of the government exceed its total expenditure.
Deficit Budget: When the total receipts of the government fall short of its total expenditure. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q56.2023 Main 58/1/1 · Q17(a)6 marks
(i) From the information given in the diagram, categorize the items into revenue receipts and capital receipts, stating valid reasons. (4)

(ii) Distinguish between Revenue deficit and Fiscal deficit. (2)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(i) Revenue receipts: Corporation tax, Customs, Income tax, Non-tax revenue, GST and other taxes, Excise duties.
Reason: Revenue receipts neither leads to decrease in assets nor increase in liabilities.
Capital receipts: Borrowing and other liabilities, Recovery of loan.
Reason: Capital receipts either leads to decrease in assets or increase in liabilities. [4]
(To be marked as a whole)
(ii) The revenue deficit refers to the excess of estimated revenue expenditure over the estimated revenue receipts of the government, during a fiscal year. [1]
Whereas;
Fiscal deficit is the excess of the total estimated expenditure over its total estimated receipts excluding borrowings of the government, during a fiscal year. [1]
Q57.2023 Main 58/1/1 · Q17(b)6 marks
(i) From the following data, calculate the primary deficit. (3)
| SNo. | Particulars | Amount (in ₹ crore) |
|---|
| (i) | Revenue deficit | 40 |
| (ii) | Non-debt creating capital receipts | 190 |
| (iii) | Tax revenue | 125 |
| (iv) | Capital expenditure | 220 |
| (v) | Interest payments | 20 |
(ii) Elaborate ‘Economic stability’ function of the Government Budget. (3)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(i) Primary deficit = {(i) + (iv) – (ii)} – (v) [1½]
= {40+220-190} – 20 [1]
= ₹ 50 crore. [½]
(ii) The government may need to correct the fluctuations (income, employment and prices) in the economy. These may depend upon the level of Aggregate Demand, which in turn depends upon the spending decision of households and firms.
To stabilize the economy, under the state of inflation/deflation, Government may alter taxes/expenditure, accordingly. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q58.2023 Main 58/3/1 · Q16(a)6 marks
(i) Two friends, Deepak and Krish were discussing the impact of increase in GST rates on luxury items, as recently undertaken by the Government. Krish was of the view that most of the luxury items (like foreign travel, imported cigarettes, etc.) should be taxed exorbitantly, while the items related to daily consumption of poor and middle class should be tax-free.
Identify and explain the objective of the Government budget Krish is suggesting. (4)
(ii) State any two examples of non-tax receipts of the Government. (2)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/3/1
(i) Krish is suggesting the objective of ‘Re-distribution of income’ to reduce income inequalities in the economy. [1]
To ensure equitable distribution of income, the government may impose higher taxes on luxury items. This will reduce the purchasing power in the hands of rich.
On the other hand, lower/no taxes may be imposed on commodities purchased by poorer section of society. They may also be provided with subsidies on the essential commodities. This may increase their disposable income.
These steps may promote economic welfare through re-distribution of income in the economy. [3]
(ii)
- Dividends and profits on investments. [1]
- Fees and other receipts. [1]
(Any other relevant example to be awarded marks)
Q59.2023 Main 58/3/1 · Q16(b)6 marks
(i) "In the recent times, the Government of India has incurred a lot of expenditure on acquisition of indigenous defence items under 'Make-in-India' programme."
Identify and discuss the two types of budget expenditures which may be undertaken by the Government as suggested in the above statement. (4)
(ii) State the meaning of 'fiscal deficit' under the Government Budget. (2)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/3/1
(i) Two types of budget expenditures on the acquisition of indigenous defence items under 'Make-in-India' programme which may be undertaken by the government are as follows :
- Capital Expenditure- This refers to that expenditure of the government which either leads to creation of assets or reduction in liabilities. [½+1½]
- Revenue Expenditure- This refers to that expenditure of the government which neither leads to creation of assets nor reduction in liabilities. [½ + 1½]
(ii) Fiscal deficit refers to the excess of estimated expenditure over estimated receipts of the government excluding borrowings. It indicates towards the borrowing requirements of the government during a given period of time. [2]
Q60.2023 Main 58/4/1 · Q17(a)6 marks
(i) "Government provides essential items like food grains almost free to the families below poverty line." Identify and explain the objective of the government budget indicated. (4)
(ii) Define the following: (2)
(1) Revenue deficit
(2) Primary deficit
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(i) The government budget objective of ‘Redistribution of Income’ is indicated in the given statement. [1]
Government can influence inequalities of income through taxes and public expenditure. It can impose taxes on the rich reducing their disposable income. It can spend on free goods and services like food grains to the families below poverty line to ensure their welfare/ raising their standard of living. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
(ii) (1) Revenue deficit is defined as the excess of revenue expenditure of the government over its revenue receipts. [1]
(2) Primary deficit is defined as the difference between fiscal deficit and interest payments. [1]
Q61.2023 Main 58/4/1 · Q17(b)6 marks
State whether the following statements are true or false, with valid reasons:
(i) High tax on higher income groups aims to achieve the 'reallocation of resources' objective of the Government.
(ii) Borrowings are a revenue receipt of the government.
(iii) Fiscal deficit always leads to inflation.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(i) False. The government uses its taxation policy to improve the distribution of income and wealth. It indicates the objective of redistribution of income of the government budget. [2]
(ii) False. It is a capital receipt as it creates liability for the government. [2]
(iii) False. If the borrowings (i.e. fiscal deficit) are to be used for some developmental purposes, it may not be inflationary in nature. However, in other cases, it may be inflationary. [2]
Q62.2023 Main 58/5/1 · Q176 marks
Study the given picture carefully:

Answer The following questions based on common knowledge and picture:
(a) Categorise the given items in the picture into tax/non-tax receipts.
(b) "Government has started spending more on providing free services like education and health to the poor."
In the light of above statement, explain how the government can use the budgetary policy in reducing 'inequalities of income'.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(a) Tax receipts- Individual Income Tax, Property Tax, Corporate Income Tax and Sales & Gross Receipts Tax
Non-tax receipts- Motor Vehicle License Fee and Fines [½ × 6 = 3]
(b) Government’s budgetary policy has two aspects- taxation and public expenditure. To reduce inequalities in income and wealth, the government may adopt an expenditure policy which is in favour of lower income groups. Government expenditure on providing free services like education and health to the poor may positively affect their disposable income.
Consequently, budgetary policy of the government can be used to reduce inequalities of income. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q63.SQP 2025-26 · Q176 marks
Refer to the given text carefully:
Revenue receipts of the Union Government of India, consisting of tax revenue and non-tax revenue increased year-on-year by 14.5% in the financial year 2023-24, with robust growth in both tax and non-tax revenues.
In spite of the global trend of widening fiscal deficit and increasing debt burden, India has remained on the course of fiscal consolidation. In the post-covid period, significant fiscal consolidation could be achieved largely due to buoyant government revenues. The favourable fiscal performance in the financial year 2022-23, emerged as the cornerstone of India’s macroeconomic stability.
The fiscal deficit of the Union Government has been brought down from 6.4% of Gross Domestic Product (GDP) in the financial year 2022-23 to 5.6% of GDP in the financial year 2023-24, according to the data released by the Office of Controller General of Accounts (CGA).
Strong growth in direct and indirect taxes on account of resilient economic activities and increased compliance meant that the tax revenues generated exceeded the budgetary estimates.
Additionally, higher-than-budgeted non-tax revenue in the form of dividends from the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has buffeted revenue receipts. In combination with restrained revenue expenditure, these buoyant revenues ensured lower deficits.
A decomposition of the fiscal deficit over the past few years reveals that with a narrowing revenue deficit, a larger share of the fiscal deficit is being accounted for by capital outlay. This suggests that the productivity of borrowed resources has improved.
Source: Economic Survey 2023-24
On the basis of the given text and common understanding, answer the following questions:
(I) Differentiate between the two types of revenue receipts as indicated in the above text. [3]
(II) Elaborate the reasons behind reduction in fiscal deficit of India for the financial year 2023-24. [3]
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 · Marking Scheme
(I) Tax revenue receipts refer to the receipts of the government through taxes. These are the compulsory transfer payments imposed by the government on individuals, corporations, and other entities. [1½]
Whereas;
Non-tax revenue receipts refers to those revenue receipts of the government from sources other than taxes. These mainly consist of interest, dividends, fees etc. [1½]
(II) The fiscal deficit declined due to robust growth in direct and indirect taxes, driven by resilient economic activities and improved tax compliance. Furthermore, higher-than-anticipated non-tax revenue, particularly dividends from the RBI, boosted overall revenue receipts. In addition to this, controlled revenue expenditure also contributed to the reduction in the fiscal deficit. [3]
Part A · Introductory Macroeconomics
5. Balance of Payments
Q1.2026 Main 58/1/1 · Q31 mark
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement 1: Depreciation of currency is an economic action undertaken by the government of a nation under the fixed exchange rate system.
Statement 2: Under the floating exchange Rate system, authorities actively intervene in the foreign exchange market by way of maintaining foreign exchange reserves.
In the light of the given statements, choose the correct option from the following:
- Statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false.
- Statement 1 is false and statement 2 is true.
- Both statements 1 and 2 are true.
- Both statements 1 and 2 are false.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(D) Both statements 1 and 2 are false.
Q2.2026 Main 58/1/1 · Q81 mark
Read the following statements: Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose the correct option from those given below:
Assertion (A): Unilateral Transfers are recorded in the Current Account of the Balance of Payments (BoP) of a nation.
Reason (R): Capital account records transactions which cause a change in the assets or liabilities of the country.
Options:
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
- Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
Q3.2026 Main 58/2/1 · Q41 mark
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement 1: Under the flexible exchange rate system, a deficit / surplus in the Balance of Payments is automatically corrected.
Statement 2: Under the flexible exchange rate system, there is always a possibility of over/under valuation of currency.
In the light of the above given statements, choose the correct option from the following:
- Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
- Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(A) Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
Q4.2026 Main 58/2/1 · Q91 mark
Read the following statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose the correct option from those given below:
Assertion (A): Increase in exchange rate implies that the price of foreign currency in terms of domestic currency has increased.
Reason (R): Balance of trade records the inflows and outflows of foreign exchange.
Options:
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
- Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
Q5.2026 Main 58/3/1 · Q41 mark
Identify, the factor which influences the demand for foreign exchange in a country. (Choose the correct option)
Options :
- Investments made by Indians in Japan
- Indian producers exporting fabrics to United States of America (USA)
- Remittances by Indian workers from Gulf countries
- An Indian software company providing services to clients abroad
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/3/1
(A) Investments made by Indians in Japan
Q6.2026 Main 58/3/1 · Q61 mark
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement I: Trade in services includes both factor income and non-factor income transactions.
Statement II: Current Account includes transactions related to goods, services and unilateral transfers.
In the light of the given statements, choose the correct option from the following:
- Statement I is true and Statement II is false.
- Statement I is false and Statement II is true.
- Both Statements I and II are true.
- Both Statements I and II are false.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/3/1
(C) Both Statements I and II are true.
Q7.2026 Main 58/3/1 · Q101 mark
Under the fixed exchange rate system, if the government decreases the value of domestic currency with respect to a foreign currency, it is known as __________ of currency. (Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)
Options:
- Devaluation
- Depreciation
- Appreciation
- Revaluation
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/3/1
(A) Devaluation
Q8.2026 Main 58/4/1 · Q41 mark
Under ___________ exchange rate system, the competent authority may devalue currency to increase exports. (Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)
Options:
- Fixed
- Floating
- Managed
- Fixed floating
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(A) Fixed
Q9.2026 Main 58/4/1 · Q101 mark
Purchase of a property by an Indian resident abroad can be recorded on the ___________ side of ___________ account of Balance of Payments. (Choose the correct option to fill in the blanks)
Options:
- Credit, Capital
- Credit, Current
- Debit, Current
- Debit, Capital
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(D) Debit, Capital
Q10.2026 Main 58/5/1 · Q41 mark
Under the flexible exchange rate system, the exchange rate is determined by the _____.
(i) Government
(ii) Demand and supply
(iii) Intervention of the Central Bank
(Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)
Options:
- Only (i)
- Only (ii)
- Only (iii)
- (ii) and (iii)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(B) Only (ii)
Q11.2026 Main 58/5/1 · Q91 mark
Read the following statements: Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose the correct option from those given below:
Assertion (A): Transfers from Abroad (remittances) are to be recorded on the credit side of capital account of Balance of Payments (BoP).
Reason (R): All the transactions that lead to inflow of foreign currency from the rest of the world are recorded on the credit side of Balance of Payments (BoP).
Options:
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
- Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Q12.2026 Supp 58/7/1 · Q41 mark
Identify the transactions that will be recorded in India’s capital account of the Balance of Payments (BoP): (Choose the correct option)
(i) Indian residents purchasing properties in Dubai
(ii) Indian firms borrowing from international banks
(iii) Remittances by Indians working abroad
(iv) Repayment of outstanding loans by the Indian Government to the IMF
Options:
- (i) and (iii)
- Only (iii)
- (ii) and (iii)
- (i), (ii) and (iv)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Supplementary), Set 58/7/1
(D) (i), (ii) and (iv)
Q13.2026 Supp 58/7/1 · Q91 mark
Read the following statements: Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose the correct option from those given below:
Assertion (A): Capital account is in balance when capital inflows are equal to capital outflows.
Reason (R): Autonomous capital inflows indicate a decrease in assets and an increase in liabilities.
Options:
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
- Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Supplementary), Set 58/7/1
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
Q14.2025 Main 58/1/1 · Q11 mark
In the context of Current Account transactions of Balance of Payment, identify the incorrect statement from the following: (Choose the correct option)
Options:
- Export of goods and services are recorded as credit items.
- Import of goods and services are recorded as debit items.
- All transfer payments are recorded as debit items.
- All transfer receipts are recorded as debit items.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(D) All transfer receipts are recorded as debit items.
Q15.2025 Main 58/1/1 · Q31 mark
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement-1: Managed floating exchange rate system is an amalgamation of fixed and flexible exchange rate system.
Statement-2: Managed floating exchange rate system is also known as ‘hybrid system’.
In the light of the given statements, choose the correct option from the following:
- Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
- Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(C) Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
Q16.2025 Main 58/1/1 · Q91 mark
If a country exports goods worth of ₹ 600 crores and imports goods worth of ₹ 450 crores, the value of Balance of Trade of the country would be _______ of ₹_______ crores.
- deficit, 150
- surplus, 150
- deficit, 1,050
- surplus, 1,050
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(B) surplus, 150
Q17.2025 Main 58/4/1 · Q41 mark
Under the __________Exchange Rate System, the Central Bank can control the foreign exchange rate in a range bound manner. (Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)
- Fixed
- Flexible
- Managed floating
- Gold standard
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(C) Managed floating
Q18.2025 Main 58/4/1 · Q91 mark
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement 1: Import of heavy machinery from Japan is a source of demand for foreign exchange.
Statement 2: Financial aid by International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) for landslide in Wayanad (Kerala) is a source of supply of foreign exchange.
In the light of the given statements, choose the correct option from the following:
- Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
- Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(C) Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
Q19.2025 Main 58/5/1 · Q31 mark
Market forces of demand and supply, actively interact under _____exchange rate system to determine the foreign exchange rate. (Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)
- fixed
- flexible
- managed floating
- fixed floating
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(B) flexible
Q20.2025 Main 58/5/1 · Q101 mark
From the following, identify the situation which indicates the Current Account Surplus (CAS) in Balance of Payments (BOP) account of a nation.
- Excess of receipts on current account over the payments on current account.
- Equality of receipts on current account and payments on current account.
- Excess of payments on current account over receipts on current account.
- Excess of payments on current account over receipts on capital account.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(A) Excess of receipts on current account over the payments on current account.
Q21.2025 Main 58/6/1 · Q41 mark
Read the following statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R) carefully. Choose the correct option from those given below:
Assertion (A): Other things remaining constant, devaluation of domestic currency may lead to rise in National Income of the nation.
Reason (R): Devaluation of domestic currency refers to reduction in the value of domestic currency by the government with respect to foreign currency under the fixed exchange rate system.
Options:
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
- Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/6/1
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
Q22.2025 Main 58/6/1 · Q81 mark
Identify, which of the following is not a source of demand for foreign exchange. (Choose the correct option)
- Imports of goods and services
- Gifts by Indians to their families living abroad
- Indian tourists visiting foreign countries
- Loans from Rest of the World
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/6/1
(D) Loans from Rest of the World
Q23.2025 Main 58/6/1 · Q101 mark
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement 1: The price of a given currency in terms of another is known as bank rate.
Statement 2: Demand curve for foreign exchange is a downward sloping curve.
In the light of the given statements, choose the correct option from the following:
- Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
- Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/6/1
(B) Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
Q24.2025 Main 58/7/1 · Q11 mark
Read the following statements carefully :
Statement 1: Keeping other things constant, there exists positive correlation between the price of foreign exchange and its demand.
Statement 2: The foreign exchange rate indicates a country’s purchasing power in international markets.
In the light of the given statements, choose the correct option from the following :
- Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
- Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/7/1
(B) Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
Q25.2025 Main 58/7/1 · Q41 mark
Read the following statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R) carefully. Choose the correct option from those given below:
Assertion (A): Shipping service provided by an Indian company to foreign companies will be recorded in the current account of Balance of Payments (BOP).
Reason (R): Current account of Balance of Payments (BOP) does not alter the status of the asset or liabilities of the residents of India.
Options:
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
- Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/7/1
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
Q26.2024 Main 58/1/1 · Q41 mark
“As per the National Stock Exchange (NSE) data, dated 9th June, 2023, there was a net selling off worth ₹ 309 crore by Foreign Institutional Investors (FIIs) over the period of one month i.e., 9th May, 2023 - 9th June, 2023.”
The above mentioned transactions will be recorded on __________ side of ___________ account of Balance of Payments of India. (Choose the correct alternative to fill in the blanks)
- Debit, Current
- Credit, Capital
- Credit, Current
- Debit, Capital
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(D) Debit, Capital
Q27.2024 Main 58/1/1 · Q81 mark
Surplus in Balance of Payments (BOP) refers to the excess of ___________. (Choose the correct alternative to fill in the blank)
- Autonomous payments over Autonomous receipts
- Current Account payments over Autonomous receipts
- Capital Account receipts over Capital Account payments
- Autonomous receipts over Autonomous payments
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(D) Autonomous receipts over Autonomous payments
Q28.2024 Main 58/1/1 · Q101 mark
Suppose, the Balance of Trade of an imaginary economy shows a favourable balance of ₹ 500 crore. The values of merchandise exports are ₹ 1200 crore and transfer payments are ₹400 crore. The value of merchandise imports would be ₹ __________ crore. (Choose the correct alternative to fill in the blank)
- 1700
- 750
- 700
- 900
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(C) 700
Q29.2024 Main 58/2/1 · Q21 mark
Identify which of the following is not one of the merits of fixed exchange rate system.
- Ensures stability in exchange rate
- Possibility of under or over valuation of foreign currency
- Prevents speculations in foreign exchange market
- Coordination of macroeconomic policies becomes convenient
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(B) Possibility of under or over valuation of foreign currency
Q30.2024 Main 58/2/1 · Q31 mark
Identify which of the following will appear on the debit side in the Capital Account of India's Balance of Payments.
- An Indian sending remittances from England
- Investing in assets abroad by Indians
- An American company purchasing shares of an Indian company
- Export of spices from India
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(B) Investing in assets abroad by Indians
Q31.2024 Main 58/2/1 · Q41 mark
Study the following figure carefully and choose the correct alternative to fill in the blank:

Alternatives:
- Investments
- Trade of Services
- External Borrowings
- External Assistance
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(B) Trade of Services
Q32.2024 Main 58/3/1 · Q41 mark
According to the Reserve Bank of India’s (RBI’s) Statistical Supplement released on 19th May, 2023:
“India’s foreign exchange reserves grew for the third straight week and reached near an approximate level of $ 600 billion.”
The above situation will _________ the __________ side of Balance of Payments account of India. (Choose the correct alternative to fill in the blanks)
- Increase, Credit
- Decrease, Credit
- Decrease, Debit
- Increase, Debit
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/3/1
(D) Increase, Debit [1]
Q33.2024 Main 58/3/1 · Q81 mark
Identify the correct pair of statements given in Column I with the related terms in Column II:
| Column I | Column II |
|---|
| 1. Remittances from abroad to the nation | (i) Accommodating Transaction |
| 2. Government’s policy of decreasing the value of the nation’s currency against foreign currencies | (ii) Devaluation |
| 3. Difference between visible exports and visible imports of a nation | (iii) Balance of Payments |
| 4. Government as sole authority of determining foreign exchange rates | (iv) Flexible Exchange Rate System |
Alternatives:
- 1 → (i)
- 2 → (ii)
- 3 → (iii)
- 4 → (iv)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/3/1
(B) 2 → (ii) [1]
Q34.2024 Main 58/3/1 · Q101 mark
Read the following statements: Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose the correct alternative from those given below:
Assertion (A): In case of an unfavourable Balance of Trade, the Current Account of the nation may be in surplus.
Reason (R): Net invisible receipts of a nation can exceed the Net visible receipts.
Alternatives:
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
- Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
- Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/3/1
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A). [1]
Q35.2024 Main 58/4/1 · Q11 mark
Read the following statements - Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose one of the correct alternatives given below:
Assertion (A): Ceteris Paribus, Devaluation of domestic currency leads to an increase in National Income of a nation.
Reason (R): Devaluation of domestic currency refers to reduction in the value of domestic currency with respect to foreign currency, under the fixed exchange rate system.
Alternatives:
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
- Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A). [1]
Q36.2024 Main 58/4/1 · Q31 mark
Identify, which of the following is not a source of demand for foreign exchange for Indian economy? (Choose the correct alternative.)
- Import of goods and services
- Remittances by foreigners living in India to their families abroad
- Indian tourists visiting foreign countries
- Loans from Rest of the World (ROW)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(D) Loans from Rest of the World (ROW) [1]
Q37.2024 Main 58/4/1 · Q51 mark
Under the ______________Exchange Rate System, the Central Bank can control the rise / fall of foreign exchange rate in a range bound manners. (Fill up the blank with correct alternative.)
- fixed
- flexible
- managed floating
- gold standard
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(C) managed floating [1]
Q38.2024 Main 58/5/1 · Q41 mark
If in an economy the Balance of Trade is showing a deficit of ₹ 200 crore and the value of import is ₹ 900 crore, then the value of exports would be ₹ _________crore. (Fill up the blank with correct alternative.)
- 200
- 1100
- 700
- 900
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(C) 700 [1]
Q39.2024 Main 58/5/1 · Q81 mark
From the following, identify the correct reasons that may affect the supply of foreign exchange in an economy:
I. Purchase of land in England by an Indian
II. Foreign tourists visiting Taj Mahal
III. Donation of $ 500 million from Microsoft
IV. Indian students going to Australia for studies
Alternatives:
- I and II
- II and IV
- II and III
- I and IV
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(C) (II) and (III) [1]
Q40.2024 Main 58/5/1 · Q101 mark
The measurement of Balance of Payments deficit is based on ______ transactions. (Fill up the blank with correct alternative.)
- Autonomous
- Accommodating
- Current account
- Capital account
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(A) Autonomous [1]
Q41.2024 Supp 58/S/1 · Q11 mark
Under _______ exchange rate system, the Central Bank and Government of the country do not have any authority to interfere in the exchange rate determination. (Choose the correct alternative to fill in the blank)
- fixed
- floating
- managed floating
- gold standard
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Supplementary), Set 58/S/1
(B) floating [1]
Q42.2024 Supp 58/S/1 · Q41 mark
Keeping all other factors constant, trade surplus may arise in the Balance of Payments of a nation because of ________. (Choose the correct alternative to fill in the blank)
- rise in export of coffee to Japan
- fall in import of banking services
- fall in exports of cereals
- rise in remittances to abroad
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Supplementary), Set 58/S/1
(A) rise in export of coffee to Japan [1]
Q43.2024 Supp 58/S/1 · Q81 mark
The ___________ account of Balance of Payments reflects the net changes in financial claims on the Rest of the World (ROW). (Choose the correct alternative to fill in the blank)
- Trade
- Capital
- Current
- Visible
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Supplementary), Set 58/S/1
(B) Capital [1]
Q44.2023 Main 58/1/1 · Q41 mark
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement 1: Borrowings by a nation from the World Bank to finance Balance of Payment (BOP) deficit will be recorded in the capital account.
Statement 2: Autonomous transactions are independent of the condition of Balance of Payment (BOP) account.
In light of the given statements, choose the correct alternative from the following:
- Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
- Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(c) Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
Q45.2023 Main 58/1/1 · Q8(a)1 mark
Suppose that, the Balance of Trade of a nation exhibits a deficit of ₹ 50,000 crore. The import of visible items are five times of the exports of visible items. The value of exports of visible items would be ₹_______ crore. (Choose the correct alternative to fill up the blank)
- 20,000
- 10,000
- 12,500
- 20,300
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(c) 12,500
Q46.2023 Main 58/1/1 · Q8(b)1 mark
Gifts and remittances sent abroad are recorded on the _______ side of the _________ account in Balance of Payment. (Choose the correct alternative to fill up the blanks)
- credit, capital
- debit, capital
- credit, current
- debit, current
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(d) debit, current
Q47.2023 Main 58/2/1 · Q21 mark
Read the following statements - Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose one of the correct alternatives given below:
Assertion (A): The Balance of Payments is in surplus, if autonomous receipts are greater than autonomous payments.
Reason (R): Autonomous transactions are determined by the difference in the Balance of Payments.
Alternatives:
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
- Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(c) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
Q48.2023 Main 58/2/1 · Q51 mark
As per the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) press report, dated 22nd June, 2022:
"Net Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI) recorded an outflow of US$15.2 billion mainly from the equity market."
The above transaction will be recorded in the _______ account on ______ side of Balance of payments account of India. (Choose the correct alternative)
- current, credit
- current, debit
- capital, credit
- capital, debit
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(d) capital, debit
Q49.2023 Main 58/2/1 · Q71 mark
Assuming that, the following data is given for an imaginary economy:
| Items / Year | 2020 (₹ in Cr.) | 2021 (₹ in Cr.) |
|---|
| Exports of visibles | 1,000 | 1,100 |
| Imports of visibles | 800 | 850 |
The balance of trade from 2020 to 2021_______ by ₹_______ crore. (Choose the correct alternative)
- increased, 200
- decreased, 200
- increased, 50
- decreased, 50
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(c) increased, 50
Q50.2023 Main 58/3/1 · Q21 mark
Keeping other factors constant, if the price of crude oil falls in the international market, it may lead to_____________. (Choose the correct alternative to fill up the blank)
- increase in trade deficit
- decrease in trade deficit
- no change in trade deficit
- no change in the foreign exchange reserves
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/3/1
(b) decrease in trade deficit
Q51.2023 Main 58/3/1 · Q41 mark
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement 1: Import of gold from Dubai will be recorded on the debit side of the current account in Balance of Payments of India.
Statement 2: Outflow of Foreign Institutional Investment (FII) from Indian stock markets will be recorded on the credit side of the capital account.
In light of the given statements, choose the correct alternative from the following:
- Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
- Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/3/1
(a) Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
Q52.2023 Main 58/3/1 · Q8(a)1 mark
Identify, which of the following is not a source of supply of foreign exchange for India. (Choose the correct alternative)
- Exports of goods and services abroad
- Remittances by Indian workers working abroad
- Imports of goods and services from abroad
- Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) by a German automobile manufacturer
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/3/1
(c) Imports of goods and services from abroad
Q53.2023 Main 58/3/1 · Q8(b)1 mark
Read the items given in Columns I and II carefully and choose the correct pair of statements from the given alternatives.
| Column I | | Column II |
|---|
| i. | Export of software by an Indian company | 1. | Demand of foreign currency |
| ii. | Accommodating nature of transactions | 2. | Profit motive |
| iii. | Autonomous nature of transactions | 3. | Non-profit motive |
| iv. | Loan forwarded to Sri Lanka during its economic crisis | 4. | Supply of foreign exchange |
Alternatives:
- i- 1
- ii -2
- iii – 3
- iv - 4
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/3/1
One mark to be allotted to all the candidates
Q54.2023 Main 58/4/1 · Q21 mark
An Indian company receives a loan from a company located abroad. This transaction would be recorded on the_____________ side of _________ account in India's Balance of Payment. (Choose the correct alternative to fill up the blanks)
- Credit, Current
- Debit, Current
- Credit, Capital
- Debit, Capital
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(c) Credit, Capital
Q55.2023 Main 58/4/1 · Q41 mark
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement 1: Balance of Payment account is always balanced in accounting sense.
Statement 2: Autonomous transactions, restore balance in Balance of Payment account.
In light of the given statements, choose the correct alternative from the following:
- Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
- Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(a) Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
Q56.2023 Main 58/4/1 · Q8(a)1 mark
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement 1: Depreciation of domestic currency may lead to a rise in exports.
Statement 2: Due to the depreciation of Indian National Rupee (₹), purchasing power of US Dollar ($) may increase.
In light of the given statements, choose the correct alternative from the following:
- Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
- Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(c) Both statements 1 and 2 are true.
Q57.2023 Main 58/4/1 · Q8(b)1 mark
Identify, which one of the following is an intangible item in Balance of Payment (BoP).
- Export of food grains
- Imports of crude oil
- Export of Information Technology (IT) services to U.S.A.
- Import of coal by steel company in India
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(c) Exports of Information Technology to U.S.A.
Q58.2023 Main 58/5/1 · Q21 mark
“Considering the depreciation of Indian Currency (₹) in the international market, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has decided to purchase Indian currency (₹) in the open market.”
This represents ____________ exchange rate system. (Fill up the blanks with correct alternative)
- fixed
- flexible
- managed floating
- manipulated
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(c) managed floating
Q59.2023 Main 58/5/1 · Q41 mark
‘Deficit’ in Balance of Payment (BOP) refers to the excess of ____. (Choose the correct alternative)
- Current account payments over Current account receipts
- Capital account payments over Capital account receipts
- Autonomous payments over Autonomous receipts
- Accommodating payments over Accommodating receipts
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(c) Autonomous payments over Autonomous receipts
Q60.2023 Main 58/5/1 · Q8(a)1 mark
Suppose, the price of one UK Pound (£) has increased from ₹70 to ₹80, owing to market forces. This means that value of Indian Currency (₹) has __________. (Choose the correct alternative)
- appreciated
- depreciated
- revalued
- devalued
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(b) depreciated
Q61.2023 Main 58/5/1 · Q8(b)1 mark
Suppose, Country X, has more inflation than Country Y. Which of the following is most likely situation to happen in such a case, assuming other factors being constant? (Choose the correct alternative)
- A surplus trade balance in Country X
- A deficit trade balance for Country X
- A rise in exports from Country X to Country Y
- A deficit trade balance for Country Y
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(b) A deficit trade balance for Country X
Q62.2023 Supp 58/C/1 · Q3(a)1 mark
Balance of Payments deficit is the excess of ____________. (Choose the correct alternative to fill up the blank)
- Current Account Payment over Current Account Receipts
- Capital Account Payment over Capital Account Receipts
- Autonomous Payments over Autonomous Receipts
- Accommodating Payments over Accommodating Receipts
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Supplementary), Set 58/C/1
(c) Autonomous Payments over Autonomous Receipts
Q63.2023 Supp 58/C/1 · Q3(b)1 mark
“Due to fall in the value of Indian currency (₹) in the foreign exchange market, the Reserve Bank of India decides to buy Indian currency (₹).”
This type of action by the Central Bank is possible under _____________ exchange rate system. (Choose the correct alternative to fill up the blank)
- Flexible
- Managed floating
- Fixed floating
- Fixed
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Supplementary), Set 58/C/1
(b) Managed floating
Q64.2023 Supp 58/C/1 · Q5(a)1 mark
If a country exports goods worth ₹ 600 crore and imports goods worth ₹ 450 crore, the value of Balance of Trade of the country would be in ____________. (Choose the correct alternative to fill up the blank)
- deficit of ₹ 150 crore
- surplus of ₹ 150 crore
- deficit of ₹ 1,150 crore
- surplus of ₹ 1,150 crore
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Supplementary), Set 58/C/1
(b) surplus of ₹ 150 crore
Q65.2023 Supp 58/C/1 · Q5(b)1 mark
Remittances to Indian economy from abroad would be entered on ___________ side of __________ account of Balance of Payment. (Choose the correct alternative to fill up the blanks)
- credit, current
- credit, capital
- debit, current
- debit, capital
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Supplementary), Set 58/C/1
(a) credit, current
Q66.SQP 2025-26 · Q41 mark
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement 1: Devaluation of currency is said to occur when the exchange rate is decreased under the Fixed Exchange Rate System.
Statement 2: Under the Floating Exchange Rate System, competent authorities do not maintain foreign exchange reserves.
In light of the given statements, choose the correct option from the following:
- Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
- Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 · Marking Scheme
(B) Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
Q67.SQP 2025-26 · Q91 mark
Read the following statements: Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose the correct option from those given below:
Assertion (A): External Assistance is recorded in the Current Account of the Balance of Payments of a nation.
Reason (R): External Assistance includes bilateral and multilateral loans received/extended by a nation.
Options:
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
- Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 · Marking Scheme
(D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Q68.SQP 2026-27 · Q31 mark
Ceteris paribus, a rise in the price of foreign currency sets off a chain of effects in the foreign exchange market of an economy.
Identify, which of the following sequence explains this process.
(i) National Income will rise
(ii) Demand for foreign currency will fall
(iii) Imported goods become costlier
(Choose the correct option)
Options:
- (i), (ii), (iii)
- (ii), (i), (iii)
- (iii), (i), (ii)
- (iii), (ii), (i)
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 · Marking Scheme
(D) (iii), (ii), (i)
Q69.SQP 2026-27 · Q81 mark
An Indian art gallery sells an antique Madhubani painting to a buyer in France for 4,000 euros. This transaction will be recorded on ______ side and ______ account of the Balance of Payments Account. (Choose the correct option to fill up the blank)
- debit, current
- credit, current
- debit, capital
- credit, capital
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 · Marking Scheme
(B) credit, current
Q70.2026 Main 58/3/1 · Q123 marks
“US administration has recently imposed tariff to the magnitude of 50%.”
In the light of given statement, explain the likely impact of this step on the exports of India.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/3/1
The imposition of high tariffs to the magnitude of 50% by the US administration, would make Indian goods relatively expensive in the international markets. Thereby, demand for Indian goods in the global market may fall leading to reduction in exports of India. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q71.2025 Main 58/1/1 · Q123 marks
“The Government had launched Incredible India Campaign to promote tourism in various parts of the country.”
Elaborate the impact of this campaign on foreign exchange reserves and Balance of Payment of India.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/1/1
Tourism industry has been benefitted by the launch of Incredible India Campaign significantly on the front of the influx of foreign exchange. This inflow of foreign currency will be recorded on the credit side of the current account of Balance of Payment (BoP). This has not only increased the foreign exchange reserves of India but also has improved the BoP status of the nation. (To be marked as a whole) [3]
Q72.2025 Main 58/6/1 · Q113 marks
Distinguish between autonomous transactions and accommodating transactions in the Balance of Payments of the economy.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/6/1
Autonomous transactions are those international economic transactions which are independent of the state of Balance of Payments (BoP). These transactions are generally undertaken with an ‘economic motive’. Such transactions are called ‘above the line’ items in the BoP account. [1½]
Whereas;
Accommodating transactions are those international economic transactions which are undertaken (by competent authorities) to cover the surplus or deficit in Balance of Payments (BoP). These transactions are independent of any economic motive. Such transactions are called ‘below the line’ items in the BoP account. [1½]
Q73.2024 Main 58/1/1 · Q123 marks
Distinguish between fixed exchange rate system and flexible exchange rate system.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/1/1
Under the Fixed Exchange Rate System, the foreign exchange rate is fixed by the government. This exchange rate system helps in maintaining stability in the value of the domestic currency vis-à-vis foreign currencies. [1½]
Whereas;
Under the Flexible Exchange Rate System, the foreign exchange rate is determined by the interaction of market forces of demand and supply. Flexible exchange rate keeps fluctuating according to the demand and supply. [1½]
Q74.2024 Main 58/2/1 · Q11(a)3 marks
“Accommodating transactions are undertaken to maintain stability in the Balance of Payments Account.”
Justify the given statement with valid explanation.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/2/1
Accommodating transactions are commonly undertaken to maintain stability in Balance of Payments (BOP) account. Accommodating transactions are independent of any economic motive. These transactions are determined by the net result of autonomous items such as surplus or deficit in BOP.
Hence, accommodating transactions play a crucial role in maintaining stability in Balance of Payments account by providing a mechanism to address imbalances in international transactions. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q75.2024 Main 58/2/1 · Q11(b)3 marks
“Depreciation of currency may promote exports of a nation.”
Defend or refute the given statement with valid arguments.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/2/1
The given statement is defended. When the domestic currency of an economy depreciates, domestic goods become relatively cheaper in the international markets. Thereby, increasing the demand of domestic goods globally. Hence, depreciation of currency may promote exports of a nation. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q76.2024 Main 58/3/1 · Q123 marks
Discuss any two factors which directly affect the demand for foreign exchange of a nation.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/3/1
Two factors which directly affect the demand of foreign exchange of a nation are:
- Imports: When a country imports goods and services, it needs to pay for these imports in the foreign currency. Therefore, higher imports result in higher demand for foreign exchange. [1½]
- Investments abroad: When domestic investors make investments abroad, the payment is to be made in the foreign currency. This increases the demand for foreign exchange. [1½]
(Any other valid factor/explanation to be awarded marks)
Q77.2024 Main 58/4/1 · Q123 marks
State the meaning of autonomous and accommodating items, under Balance of Payments of India, with the help of an example.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/4/1
Autonomous transactions are those international economic transactions which are independent of the state of Balance of Payments (BOP). These transactions generally take place with some economic motive. For example, exports of goods. [1 + ½]
Accommodating transactions are those international economic transactions which are undertaken (by competent authorities) to cover the surplus/deficit in Balance of Payments (BOP). These transactions are independent of economic motive. For example, loan taken from the World Bank to cover the deficit in the BOP Account. [1 + ½]
(Any other valid example to be awarded marks)
Q78.2024 Main 58/5/1 · Q123 marks
“Trade Deficit must exist, if a country is facing situation of Current Account Deficit (CAD).”
Defend or refute the above mentioned statement with valid arguments.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/5/1
The given statement is refuted. The Current Account Deficit (CAD) is a broader concept. CAD occurs when the foreign exchange payments on account of visible, invisibles and unilateral transfers are in excess over the foreign exchange receipts of visible, invisibles and unilateral transfers.
A country may face a situation of CAD, even if the country has trade surplus, with negative balances on account of services and unilateral transfers. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q79.2024 Supp 58/S/1 · Q12(a)3 marks
“Devaluation of currency and depreciation of currency have the same implications, but they originate from divergent sources.”
Do you agree with the given statement? Give valid reason in support of your answer.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Supplementary), Set 58/S/1
Yes, devaluation and depreciation of currency may lead to fall in the value of domestic currency in relation to foreign currency. This may result in promotion/reduction of exports/imports, as the domestic/foreign goods become relatively cheaper/costlier. Hence, both devaluation and depreciation of currency have the same implications. However, devaluation of currency originates due to the actions taken by the government while depreciation of currency is caused by the market forces of demand and supply. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q80.2024 Supp 58/S/1 · Q12(b)3 marks
Outline the meaning and reasons behind narrowing down of Current Account Deficit.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Supplementary), Set 58/S/1
Current Account Deficit (CAD) arises when receipts from exports of goods & services and unilateral transfers are less than the payments for imports of goods & services and unilateral transfers. [1]
CAD may narrow down when either receipts from exports of goods and services and unilateral transfers increase or payments for imports of goods and services and unilateral transfers decrease. [2]
Q81.2023 Main 58/1/1 · Q123 marks
“There exists a positive relation between foreign exchange rate and supply of foreign exchange.” Do you agree with the given statement? Justify your answer with valid arguments.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/1/1
Yes. When foreign exchange rate rises, the goods in domestic market become relatively cheaper for the buyers of the rest of the world. Thereby increasing the international competitiveness of Indian exports. This raises demand for exports, which in turn may lead to increase in supply of foreign exchange and vice-versa.
(Any other valid reason to be allotted marks)
Q82.2023 Main 58/2/1 · Q12(a)3 marks
"Under the flexible exchange rate system, the Central Bank does not intervene in the foreign exchange market."
Justify the statement, giving valid arguments.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/2/1
Under the flexible exchange rate system, the foreign exchange rate is determined through free market forces of demand and supply. Equilibrium rate of exchange is established at a point where the quantity demanded and quantity supplied of foreign exchange are equal.
In case of any disequilibrium, market forces of demand and supply will automatically bring the exchange rate back to the equilibrium level.
Hence, the Central Bank does not have any active role to play in the determination of exchange rate under the flexible exchange rate system.
(To be marked as a whole)
Q83.2023 Main 58/2/1 · Q12(b)3 marks
Explain the impact of home currency depreciation on the exports of a nation.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/2/1
Depreciation of home currency is referred to as a situation of fall in the price of home currency in terms of a foreign currency.
Depreciation of home currency may lead to promotion of exports from the nation as the goods become relatively cheaper. This will increase the international competitiveness of the exports from the home country to the rest of the world.
(To be marked as a whole)
Q84.2023 Main 58/3/1 · Q123 marks
Discuss briefly the determination of exchange rate under the flexible exchange rate system.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/3/1
Equilibrium rate of exchange is established at a point where the quantity demanded and quantity supplied of foreign exchange are equal. In the foreign exchange market, if disequilibrium occurs, it may lead to a situation of excess demand or excess supply.
The market mechanism will drive the exchange rate back to the equilibrium level. This implies that the free market forces of demand and supply will operate in such a manner that the equilibrium rate of exchange is automatically restored.
(To be marked as a whole, diagram not required)
Q85.2023 Main 58/4/1 · Q12(a)3 marks
"The central bank needs to intervene under the managed floating system."
Do you agree with the given statement? Support your answer with valid reasons.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/4/1
Yes. Under the managed floating system, the central bank allows the exchange rate to be determined by market forces of demand and supply. It may buy and sell foreign exchange to moderate exchange rate fluctuations. This intervention is undertaken to keep the exchange rate within the desired range.
(To be marked as a whole)
Q86.2023 Main 58/4/1 · Q12(b)3 marks
Differentiate between Surplus in Balance of Trade and Current Account Surplus.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/4/1
Surplus in the Balance of trade arises when the value of exports of visibles is more than the value of imports of visibles. [1½]
Whereas,
The current account surplus arises when receipts from exports of visibles, invisibles and unilateral transfers are more than payments for imports of visible, invisibles and unilateral transfers. [1½]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q87.2023 Main 58/5/1 · Q12(a)3 marks
Giving valid reasons, state whether the following statements are true or false:
(i) Dividend received from investment abroad is recorded on the credit side of the capital account.
(ii) Depreciation of the Indian Currency will lead to promotion of Indian exports.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(i) False. Dividend received from investment abroad is recorded on the credit side of current account, as neither assets nor liabilities of the country get affected. [1½]
(ii) True. Depreciation of the Indian currency will lead to promotion of Indian exports. As Indian exports become relatively cheaper for the rest of the world, thereby increasing the international competitiveness of Indian exports. [1½]
(No marks to be allotted if reason is wrongly given/ not given)
Q88.2023 Main 58/5/1 · Q12(b)3 marks
Distinguish between Autonomous transactions and Accommodating transactions.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/5/1
Autonomous transactions are those international economic transactions which are independent of the state of Balance of Payments (BOP). These transactions generally take place with ‘economic motive’. Such transactions are called ‘above the line’ transactions in the Balance of Payments account. [1½]
Whereas;
Accommodating transactions are those international economic transactions which are undertaken (by competent authorities) to cover the surplus or deficit in Balance of Payments. These transactions are independent of any economic motive. Such transactions are called ‘below the line’ transactions in the Balance of Payments account. [1½]
Q89.2026 Main 58/1/1 · Q144 marks
Michel, an entrepreneur of Country Zeta, borrowed $ 5 million from an overseas bank to expand his textile business.
During the same financial year, the Government of Country Zeta secured a loan of $ 30 Billion from an International Financial Institution to manage the ongoing Balance of Payments.
Samuel, an Economics student categorised both of these transactions as ‘autonomous transactions’ in the BoP account of the country.
Do you agree with his classification? Justify your answer with valid reasons.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/1/1
No. The loan taken by the Government of Zeta in this case can be classified as an accommodating transaction. Such transactions are those international economic transactions which are undertaken (by competent authorities) to cover the surplus or deficit in Balance of Payments (BoP) and are independent of any economic motive. [2]
However, loan taken by Michel, can be classified as an autonomous transaction. Such international economic transactions are independent of the state of BoP and generally take place with an economic motive. [2]
Q90.2026 Main 58/2/1 · Q144 marks
(a) Explain the likely impacts of the ‘Make in India’ policy initiated by Government of India on the Balance of Payments (BoP) of India (assuming all other factors constant). [2]
(b) State the meaning of Balance of Payment (BoP) surplus and deficit. [2]
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(a) Assuming all other factors are constant, the ‘Make in India’ policy is likely to improve the situation of Balance of Payments (BoP) of India as it may increase the domestic production and promote net exports. This may lead to greater inflow of foreign exchange, which is recorded on the credit side of the current account, thereby improving the overall BoP position. [2]
(b) Balance of Payments (BoP) Surplus refers to a situation under which, inflows of foreign exchange exceed outflows of foreign exchange on account of autonomous transactions, over a period of time. [1]
Balance of Payments (BoP) Deficit refers to a situation under which, inflows of foreign exchange fall short of outflows of foreign exchange on account of autonomous transactions, over a period of time. [1]
Q91.2026 Main 58/4/1 · Q134 marks
(a) Define Accommodating Items under Balance of Payments (BoP). [1]
(b) “Economic transactions that are recorded in the current account can be classified in two parts — merchandise and invisibles. Net inflows from both the transactions are referred to as Trade Surplus.”
Do you agree with the given statement? Give valid arguments in support of your answer. [3]
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(a) Accommodating items are those international economic transactions which are undertaken (by competent authorities) to correct the situation of surplus/deficit in Balance of Payments (BoP). [1]
(b) No. The current account includes transactions relating to merchandise (visible items) and invisibles. However, trade balance includes merchandise transactions only. Additionally, trade surplus refers to a situation where the value of exports of merchandise exceeds the value of imports of merchandise. Hence, net inflows from both merchandise and invisibles together determine the current account balance, not Trade Surplus. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q92.2026 Main 58/5/1 · Q134 marks
(a) Define Balance of Payments (BoP) Account.
(b) Differentiate between autonomous transactions and accommodating transactions in Balance of Payments (BoP).
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(a) The Balance of Payments (BoP) account records the transactions in goods, services and assets between residents of a country and the rest of the world for a specified time period typically, a year. [1]
(b) Autonomous transactions are those international economic transactions which are independent of the state of Balance of Payments (BoP). These transactions are generally undertaken with an ‘economic motive’. Such transactions are called ‘above the line’ items in the BoP account. [1½]
Whereas;
Accommodating transactions are those international economic transactions which are undertaken (by competent authorities) to cover the surplus or deficit in Balance of Payments (BoP). These transactions are independent of any economic motive. Such transactions are called ‘below the line’ items in the BoP account. [1½]
Q93.2026 Supp 58/7/1 · Q144 marks
The exchange rate of the US dollar to the Indian rupee has fluctuated between a high of ₹ 88.325 on September 5, 2025 and a low of ₹ 87.899 on September 2, 2025.
In the light of these exchange rate movements, analyse the likely impact on the exports and imports of India, assuming all other factors constant.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Supplementary), Set 58/7/1
An increase in the exchange rate from ₹ 87.899 to ₹ 88.325 per US dollar, indicates that the Indian rupee (₹) has depreciated. Assuming all other factors constant, this will encourage exports, as Indian goods will become relatively cheaper for buyers abroad. [2]
Conversely, imports will become dearer as more units of Indian rupee are required to buy one US dollar, leading to a decline in imports. Hence, depreciating Indian rupee is likely to promote exports and discourage imports. [2]
Q94.2025 Main 58/4/1 · Q13(a)4 marks
Elaborate any two components of the Capital Account under the Balance of Payments Account.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/4/1
The two components of the Capital Account under the Balance of Payments Account are:
- External Borrowings which include borrowings/lending from/to abroad by the private sector and government. Such transactions are recorded in the Capital Account as they affect the assets and liabilities of the nation. [2]
- Investments to/from abroad are recorded in the Capital Account as they affect the assets of the nation. [2]
(Any other valid component to be awarded marks)
Q95.2025 Main 58/4/1 · Q13(b)4 marks
Distinguish between Autonomous transactions and Accommodating transactions.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/4/1
Autonomous transactions are those international economic transactions which are independent of the state of Balance of Payments (BoP). These transactions are generally undertaken with an ‘economic motive’. Such transactions are called ‘above the line’ items in the BoP account. [2]
Whereas;
Accommodating transactions are those international economic transactions which are undertaken (by competent authorities) to cover the surplus or deficit in Balance of Payments (BoP). These transactions are independent of any economic motive. Such transactions are called ‘below the line’ items in the BoP account. [2]
Q96.2025 Main 58/5/1 · Q13(a)4 marks
“The Indian economy has witnessed a sharp turnaround during 2023-24 with Foreign Direct Investments (FDI) inflows of US $ 70·9 Bn and net Foreign Portfolio Investments (FPI) inflows of US $ 32.4 Bn.”
(i) Distinguish between the above mentioned economic variables.
(ii) In which account of Balance of Payments will the given variables be entered and why?
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(i) Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) refers to direct investment from abroad in physical assets with a considerable degree of influence and control over the firm. [1]
Whereas;
Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI) refers to investment from abroad in stocks, bonds or other financial assets and do not entail active management or control over the firm. [1]
(ii) The given variables will be entered in the Capital account of the Balance of Payments. [1]
Capital Account records all international transactions of assets. [1]
Q97.2025 Main 58/5/1 · Q13(b)4 marks
Explain how Accommodating Transactions differ from Autonomous Transactions.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/5/1
Accommodating transactions are those international economic transactions which are undertaken (by competent authorities) to cover the surplus or deficit in Balance of Payments (BoP). These transactions are independent of any economic motive. Such transactions are called ‘below the line’ items in the BoP account. [2]
Whereas;
Autonomous transactions are those international economic transactions which are independent of the state of Balance of Payments (BoP). These transactions are generally undertaken with an ‘economic motive’. Such transactions are called ‘above the line’ items in the BoP account. [2]
Q98.2025 Main 58/7/1 · Q14(a)4 marks
(i) Distinguish between Balance of Payments and Balance of Trade. [3]
(ii) Define Current Account Surplus. [1]
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/7/1
(i) Balance of Payments (BoP) is an accounting statement that provides a systematic record of all economic transactions between residents of a country and the rest of the world over a givrn period of time. It includes transactions in goods, services and assets. [1½]
Whereas,
Balance of Trade (BOT) is the difference between the value of exports and value of imports of goods of a country over a given period of time. It includes transactions in goods only. [1½]
(ii) Current Account Surplus (CAS) arises when receipts from exports of goods & services and unilateral transfers are greater than the payments for imports of goods & services and unilateral transfers. [1]
Q99.2025 Main 58/7/1 · Q14(b)4 marks
(i) Using suitable example, distinguish between Foreign Direct Investments (FDI) and Foreign Institutional Investments (FII). [3]
(ii) State one example of External Assistance as a component of capital account. [1]
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/7/1
(i) Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) refers to direct investments from abroad in physical assets with a considerable degree of influence and control over the firm. [1½]
Whereas;
Foreign Institutional Investment (FII) refers to investments from abroad in stocks, bonds or other financial assets and do not entail active management or control over the firm. [1½]
(ii) Bilateral loans [1] (Any other valid example to be awarded marks)
Q100.2023 Supp 58/C/1 · Q154 marks
Explain two sources of supply of foreign exchange.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Supplementary), Set 58/C/1
Two sources of supply of foreign exchange are:
- Exports: Exports of domestic goods and services to the rest of the world leads to an inflow of foreign currency. Thus, it is a source of supply of foreign exchange. [2]
- Investments from abroad: Investments made by the rest of the world result in inflow of foreign currency. Thus, it is a source of supply of foreign exchange. [2]
(Any other valid argument/point/explanation to be allotted marks)
Q101.SQP 2025-26 · Q144 marks
“Mr. Spector, a normal resident of XYZ country, took a $1 million loan from an overseas bank to expand his manufacturing business. During the same year, the Government of XYZ country borrowed $5 billion from an international financial institution to cover the Balance of Payments (BoP) deficit prevailing in the country.”
Mishika, an economics student, read the above information and identified both the transactions cited, as autonomous transactions in the BoP account of XYZ country.
Do you agree with Mishka’s identification of the underlying concept? Give valid arguments in support of your answer.
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 · Marking Scheme
No. The loan taken by Mr. Spector, can be classified as an autonomous transaction. Such international economic transactions are independent of the state of Balance of Payments (BoP) and generally take place with an economic motive. [2]
However, loan taken by the Government in this case can be classified as an accommodating transaction. Such transactions are those international economic transactions which are undertaken (by competent authorities) to cover the surplus or deficit in BoP and are independent of any economic motive. [2]
Q102.SQP 2026-27 · Q144 marks
In a hypothetical economy called BoPia, the equilibrium exchange rate is 72 Bopas per US dollar determined through market forces. Over time, BoPia has made substantial investments in human capital formation. As a result, the country now has an abundant supply of skilled labour, which has made it an attractive destination for Foreign Direct Investments (FDI). Hence, multinational companies across the world are investing huge amounts of capital in BoPia.
(I) Assuming all other factors constant, explain the effect of increased FDI inflows on BoPia’s Balance of Payments Account.
(II) Suppose the competent authority does not intervene in the process of determination of exchange rate in BoPia. Identify the foreign exchange rate system prevailing in BoPia and mention one of its merits.
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 · Marking Scheme
(I) Assuming all other factors remain unchanged, a rise in Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) inflows will increase the supply of foreign exchange (US dollars) in Bopia. The increased inflow of foreign exchange strengthens the overall Balance of Payments (BoP) position, may lead to a surplus in the BoP. [2]
(II) In the absence of any intervention by the competent authority (Central Bank/government), the flexible exchange rate system is prevailing in Bopia. [1]
Under flexible exchange rate system there is no need for the Central Bank/ government to maintain huge foreign exchange reserves. [1]
Q103.2025 Main 58/2/1 · Q176 marks
Read the following text carefully:
Balance of Payments (BoP) systematically summarise, the economic transactions of an economy with the rest of the world, over a given period of time.
The BoP can be broadly divided into two accounts namely:
- current account
- capital account
The current account measures the transfer of goods, services, income and transfers between an economy and rest of the world. The current account may be sub-divided into merchandise account and invisible account. Merchandise account consists of transactions related to export and import of goods.
In the invisible account, there are three broad categories:
- Non-factor services such as travel, transportation, insurance etc.
- Transfer which do not involve any value in exchange.
- Income which includes compensation of employees and investment income.
The capital account reflects the net changes in financial claims on rest of the world.
The capital account can be broadly broken up into two categories:
- Non-debt flows such as direct and portfolio investments.
- Debt flows such as external assistance, commercial borrowings, non-resident deposits etc.
The sum of the two accounts indicates the overall balance, which could be either be in surplus or deficit. The movement in overall balance is reflected in changes in international reserves of the country.
Source: https://mospi.gov.in/109-balance-payments (adopted and modified)
On the basis of the given text and common understanding, answer the following questions:
(a) Define Balance of Payments.
(b) Differentiate between the two accounts of Balance of Payments.
(c) Give the meaning of Balance of Payments deficit with formula.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(a) Balance of Payments (BoP) systematically summarise, the economic transactions between the residents of a country and the rest of the world, over a given period of time. [1]
(b) The two accounts of Balance of Payments are Current Account and Capital Account.
Current Account records the trade in goods & services and transfers payments to/from abroad. The current account may be sub-divided into merchandise account and invisible account. [1½]
Whereas;
Capital Account records the net changes in financial claims on rest of the world. The capital account can be subdivided into Non-debt flows and Debt flows. [1½]
(c) Balance of Payments (BoP) Deficit refers to a situation when, during the year, inflows of foreign exchange falls short of outflows of foreign exchange on account of autonomous transactions. [2]
Autonomous outflows of foreign exchange > Autonomous inflows of foreign exchange
Q104.2025 Supp 58/S/1 · Q17(a)6 marks
(i) Explain the effect of appreciation of domestic currency on imports of a nation. Provide an example to support your explanation. [3]
(ii) Explain any two components of Current Account under Balance of Payments. [3]
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Supplementary), Set 58/S/1
(i) Appreciation of domestic currency refers to a rise in the value of domestic currency in terms of foreign currency. [1]
For example, suppose the initial exchange rate stands at $1= ₹ 90 and the new exchange rate reduces to $1 = ₹ 80. This implies that the rupee has appreciated against the US Dollar ($). As a result, lesser units of INR (₹) are required to purchase one unit of US Dollar ($), making foreign goods relatively affordable to Indian buyers. Thus, it may lead to a rise in imports. [2]
(ii) Two components of Current Account under Balance of Payments are:
- Trade in Goods: It includes export and import of goods. The receipts from exports of goods are recorded on the credit side of the current account, while payments for import of goods are recorded on the debit side. [1½]
- Trade in Services: It includes transactions on account of factor income and non-factor income, such as shipping, banking, tourism, etc. Receipts from exports of services are recorded on the credit side of current account while payments for import of services are recorded on the debit side. [1½]
Q105.2025 Supp 58/S/1 · Q17(b)6 marks
(i) “A rise in price of foreign exchange leads to fall in demand for foreign exchange, other factors remaining constant.”
Do you agree with the given statement? Give valid reasons in support of your answer. [3]
(ii) As per the statement given by the Governor of Reserve Bank of India (RBI) dated 10th August 2023:
“The inflows from net commercial borrowings have been US $ 6·0 billion during April – June 2023.”
Identify, the sub-account and the side of Balance of Payments where the above stated transactions would be recorded. State valid reasons in support of your answer. [3]
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Supplementary), Set 58/S/1
(i) Yes, other factors remaining constant, there exists an inverse relationship between the price of foreign exchange and the demand for foreign exchange.
A given rise in the price of foreign exchange will increase the cost (in terms of rupees) of purchasing foreign goods and services. This reduces imports and thereby decreases the demand for foreign exchange. [3] (To be marked as a whole)
(ii) Net commercial borrowings from abroad will be recorded in the Capital Account of the Balance of Payments, as it leads to an increase in liabilities. [1½]
Borrowings from abroad are recorded on the credit side of the Capital Account as such transactions result in an inflow of foreign currency. [1½]
Part B · Indian Economic Development
6. Indian Economy on the Eve of Independence
Q1.2026 Main 58/1/1 · Q181 mark
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement 1: During the British rule in India, the export surplus was utilised to import of invisible items from Britain.
Statement 2: Indians paid for the expenses incurred by an office set up by the colonial government in Britain.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct option from the following:
- Statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false.
- Statement 1 is false and statement 2 is true.
- Both statements 1 and 2 are true.
- Both statements 1 and 2 are false.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(C) Both statements 1 and 2 are true.
Q2.2026 Main 58/2/1 · Q211 mark
_________ estimates India’s national and per capita income during the colonial era was considered very significant. (Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)
Options:
- William Digby
- V.K.R.V. Rao
- Findlay Shirras
- R.C. Desai
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(B) V.K.R.V. Rao
Q3.2026 Main 58/3/1 · Q181 mark
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement I: Inland waterways proved to be uneconomical as in the case of Coast Canal on the Orissa coast.
Statement II: British government followed an effective and efficient administrative set-up leaving a legacy of effective work culture.
In the light of the given statements, choose the correct option from the following:
- Statement I is true and Statement II is false.
- Statement I is false and Statement II is true.
- Both Statements I and II are true.
- Both Statements I and II are false.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/3/1
(A) Statement I is true and Statement II is false.
Q4.2026 Main 58/5/1 · Q191 mark
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement I: The colonial government had dual objectives behind the systematic deindustrialization of India.
Statement II: The British reduced India to a mere importer of raw materials for the its modern industries.
In the light of the given statements, choose the correct option from the following:
- Statement I is true and Statement II is false.
- Statement I is false and Statement II is true.
- Both Statements I and II are true.
- Both Statements I and II are false.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(A) Statement I is true and Statement II is false.
Q5.2026 Main 58/5/1 · Q251 mark
The export surplus during the colonial rule was used by the Britishers to _________.
(i) Bring gold and silver to India
(ii) Incur expenses on war
(iii) Import invisible items
(Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)
Options:
- Only (i)
- (i) and (ii)
- (i) and (iii)
- (ii) and (iii)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(D) (ii) and (iii)
Q6.2025 Main 58/2/1 · Q181 mark
_____ of agriculture refers to production of crops for sale in the open market rather than for self consumption purpose.
- Commercialisation
- Diversification
- Digitisation
- Modernisation
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(A) Commercialisation
Q7.2025 Main 58/4/1 · Q181 mark
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement 1: The British policies were accountable for commercialisation of Indian agriculture.
Statement 2: In the larger interest of Indians, the British rulers focused on the infrastructural growth of India.
In the light of the given statements, choose the correct option from the following:
- Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
- Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(A) Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
Q8.2025 Main 58/5/1 · Q251 mark
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement 1: The British policies led to huge employment generation in the secondary and tertiary sectors of the Indian Economy.
Statement 2: The real motive of the colonial government’s infrastructural development was to benefit interests of India.
In the light of the given statements, choose the correct alternative from the following:
- Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
- Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(D) Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.
Q9.2025 Main 58/6/1 · Q181 mark
Read the following statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R) carefully. Choose the correct alternative from those given below:
Assertion (A): The year 1921 is called as the Year of Great Divide.
Reason (R): After the year 1921, India experienced a sharp rise in its population growth rate.
Options:
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
- Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/6/1
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
Q10.2024 Main 58/1/1 · Q201 mark
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement 1: Under the colonial rule, basic infrastructure (like railways, post and telegraph etc.) was developed.
Statement 2: The real motive behind the infrastructural development in India was to strengthen the British interests.
In the light of the given statements, choose the correct alternative from the following:
- Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
- Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(C) Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
Q11.2024 Main 58/2/1 · Q181 mark
During the British rule, India's foreign trade had various features except________. (Choose the correct alternative to fill in the blank)
- Restrictive policies of commodity production, trade and tariff
- British monopoly over India's exports and imports
- Free trade from India to the rest of the world
- Large export surplus
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(C) Free trade from India to the rest of the world
Q12.2024 Main 58/3/1 · Q181 mark
Read the following statements: Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose the correct alternative from those given below:
Assertion (A): The agricultural sector under the British rule was primarily the base of the sectoral growth of India
Reason (R): British rulers wanted to take maximum advantage of the Indian agricultural output, for growth of industries in England.
Alternatives:
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
- Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
- Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/3/1
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A). [1]
Q13.2024 Main 58/4/1 · Q221 mark
Under the British Rule, commercialization of agriculture resulted in shifting of agricultural production from___________ crops to _______________crops. (Fill up the blanks with correct alternative.)
- Cash, Food
- Cotton, Jute
- Food, Cash
- Jute, Food
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(C) Food, Cash [1]
Q14.2024 Main 58/5/1 · Q181 mark
Read the following statements: Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose the correct alternative from those given below:
Assertion (A): India could not develop a sound Industrial-base during the British rule.
Reason (R): Britishers followed restrictive trade policies, which strengthened Indian handicraft industries.
Alternatives:
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
- Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false. [1]
Q15.2024 Supp 58/S/1 · Q181 mark
Britain maintained a monopoly control over India’s exports and imports while the rest was allowed with a few other countries like_________. (Choose the correct alternative to fill in the blank)
(i) China
(ii) Ceylon (Sri Lanka)
(iii) Persia (Iran)
Alternatives:
- Only (i)
- (i) and (ii)
- (ii) and (iii)
- (i), (ii) and (iii)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Supplementary), Set 58/S/1
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii) [1]
Q16.2024 Supp 58/S/1 · Q241 mark
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement 1: The commercialisation of Indian agriculture was coercively introduced by the colonial government.
Statement 2: Britishers had a two-fold motive behind the enforcement of food crops production.
In the light of the given statements, choose the correct alternative from the following:
- Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
- Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Supplementary), Set 58/S/1
(A) Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false. [1]
Q17.2023 Main 58/1/1 · Q181 mark
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement 1: Commercialization of agriculture under the British rule was responsible for frequent famines between 1875 and 1900.
Statement 2: During British rule, India began to export food grains.
In light of the given statements, choose the correct alternative from the following:
- Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
- Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(c) Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
Q18.2023 Main 58/2/1 · Q181 mark
Which of the following is NOT true about foreign trade during the colonial rule? (Choose the correct alternative)
- India suffered from large trade deficit.
- Restrictive policies of commodity production, were followed.
- Britain maintained a monopoly control over India's exports and imports.
- India became an exporter of primary products and an importer of finished consumer goods.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(a) India suffered from a large trade deficit.
Q19.2023 Main 58/2/1 · Q231 mark
From the set of the events given in Column-I and the corresponding year in Column-II, choose the incorrect pair:
| Column- I | | Column- II |
|---|
| A. | Introduction of railways in India | (i) | 1850 |
| B. | Incorporation of TISCO | (ii) | 1807 |
| C. | First Official Census of India | (iii) | 1881 |
| D. | Opening of Suez Canal | (iv) | 1869 |
Alternatives:
- A - (i)
- B - (ii)
- C - (iii)
- D - (iv)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(b) B-(ii)
Q20.2023 Main 58/4/1 · Q181 mark
Under the British Rule, commercialisation of agriculture resulted in shifting of agricultural production from ______ crops to ________ crops. (Choose the correct alternative to fill up the blanks)
- Cash, Food
- Cotton, Jute
- Food, Cash
- Jute, Food
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(c) Food, Cash
Q21.2023 Main 58/5/1 · Q181 mark
During the British rule in India, Indian agricultural output witnessed stagnation due to____________ (Choose the correct alternative)
- Decline in handicrafts
- Drain of Indian wealth
- Land settlement
- Introduction of railways
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(c) Land settlement
Q22.SQP 2025-26 · Q191 mark
_________ maintained a monopoly control over India’s exports and imports, while the rest was allowed with a few other countries. (Choose the correct option to fill up the blank)
- China
- Ceylon (Sri Lanka)
- Britain
- Persia (Iran)
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 · Marking Scheme
(C) Britain
Q23.SQP 2026-27 · Q201 mark
Read the following statements: Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose the correct option from those given below:
Assertion (A): The real motive behind the infrastructural development initiated by the British was to subserve the colonial interests.
Reason (R): Commercialisation of Indian agriculture during the British rule helped to strengthen the self-sufficiency of the village economies in India.
Options:
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
- Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 · Marking Scheme
(C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
Q24.SQP 2026-27 · Q271 mark
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement 1: French traveller Bernier observed that pre-British agriculture in Bengal was stagnant and unable to meet local needs.
Statement 2: In the 17th century, Bengal was a prosperous exporter of cotton and silk textiles, as well as rice, sugar, and butter.
In light of the given statements, choose the correct option from the following:
- Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
- Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 · Marking Scheme
(B) Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true
Q25.2025 Main 58/1/1 · Q33(a)(i)2 marks
Giving valid reasons, state whether the following statements are true or false.
(i) India followed unbalanced growth during the colonial rule.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/1/1
True. India’s economy under the colonial rule remained fundamentally agrarian, there was hardly any capital goods industry. Furthermore, the growth rate of the newly devised industrial sector and its contribution to the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) remained very small. [2]
Q26.2023 Main 58/3/1 · Q31(b)(i)2 marks
Explain any two shortfalls of the industrial policy under the British rule.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/3/1
- Discriminatory tariff policy followed under the British rule led to the systematic de-industrialisation. [1]
- Due to the lack of public investment, India could not develop a sound industrial base under the colonial rule. [1]
(Any other valid explanation to be allotted marks)
Q27.SQP 2026-27 · Q30(ii)2 marks
(II) “Britain maintained a monopoly control over India’s exports and imports.”
Justify the statement, giving valid reasons in support of your answer.
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 · Marking Scheme
(II) Britain maintained a monopoly control over India’s exports and imports as more than half of India’s foreign trade was restricted to Britain only, while rest was allowed to only a few other nations. Furthermore, the opening of Suez Canal in 1869 further intensified British control over India’s foreign trade. [2]
Q28.2026 Supp 58/7/1 · Q33(a)(ii)3 marks
(ii) “Agricultural stagnation in colonial India was not only due to the use of backward techniques of production, but also a result of exploitative land settlement systems and policies adopted by the British.”
Defend or refute this statement giving valid arguments.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Supplementary), Set 58/7/1
The given statement is defended. Agricultural stagnation in colonial India resulted not only from the use of backward production techniques, lack of irrigation and low levels of technology, but also from exploitative land settlement systems like the Zamindari System. Under this system Zamindars collected rent, irrespective of the economic conditions of the cultivators, adding to their plight. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q29.2025 Main 58/4/1 · Q29(a)3 marks
“Under the British rule, India underwent systematic economic exploitation with its resources and wealth being diverted to Britain.”
Justify the given statement with valid explanation.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/4/1
During the colonial period, India's resources and wealth were exploited and diverted to Britain by transforming the country into exporter of raw materials and importer of finished industrial products from Britain. Moreover, the export surplus did not result in any flow of gold or silver into India. Rather, this was used to make payments for the expenses incurred by an office set up by the colonial government in Britain, expenses on war, fought by the British government, and the import of invisible items, all of which led to the drain of Indian wealth to Britain. (To be marked as a whole) [3]
Q30.2025 Main 58/5/1 · Q28(a)3 marks
“British colonial rule in India executed a systematic economic exploitation that involved the extraction of India’s resources and wealth to benefit Britain.”
Justify the given statement with valid explanation.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/5/1
During the colonial period, India's resources and wealth were exploited and diverted to Britain by transforming the country into exporter of raw materials and importer of finished industrial products from Britain. Though India was able to generate export surplus but it did not result in any flow of gold or silver into India. Rather, this was used to make payments for the expenses incurred by an office set up by the colonial government in Britain, expenses on war, fought by the British government, and the import of invisible items, all of which led to the drain of Indian wealth to Britain. (To be marked as a whole) [3]
Q31.2025 Main 58/6/1 · Q28(a)3 marks
“During the British rule, contribution of industrial sector to the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) remained very low.”
Justify the given statement with valid arguments in support of your answer.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/6/1
Under British rule, India's industrial sector remained underdeveloped due to the systematic deindustrialization policy of the colonial government. The British aimed to make India an exporter of raw materials and a market for British finished goods.
The British policies led to the decline of the indigenous handicraft industry and lack of capital goods industries, keeping their contribution to the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) minimal. [3] (To be marked as a whole)
Q32.2025 Main 58/6/1 · Q28(b)3 marks
“The real motive behind infrastructural development under the British rule was not to provide basic amenities to the people of India but to subserve various colonial interests.”
Do you agree with the given statement? Give valid reasons in support of your answer.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/6/1
Yes. Basic infrastructure such as railways, posts and telegraphs were developed to serve the interest of the colonial regime. Roads and railways were built primarily to mobilise the army within India, drawing out raw materials from the countryside. In addition, communication tools like telephone and telegraph were introduced to maintain law and order.
Thus, the real motive behind this development was not to provide basic amenities to the people of India but to serve various colonial interests. [3] (To be marked as a whole)
Q33.2025 Main 58/7/1 · Q28(a)3 marks
“Many economists believe that India paid a very heavy price for the British industrialisation, by becoming their feeder economy.”
Justify the given statement with any one valid argument.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/7/1
During British rule, India was transformed into a mere exporter of raw materials for British industries, leading to a large export surplus. However, this came at a significant cost to India's economy, with essential commodities like food grains, clothes etc. becoming scarce in the domestic market. Policies like the commercialization of agriculture ensured maximum benefit for Britain. While India's exports grew, the benefits rarely reached the Indian population. [3]
(Any other valid argument to be awarded marks)
Q34.2025 Main 58/7/1 · Q28(b)3 marks
Critically appraise, infrastructural development in India during the British rule.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/7/1
Under colonial rule, basic infrastructure facilities were developed in India. It enabled people to travel long distances thereby breaking geographical and cultural barriers. Moreover, it fostered commercialisation of Indian agriculture which adversely affected the self-sufficiency of the village economies in India. Furthermore, the colonial dispensation also took measures for developing the inland trade and sea lanes. Nevertheless, these measures were far from satisfactory. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
(Any other valid explanation to be awarded marks)
Q35.2025 Supp 58/S/1 · Q28(a)3 marks
“The Indian agricultural sector during the British rule was saddled with low productivity.”
In the light of the above statement, briefly explain any two reasons behind the low productivity in the Indian agricultural sector.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Supplementary), Set 58/S/1
During the British rule, Indian agriculture sector was saddled with low productivity due to the following reasons:
- The colonial government introduced the Land Settlement system, under which the profit accruing out of the agriculture sector went to the zamindars instead of the cultivators. Thus, farmers neither had resources nor the incentive to invest in agriculture leading to low productivity. [1½]
- Lack of irrigation facilities and low levels of technology added up to aggravate the plight of the farmers and abysmally low level of agricultural productivity. [1½]
Q36.2025 Supp 58/S/1 · Q28(b)3 marks
Explain any two salient features of India’s foreign trade during the British rule.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Supplementary), Set 58/S/1
Two salient features of India’s foreign trade during British rule were:
- India became an exporter of primary products (such as raw silk, cotton etc.) and an importer of finished consumer goods (cotton and silk clothes) and capital goods like machinery from Britain. [1½]
- Britain maintained monopoly control over India’s export and imports. As a result, more than half of India’s foreign trade was restricted to Britain while the rest was allowed with a few other countries like China, Ceylon (Sri Lanka) and Persia (Iran). [1½]
Q37.2024 Main 58/1/1 · Q28(a)3 marks
“During the colonial period, the occupational structure showed lopsided movements.”
Do you agree with the given statement? Justify your answer with valid arguments.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/1/1
Yes. The occupational structure during the colonial period showed lopsided movements as:
- Parts of Madras Presidency, Bombay and Bengal witnessed a decline in the dependence of the workforce on the agricultural sector with a commensurate increase in the manufacturing and the services sectors.
- There had been an increase in the share of workforce in agriculture in states such as Orissa, Rajasthan and Punjab.
[3] (To be marked as a whole)
Q38.2024 Main 58/3/1 · Q33(a)(i)3 marks
“The real motive behind infrastructural development in India was to strengthen the British interests.”
Do you agree with the given statement? Justify your answer with valid arguments.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/3/1
Yes. Basic infrastructure such as railways, posts and telegraphs developed under the colonial regime. However, the real motive behind this development was not to provide basic amenities to the people of India but to serve various colonial interests. The roads and railways were built primarily to mobilise the army within India, drawing out raw materials from the countryside to the nearest railway station/port to export. In addition to this, communication tools like telephone and telegraph were introduced to serve the purpose of maintaining law and order. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q39.2024 Main 58/5/1 · Q28(a)3 marks
“Opening up of Suez Canal helped in establishing the British monopoly control over India's foreign trade”.
Justify the given statement with valid arguments.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/5/1
Opening of the Suez Canal provided a direct and shorter trade route for ships operating between Britain and India and avoided the need to sail around Africa. Thus, it intensified British control over India’s foreign trade as it reduced the cost of transportation and made access to the Indian market easier. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q40.2024 Main 58/5/1 · Q28(b)3 marks
“Development of Railways during British rule encouraged colonial exploitation of the Indian resources.”
Justify the given statement with valid arguments.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/5/1
Development of Railways during British rule fostered commercialisation of Indian agriculture, which adversely affected the self-sufficiency of the village economies. Through railways, primary products were transported to the nearest ports which led to drain of India’s wealth, as this export surplus did not result in any flow of gold or silver into India.
Hence, the benefits from the introduction of railways were outweighed by the country’s huge economic loss. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q41.2024 Supp 58/S/1 · Q28(b)3 marks
Enumerate any three infrastructural development activities undertaken by the colonial government in India.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Supplementary), Set 58/S/1
Three infrastructural development activities undertaken by the colonial government in India were as follows:
- Introduction of railways [1]
- Development of inland trade and sea lanes [1]
- Introduction of electric telegraph [1]
(Any other valid point to be awarded marks)
Q42.2026 Main 58/1/1 · Q30(a)4 marks
State and explain any two changes which were observed in India’s occupational structure during the British Rule.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/1/1
During the British rule the occupational structure of India showed regional variation as:
- Shift towards Industrial and Service sector: Parts of Madras Presidency, Bombay and Bengal witnessed a decline in the dependence of the workforce on the agricultural sector with a commensurate increase in the manufacturing and the services sectors. [½+1½]
- Rising Dependence on Agriculture sector: There had been an increase in the share of workforce in agriculture in states such as Orissa, Rajasthan and Punjab. [½+1½]
Q43.2026 Main 58/1/1 · Q30(b)4 marks
“The British sought to achieve their vested interest through their policies of infrastructural development in India.”
Do you agree with the given statement? Justify your answer with valid explanation.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/1/1
Yes. The British developed the basic infrastructure to subserve their own interest. Roads and railways were built primarily to mobilise the army within India, drawing out raw materials from the countryside to the nearest railway station/port for exporting to England/other foreign destinations. Moreover, various communication tools like electric telegraph were introduced to maintain law and order. [4]
(To be marked as a whole)
(Any other valid explanation to be awarded marks)
Q44.2026 Main 58/2/1 · Q30(a)4 marks
“The Restrictive policies under the colonial government adversely affected the structure, composition and volume of India’s foreign trade.”
Justify the above statement with valid explanation.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/2/1
The restrictive policies under the colonial rule, adversely affected India’s foreign trade. India was made an exporter of primary products like cotton, jute, silk, and sugar, and an importer of finished goods and machinery from Britain. Furthermore, Britishers exercised monopoly control, over half of India’s foreign trade directed towards them, while limited trade was allowed with other countries like China, Ceylon and Persia. The opening of the Suez Canal further strengthened British control, worsening the structure, composition and volume of India’s foreign trade. [4]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q45.2026 Main 58/2/1 · Q30(b)4 marks
Explain the main objectives and impacts of land settlement policies implemented under the British government rule.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/2/1
The main objectives of land settlement policies under the British rule were to create a systematic and efficient mechanism for tax collection and to maximise revenue. This revenue was targeted to meet administrative expenses and financing the military needs of the colonial government. [2]
The implementation of these policies worsened the condition of Indian farmers, leading to their exploitation and distress. As a result, agricultural productivity remained low and the sector faced stagnation, resulting in widespread poverty and social unrest. [2]
(Any other valid point to be awarded marks)
Q46.2026 Main 58/3/1 · Q324 marks
Study the given image carefully and answer the questions that follow.

(i) Identify the artificial waterway during colonial rule that served as a highway between India and Britain. [1]
(ii) In which year was this artificial maritime route officially opened for international navigation? [1]
(iii) Describe the economic significance of artificial waterways between the Mediterranean and the Red Sea. [2]
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/3/1
(i) The Suez Canal. [1]
(ii) The Suez Canal was officially opened for international navigation in 1869. [1]
(iii) Opening up of the Suez Canal provided a direct and shorter trade route for ships operating between Britain and India and avoided the need to sail around Africa, thereby reducing around 5,100 miles of travel. Thus, it intensified British control over India’s foreign trade as it reduced the cost of transportation and made access to the Indian market easier. [2]
Q47.2026 Main 58/4/1 · Q30(a)4 marks
“Infrastructural upliftment of India was one of the key features of the British rule in India.”
State and discuss any two such developments, in the light of the given statement, with self-serving interests of the British.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/4/1
Two infrastructural developments initiated by the British in India, with self-serving interests were:
- Development of roads and railways: The roads and railways were built primarily to mobilise the army within India, drawing out raw materials from the countryside to the nearest railway station/port to export. [½+1½]
- Development of communication system: Communication tools like telephone and telegraph were introduced to strengthen administrative control and maintain law and order across the country. [½+1½]
(Any other valid development to be awarded marks)
Q48.2025 Main 58/2/1 · Q304 marks
“The British introduced many infrastructural development project, which was largely driven by its own self-serving interest”.
Briefly explain any two main causes behind the infrastructural development undertaken by the colonial government.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/2/1
Two main causes behind infrastructural development by the colonial government were:
- The roads were built primarily to serve the purpose of mobilising the army within India. [2]
- Introduction of railways and roads helped in drawing out raw materials from the countryside to the nearest railway station/port. [2]
(Any other valid cause to be awarded marks)
Q49.2024 Main 58/2/1 · Q30(a)4 marks
Discuss any two factors that lead to stagnating Indian agriculture sector during British rule.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/2/1
During British rule, the agriculture sector experienced stagnation due to the following factors:
- The colonial government introduced the Land Settlement system. The zamindars used to exploit cultivators by extracting a major portion of the produce in the form of rent leading to misery among the farmers. [2]
- Lack of irrigation facilities and low level of technology contributed to the dismal level of agricultural productivity, which aggravated the plight of the farmers. [2]
(Any other valid factor to be awarded marks)
Q50.2023 Main 58/5/1 · Q31(b)4 marks
State and explain any two main causes behind infrastructural development by British rule.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/5/1
Two main causes behind infrastructural development by British rule were:
- Mobilisation of army: The roads were built primarily to serve the purpose of mobilising the army within India and drawing out raw materials from the countryside to the nearest railway station or the port. [½ + 1½]
- Maintenance of law and order: The introduction of the electric telegraph in India served the purpose of maintaining law and order. [½ + 1½]
(Any other valid cause to be allotted marks)
Q51.2023 Supp 58/C/1 · Q324 marks
“Despite being the main occupation of about 85% of the country's population during British rule, agricultural sector continued to experience stagnation”
Briefly explain any two reasons responsible for the backwardness of Indian agriculture on the eve of independence.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Supplementary), Set 58/C/1
Two reasons responsible for the backwardness of Indian agriculture on the eve of independence were:
- Land Settlement System: The colonial government introduced the Zamindari system. The zamindars used to exploit cultivators by extracting a major portion of the produce in the form of rent leading to misery among the farmers. [2]
- Lack of infrastructure facilities: Lack of irrigation facilities and low level of technology contributed to the dismal level of agricultural productivity, which added up to aggravate the plight of the farmers. [2]
(Any other valid point to be allotted marks)
Q52.SQP 2025-26 · Q30(a)4 marks
“The introduction of Railways affected the structure of the Indian economy in two important ways.”
Justify the given statement, with valid explanation.
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 · Marking Scheme
The introduction of railways affected the structure of the Indian economy in two important ways:
- It enabled people to undertake long distance travel and thereby breaking geographical and cultural barriers. [2]
- It fostered commercialisation of Indian agriculture which adversely affected the self-sufficiency of the village economies in India. [2]
Q53.SQP 2025-26 · Q30(b)4 marks
Refer to the given information carefully:
| — | 1921–30 | 1941–50 | Increase in expectation of life during 20 years |
|---|
| Expectation of life at birth | 26 years and 11 months | 32 years and 5 months | 5 years and 6 months |
| Expectation of life at age 10 | 36 years and 5 months | 39 years | 2 years and 7 months |
Source: Census of India 1951
Answer the following questions on the basis of the given information and common understanding:
(I) Identify and define the demographic indicator given in the above table. [2]
(II) List any two such demographic indicators. [1]
(III) State the stage of demographic transition India entered in 1921. [1]
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 · Marking Scheme
(I) The demographic indicator given in the table is Life Expectancy. [1]
Life Expectancy refers to the average number of years a person is expected to live. [1]
(II) Two demographic indicators are:
- Infant Mortality Rate [½]
- Literacy Rate [½]
(III) India entered the second stage of demographic transition in 1921. [1]
Part B · Indian Economic Development
7. Indian Economy 1950–1990
Q1.2026 Main 58/4/1 · Q211 mark
Which of the following is not an advantage of Green Revolution?
- Increased marketed surplus
- Increase in prices of food grains
- Self-sufficiency in food grains
- Creation of buffer stock
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(B) Increase in prices of food grains
Q2.2026 Main 58/5/1 · Q241 mark
___________ was set up by the Government of India in 1950 to formulate plans for the most effective and balanced utilisation of resources. (Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)
- NITI Aayog
- Planning Commission
- Karve Committee
- World Trade Organisation
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(B) Planning Commission
Q3.2026 Supp 58/7/1 · Q181 mark
Indian producers were protected against foreign competition which did not give them the incentive to improve the quality of goods that they produced. Identify the policy referred to: (Choose the correct option)
- Industrial Policy Resolution, 1948
- Policy to promote small-scale industries
- Import substitution policy
- Licencing policy
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Supplementary), Set 58/7/1
(C) Import substitution policy
Q4.2026 Supp 58/7/1 · Q201 mark
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement I: Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis is known as the architect of Indian planning.
Statement II: The Industrial Policy Resolution of 1948 was adopted to ensure that the state takes the dominating status in the economy.
In the light of the given statements, choose the correct option from the following:
- Both Statements I and II are true.
- Both Statements I and II are false.
- Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.
- Statement I is false, but Statement II is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Supplementary), Set 58/7/1
(C) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.
Q5.2025 Main 58/1/1 · Q211 mark
From the terms given below in Column-I and Column-II, choose the correct pair of statements:
| Column-I | Column-II |
|---|
| (i) Subsidies | (a) Maximum quantity of goods that can be imported |
| (ii) Land ceiling | (b) Element of IPR 1956 |
| (iii) Small Scale Industries | (c) Land to the tiller |
| (iv) Modernisation as a goal of five year plan | (d) Change in social outlook |
Options:
- (i) – (a)
- (ii) – (b)
- (iii) – (c)
- (iv) – (d)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(D) (iv) – (d)
Q6.2025 Main 58/1/1 · Q241 mark
Study the following image carefully:

Identify, the trade practice that has successfully replaced foreign goods with domestic production.
Options:
- Export Promotion
- Export Substitution
- Import Proliferation
- Import Substitution
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(D) Import Substitution
Q7.2025 Main 58/2/1 · Q211 mark
Read the following statements: Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose one of the correct options given below:
Assertion (A): Under the land reforms, Indian government fixed the minimum land size which could be owned by an individual.
Reason (R): The purpose of land ceiling was to avoid the concentration of land ownership in a few hands.
Options:
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
- Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Q8.2025 Main 58/4/1 · Q221 mark
In the post-independence era, the policy makers of India pushed for ‘self-reliance’ for the first __________ Five Year Plans. (Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)
- 8
- 7
- 6
- 5
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(B) 7
Q9.2025 Main 58/4/1 · Q271 mark
Read the following statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose the correct alternative from the options given below:
Assertion (A): Excessive regulation of permit license raj prevented certain private firms from becoming more efficient.
Reason (R): Private sector wasted a significant time in obtaining licenses rather than enhancing product quality and international competitiveness.
Options:
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
- Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
Q10.2025 Main 58/5/1 · Q201 mark
In the post-independence era, the policy makers of India emphasised on ‘self-reliance’ for the first ____ Five Year Plans. (Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(B) 7
Q11.2025 Main 58/6/1 · Q201 mark
“The Indian Government adopted a policy of fixing maximum land holding limit (ownership) for an individual.”
It is commonly known as ___________. (Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)
- Green Revolution
- Land Ceiling
- Marketable Surplus
- Golden Revolution
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/6/1
(B) Land Ceiling
Q12.2025 Main 58/7/1 · Q221 mark
Modernization is an important economic planning objective that focuses on __________. (Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)
(i) Adoption of innovative technology
(ii) Bringing positive change in social outlook
(iii) Equal distribution of income and wealth
(iv) Abolition of intermediaries
Options :
- (i) and (iv)
- (i) and (iii)
- (i), (iii) and (iv)
- (i) and (ii)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/7/1
(D) (i) and (ii)
Q13.2025 Supp 58/S/1 · Q241 mark
Study the following image carefully:

Identify, which of the following factors is an essential requirement for the implementation of Green Revolution. (Choose the correct alternative)
- Regular use of chemical fertilizers
- Use of natural manures
- A lesser requirement for irrigation facilities
- Traditional seeds
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Supplementary), Set 58/S/1
(A) Regular use of chemical fertilizers
Q14.2024 Main 58/1/1 · Q181 mark
Read the following statements- Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose the correct alternative given below:
Assertion (A): The excessive regulation of permit license raj prevented certain private firms from becoming fairly competitive.
Reason (R): Private sector wasted huge amounts in obtaining licenses rather than on improving the product quality and international competitiveness.
Alternatives:
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
- Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
Q15.2024 Main 58/2/1 · Q201 mark
Modernization is an important economic planning objective that focuses on ________. (Choose the correct alternative to fill in the blank)
(i) Adoption of innovative technology
(ii) Equal distribution of income and wealth
(iii) Bringing positive changes in the social outlook
Alternatives:
- Only (i)
- (i) and (ii)
- (i) and (iii)
- (i), (ii) and (iii)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(C) (i) and (iii)
Q16.2024 Main 58/3/1 · Q211 mark
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement 1: Land ceiling was one of the Government policies to promote equity in the agriculture sector.
Statement 2: Land reforms resulted in abolition of the Zamindari system in the post independence period.
In light of the given statements, choose the correct alternative from the following:
- Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
- Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/3/1
(C) Both Statements 1 and 2 are true. [1]
Q17.2024 Main 58/4/1 · Q181 mark
Read the following statements — Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose one of the correct alternatives given below:
Assertion (A): License Permit Raj was a major obstacle for growth of private sector.
Reason (R): Private sector wasted huge amount in obtaining licences, rather than on improving the product, quality and international competitiveness.
Alternatives:
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
- Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A). [1]
Q18.2024 Main 58/5/1 · Q201 mark
After independence, the rationale behind choosing Modernization as a planning objectives for the Indian economy were ___________.
I. To bring positive changes in the social outlook
II. Equitable distribution of income
III. Technological Upgradation
IV. Increase in Economic Divide
Alternatives:
- I and II
- II and III
- I and III
- I and IV
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(C) I and III [1]
Q19.2024 Supp 58/S/1 · Q211 mark
Identify the correct statement from the following:
- India adopted the socialistic economic system after Independence.
- Indian economic planning was implemented through Five Year Plans.
- Land reforms under industrial sector were implemented by the Government of India.
- Policy initiatives in the industrial sector were responsible for decline in Gross Domestic Product (GDP) in India.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Supplementary), Set 58/S/1
(B) Indian economic planning was implemented through Five Year Plans. [1]
Q20.2023 Main 58/1/1 · Q19(b)1 mark
Identify the incorrect statement from the following:
- Import substitution was the strategy used to save foreign exchange.
- License policy ensured regional equality.
- Russian economic model was the base for the Indian economic system.
- Small Scale Industries are one of the essential tools for employment generation.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(c) Russian economic model was the base for the Indian economic system.
Q21.2023 Main 58/3/1 · Q181 mark
Read the following statements: Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose the correct alternative from those given below.
Assertion (A): Post independence, public sector was given a prominent role, due to requirement of huge investments in the secondary sector.
Reason (R): Industrial sector is the backbone of any economy.
Alternatives:
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
- Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
- Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/3/1
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
Q22.2023 Main 58/3/1 · Q19(a)1 mark
From the following alternatives, identify the correct full form of 'NITI' in NITI Aayog:
- National Institution for Tribal India.
- National Institution for Technical India
- National Institution for Transforming India
- National Institution for Training India
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/3/1
(c) National Institution for Transforming India
Q23.2023 Main 58/3/1 · Q19(b)1 mark
In a _________economy, resources are owned and operated by both public and private sectors. (Choose the correct alternative to fill up the blank)
- Socialist
- Capitalist
- Democratic
- Mixed
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/3/1
(d) Mixed
Q24.2023 Main 58/4/1 · Q19(a)1 mark
Identify, which of the following alternative is not associated with goals of economic planning in India.
- Ensuring equitable standard of living
- Technological advancement
- Increase in economic growth
- Promoting imports of luxury goods
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(d) Promoting imports of luxury goods.
Q25.2023 Main 58/4/1 · Q19(b)1 mark
In 1951, agricultural contribution to India's National Income was ____________. (Choose the correct alternative to fill up the blank)
- Highest among the three sectors
- Lowest among the three sectors
- Lower than the industrial sector
- Lower than the service sector
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(a) Highest among three sectors.
Q26.2023 Main 58/5/1 · Q19(a)1 mark
In the first phase of Green Revolution, output was restricted mainly to _________. (Choose the correct alternative)
- Cereals and Pulses
- Wheat and Rice
- Cotton and Jute
- Jowar and Bajra
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(b) Wheat and Rice
Q27.2023 Main 58/5/1 · Q19(b)1 mark
_____________is known as the architect of Indian Planning.
- Jawaharlal Nehru
- P.C. Mahalanobis
- Dr. Manmohan Singh
- Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(b) P.C. Mahalanobis
Q28.2023 Supp 58/C/1 · Q201 mark
Which of the following is not the feature of economic policies pursued under economic planning of India till 1991? (Choose the correct alternative)
- Import substitution
- Self-reliance
- Unrestricted flow of foreign capital
- Land reforms
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Supplementary), Set 58/C/1
(c) Unrestricted flow of foreign capital
Q29.SQP 2026-27 · Q221 mark
Refer the following image:

Identify the distinguished thinker, who is considered as the Architect of Indian planning. (Choose the correct option)
Options:
- Jawaharlal Nehru
- Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis
- Amartya Sen
- Dadabhai Naoroji
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 · Marking Scheme
(B) Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis
Q30.SQP 2026-27 · Q261 mark
In India, land ceiling legislation faced hurdles primarily because ________. (Choose the correct option to fill up the blank)
(i) the big landlords challenged the legislation in the courts
(ii) of multiple loopholes in the legislation
(iii) the landlords registered the land under relatives’ names
(iv) of the ‘land to the tiller’ policy of the government
Option:
- (i),(ii),(iii) and (iv)
- (i),(ii) and (iii)
- (i) and (iv)
- (iv) only
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 · Marking Scheme
(B) (i),(ii) and (iii)
Q31.2025 Main 58/1/1 · Q33(a)(ii)2 marks
Giving valid reasons, state whether the following statements are true or false.
(ii) The economic policies implemented in India between 1950–1990’s sought to promote regional equality.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/1/1
True. To promote regional equality, the process of obtaining an industrial license in an economically backward area, was made easier. Moreover, to ensure the efficiency and effectiveness of industrial operations, such units were given certain concessions such as tax benefits and electricity at a lower tariff. [2]
Q32.2023 Main 58/3/1 · Q31(b)(ii)2 marks
Quote the four goals of the five year plans process of India.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/3/1
The four goals of the five year plans process of India were –
- Growth [½]
- Modernisation [½]
- Self-reliance [½]
- Equity [½]
Q33.SQP 2026-27 · Q30(i)2 marks
(I) Explain briefly the role of Karve Committee, 1955 in promoting rural development.
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 · Marking Scheme
(I) The Karve Committee (1955) played an important role in promoting rural development as it focussed on the development of village and small-scale industries. These industries are labour-intensive and therefore generate more employment. [2]
Q34.2026 Main 58/1/1 · Q33(a)(ii)3 marks
“In the post-independence era, India adopted a protective tariff policy.”
Do you agree with the given statement? Justify your answer with any two valid arguments.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/1/1
Yes. In the post-independence era, India adopted a protective tariff policy to:
- promote domestic production by substituting imports with locally produced goods. [1½]
- safeguard emerging industries from intense foreign competition, allowing them to grow and develop sustainably. [1½]
(Any other valid argument to be awarded marks)
Q35.2026 Main 58/3/1 · Q28(b)3 marks
Critically appraise the Industrial Licensing policy initiated by the government during the planning period of India.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/3/1
The licensing policy, introduced under the IPR 1956, required industries to obtain prior permission from the government for production decisions. The aim of this policy was to ensure balanced regional growth, and prevent concentration of economic power.
While the licensing system initially helped in guiding industrialization and protecting small industries, it gradually led to bureaucratic delays, corruption, reduced competition, and inefficient resource allocation, thereby hindering growth. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q36.2026 Main 58/3/1 · Q293 marks
“Some economists argue that once a technology proves to be profitable and becomes widely adopted, subsidies should be gradually withdrawn.”
Defend or refute the given statement with valid arguments.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/3/1
The given statement is defended. Subsidies may be gradually withdrawn once technology becomes profitable as agricultural subsidies have proved to be a huge burden on the finances of the government. Moreover, farmers in the prosperous regions largely benefited from farm subsidies rather than the target group. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
(Any other valid argument with alternative point of view may be awarded marks)
Q37.2026 Main 58/5/1 · Q283 marks
Explain the Planning objective of “Growth with Equity”.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/5/1
Growth refers to an increase in a country’s capacity to produce goods and services, whereas; equity refers to reducing inequality of income and wealth. Thus, growth with equity ensures that the benefits of economic development are enjoyed by all the sections of society. Economists believe that rise in Gross Domestic Product and equitable distribution of income are equally important. Thus, ensuring equitable growth was taken up as an important objective of Indian economic planning. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q38.2026 Main 58/5/1 · Q33(a)(i)3 marks
(i) “The Industrial Policy Resolution (IPR), 1956 classified all the industries based on state ownership and control in various categories.”
Do you agree with the above statement ? Give valid reasons in support of your answer.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(i) Yes. The Industrial Policy Resolution 1956 classified industries into three categories:
- The first category comprised industries to be exclusively owned by the government. [1]
- The second category consisted of industries in which the private sector could supplement the efforts of the public sector, with the government taking the sole responsibility for starting new units. [1]
- The third category consisted of the remaining industries which were to be in the private sector. However, these industries were kept under state control through the system of licenses. [1]
Q39.2026 Supp 58/7/1 · Q33(b)(i)3 marks
(i) “In the 1950s, excessive government regulation prevented the growth of entrepreneurship.’’
Do you agree with the given statement? Give a valid explanation in support of your answer.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Supplementary), Set 58/7/1
Yes. Excessive government regulation under the permit license raj restricted the growth of entrepreneurship. Industrial licensing limited the expansion of firms, while import restrictions reduced competition and innovation. As a result, producers had little incentive to improve efficiency, quality or adopt modern technology, thereby hindering industrial growth. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q40.2025 Main 58/2/1 · Q33(a)(i)3 marks
“To promote green revolution, the Indian government provided fertilizer subsidies to the farmers.”
Briefly explain any two arguments in favour of such subsidies.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/2/1
Two arguments in favour of subsidies are:
- Eliminating subsidies may increase inequalities of income between rich and poor farmers. [1½]
- Most farmers (small and marginal) may not be able to afford expensive agricultural inputs without subsidies. [1½]
Q41.2025 Main 58/2/1 · Q33(b)(ii)3 marks
“During the planning period, public sector was given a dominant role in Indian Economy.”
Justify the rationale behind this step taken by the Government of India.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/2/1
At the time of independence, the Indian industrialists lacked the financial and technical resources needed for the nation to be modernized and self-sufficient. Also, the market was not big enough to encourage industrialists to undertake major projects even if they had the capital to do so. Moreover, the decision to develop the Indian economy on socialist lines made it essential for the public sector to take the leading role. (To be marked as a whole) [3]
Q42.2025 Main 58/4/1 · Q33(b)(i)3 marks
“Import substitution policy, if not applied carefully, can prove to be a double-edged sword for any economy.”
Do you agree with the given statement? Justify your answer with valid arguments.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/4/1
Yes. Import-substitution policy aimed at replacing imports with domestic production to protect domestic industries from foreign competition and to save foreign exchange.
However, protection from foreign competition may do more harm than good. The domestic producers in the absence of a competitive market won’t have any incentive to improve the quality of their goods. In turn, consumers may have to purchase low quality items at a higher price. Hence, import substitution policy, if not applied carefully, can prove to be a double-edged sword for any economy. (To be marked as a whole) [3]
Q43.2025 Main 58/6/1 · Q33(a)(ii)3 marks
“The goal of equity was served by ‘Abolition of Intermediaries’ in agriculture in the post independence period.”
Do you agree with the given statement? Support your answer with valid explanation
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/6/1
No. The goal of equity in agriculture was not fully served by the abolition of intermediaries, as in some areas the erstwhile zamindars continued to own large areas of land by making use of the loopholes in the legislation. There were cases where tenants were evicted and the land owners claimed to be self-cultivators. Even when the tillers got ownership of land, the poorest of the agricultural labourers did not benefit from land reforms. [3] (To be marked as a whole)
Q44.2025 Supp 58/S/1 · Q33(a)(i)3 marks
“Modernisation extends beyond just the implementation of new technology.”
Justify the given statement, focusing on the economic planning goals.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Supplementary), Set 58/S/1
Modernisation as an economic planning goal implies the use of latest technology to produce goods and services, as well as changes in social outlook of the people such as the recognition that women should have the same rights as men.
A modern society makes use of the talents of women in the workplace. This inclusive approach helps in achieving social progress alongside technological advancement, fostering a more balanced and progressive workforce. [3] (To be marked as a whole)
Q45.2025 Supp 58/S/1 · Q33(b)(i)3 marks
“Subsidies in the agriculture sector have been a debated question for long.”
Validate the argument that subsidies should be gradually phased out in the agriculture sector.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Supplementary), Set 58/S/1
Some economists believed that agricultural subsidies should have been gradually phased out on the following grounds:
- Subsidies have helped the fertiliser industry much more than they have helped the needy farmers. [1]
- Farmers in the prosperous regions largely benefited from farm subsidies rather than benefitting the target group. [1]
- Agricultural subsidies have proved to be a huge burden on the finances of the government. [1]
Q46.2024 Main 58/1/1 · Q28(b)3 marks
Elaborate the reasons owing to which the private sector was regulated under the Industrial Policy Resolution, 1956.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/1/1
The Industrial Policy Resolution, 1956 regulated the private sector through a system of licenses. This policy aimed at achieving regional equality. The government made it relatively easier to obtain an industrial license, for industrial units to be established in economically backward areas.
Moreover, to ensure judicious use of resources owned by the private sector, licenses were needed for expanding/diversifying output by existing industrial units. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q47.2024 Main 58/1/1 · Q33(a)(ii)3 marks
“Despite the implementation of Green Revolution, 65 per cent of India’s population continued to be engaged in the agriculture sector till the 1990s.”
Justify the given statement with valid explanation.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/1/1
Some economists argue that Green Revolution did not make much impact on the occupational structure of the country, as 65% of India’s population continued to find its livelihood in agriculture. A major reason for this fairly large proportion of population in agricultural sector as the industrial and service sector were not able to absorb the people working in the agricultural sector. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q48.2024 Main 58/3/1 · Q28(b)3 marks
Discuss any two salient features of Indian industrial sector during the period of 1950-1990.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/3/1
Two salient features of Indian Industrial Sector during the period of 1950-1990 are:
- Public sector was assigned a predominant role in the process of industrial development of the economy. [1½]
- Small scale industries were promoted with an objective to generate employment opportunities in the economy. [1½]
(Any other valid feature to be awarded marks)
Q49.2024 Main 58/4/1 · Q28(a)3 marks
“Farm subsidies put a huge burden on the government finances, but are necessary for the poor and marginal farmers.”
Justify the given statement.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/4/1
In India, most farmers (small and marginal) may not be able to afford expensive agricultural inputs without subsidies. Eliminating subsidies may increase inequalities of income between rich and poor farmers. Hence, to encourage poor and small farmers to adopt the latest technology it becomes imperative to provide subsidies despite subsidies being a huge burden on government finances. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q50.2024 Main 58/4/1 · Q28(b)3 marks
Discuss briefly the role of small-scale industries in the growth Journey of India.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/4/1
Small scale industries (SSIs) have played a significant role in the growth journey of India. Small-scale industries require less capital and are highly labour intensive. Thus, in a labour abundant economy like India SSIs have generated employment opportunities in both rural and urban areas.
Moreover, SSIs have the potential to utilize limited funds more judiciously to generate revenue for their investors. Hence, SSIs have contributed immensely to the GDP of the indiam economy. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q51.2024 Main 58/4/1 · Q293 marks
Goals of Equity was fully served by ‘abolition of the intermediaries’ in agriculture in the post-independence period of India.
Do you agree with the given statement? Support your answer with valid arguments.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/4/1
No. The goal of equity was not fully served by abolition of intermediaries, as in some areas the erstwhile zamindars continued to own large areas of land by making use of the loopholes in the legislation. There were cases where tenants were evicted and the landowners claimed to be self-cultivators. Even when the tillers got ownership of land, the poorest of the agricultural labourers did not benefit from land reforms. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q52.2024 Supp 58/S/1 · Q28(a)3 marks
“Green Revolution made India self-sufficient in food grains, but was criticized on ecological grounds.”
Do you agree with the given statement? Present valid reasons in support of your answer.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Supplementary), Set 58/S/1
Yes, Green Revolution in India increased agricultural production and productivity leading to self-sufficiency of food grains through the use of HYV seeds, chemical fertilisers, pesticides, etc. These chemical fertilisers and pesticides led to soil degradation/ contamination of food products and various water bodies.
Thus, although Green Revolution made India self-sufficient in food grain production but was criticised on ecological grounds. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q53.2026 Main 58/4/1 · Q30(b)4 marks
“In the post-independence era, India adopted a protective tariff policy.”
Do you agree with the given statement? Justify your answer with any two valid arguments.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/4/1
Yes. In the post-independence era, India adopted a protective tariff policy to:
- promote domestic production by substituting imports with locally produced goods. [2]
- safeguard emerging industries from intense foreign competition, allowing them to grow and develop sustainably. [2]
Q54.2026 Main 58/4/1 · Q33(a)(i)4 marks
“As per a few scholars, fertilizer subsidies should now be phased out, as they have served their purpose.”
Do you agree with the given statement? Justify your answer with valid arguments.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/4/1
Yes. Subsidies are meant to benefit the farmers but a substantial amount of fertiliser subsidy also benefits the fertiliser industry; and among farmers, the subsidy largely benefits the farmers in the more prosperous regions. This limits the effectiveness of subsidies in reaching the intended beneficiaries. Additionally, such subsidies impose a heavy fiscal burden on the government. Therefore, phasing them out and adopting better-targeted support measures would be more efficient and equitable. [4]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q55.2026 Main 58/5/1 · Q33(b)(ii)4 marks
(ii) ‘‘India adopted an inward-looking trade strategy during the planning period.’’
(I) State any two reasons behind the adoption of this policy.
(II) Briefly describe any two ways in which the government implemented this policy.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(ii) (I) Inward- looking trade strategy aimed at:
- replacing imports with domestic production. [½]
- saving foreign exchange. [½]
(Any other valid reason to be awarded marks)
(II) The government implemented this policy through tariffs and quotas:
- Tariffs are a tax on the imported goods. They make imported goods more expensive and discourage their usage. [1½]
- Quotas specify the quantity of goods which can be imported. These are imposed to restrict imports and therefore protect domestic firms from foreign competition. [1½]
Q56.2026 Supp 58/7/1 · Q31(b)4 marks
“The enforcement of land ceiling laws in India faced numerous challenges which restricted their success.”
Do you agree with the given statement? Give a valid explanation in support of your answer.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Supplementary), Set 58/7/1
Yes. The implementation of land ceiling laws faced several challenges. Many former zamindars exploited legal loopholes to retain large landholdings by evicting tenants and claiming to be self-cultivators. They also delayed the implementation of the laws by challenging them in courts and transferred land to the names of close relatives. Consequently, creating hindrances in the successful implementation of land ceiling reforms. [4]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q57.2025 Main 58/1/1 · Q31(a)4 marks
Describe briefly the rationale behind choosing ‘Self-reliance’ as a planning objective for the Indian economy.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/1/1
‘Self-reliance’ was adopted as a central planning objective in India's development strategy by the policymakers due to the following reasons:
- To reduce the dependence on foreign nations, the stress was laid on mobilising domestic resources.
- It was feared that the dependence on imported food supplies, foreign technology, and foreign capital may increase foreign interference in our policies.
(To be marked as a whole) [4]
Q58.2025 Main 58/5/1 · Q33(a)(i)4 marks
“Import substitution policy, if not applied carefully, can be a double-edged sword for any economy.”
Do you agree with the given statement? Justify your answer with valid arguments.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/5/1
Yes. Import-substitution policy aimed at replacing imports with domestic production to protect domestic industries from foreign competition and to save foreign exchange.
However, protection from foreign competition may do more harm than good. The domestic producers in the absence of a competitive market won’t have any incentive to improve the quality of their goods. In turn, consumers may have to purchase low quality items at a higher price. Hence, import substitution policy, if not applied carefully, can prove to be a double-edged sword for any economy. (To be marked as a whole) [4]
Q59.2025 Main 58/7/1 · Q31(a)4 marks
State and explain any two steps undertaken by the Government of India for the protection and promotion of Small-scale Industries between 1950 – 1990.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/7/1
The steps initiated by Government of India for the protection and promotion of Small-scale Industries between 1950 – 1990 are:
- Reservation of products: The production of several products was reserved for SSIs, depending upon their ability to manufacture these goods. [½+1½]
- Financial Incentives: They were given concession such as lower excise duty and bank loans at lower interest rates. [½+1½]
Q60.2025 Main 58/7/1 · Q31(b)4 marks
Elaborate the role of land ceiling as an institutional reform in agricultural sector during the planning period of India.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/7/1
After India attained independence, institutional reforms such as land ceiling were introduced to promote equity in the agricultural sector. Land ceiling refers to fixing the maximum size of agricultural land that could be owned by an individual. The purpose of the land ceiling was to reduce the concentration of land ownership in a few hands. By ensuring a more equitable distribution of land, the land ceiling was seen as a crucial measure to enhance agricultural productivity and contribute to overall growth in the sector. [4] (To be marked as a whole)
Q61.2024 Main 58/5/1 · Q33(b)(i)4 marks
Explain the need and type of land reforms implemented in the agriculture sector.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/5/1
After independence, the government of India initiated several land reforms to achieve the objective of equity in the agriculture sector. [1]
Major land reforms introduced were:
- Intermediaries were abolished to make tillers the owners of the land and to save them from being exploited by Zamindars. [1½]
- Land ceiling was implemented to reduce the concentration of land ownership in few hands. [1½]
(Any other valid reform to be awarded marks)
Q62.2023 Main 58/1/1 · Q314 marks
(a) Explain briefly the rationale behind the 'License Raj' under the Industrial Policy Resolution, 1956. (3)
(b) Define Multilateral trade. (1)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(a) The aim of License Raj under the Industrial Policy Resolution 1956, was to keep the private sector under control. No new industry was allowed unless a license was obtained from the Government. This policy was used for ensuring regional equality. [3]
(b) Multilateral trade refers to exchange of goods and services between more than two nations. [1]
Q63.2023 Main 58/2/1 · Q304 marks
Discuss any two merits and demerits of the Green Revolution in the agricultural sector in the Indian Economy.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/2/1
Merits of Green Revolution:
- Green revolution enabled India to achieve self-sufficiency in foodgrains. This led to the creation of buffer stocks in India. [1]
- The farmers’ income increased substantially due to increase in marketed surplus. [1]
Demerits of Green Revolution:
- As the HYV technology was easily accessible to big farmers, it increased the disparities of income between big and small farmers. [1]
- The HYV crops were more prone to pest attacks. [1]
(any other valid argument/explanation to be allotted marks accordingly)
Q64.2026 Main 58/2/1 · Q33(a)6 marks
Read the following text carefully and answer the questions given below:
“In India, high-yielding seed varieties were initially brought to the State of Punjab, Haryana and portions of western Uttar Pradesh.”
(i) Identify the approach initiated by Indian Government in 1966. [1]
(ii) State the primary goal of this approach. [1]
(iii) Describe any two impacts of this approach. [4]
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(i) Green Revolution was the approach initiated by Government of India. [1]
(ii) Primary goal of Green Revolution was to achieve self – sufficiency in food grains. [1]
(Any other valid goal to be awarded marks)
(iii) Two impacts of Green Revolution are:
- The green revolution enabled the government to procure sufficient amount of food grains to create buffer stock, to be used in times of food shortage. [2]
- The relative price of food grains declined in comparison to other items of consumption. This fall in price particularly benefited lower income groups, as they spend a large share of their income on food items. [2]
(Any other valid impact to be awarded marks)
Q65.2025 Main 58/1/1 · Q33(b)6 marks
(i) Distinguish between:
(1) Tariff and non-tariff barriers
(2) Bilateral and multilateral trade
(ii) “Small-Scale Industries require a shield against large scale industries.”
In the light of the given statement, elaborate the steps initiated by the government in this direction.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(i) (1) Tariff barriers refer to the restrictions on imports by a government in the form of taxes. Whereas, non-tariff barriers are the restrictions on imports by a government in the form other than taxes mainly including restrictions on the quantity and quality of goods imported. [1½]
(2) Bilateral trade refers to the exchange of goods or services between two countries. Whereas, multilateral trade is the trade by a country with more than two nations to exchange goods and services. [1½]
(ii) The steps initiated by government to shield the small-scale industries (SSIs) were:
- The production of several products was reserved for SSIs, depending upon their ability to manufacture these goods.
- They were given concession such as lower excise duty and bank loans at lower interest rates.
(To be marked as a whole) [3]
Q66.2025 Main 58/6/1 · Q33(b)6 marks
(i) “Farm subsidies put a huge burden on the government finances, but are necessary for poor and marginal farmers.”
Justify the given statement with valid explanation. [3]
(ii) Discuss briefly the role of small scale industries in generating of employment and equity in India under the planning period. [3]
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/6/1
(i) The introduction of farm subsidies had been an opinionated step taken by the Government of India.
Arguments in favour of continuing farm subsidies:
- Most farmers (small and marginal) may not be able to afford expensive agricultural inputs without subsidies. [1½]
Arguments against farm subsidies:
- It is often argued that farm subsidies have helped the fertilizer industry much more than helping the needy farmers. [1½]
(Any other valid explanation to be awarded marks)
(ii) Small Scale Industries (SSIs) have played a significant role in the growth journey of India. SSIs require less capital and are highly labour intensive. Thus, in a labour-abundant economy like India, they have generated employment opportunities in both rural and urban areas. To support these industries, the production of some goods was reserved and were also given concessions like lower excise duty and bank loans at lower interest rates. [3] (To be marked as a whole)
Q67.2024 Main 58/1/1 · Q33(b)6 marks
(i) “Every coin has two sides - debate over farm subsidies is one such classic example of the same.”
Justify the given statement with two arguments each in favour of and against the continuation of the farm subsidies.
(ii) State the importance of “Growth with equity” as the objective of Indian economic planning.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(i) The introduction of farm subsidies had been an opinionated step taken by the Government of India.
Arguments in favour of continuing farm subsidies:
- Eliminating subsidies may increase inequalities of income between rich and poor farmers. [1]
- Most farmers (small and marginal) may not be able to afford expensive agricultural inputs without subsidies. [1]
Arguments against farm subsidies:
- It is often argued that farm subsidies have helped the fertilizer industry much more than helping the needy farmers. [1]
- Economists argue that subsidies are a huge burden on government’s finances. [1]
(ii) For a nation, both growth of Gross Domestic Product (GDP) and equity in distribution of income are equally important. Growth refers to an increase in a country’s capacity to produce goods and services. Equity refers to reductions in inequality of income and wealth.
Growth with equity ensures that the fruits of economic development are enjoyed by all sections of society equitably. Hence, achieving equitable growth is an important objective that was taken into consideration in the Indian economic planning. [2]
Q68.2024 Main 58/2/1 · Q346 marks
Read the following text carefully:
India's industrial policy since independence has been shaped broadly in terms of the Industrial Policy Resolution of 1948. It emphasized on the sole responsibility of the government in the matter of promoting, assisting and regulating the development of industries in the national interest. It envisaged an active and dominant role of public sector.
The next Industrial Policy Resolution was placed before the Parliament by the Prime Minister on 30th April, 1956. It suggested that, "There is a need for adoption of the socialist pattern of economy as the national objective, along with the need for planned and rapid development. It required that all industries of basic and strategic importance, or in public utility services, should be in the public sector.
Other industries which are essential and require investment on a massive scale (which only the State could provide) have also to be in the public sector. Thus, the State has to assume direct responsibility for the future development of industries."
This Resolution classifies industries into three categories:
- The first category given in Schedule A, consists of industries the future development of which will be the exclusive responsibility of the State.
- In the second category given in Schedule B, are industries which will be progressively State-owned. However, in them, private enterprise will also be expected to participate.
- The third category comprises all the remaining industries, the further development of which will be left to the initiative and enterprise of the private sector.
On the basis of the given text and common understanding, answer the following questions:
(i) “The Government of India, in the initial years of economic development, emphasized on a greater role of the public sector in the industrial development.”
Justify the statement, giving reasons in support of your answer.
(ii) Outline and discuss the classification of industries into various categories as per Industrial Policy Resolution, 1956.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(i) In the initial years of economic development, the Government of India emphasized on a greater role of the public sector in the industrial development as industrialists did not have the capital to undertake the investment in industrial ventures. The market was not big enough to encourage industrialists to undertake major projects. [3] (To be marked as a whole)
(ii) Industrial policy Resolution 1956 classifies industries into three categories:
- The first category given in Schedule A, consists of industries the future development of which will be the exclusive responsibility of the State. [1]
- In the second category given in Schedule B, are industries which will be progressively State-owned. However, in them, private enterprise will also be expected to participate. [1]
- The third category comprises all the remaining industries, the further development of which will be left to the initiative and enterprise of the private sector. [1]
Q69.2024 Main 58/3/1 · Q33(b)6 marks
(i) “Every coin has two sides - debate over farm subsidies is one such classic example of the same.”
Justify the given statement with two arguments each in favour of and against the continuation of the farm subsidies. 4
(ii) State the importance of “Growth with equity” as the objective of Indian economic planning. 2
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/3/1
(i) The introduction of farm subsidies had been an opinionated step taken by the Government of India.
Arguments in favour of continuing farm subsidies:
- Eliminating subsidies may increase inequalities of income between rich and poor farmers. [1]
- Most farmers (small and marginal) may not be able to afford expensive agricultural inputs without subsidies. [1]
Arguments against farm subsidies:
- It is often argued that farm subsidies have helped the fertilizer industry much more than helping the needy farmers. [1]
- Economists argue that subsidies are a huge burden on government’s finances. [1]
(ii) For a nation, both growth of Gross Domestic Product (GDP) and equity in distribution of income are equally important. Growth refers to an increase in a country’s capacity to produce goods and services. Equity refers to reductions in inequality of income and wealth.
Growth with equity ensures that the fruits of economic development are enjoyed by all sections of society. Hence, achieving equitable growth is an important objective that was taken into consideration in the Indian economic planning. [2]
Q70.2023 Main 58/3/1 · Q346 marks
Read the following text carefully:
With independence, India chose the closed economy model in pursuit of its objective of industrial self-sufficiency. As a result, industrial structure has become considerably important. In the post-independence era, the industrial growth was rapid during the first two decades, especially during the Second and Third Plan period. The Second Plan introduced ‘Industrial Revolution’ in the country. The main reasons for high rates of industrial growth witnessed during this period were due to:
(i) Emphasis on industrialisation in economic policies.
(ii) Making industrial growth the main objective in the industrial policy and planning.
(iii) Huge investments being made to support capacity creation in industrial sector
(iv) Growing demands for a variety of new products on the part of the urban consumers and the relatively better-off sections of the society.
(v) Pace of economic expansion supported by domestic savings and inflow of resources from abroad.
On the basis of the given text and common understanding, answer the following questions:
(a) State the time period of the Second Five Year Plan of India. (1)
(b) Who is considered as the Father of the Second Five Year Plan of India? (1)
(c) Discuss briefly any two reasons behind the industrial growth during the Second and Third Five Year Plans of India. (4)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/3/1
(a) 1956 to 1961 [1]
(b) P.C Mahalanobis [1]
(c) Two reasons behind the industrial growth during the Second and Third Five Year Plans of India were:-
- Growing demands for a variety of new products on the part of the urban consumers and the relatively better-off sections of the society. [2]
- Pace of economic expansion supported by domestic savings and inflow of resources from abroad. [2]
(Any other valid argument to be allotted marks)
Q71.2023 Main 58/4/1 · Q34(a)6 marks
(i) Explain the need and types of land reforms implemented in the agriculture sector. (3)
(ii) Why was public sector given a leading role in industrial development during the planning period? Explain. (3)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(i) At the time of independence, the Indian land tenure system was characterised by the intermediaries, stagnant growth rate and unequal distribution of land; making the land reforms inevitable. [1]
Major land reforms introduced by the government were:
- Abolition of intermediaries
- Land ceiling
[2]
(Any other valid explanation to be allotted marks)
(ii) At the time of independence, the Indian industrialists lack the financial and technical resources needed for the nation to be modernized and self-sufficient. Also, the market was not big enough to encourage industrialists to undertake major projects even if they had the capital to do so.
Moreover, the decision to develop the Indian economy on socialist lines made it essential for the public sector to take the leading role. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
(Any other valid explanation to be allotted marks)
Q72.SQP 2025-26 · Q33(a)6 marks
(I) “Government made a fresh statement of policy on the 30th April, 1956 which will help speeding up industrialisation and, in particular, to develop heavy industries and machine making industries, to expand the public sector, and to build up a large and growing co-operative sector”.
Source: http://164.100.161.239/plans/planrel/fiveyr/index2.html (Planning Commission)
In the light of the given text and common understanding, comment upon the classification of industries under the revised policy. [3]
(II) “The implementation of land ceiling legislation in India encountered several challenges that hindered its effectiveness.”
Do you agree with the given statement? Give valid reasons in support of your answer. [3]
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 · Marking Scheme
(I) The industries were classified under three heads as per Industrial Policy Resolution 1956:
- The first category, comprised industries which would be exclusively owned by the government. [1]
- The second category, private sector could supplement the efforts of the public sector, with the government taking the sole responsibility for starting new units. [1]
- The third category consisted of the remaining industries which were left in the hands of private sector. [1]
(II) Yes. A few former Zamindars, used legislative loopholes to continue to own large areas of land. Tenants were evicted and the landowners claimed to be self-cultivators. The big landlords delayed its implementation; by challenging it in the courts. They used this delay to register their lands in the name of close relatives, thereby escaping from the legislation. Consequently, creating hindrances in the successful implementation of land ceiling reforms. [3]
Part B · Indian Economic Development
8. Liberalisation, Privatisation and Globalisation: An Appraisal
Q1.2026 Main 58/1/1 · Q201 mark
Read the following text carefully:
“In the recent times, the Government of India, has introduced several measures to encourage greater public participation in the capital market, including both primary and secondary stock markets.”
Under which sector have the above mentioned reforms been introduced? (Choose the correct option)
Options:
- Industrial
- Financial
- Taxation
- Foreign Trade
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(B) Financial
Q2.2026 Main 58/2/1 · Q181 mark
“In the formative stages of reforms development of credit markets, administrative intervention in interest rates is both necessary and desirable.”
Identify the sector under which the aforesaid reform was introduced. (Choose the correct option)
Options:
- Tax reforms
- Industrial sector reforms
- Financial sector reforms
- Foreign sector reforms
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(C) Financial sector reforms
Q3.2026 Main 58/3/1 · Q221 mark
The primary outcome of the efforts initiated by the Indian Government (Liberalisation and Privatisation) under the New Economic Policy of 1991 was __________. (Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)
Options :
- Fiscal policy reforms
- Globalization
- Monetary policy reforms
- Reservation of products
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/3/1
(B) Globalization
Q4.2026 Main 58/4/1 · Q261 mark
__________ was the successor organisation to General Agreement on Trade and Tariff (GATT). (Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)
- International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD)
- International Monetary Fund (IMF)
- Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
- World Trade Organisation (WTO)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(D) World Trade Organisation (WTO)
Q5.2025 Main 58/5/1 · Q231 mark
Read the following statements Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Choose the correct alternative from the options given below:
Assertion (A): Under the financial sector reforms introduced in 1991, foreign investment limit in banks was raised up to around 74%.
Reason (R): Foreign Institutional Investors (FIIs) were allowed to invest in Indian financial markets, post-1991.
Options:
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
- Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
Q6.2025 Main 58/6/1 · Q221 mark
Identify, which of the following correctly defines liberalization. (Choose the correct option)
- Outright sale of part of shares of Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs)
- Increased integration with the rest of the world
- Removal of restrictions imposed by government on different sectors of the economy
- Focus on import substitution
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/6/1
(C) Removal of restrictions imposed by government on different sectors of the economy
Q7.2025 Main 58/7/1 · Q261 mark
Outsourcing from India has become more intensified in recent times due to the expansion of the __________ sector. (Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)
- Agriculture
- Manufacturing
- Information Technology
- Construction
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/7/1
(C) Information Technology
Q8.2025 Supp 58/S/1 · Q191 mark
___________ implies shedding of the ownership or management of a government owned enterprise. (Choose the correct alternative to fill in the blank)
- Liberalisation
- Privatisation
- Globalisation
- Nationalisation
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Supplementary), Set 58/S/1
(B) Privatisation
Q9.2025 Supp 58/S/1 · Q251 mark
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement 1: India has been the front runner of advocating the interests of the developing world.
Statement 2: Keeping its commitment, India has not removed the quantitative restrictions.
In the light of the given statements, choose the correct alternative from the following:
- Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
- Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Supplementary), Set 58/S/1
(A) Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
Q10.2024 Main 58/1/1 · Q221 mark
Read the following statements- Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose the correct alternative given below:
Assertion (A): World Trade Organization (WTO) is expected to establish the rule-based trading regime, to avoid unilaterally placed arbitrary restrictions by member nations.
Reason (R): It is imperative to enlarge world production and ensure optimum utilization of world resources along with environmental protection.
Alternatives:
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
- Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
Q11.2024 Main 58/3/1 · Q221 mark
Read the following statements: Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose the correct alternative given below:
Assertion (A): Goods and Services Tax (GST) was implemented by the Government of India on 8th November, 2016.
Reason (R): GST was introduced to implement a unified indirect tax system in India.
Alternatives:
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
- Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
- Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/3/1
(D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true. [1]
Q12.2024 Main 58/5/1 · Q221 mark
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement 1: Outsourcing is one of the important outcome of globalization process.
Statement 2: Owing to globalization, many Indian companies have expanded their operation abroad.
In the light of the given statements, choose the correct alternative from the following:
- Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
- Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
- Both statement 1 and 2 are true.
- Both statement 1 and 2 are false.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(C) Both statement 1 and 2 are true. [1]
Q13.2023 Supp 58/C/1 · Q181 mark
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement 1: Economic reforms of 1991 created a growth path for all the sectors simultaneously.
Statement 2: Economic reforms of 1991 ensured accelerated growth rate in agriculture sector.
In light of the given statements, choose the correct alternative from the following:
- Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
- Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Supplementary), Set 58/C/1
(d) Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.
Q14.SQP 2025-26 · Q181 mark
Read the given text carefully:
“The Government has now decided to further promote the development of mutual funds by throwing the field open to the private sector and joint sector mutual funds. In order to safeguard the interests of the investing public, and to encourage a healthy growth of the capital markets, a comprehensive set of guidelines is being evolved for the operation of all mutual funds.”
Source: https://www.indiabudget.gov.in/doc/bspeech/bs199192.pdf (Budget 1991-92 Speech of Shri Manmohan Singh Minister of Finance)
Identify the sector under which the aforesaid reform was introduced and choose the correct option.
- Industrial
- Financial
- Tax
- Foreign Trade
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 · Marking Scheme
(B) Financial
Q15.SQP 2026-27 · Q241 mark
“In 1991, as an immediate measure to resolve the balance of payments crisis, the rupee was devalued against foreign currencies.”
Identify the liberalisation reform indicated in the aforesaid statement. (Choose the correct option)
Options:
- Industrial Sector
- Tax
- Foreign Exchange
- Trade and Investment Policy
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 · Marking Scheme
(C) Foreign Exchange
Q16.2026 Main 58/4/1 · Q33(a)(ii)2 marks
State any two ways by which the government can execute the step of disinvestment.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/4/1
The government can execute the step of disinvestment by:
- withdrawal of the government from the ownership and management of the public sector companies. [1]
- outright sale of public sector companies. [1]
Q17.2026 Main 58/5/1 · Q33(b)(i)2 marks
(i) “The Government of India may further divest its stake in Life Insurance Corporation (LIC) in the current financial year.”
In the light of economic reforms since 1991, identify the policy and define the step taken by the government.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(i) The government has implemented the policy of disinvestment in case of Life Insurance Corporation (LIC). [1]
Disinvestment is referred to the privatization of public sector enterprises (PSEs) by selling off part of the equity of PSEs to the public. [1]
Q18.2025 Main 58/1/1 · Q33(a)(iii)2 marks
Giving valid reasons, state whether the following statements are true or false.
(iii) India has become a favourable destination of outsourcing, in post 1991 period.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/1/1
True. Availability of skilled manpower at a relatively affordable cost has made India a leading outsourcing hub for Multinational Corporations (MNCs) to outsource their services to India. [2]
Q19.2025 Main 58/5/1 · Q33(a)(ii)2 marks
State how multilateral trade is different from bilateral trade.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/5/1
Multilateral trade is the trade by a country with more than two nations to exchange goods and services. [1]
Whereas, bilateral trade refers to the exchange of goods or services between two countries. [1]
Q20.2024 Main 58/5/1 · Q33(b)(ii)2 marks
“Industrial sector performed poorly in the economic reform period.”
Elucidate the given statement.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/5/1
Owing to the introduction of economic reforms, India opened its doors for the developed economies. With the arrival of Multinational Corporations in India, domestic producers had to face stiff competition due to the availability of cheaper goods. Thus, demand for domestic goods reduced considerably, leading to the slowdown of the Industrial sector. [2]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q21.2026 Main 58/1/1 · Q33(a)(i)3 marks
Mr. Ravi, an IT entrepreneur from Bengaluru, observed that several MNC’s prefer India as their outsourcing Hub for services like software development, customer support, data management etc.
His friend Priya believes this is due to certain inherent advantages of the Indian economy.
In your opinion, state and explain any two factors that make India a preferred outsourcing destination.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/1/1
India has emerged as a preferred outsourcing destination because of:
- Expansion of Information Technology and Communication: Growth of fast modes of communication, particularly the growth of Information Technology (IT). [½+1]
- Availability of skilled manpower: Efficient and skilled manpower is available at a relatively affordable cost. [½+1]
Q22.2026 Main 58/3/1 · Q28(a)3 marks
Describe the role which India has played as an important member of World Trade Organisation (WTO).
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/3/1
As a member of the World Trade Organization (WTO), India has been at the forefront of framing fair global rules and regulations advocating the interests of the developing world. India has kept its commitments towards liberalisation of trade by removing quantitative restrictions on imports and reducing tariff rates. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q23.2026 Main 58/5/1 · Q33(a)(ii)3 marks
(ii) “The economic reforms of 1991 adversely affected the Indian agriculture sector.”
Do you agree with the above statement? Give valid reasons in support of your answer.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(ii) Yes. The agricultural sector was adversely affected by the reform process due to:
- fall in the public investment in agriculture sector especially in infrastructure like irrigation, power etc. [1]
- reduction of fertilizer subsidy has increased the cost of production, thereby affecting the small and marginal farmers [1]
- increased international competitiveness owing to liberalisation and reduction of import duties. [1]
(Any other valid reason to be awarded marks)
Q24.2026 Supp 58/7/1 · Q33(a)(i)3 marks
(i) As the Disinvestment Commission has observed, “the essence of a long-term disinvestment strategy should be not only to enhance budgetary receipts, but also minimise budgetary support towards unprofitable units. Also, it must ensure the long-term viability and sustainable levels of employment in such units.”
(I) Identify the sector, whose disinvestment is being referred to in the statement.
(II) Justify this disinvestment strategy adopted by the Indian Government.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Supplementary), Set 58/7/1
(I) Public sector is being referred to in the aforesaid statement. [1]
(II) The disinvestment strategy was adopted by the Indian Government, to reduce the fiscal burden by privatizing loss-incurring Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs). It also, aimed at improving efficiency, financial discipline and modernization. This strategy ensured the long-term viability of PSUs and attract greater Foreign Direct Investment (FDI). [2]
Q25.2026 Supp 58/7/1 · Q33(b)(ii)3 marks
(ii) ‘‘The tax reductions in the reform period have not resulted in an increase in tax revenue.’’
Justify the given statement with a valid explanation.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Supplementary), Set 58/7/1
During the reform period, tax rates were reduced with the objective of yielding larger revenue and curb tax evasion. However, it did not result in an increase in tax revenue for the government. Furthermore, reform policies involving tariff reduction and to attract foreign investors, have curtailed the scope for raising tax revenue which adversely impacted developmental and welfare expenditures. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
(Any other valid explanation to be awarded marks)
Q26.2025 Main 58/2/1 · Q33(a)(ii)3 marks
As per a news report dated, 8th Oct. 2021, the Government of India sold its entire 100% stake in Air India. Tata sons, the original founder of Air India won the bid and purchased the airline for ₹ 18,000 crore.
(1) Identify the step taken by the Government of India.
(2) State any two ways in which identified step can be executed by the government.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(1) The step taken by the Government of India is Privatisation. [1]
(2) Government companies are converted into private companies in two ways:
- By withdrawal of the government from ownership and management of public sector companies [1]
- By outright sale of public sector companies. [1]
Q27.2025 Main 58/2/1 · Q33(b)(i)3 marks
“After 1991, reforms in external sector led to an increase in foreign exchange inflows”.
Justify the given statement with valid argument.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/2/1
Post 1991, as an important reform in the external sector, rupee was devalued against foreign currencies. As a result, India is seen as a successful exporter of auto parts, pharmaceutical goods, engineering goods, IT software and textiles. This led to an increase in the inflow of foreign exchange. Moreover, a sharp rise in foreign direct investment led to a manifold increase in the foreign exchange reserves. (To be marked as a whole) [3]
Q28.2025 Main 58/4/1 · Q29(b)3 marks
Appraise the Navratan policy adopted by the Government of India in the reforms of 1991.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/4/1
In order to improve efficiency, infuse professionalism and enable them to compete more effectively in the liberalised global environment, the government identified a few Public Sector Enterprises and declared them as ‘Navratnas’. They were given greater managerial and operational autonomy, in taking various decisions to run the company efficiently and thus increase their profits. The granting of Navratan status resulted in better performance of these companies. (To be marked as a whole) [3]
Q29.2025 Main 58/4/1 · Q33(b)(ii)3 marks
Distinguish between stabilising measures and structural measures, as taken up by the Government of India in 1991.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/4/1
Stabilisation measures are short-term measures, intended to correct some of the weaknesses that have developed in the balance of payments and to bring inflation under control. [1½]
Whereas;
Structural measures are long-term measures, aimed at improving the efficiency of the economy and increasing its international competitiveness by removing the rigidities in various segments of the Indian economy. [1½]
Q30.2025 Main 58/5/1 · Q28(b)3 marks
“The disinvestment policy of India under the 1991 reforms involved selling of the government’s stakes in Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs).”
Explain the rationale behind the decision undertaken by the government.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/5/1
The rationale behind the disinvestment policy of India under the 1991 reforms was primarily to improve financial discipline and facilitate modernisation. It was also envisaged that private capital and managerial capabilities could be effectively utilised to improve the performance of PSUs and provide strong impetus to the inflow of Foreign Direct Investment. (To be marked as a whole) [3]
Q31.2025 Main 58/6/1 · Q33(a)(i)3 marks
“Globalisation has been a process for India with only positive results.”
Defend or refute the given statement with valid explanation.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/6/1
The given statement is refuted. The process of globalisation has produced positive as well as negative results for the Indian economy. With the creation of a borderless world, the Indian economy has greater access to global markets and latest technology.
On the contrary, globalisation made it easier for developed countries to expand their markets in other countries, compromising the welfare of people belonging to these countries. Consequently, it has also widened the economic disparities among nations and people. [3]
Q32.2025 Main 58/7/1 · Q293 marks
Some economists argue that :
"Post-1991 economic reforms, globalisation played a major role in poor performance of the industrial sector."
Present your arguments to justify the given statement.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/7/1
With the onset of globalisation post-1991 economic reforms, developing countries are compelled to open up their economies to the greater flow of goods and capital from developed countries. Cheaper imports have, thus, replaced the demand for domestic goods. Domestic manufacturers are facing competition from foreign producers leading to a slowdown of industrial growth. Hence, Globalisation adversely affected the performance of the industrial sector. [3] (To be marked as a whole)
Q33.2025 Supp 58/S/1 · Q33(a)(ii)3 marks
“Economic reforms of 1991 changed the structure of the financial sector in India to a large extent.”
Justify the given statement, highlighting any two reforms introduced in the financial sector.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Supplementary), Set 58/S/1
The financial sector in India witnessed a major revamp under the economic reforms of 1991. The two main measures in this direction were:
- The role of Reserve Bank of India (RBI) was changed from regulator to facilitator. This means that the financial sector was allowed to take decisions on many financial matters without consulting RBI. [1½]
- The policy changes led to the establishment of private sector banks, both Indian as well as foreign. [1½]
Q34.2025 Supp 58/S/1 · Q33(b)(ii)3 marks
“The regime of quantitative restrictions followed by the government during the economic planning period was reversed in post-trade reforms era.”
Do you agree with the given statement? Give valid reasons in support of your answer.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Supplementary), Set 58/S/1
Yes, liberalization of trade and investment policy reversed the policy initiatives undertaken during the economic planning period. The reforms aimed at dismantling of quantitative restrictions on imports and exports along with the reduction of tariff rates and removal of licensing procedures for imports (except in case of hazardous and environmentally sensitive industries). Additionally, the removal of export duties was intended to enhance the global competitiveness of Indian products. [3] (To be marked as a whole)
Q35.2024 Main 58/1/1 · Q33(a)(i)3 marks
“Under the liberalisation measures taken by the Government of India, regulation of industrial sector was extremely crucial.”
Reject or support the given statement with valid arguments.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/1/1
The given statement is rejected. As the liberalisation measures curtailed many restrictions on the industrial sector.
Industrial licensing was abolished for almost all except for three industries. Many goods produced by Small Scale Industries were dereserved. In most of the industries, market has been allowed to determine the prices independently. This was necessitated by the slower industrial growth rate under the pre-reform period. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q36.2024 Main 58/3/1 · Q28(a)3 marks
“Trade and Investment Policy of India had undergone comprehensive changes in the post reforms period of 1991.”
Do you agree with the given statement? Justify your answer with any two valid arguments.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/3/1
Yes. Trade and Investment Policy of India had undergone comprehensive changes in the post reforms period of 1991. Liberalisation of this policy led to an increase in international competitiveness of industrial production and inflow of foreign investments and technology.
These policy reforms aimed at dismantling the structure of quantitative restrictions, reducing tariffs and relaxation in licensing procedure in foreign trade. Export duties were rationalised with an objective to promote exports of Indian goods in international markets. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q37.2024 Main 58/3/1 · Q33(a)(ii)3 marks
“Navratna policy has facilitated the maintenance, promotion and disinvestment of Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs).”
Justify the given statement with valid explanation.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/3/1
In the post-reform period, Government of India devised Navratna Policy for Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs) with an objective to improve efficiency, infuse professionalism and enable them to compete more effectively in the liberalised global environment. Under this policy, the government partly disinvested some PSUs. However, some PSUs were granted greater managerial and operational autonomy and allowed PSUs to raise resources by themselves from financial markets. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q38.SQP 2026-27 · Q283 marks
Refer to the following text:
The Government of India, decided to reduce its role in Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs) to improve efficiency and reduce fiscal burden. As per the policy decision, government companies are converted into private companies in two ways.
Answer the following questions in the light of given text and common understanding:
(I) Identify the policy highlighted in the step initiated by the government.
(II) Briefly explain the two ways in which government companies can be converted into private companies.
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 · Marking Scheme
(I) The policy highlighted in the given text is Privatisation. [1]
(II) Government companies are converted into private companies in two ways:
- By withdrawal of the government from the ownership and management of the public sector companies. [1]
- By outright sale of public sector companies to the private sector. [1]
Q39.2026 Supp 58/7/1 · Q31(a)4 marks
Explain the main objectives and impacts of trade and investment policy reforms of 1991 in India.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Supplementary), Set 58/7/1
The main objective of the 1991 trade and investment policy reforms was to liberalise the economy by increasing international competitiveness, attracting foreign investment and technology, and promoting industrial efficiency through modernisation. The reforms boosted exports in the field of pharmaceuticals, engineering goods, IT services, textiles, and auto parts. Rising prices have also been kept under control. However, increased imports intensified competition for domestic industries. [4]
(To be marked as a whole)
(Any other valid explanation to be awarded marks)
Q40.2025 Main 58/1/1 · Q31(b)4 marks
Explain how, the Goods and Services Tax (GST) has simplified the multiplicity of taxes on goods and services.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/1/1
Goods and Service Tax (GST) is the single comprehensive indirect tax. Under GST, tax is imposed on the basis of value addition at each stage of the movement of goods and services. It has replaced large number of indirect taxes levied on production/sale of goods or provision of service.
Thus, GST ensures uniformity, reduces tax burden, prevents cascading effects, and enhances ease of doing business across the country. (To be marked as a whole) [4]
Q41.2024 Main 58/2/1 · Q30(b)4 marks
Discuss any two liberalization measures pertaining to the tax reforms, introduced by the government, during the economic reform process of 1991.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/2/1
Two liberalization measures pertaining to the tax reforms introduced by the government, during the economic reform process of 1991 were:
- There has been a reduction in taxes as high tax rates were an important reason for tax evasion. [2]
- To encourage better compliance on the part of taxpayers many tax paying procedures have been simplified. [2]
Q42.2024 Main 58/4/1 · Q324 marks
Elaborate how the economic reforms process of India impacted the following:
(a) Agriculture sector
(b) Industrial sector
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(a) The agricultural sector was adversely affected by the reform process due to reduction in the public investment in agriculture sector especially in infrastructure. Furthermore, the partial removal of fertiliser subsidy had led to increase in the cost of production, which had severely affected the small and marginal farmers. [2]
(b) Industrial sector performed poorly in the reform period as the demand for domestic industrial products decreased due to reasons like cheaper imports, etc. Moreover, the infrastructure facilities including power supply, remained inadequate due to lack of public investment. [2]
(Any other valid explanation to be awarded marks)
Q43.2023 Main 58/3/1 · Q31(a)4 marks
"Many economists believe that the economic reforms process of 1991 had adversely affected the agricultural sector." Do you agree with the given statement? Quote valid arguments in favour of your answer.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/3/1
Yes. The agricultural sector was adversely affected by the reform process as public investment in agriculture sector especially in infrastructure had fallen. Further, the partial removal of fertiliser subsidy had led to increase in the cost of production, which had severely affected the small and marginal farmers. Moreover, there had been a shift from production for the domestic market towards production for the export market focusing on cash crops putting pressure on prices of food grains.
(To be marked as a whole)
Q44.2023 Main 58/4/1 · Q314 marks
Discuss any two liberalisation measures pertaining to the financial sector, introduced by the Government of India during the economic reform process of 1991.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/4/1
The financial sector witnessed a major revamp under the economic reform process of 1991. The two main measures in this direction may be quoted as:
- Redefining the role of RBI from regulator to facilitator of the financial sector. It implies that the financial sector could now take decisions on many matters without consulting the RBI. [2]
- The reform policies led to the establishment of private sector banks (Indian as well as foreign). [2]
(Any other valid measure to be allotted marks)
Q45.2023 Main 58/5/1 · Q31(a)4 marks
(i) State the meaning of 'Privatisation'.
(ii) 'Agriculture sector has been adversely affected by the Economic reform process.' Comment.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(i) Privatisation refers to shedding of the ownership or management of a government owned enterprise. [1]
(ii) The agricultural sector was adversely affected by the economic reform process in India as public investment in agriculture sector especially in infrastructure has fallen to a great extent. Furthermore, the partial removal of fertiliser subsidy has led to increase in the cost of production, which has severely affected the small and marginal farmers. Moreover, there has been a shift from production for the domestic market towards export- oriented production focusing on cash crops putting pressure on prices of food grains. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q46.2026 Main 58/1/1 · Q33(b)6 marks
(i) ‘Strategic sale of a public sector undertaking and minority sale of their shares are methods of disinvestment.’
Defend or refute the given statement with valid argument. [3]
(ii) Discuss briefly, how bilateral trade agreements are different from multilateral trade agreements? [3]
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(i) The given statement is defended. Both strategic and minority sale are the methods of disinvestment used by the government to reduce its ownership and encourage private participation. It leads to improved efficiency and better performance of public sector enterprises. Strategic sale involves transferring a significant share of government ownership along with management control to a private entity. Although minority sale refers to selling a limited portion of shares while the government retains control. [3]
(Any other valid explanation to be awarded marks)
(ii) Bilateral Trade Agreement refers to the agreements relating to exchange of Goods and services between two countries. [1½]
Whereas;
Multilateral Trade Agreement refers to the trade agreements made by a country with more than two nations to exchange goods and services. [1½]
Q47.2026 Main 58/2/1 · Q33(b)6 marks
Read the following text carefully and answer the questions given below:
“It is an arrangement in which a firm hires some specialized firm(s) to carry out some of its activities (which were earlier being performed by itself). These service hirings could be from local / international markets.”
(i) Identify the indicated outcome of the globalisation process. [1]
(ii) State any two factors responsible for making India as an important source of these activities. [2]
(iii) Explain examples of services that have expanded due to advancements in information technology. [3]
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(i) The indicated outcome of the globalisation process is Outsourcing. [1]
(ii) India has emerged as a favourite outsourcing destination because of the:
- growth of faster modes of communication, particularly the growth of Information Technology (IT). [1]
- availability of skilled and qualified manpower at relatively affordable costs. [1]
(Any other valid factor to be awarded marks)
(iii) With rapid advancements in information technology, India has emerged as a major outsourcing hub for a wide range of services. These include voice-based business processes, data and record management, accounting, banking services, film editing, book transcription, clinical consultation and even online teaching. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
(Any other valid example to be awarded marks)
Q48.2026 Main 58/4/1 · Q33(b)6 marks
(i) “During the 1991 economic reforms, the Government undertook a range of financial sector reforms which made a significant impact in the years to follow.”
Justify the given statement with valid arguments. [4]
(ii) State the name of any one Maharatna and any one Navratna company. [2]
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(i) The financial sector in India witnessed a major revamp under the economic reforms of 1991. The role of Reserve Bank of India (RBI) was changed from regulator to facilitator. This means that the financial sector was allowed to take decisions on many financial matters without consulting RBI. The policy changes led to the establishment of private sector banks, both Indian as well as foreign. Thus, these reforms enhanced efficiency, competitiveness and global integration of the Indian financial sector, contributing significantly to the overall growth and stability of the economy. [4]
(To be marked as a whole)
(ii) Maharatna – Steel Authority of India Ltd. (SAIL) [1]
Navratna – Hindustan Aeronautics Ltd. (HAL) [1]
(Any other valid name of the company to be awarded marks)
Q49.2025 Main 58/4/1 · Q33(a)6 marks
(i) Discuss briefly, causes and consequences of tax reforms taken by the Indian Government during economic reforms.
(ii) Distinguish between Multilateral Trade and Bilateral Trade.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(i) The causes of the tax reforms initiated during economic reforms in India were to curb tax evasion, encourage savings and voluntary disclosure of income. Additionally, indirect tax reforms were necessitated to facilitate the establishment of a common national market for commodities. [2]
The tax rate rationalisation during the reform period, aimed at yielding larger tax revenue but did not result in an increase in the tax revenue. Moreover, tax incentives provided to foreign investors further reduced the scope for raising tax revenues which adversely impacted developmental and welfare expenditures. [2]
(Any other valid cause or consequence to be awarded marks)
(ii) Multilateral trade is the trade by a country with more than two nations to exchange goods and services. [1]
Whereas;
Bilateral trade refers to the exchange of goods or services between two countries. [1]
Q50.2025 Main 58/5/1 · Q33(b)6 marks
(i) Discuss briefly, causes and consequences of the tax reforms initiated during economic reforms in India.
(ii) Give one example each of a Navratna and a Maharatna company in the public sector in India.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(i) The causes of the tax reforms initiated during economic reforms in India were to curb tax evasion, encourage savings and voluntary disclosure of income. Additionally, indirect tax reforms were necessitated to facilitate the establishment of a common national market for commodities. [2]
The tax rate rationalisation during the reform period, aimed at yielding larger tax revenue but did not result in an increase in the tax revenue. Moreover, tax incentives provided to foreign investors further reduced the scope for raising tax revenues which adversely impacted developmental and welfare expenditures. [2]
(Any other valid cause or consequence to be awarded marks)
(ii) Example of Navaratna Company – Hindustan Aeronautics Limited. [1]
Example of Maharatna Company – Indian Oil Corporation Limited. [1]
(Any other valid example to be awarded marks)
Q51.2024 Main 58/5/1 · Q33(a)6 marks
(i) “Indian economy has certain advantages, which have made it a favourite outsourcing destination.”
Do you agree with the given statement? Give valid reasons in support of your answer. 3
(ii) “In the post-reform period the government of India decided to privatize profit making Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs).”
Do you agree with the given statement? Give valid arguments in support of your answer. 3
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(i) Yes. In the recent times, India has emerged as a favourite outsourcing destination because of the growth of fast modes of communication, particularly the growth of Information Technology (IT). Furthermore, availability of skilled manpower at a relatively affordable cost has made India a leading outsourcing hub for Multinational Corporations (MNCs) to outsource their services to India. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
(ii) No. In the post-reform period, the government of India did not privatize its profit-making Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs) as they were adding to the government’s revenue. Rather, these PSUs were given greater managerial and operational autonomy, in taking various decisions to improve efficiency, infuse professionalism and enable them to compete more effectively in the liberalised global environment. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q52.2024 Supp 58/S/1 · Q346 marks
Read the following text carefully:
With the July 1991 budget, there was a clear switch in favour of a move towards an outward-oriented, market-based economy. The liberalisation steps initiated in the budget were very comprehensive although the pace remained gradual and there were occasional hiccups.
The 1991 reforms did away with import licensing on all but a handful of intermediate inputs and capital goods.
Consumer goods, accounting for approximately 30% of tariff lines, remained under licensing, only a decade later, after a successful challenge by India’s trading partners at the World Trade Organisation (WTO), were these goods freed of licensing.
Today, except for a handful of goods that are disallowed on environmental/health/safety grounds, all goods may be imported without a license or other restrictions.
With the removal of licensing, the tariff rates became effective restrictions on imports. Therefore, a major task of the reforms has been to lower the tariff rates. Tariff reductions have been mainly confined to non-agricultural, industrial goods.
Therefore, the liberalization applies strictly to these goods. The reduction in tariffs has been achieved through a gradual compression of the tariff rates. A simultaneous rationalization of the tariff structure through a reduction in the number of tariff bands helped in this direction.
On the basis of the given text and common understanding, answer the following questions:
(i) “The trade liberalization reforms initiated in 1991 budget were very comprehensive.”
Justify the given statement explaining any two trade reforms introduced in 1991. 4
(ii) State any two areas in which tariff reductions were introduced. 2
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Supplementary), Set 58/S/1
(i) The comprehensive trade liberalization reforms were initiated in 1991 budget to promote the efficiency of local industries and adoption of modern technologies.
Two trade reforms introduced in 1991 were:
- dismantling of quantitative restrictions on imports and exports.
- removal of licensing procedures for imports.
[4] (To be marked as a whole)
(Any other valid point to be awarded marks)
(ii) Two areas in which tariff reductions were introduced:
- non-agricultural goods [1]
- industrial goods [1]
(Any other valid point to be awarded marks)
Q53.2023 Main 58/1/1 · Q346 marks
Read the following text carefully:
According to NITI Aayog, India has a technological advantage to facilitate digital banks. There is a need for creating a regulatory framework for promoting this. NITI Aayog, in its report titled "Digital Banks: A Proposal for Licensing and Regulatory Regime for India", offers a template and roadmap for a digital bank licensing and regulatory regime for a country. India's public digital infrastructure, especially Unified Payments Interface (UPI) has successfully faced this. With Aadhar, India is at the cusp of operationalizing its own open banking framework. This demonstrates that India has the technology stock to fully facilitate digital banks.
Digital banking allows a user to set up automatic payments for regular utility bills. Digital banking enables fund transfers to reduce the risk of counterfeit currency. By promoting a cashless society, digital banking restricts the circulation of black money.
On the basis of the given text and common understanding, answer the following questions:
(a) Which institution has been replaced by NITI Aayog in India? Who is the ex-officio Chairman of NITI Aayog? (2)
(b) State and discuss any two main advantages of digital banking. (4)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(a) Planning Commission has been replaced by NITI Aayog. [1]
Prime minister is the ex-officio Chairman of NITI Aayog. [1]
(b) Two main advantages of digital banking are:
(i) Cashless Society: By promoting a cashless society, digital banking restricts the circulation of black money. Since all transactions are routed through banks, it eliminates the use of unaccounted money. [½ + 1½]
(ii) Convenience: It enable users to set up automatic payments for regular utility bills. Thus, it provides a convenient method for customers to settle payments. [½ + 1½]
Q54.2023 Main 58/2/1 · Q346 marks
Read the following text carefully and answer the given questions on the basis of the same and common understanding.
The stabilisation and structural adjustment measures, initiated under the 1991 “Economic Reforms” mark a watershed moment in India’s economic policies. For almost three decades since independence, India’s development strategy and economic policies were guided by the objectives of accelerating the growth of output and employment with social justice and equity.
Ever since the 1970’s, it was realised that many of the regulations on economic activities have outlived their usefulness and were in fact hampering economic growth and development. In response to this, the government initiated some milder liberalisation reforms for almost a decade since the early 1980’s.
However, the Indian economy soon had to face the Gulf crisis and consequently:
(i) The uncertainties about the oil prices;
(ii) The external payment problems;
(iii) The serious inflationary pressures;
(iv) The scarcities of essential commodities;
(v) The deterioration of fiscal discipline, etc. These led to the Indian economy on the verge of Economic crisis.
In response to this emerging crisis, the Government initiated a set of stabilisation and structural reforms like:
(i) Reduction in fiscal deficit;
(ii) Containment of growth in money supply:
(iii) An exchange rate adjustment system etc.
The key objective of stabilisation policy was to bring the growth of aggregate demand in line with long term growth path of the economy.
In conjunction, the structural adjustment measures like;
(i) industrial delicensing
(ii) liberalisation of policy regime governing international trade
(iii) deregulation of financial sector
Were taken to improve the supply side of the economy. This shifted the long-term growth path of the economy itself completely.
(Adapted and modified)
Source: https://niti.gov.in/planningcommission.gov.in/docs/reports/genrep/arep9099/at94-95.htm
(a) Briefly outline any two reasons for the initiation of Economic Reforms in 1991. (2)
(b) Government introduced a set of stabilisation and structural reforms to solve the economic crisis. State the key initiatives and objectives of these policies adopted by the Government of India. (4)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(a) Two reasons for the initiation of economic reforms were:
- High inflationary pressure [1]
- Mounting fiscal deficit [1]
(Any other valid point to be allotted marks)
(b) In response to the economic crisis, Government of India initiated a set of:
- Stabilization measures like reduction in fiscal deficit, containment of growth in money supply etc.
- Structural reforms such as industrial delicensing, deregulation of financial sector etc.
The key objective of such policies was to bring the growth of aggregate demand in line with long term growth path of the economy. [4]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q55.2023 Main 58/4/1 · Q34(b)6 marks
(i) Explain the reasons why the industrial sector has performed poorly in the reform period. (4)
(ii) Distinguish between the Bilateral and Multilateral Trade. (2)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(i) Industrial sector performed poorly in the reform period because of decreasing demand for industrial products due to various reasons such as cheaper imports, etc. Cheaper imports have, thus, replaced the demand for domestic goods. Moreover, the infrastructure facilities including power supply, remained inadequate due to lack of investment. [4]
(To be marked as a whole)
(Any other valid explanation to be allotted marks)
(ii) Bilateral Trade refers to the exchange of goods and services between two nations. [1]
Whereas;
Multilateral Trade refers to exchange of goods and services between more than two nations. [1]
Q56.2023 Main 58/5/1 · Q346 marks
Read the following text carefully and answer the given questions on the basis of the same and common understanding:
India urged the World Trade Organisation (WTO) to relax rules to allow the country to export food grains from its public stocks to the nations facing food crisis. India can help, reduce food insecurity but there is hesitation on the part of the WTO, in relaxing its rules. India's Finance Minister said food, fuel and fertilizers are global public goods and ensuring access of these for developing and emerging economies is critical. She also shared India's experiences, including robust gains in agriculture production, citizen centric food security programmes and innovative delivery mechanisms such as the 'One Nation one Ration Card' Scheme.
(Source: The Economic Times; July 16, 2022)
(a) State and discuss any two objectives of World Trade Organisation.
(b) Name any two steps taken by India to strengthen the food security.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(a) Objectives of World Trade Organisation (WTO) are:
- It helps in providing greater market access to all member countries as it provides equal opportunities to all countries in the international market. [2]
- It facilitates bilateral and multilateral trade by removing tariff and non-tariff barriers. [2]
(Any other valid objective to be allotted marks)
(b) Two steps taken by India to strengthen food security are:
- Robust gains in agriculture production. [1]
- Citizen-centric food security programme. [1]
(Any other valid step to be allotted marks)
Q57.2023 Supp 58/C/1 · Q346 marks
Read the following text carefully and answer the given questions on the basis of the same and common understanding:
Goods and Service Tax collections rose almost 20% in April 2022 to reach a fresh high of nearly ₹ 1.7 lakh crore, pointing to a continued buoyancy in revenue due to higher economic activity and tighter regulation. For the first time gross GST collection has crossed the ₹ 1.5 lakh crore mark. Total number of e-way bills generated in the month of March 2022 was ₹ 7.7 crore, which is 13% higher than ₹ 6.8 crore e-way bills generated in the month of February 2022, which reflects recovery of business activity at a faster pace.
During April 2022, ₹ 1.1 crore GST returns were filed. The filing percentage for GSTR-3B in April 2022 was 84.7% as compared to 78.3% in April 2021.
(i) “Goods and Services Tax (GST) is a comprehensive indirect tax”. Elucidate.
(ii) “Buoyancy in revenue reflected recovery of business activities at a faster pace.” Justify the given statement with a valid explanation.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Supplementary), Set 58/C/1
(i) Goods and Services Tax (GST) is a unified single comprehensive indirect tax levied upon goods and services. It has subsumed different types of taxes such as Excise Duty, Service Tax, Sales Tax etc. It is a destination-based consumption tax that is applicable throughout the nation with a single rate of tax for a particular good or service. GST has reduced the cascading nature of indirect taxes. [3] (To be marked as a whole)
(ii) In April 2022, the tax collection recorded a 20% hike and reached the level of ₹1.7 lakh crore. This buoyancy in revenue was an outcome of rising economic activities and tighter regulation by the government. A 13% rise in the number of e-way bills generated and ₹ 1.1 crore GST returns filed in the country is the clear indication of recovery of business activity at a faster pace. [3] (To be marked as a whole)
Q58.SQP 2025-26 · Q33(b)6 marks
(I) “The process of globalisation through liberalisation and privatisation has produced positive, as well as, negative results for India.”
Do you agree with the given statement? Give valid explanation in support of your answer. [4]
(II) “The Government of India was compelled to introduce the economic reforms of 1991.”
State any two reasons behind the introduction of Economic Reforms of 1991. [2]
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 · Marking Scheme
(I) Yes, the process of globalisation has yielded both positive, as well as, negative results for India. It is argued that globalization serves as an opportunity for developing countries like India to access the capital and technology of the global markets.
However, some critics argue that globalisation primarily benefits developed nations, and undermines the welfare of people in underdeveloped countries thereby exacerbating economic disparities. In the context of India, the reforms of the 1990’s mainly benefited high-income groups and select service sectors instead of crucial areas like agriculture and industry. [4]
(II) Two reasons behind the introduction of Economic Reforms of 1991 were:
- High rate of inflation [1]
- Huge Balance of Payments Deficit [1]
Part B · Indian Economic Development
9. Human Capital Formation in India
Q1.2026 Main 58/1/1 · Q191 mark
Read the following statements: Assertion (A) and Reason (R), Choose the correct option from those given below:
Assertion (A): Education facilitates the assimilation of knowledge and competencies. It also fosters inventive capacities and enhances the aptitude to integrate advance technology.
Reason (R): Education plays a pivotal role in transforming cognitive perspectives and serves as a catalyst for the economic advancement of a nation.
Options:
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
- Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
Q2.2026 Main 58/2/1 · Q201 mark
The steep Indian education pyramid indicates _________. (Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)
Options:
- equal distribution of students across all levels
- increase in number of people reaching higher education
- low unemployment among educated youth
- few/less number of people reaching higher education
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(D) few/less number of people reaching higher education
Q3.2026 Main 58/2/1 · Q271 mark
Education provides __________. (Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)
(i) Scientific advancements
(ii) Facilitate inventions and innovations
(iii) Adapting to new technology
Options:
- (i) and (ii)
- (i) and (iii)
- (ii) and (iii)
- (i), (ii) and (iii)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Q4.2026 Main 58/3/1 · Q261 mark
The steep Indian education pyramid indicates _____________. (Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)
Options :
- Equal distribution of students across all levels
- Increase in number of people reaching higher education
- Low unemployment among educated youth
- Few/less number of people reaching higher education
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/3/1
(D) Few/less number of people reaching higher education
Q5.2026 Main 58/4/1 · Q201 mark
Read the following statements: Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose the correct option from those given below:
Assertion (A): Education is one of the important factors for economic growth of a country.
Reason (R): A healthy person could provide uninterrupted labour supply for a longer period of time.
Options:
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
- Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
Q6.2026 Main 58/4/1 · Q241 mark
Human Development is based on the idea that ___________ and ___________ are integral to human wellbeing. (Choose the correct option to fill in the blanks)
- Education, Wealth
- Health, Wealth
- Education, Health
- Health, Housing
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(C) Education, Health
Q7.2026 Main 58/5/1 · Q271 mark
In 2009, the Government of India came up with the ________ to make free education, a fundamental right for all children in the age group of 6 – 14 years. (Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)
- Mid-Day Meal Scheme
- Jan Dhan Yojana
- Tapas Majumdar Committee
- Right to Education Act
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(D) Right to Education Act
Q8.2026 Supp 58/7/1 · Q221 mark
Identify the correct statement from the following: (Choose the correct option)
- Human capital is tangible, whereas physical capital is intangible.
- Human capital formation and physical capital are the same.
- Human capital benefits not only the owner, but also society in general.
- Human capital, and physical capital, nature of depreciation remains the same.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Supplementary), Set 58/7/1
(C) Human capital benefits not only the owner, but also society in general.
Q9.2026 Supp 58/7/1 · Q251 mark
The expenditure by the Indian government on education is expressed as a percentage of ___________. (Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)
(i) Gross Domestic Product (GDP)
(ii) Total Government Expenditure
(iii) Total State Expenditure
Options:
- (i) and (iii)
- (i) and (ii)
- (ii) and (iii)
- (i), (ii) and (iii)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Supplementary), Set 58/7/1
(B) (i) and (ii)
Q10.2025 Main 58/1/1 · Q261 mark
Read the following statements carefully: Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose the correct option from those given below:
Assertion (A): Human capital formation increases the rate of participation of population to economic activities and leads to economic growth.
Reason (R): Rate of participation of people refers to the percentage of people engaged in production process of a country.
Options:
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
- Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
Q11.2025 Main 58/2/1 · Q241 mark
_____ is based on the idea that education and health are integral to human well-being. (Choose the correct option to fill up the blank)
- Human Resource
- Human Development
- Human Capital
- Economic Development
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(B) Human Development
Q12.2025 Main 58/4/1 · Q191 mark
Read the following statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Choose the correct alternative from the options given below:
Assertion (A): Information plays a crucial role in judicious decision-making about investing in human capital.
Reason (R): Individuals invest to acquire information about the labour market and other areas such as education and healthcare.
Options:
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
- Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
Q13.2025 Main 58/5/1 · Q191 mark
Read the following statements - Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Choose the correct option from the options given below:
Assertion (A): People spend to acquire information related to labour and other markets (like, education and health).
Reason (R): Expenditure on information is necessary for efficient utilisation of the human capital stock.
Options:
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
- Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
Q14.2025 Main 58/7/1 · Q181 mark
Identify, which of the following is not a feature of physical capital. (Choose the correct option)
(i) Tangibility
(ii) Tradability
(iii) Immobility
Options:
- (i) and (ii)
- (ii) and (iii)
- (i) and (iii)
- (i), (ii), and (iii)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/7/1
(B) (ii) and (iii)
or (C) (i) and (iii) or (D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Q15.2025 Supp 58/S/1 · Q211 mark
‘Expenditure on health’ is one of the sources of Human Capital Formation where, __________ is one of the most suitable curative measures. (Choose the correct alternative to fill in the blank)
- Vaccination
- Medical intervention during illness
- Spread of health awareness
- Provision of clean drinking water
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Supplementary), Set 58/S/1
(B) Medical intervention during illness
Q16.2024 Main 58/2/1 · Q241 mark
Identify the sources of Human Capital Formation and choose the correct alternative to fill in the blanks.

Alternatives:
- Expenditure on Health and Expenditure on Schools
- Expenditure on Technology and Expenditure on Knowledge
- Expenditure on Migration and Expenditure on Knowledge
- Expenditure on Health and Expenditure on Migration
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(D) Expenditure on Health and Expenditure on Migration
Q17.2024 Main 58/3/1 · Q261 mark
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement 1: Human development is based on the idea that education and health are integral to human well-being.
Statement 2: Human capital treats humans as a means to an end.
In light of the given statements, choose the correct alternative from the following:
- Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
- Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/3/1
(C) Both Statements 1 and 2 are true. [1]
Q18.2024 Main 58/5/1 · Q31(a)(ii)1 mark
State the meaning of ‘Human Development’
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/5/1
Human development is based on the idea that education and health are integral to human well-being and human beings are end in themselves. [1]
Q19.2024 Supp 58/S/1 · Q251 mark
Read the following statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose the correct alternative given below:
Assertion (A): Human capital cannot be traded in the market, whereas its services can be traded.
Reason (R): Human capital is intangible in nature.
Alternatives:
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
- Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Supplementary), Set 58/S/1
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A). [1]
Q20.2023 Main 58/1/1 · Q221 mark
“Skill India” programme launched by the Government is not an attempt to increase ___________ in India. (Choose the correct alternative to fill up the blank)
- human capital formation
- efficient utilisation of inputs
- increase in GDP growth
- inadequate spread of vocational education
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(d) inadequate spread of vocational education
Q21.2023 Main 58/2/1 · Q20(a)1 mark
Read the following statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose one of the correct alternatives given below:
Assertion (A): Human capital is not traded in the market; however its services are traded.
Reason (R): Human capital is intangible in nature.
Alternatives:
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
- Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A)
Q22.2023 Main 58/2/1 · Q20(b)1 mark
Benefits of physical capital accrue only to private entities, whereas human capital provides private as well as _____________benefits. (Fill up the blank with correct alternative)
- profitable
- social
- fiscal
- monetary
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(b) social
Q23.2023 Main 58/3/1 · Q231 mark
Identify which of the following does not reflect a direct relationship between human capital formation and economic growth.
- Employability of an educated person is higher than that of an uneducated person.
- On-the-job training will reduce the skills of labour.
- Healthy workforce is a boon to the economy.
- Digital information helps in taking real time decisions.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/3/1
(b) On-the-job training will reduce the skills of labour.
Q24.2023 Main 58/4/1 · Q231 mark
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement 1: Economic growth means the increase in real national income of a country.
Statement 2: Human capital formation and Human development are one and the same concepts.
In light of the given statements, choose the correct alternative from the following:
- Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
- Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(a) Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
Q25.2023 Main 58/5/1 · Q231 mark
Identify, which of the following are associated with the problem of human capital formation in India?
(i) Brain drain
(ii) Low academic standards
(iii) Rising population
(iv) Changes in social outlook
Alternatives:
- (i) and (ii)
- (ii) and (iii)
- (i), (ii) and (iii)
- (i) and (iv)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Q26.2023 Supp 58/C/1 · Q211 mark
The Government of India enacted the ‘Right to Education’ as a fundamental right for all children in the age group of _________ years. (Choose the correct alternative to fill up the blank)
- 6-14
- 6-12
- 5-13
- 5-14
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Supplementary), Set 58/C/1
(a) 6-14
Q27.2023 Supp 58/C/1 · Q221 mark
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement 1: Human capital benefits only individuals and not the society.
Statement 2: There are positive externalities of investment in human capital as society.
In light of the given statements, choose the correct alternative from following:
- Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
- Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Supplementary), Set 58/C/1
(b) Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
Q28.SQP 2025-26 · Q201 mark
Human capital is _________.
(i) intangible in nature
(ii) imperfectly mobile
(iii) inseparable from its owner
(Choose the correct option to fill up the blank)
Options:
- (i) and (ii)
- (i) and (iii)
- (ii) and (iii)
- (i), (ii) and (iii)
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 · Marking Scheme
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Q29.SQP 2026-27 · Q211 mark
‘Empirical evidence regarding the impact of human capital on economic growth is often described as nebulous.’
Due to measurement problems, _________may not reflect the actual quality/status of education/health of the people in a country.
(i) years of schooling
(ii) teacher-pupil ratio
(iii) life-expectancy
(Choose the correct option to fill up the blank)
Options:
- (i) and (ii)
- (i) and (iii)
- (ii) and (iii)
- (i), (ii) and (iii)
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 · Marking Scheme
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Q30.2025 Main 58/4/1 · Q30(a)(i)2 marks
Distinguish between human capital and physical capital.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/4/1
Human capital refers to the stock of knowledge, skill and ability imbibed in the owner of the same, i.e., human capital is inseparable from its owner. It cannot be sold in the market, only its services can be sold in the market. [1]
Whereas;
Physical capital are the assets (plant and machinery, building etc.), which are tangible in nature. It is separable from its owner. It can be transacted in the market. [1]
Q31.2023 Main 58/3/1 · Q33(b)(ii)2 marks
State and discuss any one recommendation of the Education Commission (1964-66).
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/3/1
The Education Commission (1964–66) had recommended that at least 6 % of GDP should be spent on education. [1]
This is required to make a noticeable rate of growth in educational achievements. This was expected to raise the academic standard in the post-independence era. [1]
Q32.2022 Supp 58/6/1 · Q11(i)2 marks
“Health is one of the most important sources for human capital formation. Health furnishes the complete state of well-being desired for a nation to grow with its people.” Elaborate the given statement.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Supplementary), Set 58/6/1
The given statement is appropriate, as health is a state of complete physical, mental and social well-being of a person and not the mere absence of disease. It is a yardstick of one’s well-being. Healthy manpower contributes more to the growth and development of the nation. [2]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q33.2026 Main 58/1/1 · Q28(b)3 marks
During the ‘Mann ki Baat’ program aired on 29th June, 2025, Prime Minister shared that World Health Organisation (WHO) has declared India as a Trachoma free (an eye disease). This achievement, he shared, is a result of sustained efforts in health care, sanitation, awareness and medical access.
In the light of the above statement, explain how investments in health care contributes to a nation’s development. Support your answer with valid arguments.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/1/1
Investment in healthcare contributes to a nation’s development by ensuring the availability of a healthy workforce. The productivity of a healthy person is relatively higher than that of an unhealthy person. Healthy people may provide an uninterrupted labour supply for a long period. Thus, better healthcare enhances labour productivity, promotes human capital formation and ultimately supports the economic development of a country. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q34.2026 Main 58/4/1 · Q29(a)3 marks
Anaya and Rohan owned separate farms. Anaya focused on learning modern farming techniques, training workers in crop rotation, soil management, and pest control. On the other hand, Rohan invested in advanced machinery, irrigation systems, HYV seeds.
“Both Anaya and Rohan invested in human capital.”
Do you agree with the given statement? Give valid argument in support of your answer.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/4/1
No. Rohan invested in physical capital by purchasing advanced machinery, irrigation systems and HYV seeds, which are tangible assets used in the production process. [1½]
In contrast, Anaya invested in human capital as she enhanced knowledge and skills by learning modern farming techniques and training workers in crop rotation, soil management and pest control. [1½]
Q35.2026 Main 58/4/1 · Q29(b)3 marks
“Expenditure on preventive medicine, curative and social medicine helps in building human capital and economic development.”
Do you agree with the given statement? Give valid argument in support of your answer.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/4/1
Yes. Expenditure on health as a source of human capital formation, in an economy, may take different forms like expenditure on preventive medicine, curative medicine and social medicine, etc. A healthy person provides uninterrupted labour supply for a longer period of time. Thus, such expenditures lead to human capital formation, contributing towards economic development of the country. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q36.2026 Supp 58/7/1 · Q29(a)3 marks
“Human capital formation through education and health is central to the process of development of a country.”
Do you agree with this statement? Justify your answer with a valid explanation.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Supplementary), Set 58/7/1
Yes. Education enhances knowledge, technical skills and labour productivity, leading to sustainable economic growth and higher future returns. Expenditure on health ensures availability of efficient manpower which provides uninterrupted labour supply for a longer period of time. Thus, expenditure on both education and health as a source of human capital formation is central to a country’s overall economic and social development. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q37.2025 Main 58/1/1 · Q293 marks
Trace the relationship between Human capital and Economic growth.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/1/1
Human capital and economic growth of a nation are positively correlated. Human capital refers to the stock of knowledge and skill set of population of a nation. Investing in human capital improves efficiency and abilities of the human resource of the country.
Technical skills gained through various sources of human capital formation (education, health, training etc.) contribute to increased productivity and output. Additionally, human capital fosters innovation and enhances the capacity to adopt new technologies, leading to economic growth. (To be marked as a whole) [3]
Q38.2025 Main 58/2/1 · Q29(a)3 marks
Medhya and Danish both had their own farms. Medhya invested in a few agricultural courses, learnt modern farming techniques and trained her labourers on best practices related to soil fertility, crop management, pest control etc.
Whereas, Danish invested heavily in, by purchasing advanced farming machinery, irrigation systems, and high quality seeds.
Do you agree that, Danish had made investment in human capital? Give valid reason in support of your answer.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/2/1
No, Danish has not made investment in human capital. As investment in human capital increases, the stock of knowledge, skill and ability imbibed in the owner of the same. However, Danish’s investment in purchasing advanced farming machinery, irrigation systems, and high-quality seeds is made in physical capital.
Physical capital includes assets which are tangible in nature. It is separable from its owner and can be transacted in the market. (To be marked as a whole) [3]
Q39.2025 Main 58/2/1 · Q29(b)3 marks
“Expenditure on preventive medicine, curative medicine and social medicine helps in building human capital and economic development.”
Do you agree with the given statement? Give valid arguments in support of your answer.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/2/1
Yes. Expenditure on health as a source of human capital formation, in an economy, may take different forms like expenditure on preventive medicine, curative medicine and social medicine, etc. A healthy person provides uninterrupted labour supply for a longer period of time. Thus, such expenditure leads to human capital formation contributing towards economic development. (To be marked as a whole) [3]
Q40.2025 Main 58/5/1 · Q31(a)(i)3 marks
Distinguish between human capital and physical capital.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/5/1
Human capital refers to the stock of knowledge, skill and ability imbibed in the owner of the same, i.e., human capital is inseparable from its owner. It cannot be sold in the market, only its services can be sold in the market. [1½]
Whereas;
Physical capital are the assets (plant and machinery, building etc.), which are tangible in nature. It is separable from its owner. It can be transacted in the market. [1½]
Q41.2025 Main 58/6/1 · Q293 marks
On the basis of the given image, explain the source of human capital formation which may contribute to the economic growth in India.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/6/1
The source of Human Capital Formation (HCF) indicated in the given image is investment in education.
Education provides knowledge to understand changes in society and scientific advancements. It stimulates inventions and innovations in the economy. Similarly, the availability of an educated labour force facilitates adaptation to new technologies. Technical skills acquired through education provide an opportunity to make better use of given resources thereby promoting the economic development of the nation. [3] (To be marked as a whole)
Q42.2024 Main 58/1/1 · Q293 marks
“In India, National Education Policy 2020 has stressed a lot on in-service training of the teachers.”
(i) Identify the source of Human Capital Formation (HCF) indicated in the aforesaid statement.
(ii) Elaborate the likely impacts of this source on the economic development of India.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(i) On-the-job training is the source of Human Capital Formation (HCF) indicated in the aforesaid statement. [1]
(ii) On-the-job training has become an integral part of work environment in the recent times as it enhances the productive capacity of employees. It enables employees to develop skills and adapt to modern technologies. As a result of on-the-job training, an employee is likely to contribute more productively leading to the economic development of India. [2]
Q43.2024 Main 58/1/1 · Q31(b)(i)3 marks
Elaborate the need to promote women’s education in India.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/1/1
Promoting women's education in India is imperative for societal progress and gender equality. Educated women contribute to economic growth by entering the workforce and making informed decisions about their lives. Moreover, educating women makes a favourable impact on the fertility rate and health care of women and children. Hence, investing in women's education uplifts communities and drives sustainable development across India. [3]
Q44.2024 Main 58/2/1 · Q33(a)(iii)3 marks
Elaborate the need to promote women's education in India.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/2/1
Promoting women's education in India is imperative for societal progress and gender equality. Educated women contribute to economic growth by entering the workforce and making informed decisions about their lives. Moreover, educating women makes a favourable impact on the fertility rate and health care of women and children. Hence, investing in women's education uplifts communities and drives sustainable development across India. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q45.2024 Main 58/3/1 · Q293 marks
“In India, National Education Policy 2020 has stressed a lot on in-service training of the teachers.”
(i) Identify the source of Human Capital Formation (HCF) indicated in the aforesaid statement. 1
(ii) Elaborate the likely impacts of this source on the economic development of India. 2
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/3/1
(i) On-the-job training is the source of Human Capital Formation (HCF) indicated in the aforesaid statement. [1]
(ii) On-the-job training has become an integral part of work environment in the recent times as it enhances the productive capacity of employees. It enables employees to develop skills and adapt to modern technologies. As a result of on-the-job training, an employee is likely to contribute more productively leading to the economic development of India. [2]
Q46.2024 Main 58/4/1 · Q30(a)(i)3 marks
“National Education Policy 2020 of India stresses a lot on in-service teachers' training.”
In the light of the given statement, state and explain any two advantages of such on-the-job trainings in upliftment of education sector of any nation.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/4/1
On-the-job training of teachers is important for the upliftment of the education sector of any nation:
- As an important source of human capital formation, such trainings help to bridge the gap between theoretical concepts and practical experiences. This enables teachers to adapt to latest technologies. [1½]
- It enhances the professional skills of teachers by updating them about changing teaching pedagogies. [1½]
Q47.2024 Main 58/4/1 · Q34(b)(i)3 marks
‘India can transform itself knowledge-based economy by using information technology.’
Justify the given statement.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/4/1
India can transform itself into a knowledge-based economy by using information technology (IT). IT acts as a tool for releasing the creative potential and knowledge embedded in the society. The use of emails even by the villagers, e-governance are some indicators of such transformations. Hence, with the successful use of IT, India can move its economy to a higher growth trajectory based on knowledge landscape. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q48.2024 Main 58/5/1 · Q293 marks
Explain the role of affordable healthcare facilities in promoting human capital in a country.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/5/1
A healthy mind lives in a healthy body. The provision of affordable healthcare facilities adds to the supply of a healthy labour force. The productivity of a healthy person is relatively higher than that of an unhealthy person.
Hence, the availability of affordable healthcare facilities ensures an increase in labour productivity which leads to the promotion of human capital in a country. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q49.2023 Main 58/1/1 · Q29(b)3 marks
Dr. Khurana, a dentist, ran his clinic in an economically backward area. He was earning a comparatively low income. So, he decided to move to a city and spent a huge amount for the same." Identify and explain the type of expenditure incurred by Dr. Khurana, which directly contributed to the process of human capital formation.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/1/1
The expenditure incurred by Dr. Khurana on shifting his clinic from economically backward area to the city comes under the category of “Expenditure on migration”. [1]
Expenditure on migration is the source of human capital formation. People migrate in search of jobs that fetch them higher salaries. Technically qualified persons like engineers and doctors, migrate to other areas because of higher incomes and better opportunities. [2]
Q50.2023 Main 58/1/1 · Q33(a)(ii)3 marks
Distinguish between human capital and physical capital.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/1/1
Human capital refers to the stock of knowledge, skill and ability imbibed in the owner of the same, i.e., human capital is inseparable from its owner. It cannot be sold in the market, only its services can be sold in the market. [1½]
Whereas;
Physical capital are the assets (plant and machinery, building etc.), which are tangible in nature. It is separable from its owner. It can be transacted in the market. [1½]
Q51.2023 Main 58/2/1 · Q29(b)3 marks
“Active Government intervention is essential in education and health sectors in India.”
Do you agree with the given statement? Give reasons in support of your answer.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/2/1
Yes. Government intervention is essential in education and health care services as it creates both private and social benefits. Expenditure on education and health make substantial long-term impacts. Since, such impacts cannot be easily reversed the government intervention becomes essential.
(To be marked as a whole)
(Any other valid reason to be allotted marks)
Q52.2023 Main 58/3/1 · Q28(b)3 marks
Distinguish between 'Human Capital' and 'Human development'.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/3/1
Human capital considers education and health as a means to increase labour productivity. Human capital treats human beings as a means to achieving the ultimate end of an increase in productivity. [1½]
Whereas;
Human development is based on the idea that education and health are integral to human well-being. Human development treats human beings as ends in themselves. [1½]
Q53.2023 Main 58/5/1 · Q33(b)(i)3 marks
Discuss the need for promoting women’s education in India.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/5/1
The need to promote education for women in India is imminent. It helps in improving economic independence and social status of women. Women education makes a favourable impact on fertility rate and health care of women and children. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q54.2026 Main 58/3/1 · Q31(a)4 marks
Describe the role of government in improving the efficiency of human capital formation in India.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/3/1
The Government plays a crucial role in promoting the efficiency of human capital formation. Government intervention is essential as spending on education and health has long-term, irreversible impact. Moreover, consumers often lack complete information about service quality and costs, leading to monopoly power and potential exploitation by private service providers. To avoid this, the government must regulate these services, ensuring adherence to standards and fair pricing. Hence, government plays a crucial role in making these essential services accessible to all sections of society. [4]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q55.2026 Main 58/5/1 · Q32(b)4 marks
(i) Define ‘Human Capital Formation’.
(ii) Explain ‘Expenditure on migration’ as a source of human capital formation.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(i) Human Capital Formation refers to the addition to the stock of human capital over a given period of time. [1]
(ii) People migrate in search of job opportunities that fetch them higher earnings. Technically qualified persons like engineers and doctors, migrate to other areas because of higher incomes and better opportunities. Migration also involves transportation costs, higher cost of living and psychic costs of change in socio- cultural setup. However, the enhanced earnings at the new place outweighs the costs of migration; hence, expenditure on migration is the source of human capital formation. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q56.2025 Main 58/7/1 · Q324 marks
Argue in favour of the need for different forms of government intervention in the education and health sectors.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/7/1
Education and healthcare services play a vital role in socio-economic welfare for the masses. Government intervention is essential as spending on these sectors has long-term, irreversible impacts. Moreover, consumers often lack complete information about service quality and costs, leading to monopoly power and potential exploitation by private providers. To avoid this, the government must regulate these services, ensuring adherence to standards and fair pricing. Hence, it is imperative for the government to make these essential services accessible to all sections of society. [4] (To be marked as a whole)
Q57.2025 Supp 58/S/1 · Q31(a)4 marks
“The Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE) and the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) organised a capacity-building training aimed at upgrading the skills of government personnel and further contributing to increasing India’s share in the global space industry.”
In the light of the given statement, explain how such training programmes can affect human capital formation.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Supplementary), Set 58/S/1
Capacity-building initiatives by Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE) and the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) in the form of On-the-job training boost the efficiency of government personnel. Such trainings have become an integral part of work environment in the recent times as they add to the productive capacity of employees.
Firms encourage such capacity-building programmes, as the benefits outweigh the cost of these trainings. They help employees keep pace with modern technologies and innovative practices. Thus, it can be asserted that on-the-job training is an important source of human capital formation. [4] (To be marked as a whole)
Q58.2025 Supp 58/S/1 · Q31(b)4 marks
“Both physical capital and human capital depreciate with time, but the nature of depreciation differs between the two.”
Do you agree with the given statement? State and discuss valid reasons in support of your answer.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Supplementary), Set 58/S/1
Yes, human capital and physical capital both depreciate with time but the nature of depreciation differs between the two. With the continuous wear and tear and change of technology, physical capital depreciates and becomes obsolete. Whereas, in the case of human capital, depreciation takes place with ageing but can be reduced, to a large extent, through continuous investment in education, health, etc. This investment also facilitates the human capital to cope with change in technology, which is not the case with physical capital. [4] (To be marked as a whole)
Q59.2024 Main 58/2/1 · Q314 marks
“There exists a positive correlation between human capital formation and economic growth of a nation.”
Justify the given statement with valid explanation.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/2/1
Investment in human capital formation enhances efficiency, skill, and capabilities implying economic growth. Human Capital formation stimulates innovation and creates the ability to absorb new technology. Technical skills acquired through sources of human capital formation such as education, training, sound health, etc. add to productivity and production. Thus, human capital formation may accelerate economic growth. [4]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q60.2024 Supp 58/S/1 · Q324 marks
“Expenditure on different levels of education in India is in the same proportion.”
Defend or refute the given statement, giving valid reasons.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Supplementary), Set 58/S/1
The given statement is refuted. In India, elementary education takes a major share of total education expenditure and the share of the higher/tertiary education is the least. Though, on an average, the government spends less on tertiary education, ‘expenditure per student’ in tertiary education is higher than that of elementary. Moreover, the revenues from education cess have been earmarked for spending on elementary education. In addition to this, the government sanctions a large outlay for the promotion of higher education and new loan schemes for students to pursue higher education. [4]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q61.2023 Main 58/2/1 · Q32(a)4 marks
"Expenditure on On-the-job training is an important means of human capital formation in an economy."
Give valid reasons to justify the given statement.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/2/1
On-the-job training has become an integral part of work environment in the recent times as it adds to the productive capacity of employees. Firms encourage such trainings, as the benefits outweighs the cost of these trainings. It enables employees to adapt newer technologies and modern ideas and is an important source of human capital formation.
(To be marked as whole)
Q62.2023 Main 58/3/1 · Q33(a)(i)4 marks
Explain the role of education in the economic development of the nation.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/3/1
Education provides knowledge to understand changes in society and scientific advancements. It stimulates inventions and innovations in the economy. Similarly, the availability of educated labour force facilitates adaptation to new technologies. Technical skills acquired through education provide an opportunity to make better use of given resources thereby promoting economic development of the nation.
(Any other valid explanation to be allotted marks)
Q63.2023 Main 58/5/1 · Q324 marks
State, with valid reasons whether, the following statements are true or false:
(a) "Higher productivity and production are the outcome of investment in human resources."
(b) Rising population is not the cause for quality of human capital formation.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(a) True. Investment in human resource stimulates innovation and creates ability to absorb new technology. Technical skills acquired through sources of human capital formation such as education, training and sound health etc. helps labour supply to make better use of given resources. Hence, productivity and production increases. [2]
(b) False. Rapid rise in population adversely affects the quality of human capital. It reduces per head availability of existing facilities that results in a fall in quality of life. In turn, this leads to a reduction in the capacity to acquire specialised skills and knowledge. [2]
Q64.2023 Supp 58/C/1 · Q30(a)4 marks
Explain how ‘expenditure on information’ and ‘expenditure on migration’ acts as a source of human capital formation.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Supplementary), Set 58/C/1
Expenditure to acquire information relating to labour and other markets is necessary to make decisions regarding investment in human capital. Information relating to job opportunities enables people to increase their earning potential. Thus, it is a major factor that influences human capital formation. [2]
Expenditure on migration is another important source of human capital formation. People migrate in search of better employment opportunities that may fetch them higher income. Technically qualified workforce migrate to other areas because of higher income and better opportunities. [2]
Q65.SQP 2026-27 · Q32(a)4 marks
Refer the following text carefully:
Keha and Mandeep graduated recently. Keha in order to improve her physical fitness, reduce stress and increase overall well-being, enrolls in yoga classes, while Mandeep, invests in internet data, online job portals and counselling services to explore suitable career opportunities.
Identify and explain the sources of human capital formation indicated in the above text.
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 · Marking Scheme
Keha’s enrolment in yoga classes highlights her emphasis on ‘expenditure on health’. Maintaining good physical health improves efficiency, learning ability and long-term work performance. It not only improves potential well-being but also contribute to robust and efficient future labour force. [½ + 1½]
In contrast, Mandeep’s expenditure on internet data, online job portals and career counselling can be considered as an expenditure on information. By gaining knowledge and professional guidance, he improves his employability and overall productivity. This, in turn, enhances his earning potential and contributes to human capital formation. [½ + 1½]
Q66.SQP 2026-27 · Q32(b)4 marks
Avyaan’s education enables him to take informed decisions related to his health, finances, and social responsibilities. On the other hand, Amyra has received technical training in machine operations to improve her skills and productivity with the aim of increasing output.
In the context of the distinction between human development and human capital formation, identify which case represents human development. Give valid reasons to justify your answer.
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 · Marking Scheme
Avyaan’s initiative closely reflects the concept of human development, which focuses on expanding an individual’s choices and improving overall well-being rather than merely increasing income. His education enables him to make informed decisions about health and finances, thereby enhancing his quality of life.
On the other hand, Amyra’s technical training is aimed at upgrading her skills and efficiency to boost output. This represents human capital formation, as it is mainly directed towards economic benefits and increased productivity. [4]
Q67.2026 Main 58/1/1 · Q346 marks
Read the following text carefully:
To ensure inclusive and quality education for all, the Indian government has launched several important schemes. These schemes aimed at improving access, equity and learning outcomes, especially among disadvantaged group.
The Right to Education (RTE) Act, passed by the India Parliament on August 4, 2009, guarantees free and compulsory education to every child between 6-14 years of age. It ensures that all children have access to education in neighbourhood schools, until they complete elementary education. Another key initiative is Sarva Siksha Abhiyan (SSA). It was introduced in 2001. It is one of India’s flagship programmes for the Universalisation of Elementary Education.
Digital India Campaign, launched on July 1, 2015, focuses on transforming India into a digitally empowered society by improving mobile and internet connectivity, particularly in rural and remote regions. This initiative supports digital learning & access to educational resources. Through these initiatives, the government strives to create an equitable, accessible & quality driven educational environment for all children, laying a strong foundation for national development.
On the basis of the given text and common understanding, answer the following questions:
(i) Identify, which law guarantees free and compulsory education upto the age of 14 years. Explain, how does it help in enhancing access to education. [3]
(ii) In your opinion, how has the increase in public spending on education contributed to India’s social and economic transformation?
Support your answer with valid arguments. [3]
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(i) The Right to Education (RTE) Act, 2009 guarantees free and compulsory education up to the age of 14 years. [1]
It enhances access to education by ensuring that every child between 6 to 14 years can attend school without any financial burden. It also provides schooling facilities in neighbourhood areas, making education easily accessible. This helps include children from disadvantaged groups and ensures that all children complete elementary education. [2]
(ii) Increase in government spending on education has played an important role in India’s social and economic development. It has made education more accessible, especially for weaker sections, thus, promoting equality. Education has improved skills and knowledge, leading to better job opportunities and higher productivity. It has helped in improving the standard of living of the people and overall development of the country. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
(Any other valid explanation to be awarded marks)
Q68.SQP 2025-26 · Q346 marks
Read the following text carefully:
The National Education Policy (NEP) 2020, asserts that education is fundamental for achieving full human potential, providing universal access to quality education and leadership on the global stage in terms of economic growth, social justice and equality. Thus, it presents the best way forward for developing and optimising India’s resources.
To attain the goals of education, NEP 2020 unequivocally endorses a substantial increase in public investment in education by both the Central government and all State governments. This is considered extremely critical for achieving the high-quality and equitable public education system that is truly needed for India's future progress and growth. To achieve this, they need to increase the public investment in Education sector to reach 6% of GDP at the earliest.
One of the primary goals of the schooling system must be to ensure that children are enrolled in and are attending school. As per the 75th round household survey by NSSO in 2017-18, the number of out of school children in the age group of 6 to 17 years is 3.22 crore. With a goal to achieve 100% Gross Enrolment Ratio in preschool to secondary level by 2030, it will be a top priority to bring these children back into the educational fold as early as possible, and to prevent further students from dropping out. For the same, two initiatives that will be undertaken are to provide:
- effective and sufficient infrastructure, so that all students have access to safe and engaging school education at all levels from pre-primary school to Grade 12.
- regular trained teachers at each stage, special care shall be taken to ensure that no school remains deficient on infrastructure support.
Source: https://www.education.gov.in/sites/upload_files/mhrd/files/NEP_Final_English.pdf (adapted and modified)
On the basis of the given text and common understanding, answer the following questions:
(I) “Education is considered fundamental for achieving full human potential”.
Justify the given statement with valid arguments. [2]
(II) Discuss the importance of increasing public expenditure in education. [2]
(III) State any two main initiatives that may be implemented to tackle school dropouts and avert additional students from leaving school. [2]
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 · Marking Scheme
(I) The education is fundamental for achieving full human potential providing universal access to quality education and leadership on the global stage in terms of economic growth, social justice and equality. Thus, it presents the best way forward for developing and optimising India’s resources. [2]
(II) To create a high-quality and equitable public education system essential for India's future development and growth, it is imperative to boost the public investment in education sector to 6% of GDP at the earliest. [2]
(III) Two main initiatives which will be implemented to tackle school dropouts and avert additional students from leaving school are to provide:
- effective and sufficient infrastructure, so that all students have access to safe and engaging school education at all levels from pre-primary school to Grade 12. [1]
- regular trained teachers at each stage, special care shall be taken to ensure that no school remains deficient on infrastructure support. [1]
Part B · Indian Economic Development
10. Rural Development
Q1.2026 Main 58/1/1 · Q221 mark
Read the following statements: Assertion (A) and Reason (R), Choose the correct option from those given below:
Assertion (A): The notion of rural development encompasses a far wider spectrum than agricultural advancement.
Reason (R): Government interventions in the agricultural sector remain imperative, as it constitutes the primary means of sustanance for the rural population.
Options:
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
- Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
Q2.2026 Main 58/1/1 · Q261 mark
Read the following statements: Assertion (A) and Reason (R), Choose the correct option from those given below:
Assertion (A): The Government of India adopted the measure of regulation of markets to improve marketing conditions for agricultural products.
Reason (R): Regulation of market ensured transparent pricing, fair trade practices, and protection for farmers against exploitation in agricultural marketing.
Options:
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
- Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
Q3.2026 Main 58/2/1 · Q191 mark
Read the following statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose the correct option from those given below:
Assertion (A): The dynamic sub-sectors like agro-processing industries, food processing industries, etc. have potential to create alternative employment opportunities.
Reason (R): Men usually seek non-farm jobs, but recently, women have also started looking for such jobs.
Options:
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is the not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
- Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is the not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
Q4.2026 Main 58/2/1 · Q231 mark
Growth of rural economy depends primarily on infusion of _________ to realise higher productivity in agricultural and non-agricultural sectors. (Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)
- Capital
- Road Construction
- Green status
- Outsourcing
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(A) Capital
Q5.2026 Main 58/2/1 · Q251 mark
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement 1: The option for producing off-season crops are quite restricted in organic farming.
Statement 2: Organic agriculture helps in substituting costlier agricultural inputs with locally produced organic inputs.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct option from the following:
- Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
- Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
- Both statements 1 and 2 are true.
- Both statements 1 and 2 are false.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(C) Both statements 1 and 2 are true.
Q6.2026 Main 58/3/1 · Q211 mark
Minimum Support Price is fixed by the Government to safeguard the interests of the ___________. (Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)
Options :
- Consumers
- Farmers
- Wholesalers
- Middlemen
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/3/1
(B) Farmers
Q7.2026 Main 58/3/1 · Q241 mark
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement I: Livestock provides alternative livelihood options to small and marginal farmers.
Statement II: In rural areas, animal husbandry provides stable employment opportunities throughout the year.
In the light of the given statements, choose the correct option from the following:
- Statement I is true and Statement II is false.
- Statement I is false and Statement II is true.
- Both Statements I and II are true.
- Both Statements I and II are false.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/3/1
(C) Both Statements I and II are true.
Q8.2026 Main 58/4/1 · Q191 mark
Identify the incorrect statement from the following.
- Expansion of rural credit has helped the Indian farmers to increase their production and productivity.
- The expansion and promotion of the rural banking sector has taken a backseat after the economic reforms.
- It is an accepted fact that if, farmers sell their produce directly to consumers, their profitability increases.
- Farmers who have the required information on prevailing prices often sell their produce at low prices.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(D) Farmers who have the required information on prevailing prices often sell their produce at low prices.
Q9.2026 Main 58/4/1 · Q231 mark
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement I: Diversification in agriculture relates to change in cropping pattern and shift in workforce to allied activities.
Statement II: Agricultural marketing is a process that involves the assembling, storage, processing, transportation, packaging, grading and distribution of agro-products.
In the light of the given statements, choose the correct option from the following:
- Statement I is true and Statement II is false.
- Statement I is false and Statement II is true.
- Both Statements I and II are true.
- Both Statements I and II are false.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(C) Both Statements I and II are true.
Q10.2026 Main 58/5/1 · Q221 mark
In the rural areas, diversification towards new areas such as livestock, fisheries and other non-agricultural activities is necessary to __________.
(i) Reduce the risk from agricultural sector
(ii) Provide unsustainable livelihood options
(iii) Provide supplementary employment
(Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)
Options :
- Only (i)
- (i) and (ii)
- (i) and (iii)
- (i), (ii) and (iii)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(C) (i) and (iii)
Q11.2026 Main 58/5/1 · Q231 mark
Self-Help Groups (SHGs) have emerged to fill the gap in the formal credit system as they ____________. (Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)
- Provide loan after obtaining suitable collateral
- Lend at a high rate of interest
- Promote thrift in larger proportions
- Generally provide collateral-free credit to their members
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(D) Generally provide collateral-free credit to their members
Q12.2026 Supp 58/7/1 · Q231 mark
Identify the limitation of organic farming from the following: (Choose the correct option)
- Healthier food
- Shorter shelf-life
- Environment-friendly
- Lower production cost
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Supplementary), Set 58/7/1
(B) Shorter shelf-life
Q13.2025 Main 58/2/1 · Q201 mark
Identify, the options that emphasize the role of information and technology.
(i) Achieving sustainable development
(ii) Attainment of food security
(iii) Disseminates information regarding emerging technologies.
Options:
- Only (i)
- Only (ii)
- (i) and (ii)
- (i), (ii) and (iii)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Q14.2025 Main 58/2/1 · Q231 mark
Agricultural marketing is a process that involves the _____ of agricultural commodities. (Choose the correct option to fill up the blank)
(i) Privatisation
(ii) Processing
(iii) Assembling
(iv) Grading
Options:
- (i) and (ii)
- (ii) and (iii)
- (i), (ii) and (iii)
- (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(D) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Q15.2025 Main 58/2/1 · Q251 mark
In recent years, all the adults are encouraged to open bank accounts as a part of a scheme known as _____. (Choose the correct option to fill up the blank)
- Jan-Dhan Yojana
- Jan-Aushadhi Yojana
- Jan-Soochna Yojana
- Jan-Arogya Yojana
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(A) Jan-Dhan Yojana
Q16.2025 Main 58/4/1 · Q211 mark
Identify, which of the following statements is incorrect about the Rural Banking system in India. (Choose the correct option)
- In the post-independence period, a well-structured Rural Banking system was formulated in India.
- Rural Banking system in India consists of a set of multi-agency institutions.
- Regional Rural Banks, Cooperative and Land Development Banks are few important components of Rural Banking system in India.
- Rural Banking system in India works under the guidance, instruction and supervision of the State Bank of India.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(D) Rural Banking system in India works under the guidance, instruction and supervision of the State Bank of India.
Q17.2025 Main 58/4/1 · Q231 mark
Production of diverse varieties of crops rather than one specialized crop is known as diversification of __________. (Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)
- crops
- agricultural production
- sectoral composition
- employment
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(A) crops
Q18.2025 Main 58/4/1 · Q251 mark
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement 1: The Food Corporation of India maintains buffer stocks of wheat and rice as a measure to improve market mechanism.
Statement 2: Minimum Support Price (MSP) is imposed by the government to safeguard the interest of farmers.
In the light of the given statements, choose the correct option from the following:
- Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
- Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(C) Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
Q19.2025 Main 58/5/1 · Q181 mark
Production of diverse varieties of crops, rather than one specialised crop, is known as diversification of _____________. (Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)
- Crops
- Agricultural Production
- Sectoral Composition
- Employment
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(A) Crops
Q20.2025 Main 58/5/1 · Q211 mark
Identify, which of the following statements is incorrect about the Rural Banking system in India. (Choose the correct option)
- The Rural Banking system in India consists of a set of multi-agency institutions.
- In the post-independence period, a well-structured Rural Banking system was formulated in India.
- Regional Rural Banks, Cooperative and Land Development Banks are components of the Rural Banking system in India.
- The Rural Banking system in India works under the guidance, instruction and supervision of the State Bank of India.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(D) The Rural Banking system in India works under the guidance, instruction and supervision of the State Bank of India.
Q21.2025 Main 58/5/1 · Q261 mark
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement 1: The purchase of food grains, made by the government on the Minimum Support Price (MSP), is maintained as buffer stock.
Statement 2: Minimum Support Price (MSP) safeguards the farmers against any sharp fall in farm product prices.
In the light of the given statements, choose the correct option from the following:
- Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
- Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(C) Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
Q22.2025 Main 58/6/1 · Q211 mark
Study the following image and identify the measure adopted by the Government to improve agricultural marketing. (Choose the correct option)

- Cooperative credit societies
- Regulated markets
- Transportation facilities
- Dissemination of information
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/6/1
(B) Regulated markets
Q23.2025 Main 58/6/1 · Q241 mark
White Revolution is associated with __________. (Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)
- Horticulture
- Fisheries
- Dairy Production
- Animal Husbandry
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/6/1
(C) Dairy Production
Q24.2025 Main 58/7/1 · Q191 mark
Prime beneficiary of the Minimum Support Price (MSP) fixed by the government is __________. (Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)
- Labourer
- Consumer
- Trader (Buyer)
- Farmer
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/7/1
(D) Farmer
Q25.2025 Supp 58/S/1 · Q261 mark
The institutional structure of rural banking today consists of a set of multi-agency institutions except the __________. (Choose the correct alternative to fill in the blank)
- Commercial Banks
- Regional Rural Banks (RRBs)
- Land Development Banks (LDBs)
- Private Money-lenders
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Supplementary), Set 58/S/1
(D) Private Money-lenders
Q26.2024 Main 58/1/1 · Q211 mark
Identify which of the following alternatives indicate the incorrect components combination of Agriculture Marketing System:
- Assembling, Storage, Processing, Packaging
- Production, Assembling, Processing, Grading
- Assembling, Processing, Packaging, Transportation
- Processing, Packaging, Grading, Distribution
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(B) Production, Assembling, Processing, Grading
Q27.2024 Main 58/1/1 · Q241 mark
Identify from the following alternatives the incorrect objectives of regulated agriculture market:
(i) To make the marketing system efficient and effective for farmers to get best price of their products.
(ii) To discourage improvement of marketing infrastructure for farmers.
(iii) To prevent exploitation of farmers.
(iv) To discourage farmers from improving quality and quantity of their produce.
Alternatives:
- (i) and (ii)
- (i) and (iii)
- (iii) and (iv)
- (ii) and (iv)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(D) (ii) and (iv)
Q28.2024 Main 58/1/1 · Q31(b)(ii)1 mark
Mention any two examples of diversification activities in the non-agro processing industries.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/1/1
Examples of diversification activities in the non-agro processing industries are:
- Fisheries [½]
- Animal Husbandry [½]
(Any other valid example to be awarded marks)
Q29.2024 Main 58/2/1 · Q221 mark
_______ farming is a system that is helpful in restoring, maintaining and enhancing the ecological balance. (Choose the correct alternative to fill in the blank)
- Conventional
- Organic
- Chemical
- Multi-layered
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(B) Organic
Q30.2024 Main 58/3/1 · Q201 mark
Which of the following is/are not an objective of regulated agricultural market?
(i) To discourage improvement of marketing infrastructure for farmers.
(ii) To make marketing systems efficient and effective for farmers to get best price for their products.
(iii) To discourage farmers to improve the quantity and quality of their produce.
Alternatives:
- (i) and (iii)
- (ii) and (iii)
- (i) only
- (ii) only
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/3/1
(A) (i) and (iii) [1]
Q31.2024 Main 58/3/1 · Q241 mark
Production of varied forms of crops against one specialised crop is called diversification of __________. (Choose the correct alternative to fill in the blank)
- sectoral occupation
- employment structure
- crops
- industrial production
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/3/1
(C) crops [1]
Q32.2024 Main 58/4/1 · Q191 mark
Identify, which of the following alternative indicates towards incorrect components combination of Agricultural Marketing System?
- Assembling, Storage, Processing, Packaging
- Production, Assembling, Processing, Grading
- Assembling, Processing, Packaging, Transportation
- Processing, Packaging, Grading, Distribution
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(B) Production, Assembling, Processing, Grading [1]
Q33.2024 Main 58/4/1 · Q241 mark
____________ farming is the system that restores, maintains and enhances the ecological balance. (Fill up the blank with correct alternative.)
- Conventional
- Chemical
- Organic
- Multi-layered
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(C) Organic [1]
Q34.2024 Main 58/5/1 · Q211 mark
Study the following picture:

Identify the kind of activities, which may be envisaged under __________ as diversification activity. (Fill up the blank with correct alternative.)
Alternatives:
- Animal Husbandry
- Fisheries
- Horticulture
- Organic farming
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(A) Animal Husbandry [1]
Q35.2024 Main 58/5/1 · Q271 mark
The scheme of ‘Micro Finance’ is extended through ________ credit provision. (Fill up the blank with correct alternative.)
- Self help groups
- Land Development Banks
- Regional Rural Banks
- Commercial Banks
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(A) Self help groups [1]
Q36.2024 Supp 58/S/1 · Q201 mark
Identify the alternate marketing channel that operates majorly in Punjab, Haryana and Rajasthan. (Choose the correct alternative)
- Apni Mandi
- Hadapsar Mandi
- Rythu Bazars
- Uzhavar Sandies
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Supplementary), Set 58/S/1
(A) Apni Mandi [1]
Q37.2024 Supp 58/S/1 · Q261 mark
_________ can be classified as one of the alternative sources of diversification from farm output. (Choose the correct alternative to fill in the blank)
- Green Revolution
- Horticulture
- Organic Farming
- Conventional Farming
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Supplementary), Set 58/S/1
(B) Horticulture [1]
Q38.2023 Main 58/1/1 · Q19(a)1 mark
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement 1: The purchase of food grains made by the Government on the Minimum Support Price (MSP) is maintained as buffer stock.
Statement 2: Minimum Support Price safeguards the farmers against any sharp fall in farm product prices.
In light of the given statements, choose the correct alternative from the following:
- Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
- Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(c) Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
Q39.2023 Main 58/1/1 · Q261 mark
Production of diverse varieties of crops rather than one specialized crop is called __________. (Choose the correct alternative to fill up the blank)
- diversification of crops
- diversification of agricultural production
- diversification in sectors
- diversification of employment
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(a) diversification of crops
Q40.2023 Main 58/2/1 · Q19(a)1 mark
_______ is a process, which includes all the activities from sowing till sale of the final produce in the market. (Fill up the blank with correct alternative)
- Rural Development
- Agricultural Diversification
- Organic Farming
- Agricultural Marketing
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(d) Agricultural Marketing
Q41.2023 Main 58/2/1 · Q19(b)1 mark
_____________have emerged as an important micro finance system and led to women empowerment. (Fill up the blank with correct alternative)
- NABARD
- Self-Help Groups
- Commercial Banks
- Land Development Banks
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(b) Self-Help Groups
Q42.2023 Main 58/2/1 · Q221 mark
Which of the following was NOT the benefit accruing from 'Golden Revolution'? (Choose the correct alternative)
- Increase in the income of the farmers.
- Increase in production of milk and related products.
- Increase in production and exports of fruits and vegetables.
- Employment for women in rural areas.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(b) Increase in production of milk and related products.
Q43.2023 Main 58/3/1 · Q21(a)1 mark
Micro credit programmes play a vital role in ensuring an overall development of the rural economy as they____________. (Choose the correct alternative to fill up the blank)
(i) provide financial support
(ii) lead to women empowerment
(iii) enhance the reach of formal credit system
Alternatives:
- Only (i) and (ii)
- Only (ii) and (iii)
- Only (i) and (iii)
- (i), (ii) and (iii)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/3/1
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Q44.2023 Main 58/3/1 · Q21(b)1 mark
_____________revolution was the harbinger of major changes in the credit system as it led to diversification of the portfolio of rural credit towards production-oriented lending. (Choose the correct alternative to fill up the blank)
- White
- Silver
- Blue
- Green
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/3/1
(d) Green
Q45.2023 Main 58/4/1 · Q211 mark
________markets were organised to protect the farmers from malpractices in mandis. (Choose the correct alternative to fill up the blank)
- Regulated
- Periodic
- Daily
- Weekly
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(a) Regulated
Q46.2023 Main 58/4/1 · Q25(b)1 mark
_________ system restores, maintains and enhances the ecological balance. (Choose the correct alternative to fill up the blank)
- Chemical farming
- Organic farming
- Conventional farming
- Multi-layered farming
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(b) Organic farming.
Q47.2023 Main 58/5/1 · Q211 mark
___________ is the apex institution which plans and evaluates policies related to rural credit needs.
- Cooperative Credit Societies
- Regional Rural Banks
- Self Help Groups
- NABARD
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(d) NABARD
Q48.2023 Supp 58/C/1 · Q231 mark
“In order to reduce over-dependence on agriculture sector, it is necessary to opt for diversification.”
With reference to the given statement, diversification includes ________. (Choose the correct alternative to fill up the blank)
(i) Change in cropping pattern
(ii) Shift of workforce to agriculture allied activities
(iii) Shift of workforce to non-agriculture sector
Alternatives :
- (i) and (ii)
- (i), (ii) and (iii)
- (i) and (iii)
- Only (i)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Supplementary), Set 58/C/1
(b) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Q49.SQP 2025-26 · Q211 mark
Read the following statements: Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose the correct option from those given below:
Assertion (A): Indian rural credit system was significantly transformed with the implementation of technological reforms in agriculture sector.
Reason (R): Green Revolution led to the diversification of the portfolio of rural credit towards production-oriented lending.
Options:
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
- Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 · Marking Scheme
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
Q50.SQP 2025-26 · Q251 mark
From the set of terms given in Column I and corresponding facts given in Column II, choose the correct pair of statements:
| Column I | | Column II |
|---|
| (a) | Animal Husbandry | i | Instability in income |
| (b) | Fisheries | ii | Mixed crop-livestock farming system |
| (c) | Horticulture | iii | India is the second-largest producer of fruits and vegetables in the world |
| (d) | Agro-processing industry | iv | Iron and steel industry |
Options:
- (a)-i
- (b)-ii
- (c)-iii
- (d)-iv
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 · Marking Scheme
(C) (c)-iii
Q51.SQP 2025-26 · Q261 mark
_______ is the measure being taken to create orderly and transparent marketing conditions. (Choose the correct option to fill up the blank)
Options:
- Cooperative marketing
- Assurance of Minimum Support Price (MSP)
- Provision of infrastructural development
- Regulation of markets
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 · Marking Scheme
(D) Regulation of markets
Q52.SQP 2026-27 · Q251 mark
Identify which of the following is not the function of National Bank for Agriculture and Rural development (NABARD). (Choose the correct option)
- Serving as apex funding agency for institutions providing rural credit.
- Monitoring, evaluating and coordinating rural financing activities.
- Formulating and implementing monetary policy.
- Coordinating rural credit policies with the government.
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 · Marking Scheme
(C) Formulating and implementing monetary policy.
Q53.2024 Main 58/1/1 · Q31(a)(i)2 marks
State and elaborate whether the following statements are true or false, with valid arguments:
In the recent past, the Government of India has taken crucial steps, like Jan-Dhan Yojana, for efficient allocation of financial resources.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/1/1
True, the Government of India has implemented schemes like Jan-Dhan Yojana, which has promoted thrift habits and efficient allocation of financial resources. The formal banking system has been benefitted by mobilization of a substantial amount under this yojana. [2]
Q54.2023 Main 58/3/1 · Q33(a)(ii)2 marks
State the importance of rural banking in an economy like India.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/3/1
Rural banking is important for an economy like India as it ensures -
- Availability of adequate credit to the farmers. [1]
- Provision of loans to the rural population for productive needs at cheaper rate of interest. [1]
(Any other valid point to be allotted marks)
Q55.2022 Main 58/2/1 · Q2(b)2 marks
State any two harmful effects of using chemical fertilizers.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 58/2/1
Two harmful effects of using chemical fertilizers are:
(i) Contamination of soil. [1]
(ii) Contamination of ground water. [1]
(any other relevant point/argument to be allotted marks)
Q56.2025 Main 58/1/1 · Q28(a)3 marks
“Cooperatives have received a setback during the recent past.”
Justify the given statement with valid explanation.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/1/1
Cooperative marketing has supported farmers in obtaining fair prices for their produce in the market. However, in recent times, they have encountered several challenges, including:
- inadequate coverage of farmer members
- insufficient connection between marketing and processing cooperatives
- inefficient financial management
(To be marked as a whole) [3]
Q57.2025 Main 58/4/1 · Q30(b)(i)3 marks
Critically appraise the micro-credit programmes in rural India.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/4/1
Micro-credit programmes fill the gaps in the formal credit system. Due to non-availability of collateral a vast proportion of rural households go out of the credit network. Micro-credit system has brought these poor households in the ambit of formal credit system by providing them loans at a concessional rate of interest. However, it is alleged that the borrowings are mainly confined to consumption purposes. (To be marked as a whole) [3]
Q58.2025 Main 58/5/1 · Q31(b)(i)3 marks
Describe briefly the importance of micro-credit programmes in Rural India.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/5/1
Micro-credit programmes have emerged to fill the gap in the formal credit system. The formal credit delivery mechanism has not been fully integrated into the rural social structure. Due to non-availability of collateral, a vast proportion of poor rural households go out of the credit network. Micro-credit system has brought these poor households in the ambit of formal credit system by providing them loans at a concessional rate of interest. (To be marked as a whole) [3]
Q59.2024 Main 58/2/1 · Q28(a)3 marks
“Self-Help Groups provide stimulus to socio-economic development in rural areas.”
Justify the given statement with valid explanation.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/2/1
Self-help groups (SHGs) have emerged to fill the gap in the formal credit system in rural India. The formal credit delivery mechanism in India is inadequate and has not been fully integrated into overall rural society. SHGs provide funds at concessional rates to the rural households. In addition to this, SHGs provide support to women for the establishment of small businesses leading to employment generation and women empowerment.
Hence, Self-Help Groups provide stimulus to socio-economic development in rural areas. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q60.2024 Main 58/2/1 · Q28(b)3 marks
“The Government of India has taken various measures to align the agricultural marketing system with the growing production activities in the rural areas.”
Do you agree with the given statement? Give any two valid reasons in support of your answer.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/2/1
Yes. The Government of India has taken various measures to align the agricultural marketing system such as:
- For the welfare of farmers as well as consumers, various market regulations were initiated to create orderly and transparent marketing conditions. [1½]
- The government took measures to enhance infrastructural amenities such as roads, railways, warehouses, cold storage facilities, and processing units to meet the growing demand. [1½]
Q61.2024 Main 58/5/1 · Q31(a)(i)3 marks
“Infrastructural development is an essential element to obtain the full potential of the rural sector in India”.
Justify the given statement with valid arguments.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/5/1
Development of infrastructure facilities such as provision of electricity, roads, irrigation, marketing etc. is essential to enhance the production and productivity in the rural areas. The availability of easy and affordable credit generates employment opportunities. Moreover, it also provides avenues for diversification from farm to non-farm and allied activities.
Hence, infrastructural development acts as a catalyst in the overall development of the rural economy. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q62.2023 Main 58/1/1 · Q29(a)3 marks
Critically evaluate the role of rural banking system in the process of rural development in India.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/1/1
Rapid expansion of the banking system had positive effect on rural farm and non-farm output, income and employment. However, following problems have been faced in the rural banking :
- The volume of rural credit in the country is still insufficient in comparison to its demand and institutional sources have failed to cover the nation.
- Less attention has been given on the credit requirements of small and marginal farmers and the problems of overdues in agricultural credit.
(To be marked as a whole)
(Any other valid argument to be allotted marks)
Q63.2023 Main 58/1/1 · Q33(b)(ii)3 marks
Discuss briefly the importance of micro credit programme in rural India.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/1/1
Micro-credit programmes have emerged to fill the gap in the formal credit system. The formal credit delivery mechanism has not been fully integrated into the rural social structure. Since, some collateral is required, vast proportion of poor rural households go out of the credit network. Micro-credit system has brought these poor households in the ambit of formal credit system by providing them loans at the concessional rate of interest.
(To be marked as whole)
Q64.2023 Main 58/2/1 · Q29(a)3 marks
“Recently the Government of India has taken numerous steps towards increasing the farmer's income through agricultural diversification.”
In light of the above statement, explain any two advantages of diversification in agriculture.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/2/1
Agricultural Diversification helps in increasing farmers’ income as:
- There is a greater risk in depending exclusively on farming for livelihood. Diversification reduces the risk from the agriculture sector. It also provides sustainable livelihood options to the rural people. [1½]
- Expansion into other sectors provides supplementary gainful employment during the off season period. [1½]
(Any other valid advantage to be allotted marks)
Q65.2023 Main 58/3/1 · Q293 marks
Elaborate how a well-structured 'Agricultural Marketing System' helps the farmers to increase their income.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/3/1
A well-structured ‘Agricultural Marketing System’ helps the farmers to increase their income as:
- Orderly and transparent marketing conditions facilitate sale of farmers’ produce.
- Provision of better infrastructural facilities like cold storage and warehouses prevent distress sale.
- It protects farmers from the exploitation of middlemen/intermediaries.
(To be marked as a whole)
(Any other valid explanation to be allotted marks)
Q66.2023 Main 58/4/1 · Q29(b)3 marks
Discuss briefly, why agricultural diversification is essential for sustainable livelihoods.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/4/1
The need for diversification arises from the fact that there is a greater risk in depending exclusively on farming for livelihood. Expansion into other related sectors is desirable to provide supplementary gainful employment and in realising higher levels of income for rural people. Hence, there is a need to diversify through focus on allied activities, non-farm employment and other emerging alternatives of livelihood providing sustainable livelihoods in rural areas.
(To be marked as a whole)
Q67.2023 Main 58/5/1 · Q29(b)3 marks
Explain the role of micro-credit system in meeting credit requirements of poor.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/5/1
Micro-credit programmes have emerged to fill the gap in the formal credit system. The formal credit delivery mechanism has not been fully integrated into the rural social structure. Since, some collateral is required, vast proportion of poor rural households go out of the credit network.
Micro-credit system has brought these poor households in the ambit of formal credit system by providing them loans at the concessional rate of interest. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q68.2023 Supp 58/C/1 · Q29(b)3 marks
State and discuss any two obstacles that hinder the mechanism of agricultural marketing.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Supplementary), Set 58/C/1
Two obstacles that hinder the mechanism of agricultural marketing are:
- Private trade (by moneylenders, rural political elites, big merchants, and rich farmers) predominates agricultural markets. Thereby, the benefits of government policy instruments cannot be extended to all farmers while marketing their produce. [1½]
- Inadequate infrastructural facilities generally become an obstacle to meet the growing demand for effective agricultural marketing. [1½]
(Any other valid argument/point/explanation to be allotted marks)
Q69.2023 Supp 58/C/1 · Q33(a)(i)3 marks
How did horticulture encourage rural development in India?
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Supplementary), Set 58/C/1
In India, farmers adopted diverse horticultural crops such as fruits, vegetables, tuber crops, flowers etc. It played a vital role in enhancing socio-economic conditions of farmers. It led to creation of employment opportunities for women and underprivileged classes as well.
Thus, horticulture has emerged as a successful sustainable livelihood option, promoting rural development in India. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q70.SQP 2026-27 · Q29(a)3 marks
Though livestock population in India is quite impressive but its productivity is quite low.
Briefly explain any two initiatives that can be taken to enhance the livestock productivity.
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 · Marking Scheme
Two initiatives that can enhance livestock productivity are quoted as follows:
- Encouraging improved animals breeds and use of modern technology to increase efficiency. [1½]
- Establishing veterinary clinics with improved facilities for better health of livestock. [1½]
Q71.2026 Main 58/3/1 · Q33(a)(i)4 marks
“Information Technology plays a very significant role in achieving sustainable development and food security.”
Justify the given statement with valid arguments.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/3/1
Information Technology (IT) plays a crucial role in achieving sustainable development and food security, as the government can predict areas of food insecurity and vulnerability using appropriate information and software tools. It also helps in disseminating information regarding emerging technologies and their applications, prices, weather and soil conditions for growing different crops etc. [4]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q72.2025 Main 58/2/1 · Q31(b)4 marks
“Micro credit programmes have been very helpful in supporting rural development and improving livelihoods in India.”
Do you agree with the given statement? Give valid reasons in support of your answer.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/2/1
Yes. Micro-credit programmes have emerged to fill the gap in the formal credit system. The formal credit delivery mechanism has not been fully integrated into the rural social structure. Due to non-availability of collateral, a vast proportion of poor rural households go out of the credit network. Micro-credit system has brought these poor households in the ambit of formal credit system by providing them loans at a concessional rate of interest. (To be marked as a whole) [4]
Q73.2025 Main 58/4/1 · Q324 marks
State and elaborate whether the following statements are true/false, with valid arguments:
(a) In the Indian rural landscape, agricultural diversification has emerged as a solution for a lot of farmers’ problems.
(b) Informalisation of workforce in India, has increased various concerns on the front of employment generation among the youth of the country.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(a) True. There is a greater risk in depending exclusively on farming for livelihood. Diversification has reduced the risk from uncertainties in the agriculture sector and has provided productive sustainable livelihood options to rural people. [2]
(b) True. Informalisation of workforce has increased concerns regarding job security amongst the youth. There is a problem of lower earning and lack of social security benefits. [2]
Q74.2025 Main 58/6/1 · Q31(b)4 marks
Explain the importance of credit availability in rural development.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/6/1
Growth of rural economy depends primarily on infusion of capital, from time to time, to realise higher productivity in agriculture and non-agriculture sectors. As the gestation period (duration between crop sowing and realisation of income after production) is quite long, hence rural credit is required to meet their initial investment needs of seeds, fertilizers, implements, etc. along with other family expenses. [4] (To be marked as a whole)
Q75.2024 Main 58/1/1 · Q324 marks
(a) State any two problems faced by farmers during the initial years of organic farming.
(b) “In the current situation, Information Technology plays a vital role in achieving food security in a nation like India.”
Justify the given statement.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(a) In the initial years of organic farming, farmers used to face a lot of problems such as:
- Yields from organic farming are relatively less. [½]
- Inadequate infrastructure. [½]
(Any other valid problem to be awarded marks)
(b) In India, Information Technology (IT) plays a crucial role as government can predict areas of food insecurity and vulnerability using appropriate information and software tools. It helps in disseminating information regarding emerging technologies and their applications, prices, weather and soil conditions for growing different crops etc. Hence, IT plays a vital role in achieving sustainable development and food security in a nation like India. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q76.2024 Main 58/3/1 · Q31(a)4 marks
State and elaborate whether the following statements are true or false, with valid arguments:
(i) Organic Farming has essentially become the need of the hour. 2
(ii) In the recent past, the Government of India has taken crucial steps, like Jan-Dhan Yojana, for efficient allocation of financial resources. 2
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/3/1
(i) True. Organic farming is the system of farming that relies upon the use of organic inputs for cultivation such as animal manures and composts. As organic farming is chemical free in nature which helps in soil conservation. Moreover, organic produce has more nutritional value than chemical farming. Hence, organic farming has essentially become the need of the hour. [2]
(ii) True. The Government of India has implemented schemes like Jan-Dhan Yojana, which has promoted thrift habits and efficient allocation of financial resources. The formal banking system has been benefitted by mobilization of a substantial amount under this yojana. [2]
Q77.2024 Supp 58/S/1 · Q30(a)4 marks
“A sound agricultural marketing system works as the backbone of any agro-system of any nation.”
Justify the above statement by listing any two steps taken by the Indian government in this direction.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Supplementary), Set 58/S/1
Two steps taken by the Indian government to improve agricultural marketing are:
- Regulation of markets by the government to create orderly and transparent marketing conditions. [2]
- Provision of physical infrastructure facilities like roads, railways, warehouses etc. [2]
(Any other valid step to be awarded marks)
Q78.2024 Supp 58/S/1 · Q30(b)4 marks
‘‘Over the past few years, India has witnessed a shift from traditional conventional farming to natural/organic farming.’’
Discuss briefly any two reasons behind this shift towards organic produce.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Supplementary), Set 58/S/1
Two reasons behind the shift from traditional conventional farming to organic farming:
- Organically grown food has more nutritional value than the food produced through conventional farming. [2]
- Organic farming in comparison to traditional conventional farming is pesticide-free and environmentally sustainable. [2]
(Any other valid reason to be awarded marks)
Q79.2023 Main 58/2/1 · Q32(b)4 marks
“Organic Farming is the need of the hour to promote sustainable development but, has its own limitations."
Elaborate any two advantages and limitations each of organic farming in the light of the above statement.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/2/1
Advantages of Organic farming are:
- Organic farming is the system of farming that relies upon the use of organic inputs for cultivation such as animal manures and composts. It is chemical free which helps in soil conservation. [1]
- Organic produce has more nutritional value than chemical farming. [1]
Limitations of organic farming an as follows:
- Yields from organic farming are lesser than the modern agricultural farming. Therefore, small and marginal farmers may find it difficult to adapt to large scale production. [1]
- Produce from organic farming generally has a shorter shelf life than sprayed produce. [1]
(Any other valid point to be allotted marks)
Q80.2023 Main 58/4/1 · Q324 marks
“Self-Help Groups provide stimulus for institutionalised lending, employment generation and women empowerment in the rural areas."
Justify the given statement with valid explanation.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/4/1
Self-help groups (SHG’s) have, truly, emerged overtime to fill the gap in the formal credit system in the rural India. The formal credit delivery mechanism in India is not only inadequate but has not been fully integrated into overall rural society.
As the rural poor do not have sufficient assets for collateral they stay away from the formal credit system. SHGs provide funds at concessional rates to this section of society. In addition to this, SHGs provide support to women for the establishment of small businesses leading to employment generation and women empowerment.
(To be marked as a whole)
Q81.2023 Supp 58/C/1 · Q30(b)4 marks
Explain any two objectives behind providing more and more institutional credit to farmers.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Supplementary), Set 58/C/1
Two objectives behind providing more and more institutional credit to farmers:
- Moneylenders and traders might exploit small and marginal farmers and landless labourers by lending to them at high rates of interest. [2]
- Private money lenders may exploit small and marginal farmers by manipulating their accounts. [2]
(Any other valid objective to be allotted marks)
Q82.SQP 2025-26 · Q324 marks
Refer to the given image carefully:

Answer the following questions on the basis of the given image:
(I) Identify the type of farming in Panel A and Panel B. [1]
(II) Explain any one advantage and disadvantage of the type of farming in Panel B over Panel A. [3]
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 · Marking Scheme
(I) The type of farming indicated in Panel A is Conventional Farming, whereas, the type of farming in Panel B is Organic Farming. [½+½]
(II) Advantage of Organic Farming over Conventional Farming:
- Organic farming is the system of farming that relies upon the use of organic inputs for cultivation such as organic manures and composts. Its chemical free nature helps in soil conservation. [1½]
Disadvantage of Organic Farming over Conventional Farming:
- Yields from organic farming are lesser than the conventional farming. Therefore, small and marginal farmers may find it difficult to adapt to large scale production. [1½]
Q83.2026 Main 58/2/1 · Q346 marks
Read the following text carefully:
The Union Budget 2025-26 proposed a significant package for rural India allocating ₹ 1.88 lakh crore to drive comprehensive development. The budget emphasises on boosting employment, women employment, education and infrastructure in rural areas, reflecting the governments’ commitment for a stronger, self-reliant rural economy. The extension of Jal-Jeevan Mission until 2028, with focus on achieving 100% rural water supply coverage and enhancing infrastructure maintenance. Broadband connectivity is set to expand under the Bharatnet project, providing internet access to all rural government secondary schools and primary health care centres.
Also, the budget highlights major rural schemes like the Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana which has provided all-weather roads to rural areas. The Pradhan Mantri Grameen Awaas Yojana, which has delivered housing to economically weaker sections. The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS) continues to secure rural livelihoods with an allocation of ₹ 86,000 crore in FY 2024-25.
On the basis of the above text and common understanding, answer the following questions:
(i) Explain the significance of rural development. [2]
(ii) Discuss any two policies initiated by government of India for rural development. [4]
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(i) Rural development aims at generating employment, empowerment of women, improving education and strengthening infrastructure to achieve comprehensive development and a stronger, self-reliant rural economy. [2]
(ii) Two policies initiated by government of India for rural development as indicated in the above text are:
- The Pradhan Mantri Grameen Awaas Yojana, which has delivered housing to economically weaker sections. [2]
- The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS) continues to secure rural livelihoods with an allocation of ₹ 86,000 crore in FY 2024-25. [2]
(Any other valid policy to be awarded marks)
Q84.2026 Main 58/5/1 · Q346 marks
Read the following passage carefully:
Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana (PKVY)
Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana (PKVY) aims at promoting organic farming, in turn resulting in improvement of soil health. It promotes Participatory Guarantee System – India (PGS – India), a simple certification system, where farmers and consumers participate directly in the process.
The scheme proposes to cover additional 6,00,000 hectare area under organic farming till 2025 – 26. The objective is to produce agricultural products free from chemicals and pesticide residues by adopting eco-friendly, low-cost technologies.
Key focus areas of Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana (PKVY) :
- Promote natural resource based integrated and climate resilient sustainable farming systems that ensure maintenance and increase of soil fertility, natural resource conservation, on farm nutrients recycling and minimising dependence on external inputs.
- Reduce farming costs and increase farmers’ income through sustainable organic practices.
- Chemical-free and nutritious food for human consumption.
- Protect the environment by using low-cost, traditional and farmer-friendly technologies.
- Help farmers become entrepreneurs through direct market linkages with local and national markets.
On the basis of the above passage and common understanding, answer the following questions:
(i) Define Organic Farming. Explain any two merits of organic farming.
(ii) Explain any two thrust areas of Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana (PKVY) in organic farming.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(i) Organic farming is a system of farming that restores, maintains and enhances the ecological balance. [1]
Two merits of Organic Farming:
- Organically grown food has more nutritional value than chemical farming. [1]
- Organic farming offers a means to substitute costlier agricultural inputs with locally produced organic inputs that are cheaper. [1]
(Any other valid merit to be awarded marks)
(ii) The two thrust areas of Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana (PKVY) are:
- Reduce farming costs and increase farmers’ income through sustainable organic practices. [1½]
- Chemical-free and nutritious food for human consumption. [1½]
(Any other valid thrust area to be awarded marks)
Q85.2026 Supp 58/7/1 · Q346 marks
Read the following text carefully:
India’s floriculture industry has grown into a high-performing sector, earning its status as a “sunrise industry” with a 100 per cent export orientation. Driven by a growing global demand for flowers, floriculture has evolved into a key commercial venture within the agriculture sector.
Commercial floriculture is particularly lucrative, offering higher returns per unit area than many traditional field crops. Production of flowers witnessed more profitability compared to cereals, pulses, vegetables and oilseeds. With subsidy support and crop loan financing, it is a promising venture for marginal and small landholdings, which constitute more than 96 per cent of the total landholdings and 63 per cent of the area of cultivation under floriculture.
In FY24, approximately 297 thousand hectares were dedicated to floriculture. During the same period, India exported 19,678 metric tonnes of floriculture products, earning ₹ 717.83 crore (USD 86.63 million). Key export destinations included the USA, the Netherlands, the UAE, the UK, Canada and Malaysia.
On the basis of the given text and common understanding related to economics, answer the following questions:
(i) Why is floriculture essential for providing a sustainable livelihood for the farmers?
(ii) Explain any two ways in which the government can extend help to the small and marginal farmers.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Supplementary), Set 58/7/1
(i) Floriculture provides a sustainable livelihood as it offers higher returns per unit area than crops such as cereals, pulses, vegetables and oilseeds. It has emerged as a highly profitable commercial venture due to the growing global demand for flowers and India’s 100% export-oriented floriculture industry, creating better income and employment opportunities for farmers. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
(ii) The government can support small and marginal farmers by:
- providing subsidies to reduce the cost of cultivation and encourage floriculture. [1½]
- extending crop loan financing at affordable rates to help farmers invest in production and expand their cultivation. [1½]
(Any other valid way to be awarded marks)
Q86.2025 Main 58/1/1 · Q346 marks
Read the following text carefully:
Agro-startups and rural enterprises are becoming increasingly vital for rural development in India. They address the critical challenges faced by rural sector in India. These ventures bring in technological innovations such as precision farming, IT-based monitoring system and data-driven decision-making tools that enhance productivity and resource efficiency.
By streamlining supply chains and creating direct market linkages, they ensure better pricing for farmers and reduce dependency on traditional intermediaries. Such enterprises contribute actively to employment generation in the rural areas. The government has demonstrated a continuous policy and financial support for agri-startups and entrepreneurs through various programs like RKVY-RAFTAAR, the Agri-infrastructure fund and Agri-SURE.
On the basis of given text and common understanding, answer the following questions:
(a) Explain, how agro-startups address the critical challenges faced by the agricultural sector.
(b) Comment on the role of government in supporting agro-startups and entrepreneurs in India.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(a) Agro-startups address the agricultural sector challenges by:
- technical innovation such as precision farming, IT-based monitoring system and data-driven decision making tools.
- streamlining supply chains and creating direct market linkages which may lead to better pricing.
(To be marked as a whole) [4]
(b) The government has demonstrated continuous policy and financial support for agri-startups and entrepreneurs through various programs like RKVY-RAFTAAR, the Agri-infrastructure fund, and Agri-SURE. (To be marked as a whole) [2]
Q87.2025 Main 58/7/1 · Q346 marks
Read the following text carefully:
The National-Level Multi-State Cooperative Society recently approved by the Union Cabinet for promoting organic production and exports, will help the farmers to increase their income manifold.
The arrangements for testing of land and selection of natural form of products will be set up in each district in the coming five years.
Government has also decided to set up a cooperative society in all Panchayats, which will ensure that the Central Government’s schemes reach the farmers.
Wide use of urea has spoiled farmland, and lakhs of farmers have moved towards organic farming.
To get better prices, there is a need for marketing and certification of such produce. Furthermore, steps must be taken to ensure that fake organic products do not hit the market.
On the basis of the given text and common understanding, answer the following questions:
(a) Define organic farming. [1]
(b) State any two benefits of organic farming. [2]
(c) Explain the steps taken by the government to promote organic products. [3]
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/7/1
(a) Organic farming is a whole system of farming that restores, maintains and enhances the ecological balance. [1]
(b) Advantages of Organic farming are:
- Soil conservation. [1]
- Nutritional food. [1]
(Any other valid benefit to be awarded marks)
(c) The steps taken by the government to promote organic products are:
- Testing of land and selection of natural form of products will be set up in each district in the coming five years. [1½]
- Set up a cooperative society in all Panchayats, which will ensure that the Central Government’s schemes reach the farmers. [1½]
(Any other valid step to be awarded marks)
Q88.2024 Main 58/4/1 · Q34(a)6 marks
(i) Discuss any two measures initiated by the government to improve Agricultural marketing in India. 3
(ii) Elaborate the importance of credit in rural development. 3
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(i) Two measures initiated by the government to improve Agricultural marketing in India are –
- For the welfare of farmers as well as consumers, various market regulations were initiated to create orderly and transparent marketing conditions. [1½]
- The government took measures to enhance infrastructural amenities such as roads, railways, warehouses, cold storage facilities, and processing units to meet the growing demand. [1½]
(Any other valid measure to be awarded marks)
(ii) Growth of rural economy depends primarily on infusion of capital, from time to time, to realise higher productivity in agriculture and non-agriculture sectors. As the gestation period (duration between crop sowing and realisation of income after production) is quite long, hence rural credit is required to meet their initial investment needs of seeds, fertilisers, implements, etc. Rural credit is also required for other expenses like improving soil quality, machinery, irrigation facilities, etc. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q89.2023 Main 58/4/1 · Q336 marks
Read the following text carefully:
Adoption of Village by Parliamentarians
In October, 2014, the Government of India introduced a new scheme called Saansad Adarsh Gram Yojana (SAGY). Under this scheme, Members of India's Parliament need to identify and develop one village from their constituencies. To begin with, MPs can develop one village as a model village by 2016, and two more by 2019, covering over 2,500 villages in India. According to the scheme, the village can have a population of 3,000 - 5,000 in the plains and 1,000 -3,000 in the hills and should not be the MP's own or their spouse's village. MPs are expected to facilitate a village development plan, motivate villagers to take up activities and build infrastructure in the areas of health, nutrition and education.
On the basis of the given text and common understanding, answer the following questions:
(a) State and discuss, any two objectives which the Government of India wanted to achieve through ‘Saansad Adarsh Gram Yojana (SAGY)’. (4)
(b) State the yardsticks for selecting villages under the SAGY Scheme. (2)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(a) Two objectives of ‘Saansad Adarsh Gram Yojana (SAGY)’:
- Identify and develop one village: Under this scheme, Members of India's Parliament need to identify and develop one village from their constituencies. [½+1½]
- Facilitate village development plan: To build infrastructure in the areas of health, nutrition and education. [½+1½]
(b) As per the Saansad Adarsh Gram Yojana (SAGY):
- The village can have a population of 3,000 - 5,000 in the plains and 1,000 – 3,000 in the hills. [1]
- The village should not be the MP’s own or their spouse’s village. [1]
(Any other valid explanation to be allotted marks)
Q90.2023 Main 58/5/1 · Q33(a)6 marks
(i) Define Agricultural diversification.
(ii) State the meaning of organic farming. Discuss how does it help in promoting sustainable development.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(i) Agricultural diversification relates to change in cropping pattern or shift of workforce from agriculture to other allied activities. [2]
(ii) Organic farming refers to a whole system of farming that restores, maintains and enhances the ecological balance. [1]
Organic farming is the system of farming that relies upon the use of organic inputs for cultivation such as animal manures and composts. Organic produce has more nutritional value. It is pesticide free which helps in soil conservation.
Consequently, organic farming is conducive to sustainable development. [3]
Q91.2023 Supp 58/C/1 · Q33(b)6 marks
(i) Distinguish between ‘Green Revolution’ and ‘Golden Revolution’.
(ii) State any three limitations of organic farming.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Supplementary), Set 58/C/1
(i) A significant increase in the production of horticulture products in India is termed as Golden Revolution. [1½]
Whereas,
Green Revolution refers to large scale increase in production of food grains (like wheat, rice etc.) resulting from the use of high yielding variety seeds, chemical fertilizers, modern sophisticated agricultural equipments etc. [1½]
(ii) Three limitations of organic farming are as follows:
- Yields from organic farming are relatively less than the modern agricultural farming. Therefore, small and marginal farmers may find it difficult to adapt to large-scale production. [1]
- Produce from organic farming has a relatively shorter shelf life. [1]
- Possibilities of off-season cropping is limited in organic farming. [1]
(Any other valid limitation to be allotted marks)
Part B · Indian Economic Development
11. Employment: Growth, Informalisation and Other Issues
Q1.2026 Main 58/1/1 · Q231 mark
Identify, which of the following, highlights a highly relevant issue associated with evolving employment trends in India’s labour market?
Options:
- Progressive increase in the share of permanent salaried employees.
- Increase in the proportion of casually employed individuals.
- Expansion of self-employment avenues in all regions.
- Significant rise in job opportunities within the formal sector.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(B) Increase in the proportion of casually employed individuals.
Q2.2026 Main 58/1/1 · Q241 mark
Match the terms given in Column-I with their respective meaning in Column-II. Select the correct option :
| Column-I | Column-II |
|---|
| (i) Seasonal Unemployment | (a) Private enterprises hiring less than 10 employees |
| (ii) Self-employed | (b) Workers using their own resources to earn livelihood |
| (iii) Unorganised sector | (c) Unemployment occurring in specific season |
| (iv) Disguised Unemployment | (d) Zero Marginal Productivity |
Options:
- (i)-(d); (ii)-(a); (iii)-(b); (iv)-(c)
- (i)-(b); (ii)-(a); (iii)-(c); (iv)-(d)
- (i)-(c); (ii)-(b); (iii)-(a); (iv)-(d)
- (i)-(c); (ii)-(d); (iii)-(a); (iv)-(b)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(C) (i)-(c); (ii)-(b); (iii)-(a); (iv)-(d)
Q3.2026 Main 58/2/1 · Q221 mark
From the types of unemployment/employment given in Column-I and corresponding features given in Column-II, choose the correct pair:
| Column - I | Column - II |
|---|
| (i) Disguised Unemployment | (a) Concentrated to a given season |
| (ii) Seasonal Unemployment | (b) Marginal productivity is zero |
| (iii) Indirect employment by government | (c) Indian Railways |
| (iv) Direct employment by government | (d) Indian Oil Corporation (IOC) |
Options:
- (i) - (a)
- (ii) - (b)
- (iii) - (c)
- (iv) - (d)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(D) (iv) - (d)
Q4.2026 Main 58/3/1 · Q201 mark
Read the following statements: Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose the correct option from those given below:
Read them carefully and select the correct option:
Assertion (A): The unemployment problem in India is multifaceted.
Reason (R): Some individuals work round the year, while others work only a few months in a year.
Options:
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
- Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/3/1
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
Q5.2026 Main 58/4/1 · Q181 mark
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement I: Worker Population Ratio is used for analyzing the overall employment situation of a country.
Statement II: A garment company has hired two workers on daily wage basis. Such a situation is considered as a formal sector employment.
In the light of the given statements, choose the correct option from the following:
- Statement I is true and Statement II is false.
- Statement I is false and Statement II is true.
- Both Statements I and II are true.
- Both Statements I and II are false.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(A) Statement I is true and Statement II is false.
Q6.2026 Main 58/4/1 · Q221 mark
Based on the given image, choose the incorrect option:

- Information related to employment is collected by Union Ministry of Labour.
- International Labour Organization (ILO) has initiated modernization of this enterprise and the provision of social security measures to workers.
- Highly vulnerable to uncertainties of the market.
- An enterprise hires 10 or less than 10 workers.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(A) Information related to employment is collected by Union Ministry of Labour.
Or
(B) International Labour Organization (ILO) has initiated modernization of this enterprise and the provision of social security measures to workers.
Or
(D) An enterprise hires 10 or less than 10 workers.
Q7.2026 Main 58/5/1 · Q181 mark
Working persons engaged in various industrial divisions can be classified into three major sectors — Primary sector, secondary sector and tertiary sector.
Identify, which of the following option demonstrates the primary sector.
- Agriculture
- Agriculture, mining and quarrying
- Agriculture, electricity, gas and water supply
- Transport and storage
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(B) Agriculture, mining and quarrying
Q8.2026 Main 58/5/1 · Q201 mark
The following table shows the distribution of population and workers in a village:
| Total Population | Number of people who are willing and able to work | Number of people who are employed |
|---|
| 2000 | 1200 | 800 |
The Worker – Population ratio for village would be __________%. (Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)
- 80
- 40
- 60
- 20
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(B) 40
Q9.2026 Supp 58/7/1 · Q191 mark
In a hypothetical country, if the worker-population ratio is 30 and total number of workers is 1500, its total population will be ___________. (Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)
- 50
- 450
- 5,000
- 50,000
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Supplementary), Set 58/7/1
(C) 5,000
Q10.2026 Supp 58/7/1 · Q241 mark
Raghav is a factory owner with 50 workers. He laid off 5 workers and noticed that the total factory output remained the same. This situation will most likely be described as _____________ employment. (Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)
- Structural
- Disguised
- Seasonal
- Frictional
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Supplementary), Set 58/7/1
(B) Disguised
Q11.2026 Supp 58/7/1 · Q261 mark
Identify the example of a casual worker from the following: (Choose the correct option)
- An exporter of carpets
- A nurse permanently employed in a government hospital
- A mason working at a construction site
- A local tailor running his own business
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Supplementary), Set 58/7/1
(C) A mason working at a construction site
Q12.2025 Main 58/1/1 · Q201 mark
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement-1: Hired workers may be regular salaried workers or casual workers.
Statement-2: Regular salaried employment is a major source of employment in rural areas in India.
In the light of the given statements, choose the correct option from the following:
- Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
- Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(A) Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
Q13.2025 Main 58/1/1 · Q221 mark
“It is short-term unemployment occurring, as people transit between jobs.”
On the basis of the given definition, identify the type of unemployment indicated. (Choose the correct option)
Options:
- Disguised Unemployment
- Seasonal Unemployment
- Open Unemployment
- Frictional Unemployment
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(D) Frictional Unemployment
Q14.2025 Main 58/2/1 · Q221 mark
_____ are the people who operate their own farms / enterprises. (Choose the correct option to fill up the blank)
- Hired Workers
- Casual Wage Workers
- Regular Salaried Employees
- Self-Employed
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(D) Self-Employed
Q15.2025 Main 58/2/1 · Q261 mark
The given chart indicates the problem of _____ in the Indian Economy, post 1990-92. (Choose the correct option to fill up the blank)

Options:
- Informalisation of Workforce
- Casualisation of Workforce
- Jobless Growth
- Formalisation of Workforce
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(C) Jobless Growth
Q16.2025 Main 58/4/1 · Q261 mark
Suppose an economy is experiencing a situation of rise in Real Gross Domestic Product (GDP), without any corresponding rise in the employment opportunities.
In economic parlance, such a situation is termed as __________ growth. (Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)
- casual
- informal
- formal
- jobless
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(D) jobless
Q17.2025 Main 58/5/1 · Q241 mark
“Suppose an imaginary economy is experiencing a situation of rise in Real Gross Domestic Product (GDP), without any corresponding adequate rise in the employment opportunities in the economy.”
In economic parlance, such a situation is termed as ___________ growth. (Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)
- Casual
- Informal
- Formal
- Jobless
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(D) Jobless
Q18.2025 Main 58/6/1 · Q261 mark
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement 1: Employment is an activity which enables a person to earn means of livelihood for his/her family.
Statement 2: A worker is the one who contributes to the process of Gross Domestic Product (GDP) by rendering his productive services.
In the light of given statements, choose the correct option from the following:
- Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
- Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/6/1
(C) Both Statements 1 and 2 are true
Q19.2025 Main 58/7/1 · Q201 mark
Identify, the incorrect feature associated with the formal sector of employment in any economy. (Choose the correct option)
- Job security
- Social security benefits
- Irregular payments
- Fixed working hours
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/7/1
(C) Irregular payments
Q20.2025 Main 58/7/1 · Q241 mark
Under __________ unemployment the marginal productivity of a worker is equal to zero. (Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)
- Seasonal
- Structural
- Involuntary
- Disguised
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/7/1
(D) Disguised
Q21.2025 Main 58/7/1 · Q271 mark
Suppose the percentage of casual workers rises in an economy as compared to the regular workers. This situation may be known as __________ of workforce. (Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)
(i) Formalisation
(ii) Casualisation
(iii) Unemployment
Options:
- (i) and (ii)
- (ii) and (iii)
- only (ii)
- only (i)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/7/1
(C) only (ii)
Q22.2024 Main 58/1/1 · Q261 mark
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement 1: As per the National Sample Survey Organization (NSSO), unemployment is a situation in which all those who, owing to lack of work, are not working, but are seeking work from prospective employers. They express their willingness/availability to work under the prevailing conditions of work and remuneration.
Statement 2: Disguised Unemployment is generally a massive problem in a highly populated country like India.
In the light of the given statements, choose the correct alternative from the following :
- Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
- Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(C) Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
Q23.2024 Main 58/2/1 · Q251 mark
From the type of workers given in Column I, identify the correct nature of work in Column II:
| Column I | Column II |
|---|
| 1. Cement shop owner | (i) Regular salaried |
| 2. Construction worker | (ii) Casual wage workers |
| 3. Civil engineer | (iii) Self-employed |
- 1-(i); 2-(ii); 3-(iii)
- 1-(ii); 2-(i); 3-(iii)
- 1-(iii); 2-(ii); 3-(i)
- 1-(iii); 2-(i); 3-(ii)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(C) 1-(iii); 2-(ii); 3-(i)
Q24.2024 Main 58/2/1 · Q271 mark
Read the following statements: Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose the correct alternative from those given below:
Assertion (A): In the recent past, Indian economy has been facing the problem of jobless growth.
Reason (R): Jobless growth refers to a situation where an economy is able to produce more goods and services without generating additional employment.
Alternatives:
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
- Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
Q25.2024 Main 58/2/1 · Q33(a)(ii)1 mark
State any two sources of data on unemployment in India.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/2/1
Two sources of data on unemployment in India are:
- Reports of Census of India [½]
- National Statistical Office’s Reports of Employment and Unemployment Situation [½]
(Any other valid source to be awarded marks)
Q26.2024 Main 58/4/1 · Q211 mark
Read the following statements carefully
Statement 1: As per National Sample Survey Organisation (NSSO) unemployment is a situation in which all those who, owing to lack of work, are not working, but seeking work from prospective employers, expressed their willingness to work under the prevailing condition of work and remuneration.
Statement 2: Disguised unemployment is generally a massive problem in the highly populated country like India.
In the light of the given statements, choose the correct alternative from the following :
- Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
- Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
- Both Statement 1 and 2 are true.
- Both Statement 1 and 2 are false.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(C) Both Statement 1 and 2 are true. [1]
Q27.2024 Main 58/4/1 · Q30(a)(ii)1 mark
Define Casual Wage Labourer.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/4/1
A casual wage labourer is a person who is casually engaged in others’ farm or non-farm enterprises and, in return, receives wages according to the terms of the daily or periodic work contract. [1]
Q28.2024 Main 58/5/1 · Q261 mark
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement 1: Casual workers are hired on a permanent basis and also get social security benefits.
Statement 2: Workforce comprises, both employed and unemployed person.
In the light of the given statements, choose the correct alternative from the following:
- Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
- Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(D) Both Statements 1 and 2 are false. [1]
Q29.2023 Main 58/1/1 · Q25(a)1 mark
Workers who are on the permanent pay-roll of their employer are called ___________ workers. (Choose the correct alternative to fill up the blank)
- self-employed
- casual
- regular
- hired
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(c) regular
Q30.2023 Main 58/1/1 · Q25(b)1 mark
Jobless growth leads to unemployment because __________ . (Choose the correct alternative to fill up the blank)
- Labour refuses to migrate
- Labour is very expensive
- Growth rate is low
- Growth is due to technological development
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(d) Growth is due to technological development.
Q31.2023 Main 58/3/1 · Q261 mark
Read the following statements: Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose the correct alternative from those given below.
Assertion (A): Government can try to reduce unemployment through special poverty removal programmes.
Reason (R): Such poverty removal programmes directly or indirectly lead to employment generation.
Alternatives:
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
- Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
- Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/3/1
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
Q32.2023 Main 58/3/1 · Q33(b)(i)1 mark
Who is a casual wage labourer?
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/3/1
A casual wage labourer is a person who is casually engaged in others’ farm or non-farm enterprises. [1]
Q33.2023 Main 58/4/1 · Q261 mark
Read the following statements: Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose the correct alternative given below.
Assertion (A): The nature of unemployment problem in India is multi-faceted.
Reason (R): Worker-Population ratio is an indicator used for analysing the employment situation in a country.
Alternatives:
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
- Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
- Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
Q34.2023 Main 58/5/1 · Q261 mark
Identify, which of the following is the correct formula for calculating Worker-Population Ratio"? (Choose the correct alternative)
- (Total labour force ÷ Total population) × 100
- (Total Workers ÷ Total population) × 100
- (Total Population ÷ Total labour force) × 100
- (Total population ÷ Total Workers) × 100
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(b) (Total Workers ÷ Total population) × 100
Q35.2023 Supp 58/C/1 · Q19(a)1 mark
An arrangement in which a worker uses his own resources to make a living is known as __________ employment. (Choose the correct alternative to fill up the blank)
- Self
- Regular-salaried
- Casual
- Wage
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Supplementary), Set 58/C/1
(a) Self
Q36.2023 Supp 58/C/1 · Q19(b)1 mark
Rohan, the owner of a land, grows only two crops in a year. He works for 8-9 months and for the rest of the year he remains unemployed.
In the remaining part of the year, Rohan faces __________ unemployment. (Choose the correct alternative to fill up the blank)
- Disguised
- Seasonal
- Frictional
- Cyclical
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Supplementary), Set 58/C/1
(b) Seasonal
Q37.SQP 2025-26 · Q221 mark
Owing to the efforts of the _____________, the Indian government initiated modernisation of informal sector enterprises. (Choose the correct option to fill up the blank)
- World Trade Organisation
- International Labour Organisation
- Central Statistical Office
- International Monetary Fund
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 · Marking Scheme
(B) International Labour Organisation
Q38.SQP 2025-26 · Q231 mark
Read the following text carefully:
All economic activities can be categorized into eight different industrial divisions as:
CLASSIFICATION OF ECONOMIC ACTIVITIES INTO EIGHT INDUSTRIAL DIVISIONS
(i) Agriculture
(ii) Mining and Quarrying
(iii) Manufacturing
(iv) Electricity, Gas and Water Supply
(v) Construction
(vi) Trade
(vii) Transport and Storage
(viii) Services
For simplicity, all the working persons engaged in these divisions can be clubbed into three major sectors primary, secondary and tertiary sector.
In the light of the given text, primary sector includes ________. (Choose the correct option to fill up the blank)
Options:
- Only (i)
- (i) and (ii)
- (iii), (iv) and (v)
- (vi), (vii) and (viii)
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 · Marking Scheme
(B) (i) and (ii)
Q39.SQP 2026-27 · Q191 mark
Match the set of type of employment given in Column I with corresponding example given in Column II and choose the correct option:
| Column I | Column II |
|---|
| (p) Self-employed | i An engineer working with ONGC |
| (q) Regular salaried employees | ii A construction worker |
| (r) Casual wage labourers | iii Photographer running own studio |
Options:
- (p)-ii, (q)-i, (r)-iii
- (p)-iii, (q)-ii, (r)-i
- (p)-i, (q)-iii, (r)-ii
- (p)-iii, (q)-i, (r)-ii
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 · Marking Scheme
(D) (p)-iii, (q)-i, (r)-ii
Q40.2026 Main 58/3/1 · Q33(a)(ii)2 marks
State the meaning of ‘self-employed worker’ with suitable example.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/3/1
Self-employed are those workers who own and operate an enterprise to earn their livelihood. [1½]
For example: a cement shop owner. [½]
(Any other valid example to be awarded marks)
Q41.2024 Main 58/1/1 · Q31(a)(ii)2 marks
State and elaborate whether the following statements are true or false, with valid arguments:
Worker-population ratio is an indicator, used for analyzing the employment situation in a nation.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/1/1
True. Worker-population ratio is useful in knowing the proportion of population that is actively contributing to the production of goods and services of a country. If the ratio is higher, it means that a greater number of people are employed and vice versa. [2]
Q42.2024 Main 58/2/1 · Q33(a)(i)2 marks
“Amita is a regular worker in a private firm that employs twelve hired workers.”
Is she working in the formal/informal sector? Give valid reasons in support of your answer.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/2/1
Amita is working in the formal sector. [1]
As formal sector includes all the public sector and private sector establishments that employ 10 hired workers or more. [1]
Q43.2022 Main 58/2/1 · Q2(a)2 marks
Define 'Worker Population Ratio' and mention its utility.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 58/2/1
Worker population Ratio is defined as total number of workers in a country divided by population. (In percentage). [1]
It is useful in analysing the employment situation in the country. [1]
(any other relevant point/argument to be allotted marks)
Q44.2022 Main 58/3/1 · Q4(a)2 marks
"In India women participation rate is lower in urban areas than in the rural areas." Explain with valid arguments.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 58/3/1
The given statement is appropriate, as in the urban areas male workers are generally able to earn reasonably good income. Thus, urban families generally discourage females to work. Whereas, in the rural areas, due to poor economic conditions, more females are involved in farm and non-farm activities. [2]
(to be marked as a whole)
Q45.2022 Main 58/4/1 · Q42 marks
“Workers working in formal sector earn more than those in informal sector.” Defend or refute the given statement with valid arguments.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 58/4/1
The given statement can be defended as the formal workers are protected through various labour laws. They have better bargaining power for higher wages and other social security benefits with the presence of trade unions.
On the other hand, informal workers are generally low paid with lesser job security. They also do not get social security benefits. [2]
(Any other valid argument to be award marks accordingly) (to be marked as a whole)
Q46.2022 Main 58/5/1 · Q5(a)2 marks
Compare and analyse the sector-wise trends in employment, based on following information:
Trends in Employment (Sector-wise)
| Sector | 1999-2000 | 2011-12 |
|---|
| Primary Sector | 60.4 | 48.9 |
| Secondary Sector | 15.8 | 24.3 |
| Tertiary Sector | 23.8 | 26.8 |
| Total | 100 | 100 |
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 58/5/1
The given schedule represents that:
- The workforce engaged in primary sector has declined from 60% (1999–2000) to 49% (2011–12). It may be due to greater number of job opportunities available in the other two sectors. [1]
- Secondary sector and Tertiary sector exhibit increase from 16% to 24% and from 24% to 27%, respectively. It may be because of rapid industrialisation and improvement of infrastructural facilities. [1]
Q47.2022 Main 58/5/1 · Q5(b)2 marks
Ram is an owner of a salon. He is temporarily absent from work due to injury. Can he be considered as a worker? Explain.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 58/5/1
Ram is a self-employed worker. Since he is involved in productive activity he would be considered as a worker in spite of his temporary absence from the work. [2]
(to marked as a whole)
Q48.2022 Supp 58/6/1 · Q2(a)2 marks
State the meaning of ‘Worker Population Ratio’.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Supplementary), Set 58/6/1
Worker Population Ratio is defined as total number of workers in a country divided by population. (In percentage). [2]
(any other relevant point/definition to be allotted marks)
Q49.2026 Main 58/1/1 · Q28(a)3 marks
“Employment in the formal sector guarantees better income and social benefits compared to informal sector job.”
Defend or refute the above statement with valid reason and example.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/1/1
The given statement is defended. Formal sector workers are entitled to fair wages and other social security measures such as pension, provident fund, etc. [1]
Whereas, workers in the informal sector do not get regular income and social security benefits. They can be dismissed without any compensation. [1]
For example: A government employee receives regular salary along with pension and social security, whereas a daily wage worker works without any social security. [1]
(Any other valid example to be awarded marks)
Q50.2026 Main 58/2/1 · Q29(a)3 marks
Distinguish between formal and informal sector of employment with the help of suitable examples.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/2/1
Formal Sector includes all the public sector establishments and those private sector establishments which employ 10 or more hired workers. Formal sector workers get regular income and are entitled to social security benefits. [1]
For example: a government hospital etc. [½]
Whereas;
Informal Sector includes those private sector establishments which employ less than 10 hired workers. Workers in informal sector often lack job security, regular income and can be dismissed without any compensation. [1]
For example: agricultural labourer etc. [½]
(Any other valid example to be awarded marks)
Q51.2025 Main 58/1/1 · Q28(b)3 marks
Explain the reasons behind less number of regular salaried employees in rural areas as compared to urban areas.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/1/1
In India, rural areas have lesser number of regular salaried employees compared to the urban areas, as:
- most of the rural workforce is involved directly/indirectly in their farm and other allied activities.
- regular salaried employment opportunities require skills and qualifications, which are generally not accessible to the rural population.
(To be marked as a whole) [3]
Q52.2025 Supp 58/S/1 · Q293 marks
Study the following images carefully:

Identify and discuss briefly the types of employment sectors indicated.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Supplementary), Set 58/S/1
The types of employment sectors indicated in the given image are:
- Informal Sector: This sector includes those private sector establishments which employ less than 10 hired workers. Workers in informal sector often lack job security, regular income and can be dismissed without any compensation. [½ + 1]
- Formal Sector: It includes all the public sector establishments and those private sector establishments which employ 10 hired workers or more. Formal sector workers get regular income and are entitled to social security benefits like provident fund, pension etc. [½ + 1]
Q53.2024 Main 58/4/1 · Q34(b)(ii)3 marks
“It is necessary to generate employment in the formal sector rather than the informal sector.”
Justify the given statement with valid arguments.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/4/1
In the formal sector, workers can form trade unions and are entitled to fair wages and other social security measures. Whereas, workers in the informal sector do not get regular income. Also, they do not have any protection or regulation from the government. Many a time, workers may be dismissed without any compensation.
Hence, formal sector employees are generally in a better position as compared to informal sector employees. Therefore, it is essential to generate employment in the formal sector rather than the informal sector. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q54.2023 Main 58/1/1 · Q33(a)(i)3 marks
Why are less women found in regular salaried employment?
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/1/1
Less women are found in regular salaried employment in India as such jobs require skills and a higher level of literacy. Moreover, due to a lot of social constraints, mobility of women is generally restricted.
(To be marked as a whole)
(Any other valid argument to be allotted marks)
Q55.2023 Main 58/3/1 · Q28(a)3 marks
Define worker-population ratio and give its significance.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/3/1
Worker population ratio is defined as total number of workers in a country divided by population (in percentage). [1]
Worker-population ratio is an indicator which is used for analysing the employment situation in the country. This ratio is useful in knowing the proportion of population that is actively contributing to the production of goods and services of a country. [2]
Q56.2023 Main 58/4/1 · Q29(a)3 marks
"It is necessary to create employment in the formal sector rather than in the informal sector."
Defend or refute the given statement with valid arguments.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/4/1
The statement is defended. The formal sector provides regular income and greater job security as compared to the informal sector. Workers under the formal sector are entitled to social security benefits like provident fund, social security etc. unlike the informal sector.
(Any other valid explanation to be allotted marks)
Q57.2023 Main 58/5/1 · Q29(a)3 marks
"In rural areas of India, more members of a family are engaged in work, yet the gross income of the family is generally low."
Identify the type of unemployment indicated in the above statement and explain the paradox associated with it.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/5/1
Disguised unemployment is indicated in the given statement. Generally, in rural India more than required number of people are employed on a particular task without contributing to the aggregate output.
Hence, marginal productivity of labour turns out to be zero. Consequently, gross income of the family is lower than expected. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q58.2023 Supp 58/C/1 · Q29(a)3 marks
“Casual workers often work in very poor working conditions.”
Justify the given statement.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Supplementary), Set 58/C/1
Casual workers are the most vulnerable category of the workforce. They are generally not protected by the regulations of the government. Hence, such workers face a continued threat to job security. They may also not be entitled to regular income and any social security measures. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q59.2022 Main 58/1/1 · Q11(ii)3 marks
'Casualization of workforce has became a perennial problem of the Indian economy.’ Justify the given statement with valid arguments.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 58/1/1
Casualisation of workforce has become a perennial problem for India because of:
- Slower growth rate of employment in the organised sector.
- Rapidly expanding construction and allied services have led to increase in demand for casual labour.
- Self-employed small and marginal farmers are becoming casual workers due to lower earnings in agricultural activities.
[3]
(to be marked as a whole)
Q60.2022 Main 58/2/1 · Q12(a)(ii)3 marks
Discuss briefly, why less women are found in regular salaried employment.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 58/2/1
In India, lesser women are found in regular salaried employment, as such jobs require high level of skills and literacy. Lack of mobility among women in India due to various socio-economic constraints, adds to the problem. [3]
Q61.2022 Main 58/2/1 · Q12(b)(i)3 marks
Explain why regular salaried employees are generally more in urban areas than in rural areas.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 58/2/1
Regular salaried employees are more in urban areas as they have variety of employment opportunities due to presence of more industries and as compared to the rural areas.
Higher level of literacy and skills are required in regular salaried jobs which are available in urban areas. Moreover enterprises in urban areas require workers on a regular basis. [3]
(to be marked as a whole)
Q62.2022 Main 58/4/1 · Q73 marks
From the data given below, compare and analyse the status-wise distribution of workforce in India:
Trends in Employment Pattern (Status-wise) (in %) 1972 – 73 and 2011-12
| Status | Year 1972-73 | 2011 – 12 |
|---|
| Self – Employed | 61.4 | 52 |
| Regular Salaried Employees | 15.4 | 18 |
| Casual Wage Workers | 23.2 | 30 |
| Total | 100 | 100 |
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 58/4/1
Over the last few decades, the trend in distribution of workforce in Indian economy has changed drastically. The percentage of self-employed workers have declined from 61.4% (1972-73) to 52% (2011-12). Correspondingly regular salaried employees have increased from 15.4% to 18% over the same period. Similarly, the casual wage workers have increased moderately from 23.2% to 30% over the given period of time.
Analysis of the given text shows a general shift of workforce towards the casual wage structure often known as ‘casualisation of workforce’. This makes the workers highly vulnerable to any socio-economic change. [3]
(to be marked as a whole)
Q63.SQP 2025-26 · Q29(b)3 marks
Distinguish between self-employed and hired workers with the help of a suitable example.
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 · Marking Scheme
People, who own and operate an enterprise to earn their livelihood are known as self-employed workers. For example, a cement shop owner. [1+½]
Whereas;
A hired worker is someone who is employed by another person/organization and receives compensation in the form of a salary/wage. For example, an employee working as a graphic designer at a marketing agency. [1+½]
Q64.SQP 2026-27 · Q29(b)3 marks
Mehak is employed in a private firm which has hired only five workers. She generally remains insecure that she can be terminated from her job, without any prior notice. In contrast, her elder sister Sehaj works as a nurse in a government hospital.
On the basis of the given text and common understanding answer the following questions:
(I) Identify the sectors in which Mehak and Sehaj are employed.
(II) State any two differences between the identified sectors in which they are working.
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 · Marking Scheme
(I) Mehak is employed in the informal sector whereas, Sehaj is working with the formal sector. [½ + ½]
(II) Two differences between formal and informal sector are:
- Workers in the informal sector do not have any job-protection, whereas; the workers in the formal sector enjoy job-security. [1]
- Workers in informal sector generally do not have regular income, whereas; workers in the formal sector earn a regular income along with social security benefits. [1]
Q65.2026 Main 58/1/1 · Q324 marks
(A) State the meaning of ‘Disguised Unemployment’. [1]
(B)

In the light of the given chart, analyse the gender-wise sectoral distribution of workers. [3]
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(A) Disguised unemployment refers to a situation when the person seems to be employed but is not contributing to the output i.e., his marginal productivity is zero. [1]
(B) The given chart highlights the following points regarding the gender-wise sectoral distribution of workers:
- Male workers dominate in most sectors such as manufacturing, construction, trade, transport etc. [1]
- Female participation is relatively low in construction and transport indicating gender inequality. [1]
- Education and health sectors show a relatively balanced distribution, with female participation being significantly higher compared to other sectors. [1]
(Any other valid point to be awarded marks)
Q66.2026 Main 58/2/1 · Q314 marks
(a) Refer the given image carefully:

Compare and analyse the distribution of work force with respect to gender. [3]
(b) State the meaning of worker-population ratio. [1]
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(a) The data shows that self-employment is the major source of livelihood for both men and women, accounting for over 50% of the workforce for both male (51%) and female (56%) workers. Casual wage labour emerges as the second largest category, with 29% of men and 31% of women engaged in it. Regular salaried employment is more prevalent among men (20%) compared to women (13%). [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
(b) Worker Population Ratio (WPR) is defined as the total number of workers in a country divided by population. It is represented in percentage. [1]
Q67.2026 Main 58/4/1 · Q314 marks
Elaborate, how the efforts of various governments in India have helped in generation of employment, directly or indirectly, in the nation.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/4/1
Government of India has played an important role in generating employment directly or indirectly in two ways:
- Direct Employment: The government directly provides jobs by recruiting people in administrative departments, public sector industries and government run organisations. [2]
- Indirect Employment: When government enterprises increase production, related private sector businesses also expand, creating additional job opportunities in the private sector. [2]
Q68.2026 Main 58/5/1 · Q32(a)4 marks
Rayansh works as a teacher in a school. He receives a fixed monthly salary, social security benefits, paid leave and medical allowances. His friend Mohan works at a small toy shop. He has very little income, he does not have access to provident fund, paid leave or health insurance.
Classify the types of sectors Rayansh and Mohan are working in and highlight the distinction between the two sectors.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/5/1
Rayansh is working in the formal sector. [½]
On the other hand; Mohan is working in the informal sector. [½]
Formal sector includes all the public sector establishments and those private sector establishments which employ 10 hired workers or more. Formal sector workers are entitled to fair wages and other social security measures such as pension, provident fund, etc. Additionally, they get paid leaves and medical allowances. [1½]
Whereas;
Informal sector includes those private sector establishments which employ less than 10 hired workers. Workers in the informal sector do not get regular income and social security benefits. They can be dismissed without any compensation. Additionally, they may not get paid leaves and medical allowances. [1½]
Q69.2026 Supp 58/7/1 · Q324 marks

Answer the following questions on the basis of the above image:
(a) Which category of workers enjoys a greater proportion of the total workforce in both rural and urban areas?
(b) Discuss any two reasons behind this pattern.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Supplementary), Set 58/7/1
(a) The Self-employed category in rural areas (58%) and regular salaried employees in urban areas (47%) enjoys the largest proportion of the total workforce. [1]
(b) Two reasons behind this pattern:
- In rural areas, the share of self-employed workers is higher because majority of those depending on farming own plots of land and cultivate independently. [1½]
- In urban areas, the number of enterprises is much higher compared to rural areas. These enterprises require workers on a regular basis. Therefore, a relatively larger proportion of workers are employed as regular salaried employees. [1½]
(Any other valid reason to be awarded marks)
Q70.2025 Main 58/2/1 · Q31(a)4 marks
“In recent times through various schemes and policies, the Government of India has taken vital initiatives to generate employment directly/indirectly.”
Justify the statement giving valid arguments.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/2/1
Since independence the government has played an important role in generating employment directly / indirectly. Various government departments/enterprises employ people and increase their output of goods and services, leading to direct employment.
When the output of goods and services from government enterprises increases, then private enterprises which receive raw materials from government enterprises will also raise their output. Subsequently, private enterprises using these output are indirectly benefitted with increase in scale of production. This leads to an increase in the employment opportunities indirectly in the economy. (To be marked as a whole) [4]
Q71.2025 Main 58/5/1 · Q324 marks
State and elaborate whether the following statements are true/false, with valid arguments:
(a) The Indian economy has shown satisfactory progress towards formalisation of workforce in the recent years.
(b) In the Indian rural landscape, agricultural diversification has emerged as a reasonable alternative to fill up the gaps in income.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(a) False. In recent times, India has witnessed an unprecedented shift of workforce from formal to informal sectors. This may primarily be due to a decline in job opportunities in formal sector (public & private). Thus, informalisation of workforce has become a major challenge for the economy. [2]
(b) True. There is a greater risk in depending exclusively on farming for livelihood. Diversification has reduced the risk from uncertainties in the agriculture sector and has provided productive sustainable livelihood options to rural people. [2]
Q72.2025 Main 58/6/1 · Q324 marks
“It is necessary to generate more employment in the formal sector rather than in the informal sector.”
Justify the given statement with valid arguments.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/6/1
The formal sector workers can form trade unions and are entitled to fair wages and other social security measures. However, workers in the informal sector do not get regular income. Additionally, they do not have any protection/regulation from the government. Many a times, workers may be dismissed without any compensation. Hence, formal sector employees are generally in a better position as compared to informal sector employees. Therefore, it is essential to generate employment in the formal sector rather than the informal sector. [4] (To be marked as a whole)
Q73.2025 Main 58/7/1 · Q304 marks
Compare and analyse the following information related to distribution of employment in India :

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/7/1
In India, the Primary sector has emerged as a major source of employment with a greater concentration of female workers (57.1%) as compared to males (40.7%). The secondary sector accommodates 17·7% of female workers and 26.5% of male workers. The service sector consists of 32·8% of male and 25·2% of female workers. Thus, it can be concluded that men get more opportunities in both secondary and service sectors whereas females are mainly found working in the primary sector. [4] (To be marked as a whole)
Q74.2024 Main 58/3/1 · Q31(b)4 marks
(i) Define worker - population ratio and describe its usefulness. 3
(ii) State the meaning of ‘Disguised Unemployment’. 1
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/3/1
(i) Worker Population Ratio is defined as the total number of workers in a country divided by population. It is represented in percentage. [1]
Worker Population Ratio is an indicator which is used for analysing the employment situation in the country. This ratio is useful in knowing the proportion of population that is actively contributing to the production of goods and services of a country. Higher the worker population ratio, higher the engagement of people in economic activities and vice versa. [2]
(ii) Disguised unemployment refers to a situation when the person seems to be employed but is not contributing to the output i.e., the marginal productivity of labour is zero. [1]
Q75.2024 Main 58/3/1 · Q324 marks
Study the given image carefully:

Identify the situation depicted in the image and suggest the impact of the indicated situation in the Indian economy.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/3/1
The given image represents the situation of employment in informal sector.
In the formal sector, workers can form trade unions and are entitled to fair wages and other social security measures. Whereas, workers in the informal sector do not get regular income. Also, they do not have any protection or regulation from the government. Many a time, workers may be dismissed without any compensation.
Hence, formal sector employees are generally in a better position as compared to informal sector employees. Therefore, it is essential to generate employment in the formal sector rather than the informal sector. [4]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q76.2024 Main 58/4/1 · Q30(b)4 marks
(i) Elaborate any two reasons owing to which lesser number of women are found in regular salaried employment. 3
(ii) Define worker-population ratio. 1
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(i) Lesser women are found in regular salaried employment in India as –
- These jobs require a higher level of skills. Many women in India do not possess the required educational qualifications and professional skills. [1½]
- Social constraints like family responsibilities add to the lack of mobility among women creating a hindrance to seek employment on a regular basis. [1½]
(ii) Worker Population Ratio is defined as the total number of workers in a country divided by population. It is represented in percentage. [1]
Q77.2024 Main 58/5/1 · Q31(b)4 marks
“In a nation like India, self employment provides an important avenue for employment generation.”
Defend or refute the given statement with valid arguments.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/5/1
The given statement is defended. In a nation like India, self-employment is a major source of livelihood for both men and women. Self-employed workers are the ones who own and operate an enterprise to earn their livelihood. Thus, besides creating employment opportunities for themselves, they also generally provide employment avenues for other people in the economy. [4]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q78.2024 Main 58/5/1 · Q324 marks
(a) Study the following chart of Employment and Gross Domestic Product. Analyse the trend of the two variables between 1990-2012. 3

(b) Define Worker – Population Ratio. 1
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(a) The period between 1990 to 2012 had been a significant one as India’s Gross Domestic Product (GDP) growth rate grew positively from 3.4% in 1990s to 7.8% in 2012. However, the employment growth rate has shown declining trends from 1.5% to 1.12% during the same period.
Indian economy has witnessed the peculiar phenomena of ‘jobless growth’ over all these years i.e. GDP growth rate increased without a corresponding increase in the rate of employment. During 2005-10, employment growth rate was a meagre 0.28%. However, GDP was growing at a sky rocketing pace of 8.7%. In a nutshell, the period between 1990-2012 was a roller coaster ride for the Indian economy on the fronts of GDP and Employment Growth rate. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
(b) Worker - Population Ratio is defined as the total number of workers in a country divided by population. It is represented in percentage. [1]
Q79.2023 Main 58/1/1 · Q32(a)4 marks
State and elaborate whether the following statement is true or false, with valid arguments:
"Indian economy has showed satisfactory progress towards formalization of workforce in the recent past."
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/1/1
False. As in the recent years, India has witnessed an unprecedented shift of the workforce from the formal sector to informal sector. This may be primarily due to decline in job opportunities in formal (both public and private) sector.
(To be marked as a whole)
(Any other valid argument with suitable explanation)
Q80.2023 Main 58/1/1 · Q32(b)4 marks
"In India, the self-employed constitute around 60% employees. The possible incidence of under employment is the highest among the self-employed."
As an economist, suggest and elaborate any two measures that may be taken to ensure more productive employment for the self-employed.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/1/1
Two measures to ensure more productive employment for the self-employed are:
- Skill development - Skill development and training will provide people with the required expertise and skills to undertake new ventures. [½ + 1½]
- Financial and technical support by Government - Financial and technical support by government agencies, along with fulfilling the capital requirements will also enhance the productivity of the new production units. [½ + 1½]
Q81.2023 Main 58/3/1 · Q324 marks
State whether the following statements are true/false with valid arguments:
(a) Economic participation of women as homemakers is not accounted for in the Gross Domestic Product. (2)
(b) Indian economy has shown excellent shift from informal sector to formal sector in the recent past. (2)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/3/1
(a) True. Activities performed by women as homemakers are not recognized as productive work. They are not paid for it and hence not accounted for in the Gross Domestic Product. [2]
(b) False. In the recent years, India has witnessed an unprecedented shift of the workforce from the formal sector to informal sector. This may be primarily due to decline in job opportunities in formal (both public and private) sector. [2]
Q82.SQP 2026-27 · Q314 marks
“Government of India has played an important role in generating employment directly /indirectly.”
Do you agree with the given statement? Give valid reasons in support of your answer.
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 · Marking Scheme
Government of India has played an important role in generating employment directly /indirectly in two ways:
- Direct Employment: The government directly provides jobs by recruiting people in administrative departments, public sector industries and government run organisations. [2]
- Indirect Employment: When government enterprises increase production, related private sector businesses also expand, creating additional job opportunities in the private sector. [2]
Q83.2022 Main 58/2/1 · Q135 marks
Case/Source Based Question
Read the following text carefully. Answer questions number 13 (a) and 13 (b) on the basis of the given text and common understanding:
Year 2020 began with the once-in-a-century pandemic, which saw the frontline workers working tirelessly to save human lives from COVID-19. The pandemic caused its ripples on the economy and on social sectors. Governments, at all levels, intervened in a timely manner to respond to the pandemic.
India has one of the lowest case fatalities rates of less than 1·5%. India has been able to save lakhs of lives through its effective policy responses. Public spending on social sector was increased in 2020-21 to mitigate the hardships caused by the pandemic and the loss to livelihood due to the lockdown.
The lockdown period saw the growth of the 'gig economy' and increasing 'work from home' in the organised sector. As per the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) report 2018-19, there was an increase in workforce totalling 48·78 crores in 2018-19 as compared to 47·14 crores during 2017-18. Out of 1·64 crores increased workforce, 1·22 crores were in rural sector and 0·42 crores in urban sector.
The female labour force participation rate increased from 17·5% in 2017-18 to 18·6% in 2018-19. The net payroll data of Employees' Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO) as on 20th December, 2020 shows a net increase of new subscribers of 78·58 lakhs in 2019-20 as compared to 61·1 lakhs in 2018-19. The PLFS report also showed improvement in 2020-21 (Quarter 4) when compared to 2019-20 (Quarter 4).
Considering the proportion of the male workforce, casual labour decreased by 1% points, while self-employed and salaried workers increased by 0·6% points and 0·4% points respectively. Similarly, in case of female workforce, self-employed increased by 2% points, regular/wage salaried workers decreased by 0·7% points and casual labour decreased by 1·4% points.
Source: Economic Survey 2020-21, Volume II, Chapter 10 (excerpt)
(a) Analyse the nature/distribution of Indian workforce for the fourth quarter of the year 2020-21. (2)
(b) State and discuss any two initiatives taken by the Government to control the adverse impacts of the pandemic. (3)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(a) In the fourth quarter of the year 2020-21, as per the given text, the total casual labour employment has decreased. Also the said period saw a growth in ‘gig-economy’ and increase in the ‘work from home’ in the organised sector. [2]
(b) Two initiatives taken by the government to control the adverse impact of pandemic :
(i) Imposition of Lockdown to save human lives. [1½]
(ii) Increase in Public spending. [1½]
(any other argument with valid explanation to be allotted marks)
Q84.2026 Main 58/3/1 · Q33(b)6 marks
(i) Distinguish between formal and informal sector with suitable examples. [3]
(ii) Define worker population ratio with its significance. [3]
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/3/1
(i) Formal Sector includes all the public sector establishments and those private sector establishments which employ 10 hired workers or more. Formal sector workers get regular income and are entitled to social security benefits. [1]
For example, a government hospital etc. [½]
Whereas;
Informal Sector includes those private sector establishments which employ less than 10 hired workers. Workers in informal sector often lack job security, regular income and can be dismissed without any compensation. [1]
For example, a grocery shop employing two workers etc. [½]
(Any other valid example to be awarded marks)
(ii) Worker Population Ratio is defined as the total number of workers in a country divided by population. It is represented in percentage. [1]
Worker Population Ratio is an indicator which is used for analysing the employment situation in the country. This ratio is useful in knowing the proportion of population that is actively contributing to the production of goods and services of a country. Higher the worker population ratio, higher the engagement of people in economic activities and vice versa. [2]
Q85.2025 Main 58/4/1 · Q346 marks
Read the following text carefully:
Indian labour market indicators have improved in the last six years, as per the Periodic Labour Force Survey Data. The unemployment rate has fallen to 3.2% in 2022–23. Rising youth and female participation in the workforce present an opportunity to tap the demographic and gender dividend. The factory employment data exhibits the bounce back of the organised manufacturing sector in FY 2022–23 with rise in employment and the upscaling of factories.
The net payroll additions under EPFO have more than doubled in the past five years, signalling healthy growth in formal employment.
To generate and sustain quality employment, agro-processing and care economy are two promising candidates.
On the basis of the given text and common understanding, answer the following questions:
(a) State any one significance of rising youth and female participation in the Indian workforce.
(b) Identify any two sectors which may be highlighted as promising for generating quality employment in India.
(c) Elaborate the meaning of disguised unemployment with the help of a suitable example.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(a) Rising youth and female participation in the Indian workforce can provide an opportunity to tap the demographic and gender dividend. [1]
(b) The two sectors which may be highlighted as promising for generating quality employment in India are:
- agro-processing [1]
- care economy. [1]
(c) Disguised unemployment refers to a situation when the person seems to be employed but is not contributing to the output i.e., his marginal productivity is zero.
For example, suppose a farmer with four acres of land and two workers can produce 100 quintals of wheat. Even if he employs one more worker, the total output remains unchanged. Hence, the contribution made by the additional worker to the total output is zero and thus can be said to be in a situation of disguised unemployment. (To be marked as a whole) [3]
Q86.2025 Main 58/5/1 · Q346 marks
Read the following text carefully:
The Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR) measures the percentage of the population either employed or actively seeking employment in a nation. In India, the labour force grew by 99·2 million persons between 2000-2019. The labour force grew from 396·3 million to 495·5 million.
During 2012-2019, the labour force grew without a matching increase in employment, leading to higher unemployment.
The gender disparity in India’s labour market is notable with women’s LFPR at 32.8% in 2022, significantly lower than men’s LFPR at 77.2%. This is a major reason for India’s overall low LFPR, which is lower than the global average of 47·3%.
During 2000-2019, rural LFPR declined by 14·1%, compared to a 3·5% decline in urban areas. This trend reversed between 2019-2022, with rural LFPR increasing by 6% (especially among rural women) and urban LFPR by 2.1%. These shifts suggest that fluctuations occur in women’s labour market participation, particularly in rural areas.
This significantly affected the overall LFPR. Women join the workforce during economic hardships and move out when conditions improve.
On the basis of the given text and common understanding, answer the following questions:
(a) Define unemployment.
(b) Write the meaning of Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR).
(c) Comment upon the gender disparities in rural and urban Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR) during 2000-2019.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(a) Unemployment refers to a situation in which all those persons who are willing and able to work do not get work at the prevailing wage rate. [1]
(b) The Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR) measures the percentage of the population either employed or actively seeking employment in a nation. [2]
(c) The gender disparities in India’s labour market is notable with women’s LFPR at 32.8% in 2022, significantly lower than men’s LFPR at 77.2%. During 2000 – 2019, rural LFPR declined by 14.1%, compared to a 3.5% decline in urban areas. (To be marked as a whole) [3]
Q87.2024 Main 58/2/1 · Q33(b)6 marks
(i) “The participation rate of people in economic activities in rural areas is more than that in urban areas.”
Justify the given statement.
(ii) Define disguised unemployment. State its implications on output and employment in a country.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(i) People in rural areas have limited resources. To earn higher income people participate more in the employment market.
As compared to rural areas, a large section in the urban areas can attain formal education and have a variety of employment opportunities at their disposal. Thus, people in urban areas look for appropriate job to suit their qualifications and skills.
Hence, participation rate of people in economic activities in rural areas is more than that in urban areas. [3] (To be marked as a whole)
(ii) Disguised unemployment refers to a situation when the person seems to be employed but is not contributing to the output i.e., the marginal productivity of labour is zero. [1½]
People who are disguisedly unemployed do not contribute anything to the output. Hence, there is no change in the output and employment in a country. [1½]
Q88.2024 Supp 58/S/1 · Q33(a)6 marks
(i) “As an economy grows, the number of employed persons in an economy also increases; however, since 1991 India has come up as an exception to this.’’
Do you agree with the given statement? Give valid arguments in support of your answer. 4
(ii) Define disguised unemployment with a suitable example. 2
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Supplementary), Set 58/S/1
(i) Yes, after the introduction of economic reforms, in the late 1990s, the Indian economy experienced a rapid rise in the GDP growth rate. However, employment growth started declining, in spite of rising GDP i.e., India started experiencing the problem of Jobless Growth. The Indian economy was able to produce more goods and services without a corresponding rise in the number of employed persons. [4]
(ii) Disguised unemployment refers to a situation when the person seems to be employed but is not contributing to the output i.e., his marginal productivity is zero. [1]
For example, suppose a farmer with four acres of land and two workers can produce 100 quintals of wheat. Even if he employs one more worker, the total output remains unchanged. Hence, the contribution made by the additional worker to the total output is zero and thus can be said to be in a situation of disguised unemployment. [1]
Q89.2024 Supp 58/S/1 · Q33(b)6 marks
(i) “Neha has been working in a multinational corporation since the past five years on the payroll of the company”.
Identify and briefly explain the type of employment indicated in the above statement. 3
(ii) Name the indicator that is generally used for analysing the employment situation in a country. Also discuss its importance. 3
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Supplementary), Set 58/S/1
(i) Neha is a regular salaried employee. [1]
When a worker is engaged by someone or an enterprise and paid his or her wages on a regular basis, they can be categorized as regular salaried employees. Such employees are entitled to receive regular compensation from their employer along with other social security benefits. [2]
(ii) Worker-population ratio is an indicator which is used for analysing the employment situation in the country. [1]
This ratio is useful in knowing the proportion of population that is actively contributing to the production of goods and services of a country. Higher the worker population ratio, higher the engagement of people in economic activities and vice versa. [2]
Q90.2023 Main 58/2/1 · Q33(a)6 marks
(i) Define Worker Population Ratio. Discuss its usefulness. (3)
(ii) ‘Mr. Rishi, after completing his education, has joined his family business but his marginal productivity is zero’. Comment upon the employment status of Mr. Rishi. Give valid reasons in support of your answer. (3)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(i) Worker Population Ratio (WPR) is defined as the total number of workers in a country divided by population. It is represented in percentage. [1]
Worker Population Ratio is an indicator which is used for analysing the employment situation in the country. This ratio is useful in knowing the proportion of population that is actively contributing to the production of goods and services of a country. Higher the worker population ratio, higher the engagement of people in economic activities and vice versa. [2]
(ii) Mr. Rishi cannot be considered as an employed person as he is disguisedly unemployed. Disguised unemployment refers to a situation when the person seems to be employed but is not contributing to the output i.e., his marginal productivity is zero. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q91.2023 Main 58/2/1 · Q33(b)6 marks
(i) “Kavya works on her family farm and is neither paid in cash nor in the form of grains.” Can she be categorized as a worker? Give valid reasons in support of your answer. (3)
(ii) “In the late 1990's India experienced a widening gap between the growth of GDP and employment generation". Discuss. (3)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(i) Women, like Kavya, carry out household tasks like cooking, fetching water and fuelwood and participate in farm labour. They are not paid wages in cash or in kind. For this reason, women like Kavya are not categorized as workers. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
(ii) After the introduction of economic reforms, in the late 1990s, Indian economy experienced a rapid rise in the GDP growth rate. However, employment growth started declining, in spite of rising GDP i.e., India started experiencing the problem of Jobless Growth. Where she was able to produce more goods and services without corresponding rise in the employment in the economy. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
Part B · Indian Economic Development
12. Environment and Sustainable Development
Q1.2026 Main 58/1/1 · Q211 mark
The Montreal Protocol was signed in the year 1987 committing nations to____. (Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)
Options:
- protect biodiversity from any further losses.
- reduce the impact of global warming.
- protect ozone layer from depletion incurred due to chlorofluoro carbons.
- reduce the impact of deforestation.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(C) protect ozone layer from depletion incurred due to chlorofluoro carbons.
Q2.2026 Main 58/1/1 · Q251 mark
“Sustainable development refers to the development that meets the need of the present generation without compromising the ability of the future generations, to meet their own needs.”
The above mentioned definition has been given by __________. (Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)
- United Nations Conference on Environment and Development
- United Nations Committee on Environment and Development
- United Nations Committee on Protection of Environment
- United Nations Conference on Protection of Environment
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(A) United Nations Conference on Environment and Development
Q3.2026 Main 58/2/1 · Q241 mark
Identify that strategy given in the image that can be utilised for sustainable development.

Options:
- Non-conventional source of energy
- Wind power
- CNG in urban areas
- Gobar Gas in rural areas
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(D) Gobar Gas in rural areas
Q4.2026 Main 58/4/1 · Q271 mark
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement I: Population explosion, affluent consumption and production have placed a huge stress on the environment.
Statement II: Carrying capacity is the largest size of a density-dependent population for which the population growth rate is zero.
In the light of the given statements, choose the correct option from the following:
- Statement I is true and Statement II is false.
- Statement I is false and Statement II is true.
- Both Statements I and II are true.
- Both Statements I and II are false.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(C) Both Statements I and II are true.
Q5.2026 Main 58/5/1 · Q211 mark
Identify, which of the following is not a strategy of sustainable development. (Choose the correct option)
- Use of Solar Panels
- Use of Bio-Pests
- Use of coal to produce electricity
- Use of Mini-Hydel Plants
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(C) Use of coal to produce electricity
Q6.2026 Supp 58/7/1 · Q211 mark
According to Herman Daly (an environmental economist), to achieve sustainable development __________. (Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)
- the human population should be limited within the carrying capacity
- technological progress should be input-consuming
- renewable resources should not be extracted on a sustainable basis
- the non-renewable resources’ rate of depletion should exceed its rate of substitution
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Supplementary), Set 58/7/1
(A) the human population should be limited within the carrying capacity
Q7.2025 Main 58/1/1 · Q191 mark
Study the following picture:

Identify and select, the recent phenomenon in which demand for resources surpasses their supply.
Options:
- Economic growth
- Environmental crisis
- Technological advancement
- Cultural evolution
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(B) Environmental crisis
Q8.2025 Main 58/2/1 · Q271 mark
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement 1: Environmental concerns of waste generation and pollution have become critical, due to reversal of demand and supply relationship.
Statement 2: Environmental crisis happens, when the rate of resource extraction is less than that of regeneration of resource.
In the light of the given statements, choose the correct option from the following:
- Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
- Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
- Both statements 1 and 2 are true.
- Both statements 1 and 2 are false.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(A) Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
Q9.2025 Main 58/4/1 · Q241 mark
Identify, which of the following statements is incorrect about the functions of environment. (Choose the correct option)
- Provides resources
- Absorbs wastage
- Sustains life
- Deteriorates quality of life
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(D) Deteriorates quality of life
Q10.2025 Main 58/4/1 · Q30(b)(ii)1 mark
State the meaning of sustainable development.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/4/1
Sustainable Development is the development that meets the need of the present generation without compromising the ability of the future generation to meet their own needs. [1]
Q11.2025 Main 58/5/1 · Q221 mark
Identify, which of the following statements is incorrect about the functions of environment. (Choose the correct option)
- Environment provides resources.
- Environment absorbs wastage.
- Environment sustains life.
- Environment deteriorates quality of life.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(D) Environment deteriorates quality of life.
Q12.2025 Main 58/5/1 · Q31(a)(ii)1 mark
Define Sustainable Development.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/5/1
Sustainable Development is the development that meets the need of the present generation without compromising the ability of the future generation to meet their own needs. [1]
Q13.2025 Main 58/5/1 · Q31(b)(ii)1 mark
State any one strategy involved in attaining sustainable development in India.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/5/1
Use of wind energy. (Any other valid strategy to be awarded marks) [1]
Q14.2025 Main 58/7/1 · Q211 mark
Read the following statements carefully :
Statement 1: In order to address the problem of water and air pollution in India, the Government of India had established the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB).
Statement 2: Deforestation leads to the permanent destruction of indigenous forests.
In the light of the given statements, choose the correct option from the following :
- Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
- Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/7/1
(A) Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
Q15.2025 Supp 58/S/1 · Q271 mark
Identify, which of the following is not a factor responsible for land degradation. (Choose the correct alternative)
- Deforestation
- Overgrazing
- Industrial practices
- Proper crop rotation
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Supplementary), Set 58/S/1
(D) Proper crop rotation
Q16.2024 Main 58/4/1 · Q261 mark
Identify, which of the following is not a correct function of environment?
(i) Exclusion of waste
(ii) Sustainance of life
(iii) Provide aesthetic services
Alternatives:
- (i) only
- (ii) only
- (ii) & (iii)
- (i) & (ii)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(A) (i) only [1]
Q17.2023 Main 58/1/1 · Q201 mark
Mini-hydel plants are good for the environment because:
(i) they generate electricity only for local areas.
(ii) they do not change the land use pattern.
(iii) they rely on the perennial streams. (Choose the correct alternative)
Alternatives:
- (i), (ii) and (iii)
- (ii) and (iii)
- (i) only
- (i) and (ii)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Q18.2023 Main 58/2/1 · Q251 mark
In an economy, when the rate of resource extraction is lower than the rate of regeneration of the resource, the environment may operate _____________ (Fill up the blank with correct alternative)
- within its carrying capacity
- beyond its absorptive capacity.
- beyond its carrying capacity
- beyond its aesthetic capacity.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(a) within its carrying capacity.
Q19.2023 Main 58/3/1 · Q25(a)1 mark
____________ adopted the resolution to ban the use of Chlorofluorocarbon (CFC) compounds along with other ozone depleting chemicals. (Choose the correct alternative to fill up the blank)
- Kyoto Protocol
- Paris Protocol
- Montreal Protocol
- Brundtland Commission Report
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/3/1
(c) Montreal Protocol
Q20.2023 Main 58/3/1 · Q25(b)1 mark
According to Herman Daly (an environmental economist), which of the following is not an essential step towards achieving sustainable development?
- Limiting human population to carrying capacity of the environment
- Input inefficient technological progress
- Rate of extraction of renewable resources should not exceed rate of regeneration
- Correction of inefficiencies arising from pollution
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/3/1
(b) Input inefficient technological progress
Q21.2023 Main 58/4/1 · Q25(a)1 mark
Carrying Capacity implies that ___________
(i) Resource extraction should remain below the rate of regeneration.
(ii) Resource extraction should remain above the rate of regeneration.
(iii) Generation of waste should remain within the absorption capacity of the environment.
(iv) Generation of waste should be more than the absorption capacity of the environment.
(Choose the correct alternative)
Alternatives:
- (i) and (iv)
- (i) and (iii)
- (ii) and (iii)
- (ii) and (iv)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(b) (i) and (iii)
Q22.2023 Main 58/5/1 · Q251 mark
Identify, which of the following is an incorrect function of environment?
- Supplies resources
- Assimilates waste
- Land degradation
- Provides aesthetic services
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(c) Land degradation
Q23.SQP 2025-26 · Q241 mark
The population explosion and advent of Industrial Revolution led to the ____. (Choose the correct option to fill up the blank)
- reversal of supply-demand relationship of environmental resources
- decrease in demand for environmental resources
- decrease in the average temperature of the earth’s lower atmosphere
- increase in the environmental quality
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 · Marking Scheme
(A) reversal of supply-demand relationship of environmental resources
Q24.2025 Main 58/4/1 · Q30(a)(ii)2 marks
Describe ‘LPG’ and ‘Gobar Gas’ as strategies used to achieve sustainable development in rural areas.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/4/1
Liquified Petroleum Gas (LPG) is a clean fuel that reduces household fuel pollution to a large extent and minimises energy wastage. For the gobar gas plant to function, cattle dung is fed to the plant and gas is produced which is used as fuel while the slurry which is left over is a very good organic manure and soil conditioner. (To be marked as a whole) [2]
Q25.2022 Main 58/1/1 · Q3(a)2 marks
State any two harmful effects of Global warming.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 58/1/1
Two harmful effects of global warming are:
(i) Melting of Polar ice, resulting in rise in sea level and coastal flooding. [1]
(ii) Increase in incidence of tropical diseases. [1]
(any other valid point/reason/argument should be awarded marks accordingly)
Q26.2022 Main 58/1/1 · Q3(b)2 marks
State any two advantages of ‘sustainable development’.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 58/1/1
Two advantages of sustainable development are:
(i) Minimises environmental problems. [1]
(ii) Provides better potential average quality of life to all future generations. [1]
(any other valid point/reason/argument should be awarded marks accordingly)
Q27.2022 Main 58/3/1 · Q52 marks
'Stimulating public mode of transportation may lead to promote sustainable development'. Explain with valid arguments.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 58/3/1
When people use public mode of transportation, the number of vehicles on road may be significantly reduced. This may reduce air and noise pollution. It may economize the use of resources leading to promotion of sustainable development. [2]
(to be marked as a whole)
Q28.2022 Main 58/4/1 · Q52 marks
“Economic development in India has been accompanied by environmental concerns.”
Do you agree with the given statement? Give valid reasons in support of your answer.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 58/4/1
- The pressure on natural resources is increasing along with deforestation and wildlife extinction. [1]
- Rapidly rising Industrial sector is leading to air pollution, water contamination, soil erosion etc. [1]
(any other relevant point/reason/argument should be awarded marks accordingly)
Q29.2022 Supp 58/6/1 · Q5(a)2 marks
“Maintaining Air Quality Index (AQI) is the need of the hour.”
Do you agree with the given statement? Justify your answer with a valid argument.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Supplementary), Set 58/6/1
The given statement is true. Owing to the rise in air pollution, monitoring and maintaining good air quality is the need of the hour. Better air quality helps to reduce medical issues like asthma and other respiratory problems. [2]
Q30.2022 Supp 58/6/1 · Q5(b)2 marks
State any two advantages of Mini-hydel Plants.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Supplementary), Set 58/6/1
Two advantages of mini-hydel plants are:
(i) Eco-friendly. [1]
(ii) Generation of sufficient amount of electricity to satisfy local demands. [1]
(any other valid precaution to be allotted marks)
Q31.2026 Main 58/2/1 · Q29(b)3 marks
Discuss the long term implications of increased demand for environmental resources exceeding their natural regenerative capacity.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/2/1
Owing to the rapid population growth and industrialisation, the demand of resources for production and consumption exceeded their natural rate of regeneration, placing heavy pressure on the absorptive capacity of the environment. As a result, issues like waste generation and pollution have intensified, leading to a serious environmental crisis. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q32.2026 Supp 58/7/1 · Q29(b)3 marks
“India is striving for higher rates of economic growth, but this often comes at the cost of environmental degradation.”
In the light of the above statement, discuss any one strategy by which India can achieve a balance between economic growth and sustainable development.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Supplementary), Set 58/7/1
India can achieve a balance between economic growth and sustainable development by adopting strategies such as promoting traditional practices and knowledge. India has a rich heritage of sustainable systems such as Ayurveda, Unani, herbal products and natural farming, which rely on locally available resources and cause minimal environmental damage. Encouraging the use of these environmentally friendly alternatives reduces pollution, conserves natural resources and supports economic growth without compromising the needs of future generations. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
(Any other valid strategy to be awarded marks)
Q33.2024 Main 58/2/1 · Q293 marks
Interpret the given picture and explain any one strategy to control it from becoming an ecological disaster.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/2/1
The given picture illustrates the problem of air pollution caused due to swift industrial development. The release of contaminants like noxious gases, particulate matter, and other substances in the atmosphere leads to health issues and environmental degradation. [1½]
In order to control air pollution, it becomes imperative to switch to cleaner sources of energy. The use of non-conventional sources of energy such as solar power, wind power maintains ecological balance. [1½]
(Any other valid strategy to be awarded marks)
Q34.2024 Supp 58/S/1 · Q293 marks
Identify the situation depicted in the given figure and explain any one strategy to effectively overcome the problem.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Supplementary), Set 58/S/1
The situation depicted in the given figure is ‘Global Warming’. [1]
One of the strategies to effectively overcome the problem of Global Warming is the usage of wind energy. Wind power is a popular source of sustainable renewable energy. In the areas where speed of wind is usually high, wind mills can provide electricity without any adverse impact on environment. [2]
(Any other valid strategy to be awarded marks)
Q35.2023 Main 58/1/1 · Q283 marks
Interpret the given picture, on account of current environmental challenges:

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/1/1
Deforestation is defined as large scale cutting down of trees for executing developmental projects. It is a serious environmental concern, since it can result in the loss of biodiversity, damage of natural habitats, disturbances in the water cycle, soil erosion etc. Deforestation is also the main contributor to the environmental problems like climate change and global warming.
(To be marked as a whole)
(Any other valid explanation to be allotted marks)
Q36.2023 Main 58/1/1 · Q33(b)(i)3 marks
State and discuss any one strategy involved in attaining sustainable development in India.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/1/1
Mini-hydel Plants- In mountainous regions, streams can be found almost everywhere. A large percentage of such streams are perennial. Mini-hydel plants use the energy of such streams to move small turbines. The turbines generate electricity which can be used locally. Such power plants are more or less environment-friendly as they do not change the land use pattern. [½ + 2½]
(any other valid strategy of sustainable development)
Q37.2023 Main 58/2/1 · Q283 marks
"Serious concerns over the climate change is taking over the attention of the world."

In the light of the above statement and image, discuss any two strategies to tackle this global concern of Environmental degradation.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/2/1
In order to tackle the problem of environmental degradation, following strategies are highlighted in the given image:
- Use of wind energy: In areas where speed of wind is usually high, windmills can be used to generate electricity without any adverse impact on the environment. [1½]
- Use of solar energy: With the help of photovoltaic cells/solar panels, solar energy can be converted into electricity. This technology is extremely useful for remote areas and is free from pollution. [1½]
(Any other valid strategy to be allotted marks)
Q38.2023 Main 58/3/1 · Q33(b)(iii)3 marks
In the light of the given image, identify and explain any one strategy to ensure sustainable development.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/3/1
One of the strategies to ensure sustainable development depicted in the given image is the usage of wind energy. Wind power is a popular source of sustainable renewable energy. In the areas where speed of wind is usually high, wind mills can provide electricity without any adverse impact on environment.
(Any other valid argument to be allotted marks)
Q39.2023 Main 58/4/1 · Q283 marks
Interpret the given picture with reference to current environmental challenges.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/4/1
The given picture indicates the usage of renewable sources of energy. Power is the need of the hour and the usage of non-renewable sources of energy lead to an environmental crisis. On the other hand, using renewable sources of energy like solar, wind, and hydro energies ensure sustainable development without any adverse impact on the environment. The power generated through these resources is a cleaner and greener alternative.
(To be marked as a whole)
Q40.2023 Main 58/5/1 · Q283 marks
Interpret the situation of earth as depicted in the given picture, with reference to current environmental challenges:

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/5/1
The given image depicts the environmental challenge of ‘Global Warming’.
Global warming is a gradual increase in the average temperature of the earth’s lower atmosphere. It is caused by increases in carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases. Burning of fossil fuels and deforestation are the major causes of Global Warming.
Global warming is responsible for melting of polar ice, leading to rise in sea level and coastal flooding etc. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
(Any other valid explanation to be allotted marks)
Q41.2023 Main 58/5/1 · Q33(b)(ii)3 marks
Explain absorptive capacity of environment with example.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/5/1
Absorptive capacity means the ability of the environment to absorb degradation. For instance, high population and the affluent consumption in the developing countries and production standards of the developed nations have placed a huge stress on the environment. Many resources are becoming extinct and the wastes generated are beyond the absorptive capacity of the environment. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q42.2023 Supp 58/C/1 · Q283 marks
Elaborate any two ill-effects of Deforestation as depicted in the given picture.

Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Supplementary), Set 58/C/1
Two ill-effects of deforestation are:
- Deforestation leads to loss of vegetation and biodiversity. Encroachment of forest land disturbs the natural habitat of various species of flora and fauna. Deforestation results in the breakdown of the normal functioning of the ecosystem. [1½]
- Large-scale cutting down of trees may lead to an increase in the amount of greenhouse gases such as carbon dioxide, methane, etc. in the atmosphere. Subsequently increasing the Earth's average temperature gradually i.e. Global Warming. [1½]
(Any other valid argument/point/explanation to be allotted marks)
Q43.2023 Supp 58/C/1 · Q33(a)(ii)3 marks
Explain briefly any two functions of the environment.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Supplementary), Set 58/C/1
Two functions of the environment are:
- Supply of Resources: The environment supplies resources both renewable and non-renewable on a continuous basis. [1½]
- Sustenance of Life: By providing genetic and bio diversity the environment helps in sustenance of life. [1½]
(Any other valid function to be allotted marks)
Q44.2022 Main 58/3/1 · Q73 marks
Explain how Bio-composting can be helpful in achieving the objectives of sustainable development.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 58/3/1
Bio-composting ensures sustainable development. It avoids excessive use of chemical fertilizers which adversely affects the fertility of land and water bodies. Civic authorities are also benefited as they have to dispose lesser quantity of waste. [3]
(to be marked as a whole)
Q45.2022 Supp 58/6/1 · Q9(a)3 marks
“If the rate of resource extraction exceeds the rate of regeneration, it leads to a reduction in carrying capacity of the environment.”
Highlight any two consequences, stated in the given statement.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Supplementary), Set 58/6/1
Two consequences of such a situation are:
(i) global warming which may lead to the melting of polar ice and an eventual rise in sea level. [1½]
(ii) other environmental problems like Ozone depletion may cause serious threats to living organisms (sustenance of life). [1½]
(any other relevant point/argument to be allotted marks)
Q46.2022 Supp 58/6/1 · Q9(b)3 marks
Explain any two advantages of use of Non-Conventional Sources of Energy.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Supplementary), Set 58/6/1
Two advantages of the use of non-conventional sources of energy are:
(i) Cleaner energy – Such sources of energy are eco-friendly in nature. [1½]
(ii) Cost-effective – Energy generation from such sources has lower maintenance costs. [1½]
(any other relevant point/argument to be allotted marks)
Q47.SQP 2025-26 · Q29(a)3 marks
“Edward Barbier defined Sustainable Development as a strategy which is directly concerned with increasing the material standard of living of the poor at the grass root level.”
Elaborate the given statement.
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 · Marking Scheme
Sustainable Development, seeks to meet the basic needs of the present generation without compromising the needs of the future generations.
As per Edward Barbier, it must be used to increase the standard of living of the poor through measurable increase in income, educational and health services, sanitation, etc. The aim of Sustainable Development should be to reduce absolute poverty by creating livelihoods while minimizing resource depletion, environmental harm, cultural disruption, and social instability. [3]
Q48.2026 Main 58/3/1 · Q31(b)4 marks
“Traditional knowledge and practices are still applicable in ensuring sustainable development.”
Do you agree with the given statement? Support your answer with valid reasons
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/3/1
Yes. Traditionally, India adopted eco-friendly practices in agriculture, healthcare, housing, and transport. All of these practices used naturally available products and processes, which had very few side effects.
The adoption of the modern systems caused environmental degradation. However, India has a rich traditional healthcare system like Ayurveda, Unani etc. which are now a days in great demand. Moreover, many herbal cosmetic products are regaining popularity, as they are eco-friendly, safer and require less industrial processing and help in ensuring sustainable development. [4]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q49.2026 Main 58/5/1 · Q304 marks
Study the following image carefully:

Interpret the given image and comment upon the phenomenon of environmental crisis as a result of changed production and consumption patterns.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/5/1
Owing to rapid population explosion and advent of industrial revolution the demand of resources for both the production and consumption went beyond the rate of regeneration of resources. Consequently, the pressure on the absorptive capacity of the environment increased tremendously. Thus, as indicated in the image above, issues like climate change, biodiversity loss and pollution have intensified, leading to a serious environmental crisis. [4]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q50.2025 Main 58/1/1 · Q304 marks
(a) “Bio-pesticides help to reduce the ill-impacts of green revolution on soil and water bodies while promoting sustainable development.”
Justify the given statement with valid explanation.
(b) Define Absorptive capacity.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(a) Owing to the introduction of the Green Revolution in India, the usage of more and more chemical pesticides had adverse impacts such as contaminated soil, water bodies and groundwater.
The use of bio-pesticides serves as an eco-friendly alternative to chemical pesticides. In addition to this, promoting natural predators like snakes and birds help to control pests, support the ecosystem, and contribute to sustainable agriculture. (To be marked as a whole) [3]
(b) Absorptive capacity means the ability of the environment to absorb degradation. [1]
Q51.2025 Main 58/6/1 · Q31(a)4 marks
“IT can play a critical role in achieving sustainable development and food security in the 21st century in the country.”
Justify the given statement with valid arguments
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/6/1
Information Technology (IT) plays a crucial role as it can help the government to predict areas of food insecurity and vulnerability. Using appropriate information and software tools, timely action can be taken to prevent/reduce the likelihood of an emergency. It helps in disseminating information regarding emerging technologies and their applications, prices, weather and soil conditions for growing different crops etc. [4] (To be marked as a whole)
Q52.2025 Supp 58/S/1 · Q324 marks
The Government of India has adopted various strategies to ensure that the future generations should have the same quality of life as the present generation.
In the light of the given statement, briefly discuss any two strategies.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Supplementary), Set 58/S/1
Two strategies adopted by the Government of India to ensure that the future generation have the same quality of life as the present generation are:
- Use of wind energy: In areas where speed of wind is usually high, windmills are used to generate electricity without any adverse impact on the environment. Though the initial cost of setting up a wind energy system is high but the benefits outweigh the cost. [2]
- Use of solar energy: With the help of photovoltaic cells/solar panels, solar energy is converted into electricity. It is free from pollution and is useful for remote areas where supply through power grid is either not possible or proves very costly. [2]
Q53.2022 Main 58/4/1 · Q135 marks
Case/ Source Based Question
Read the following text carefully. Answer questions number 13 (a) and 13 (b) on the basis of the given text and common understanding:
The NITI Aayog Index developed in collaboration with German cooperation, ranks 56 urban areas on 77 Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) indicators. In its journey of localization of the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) and creating SDG’s progress monitoring system at all levels, the NITI Aayog has developed the SDG Urban Index and Dashboard in 2021-22.
The index will strengthen SDG localisation and institute monitoring at the various cities level. According to the NITI Aayog, this index highlights the strengths and gaps of data monitoring and reporting systems. The tools used in the index will contribute to the creation of an ecological system in which all stakeholders will be equipped to adopt and implement data-driven decision-making.
The NITI Aayog is of the view that this transformative change is quite essential, given the increasing prominence of our cities and urban areas in charting the future of development in India. Out of 56 urban areas ranked in the index, 44 are with population above one million.
As per the NITI Aayog, for each SDG the urban areas are ranked on the scale of 0-100. A score of 100 implies that the urban area has achieved the targets set for 2030. A zero score implies that it is the farthest from achieving the target among the selected urban areas. The areas with score between 0 and 49 have been ranked as aspirants, those with 50-64 are termed as performers, 66-99 are called front runners and the ones with perfect score are called achievers.
Source: The Economic Times; November 3, 2021 (Modified)
(a) Outline any two steps involved by the NITI Aayog index in attaining sustainable development. (2)
(b) “Urban areas are ranked on the scale of 0-100.” Elucidate the ranking system adopted by NITI Aayog (3)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(a) Two steps involved in NITI Aayog index are as follows:
(i) Localisation of Sustainable Development [1]
(ii) monitoring progress in Sustainable Developmental Goals at all possible levels [1]
(b) Urban areas are ranked on the scale of 0-100. Ranking system adopted by NITI Aayog is as follows
(i) The areas with ranking between 0–49 have been ranked, as aspirants. [1]
(ii) Those with 50–64 are termed as performers, 66–99 are called front runners. [1]
(iii) Score of 100 implies the urban area has achieved the target set for 2030. [1]
(any other relevant point/reason/argument should be awarded marks accordingly)
Q54.2022 Main 58/5/1 · Q135 marks
Case Study
Read the following text carefully and answer question number 13(a) and 13(b) given below:
Green investment and sustainability are priorities in public policy. India has emerged as a global leader at the front of the climate change. India has pledged to seek solutions for the future.
Government schemes and policies such as Swachh Bharat Mission, Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana, Smart Cities, Deen Dayal Upadhyay Gram Jyoti Yojana among other, all contribute towards achieving sustainable development goals.
The government has contributed to maintain economic growth by introducing and implementing various policies and measures relating to sustainable development, climate change, energy efficiency and air pollution. Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana Scheme, has actively contributed to cleaner air. It has resulted in drastic reduction of respiratory diseases and ultimately death as per recent medical report.
The Jal Jeevan Mission was launched with the objective of achieving water security. We have seen 68 per cent decline in the size of population of various animal species and amphibian over the last 60 years. The issue of greenhouse gases and rising temperature of the earth are a global concern. India is one of those countries that will be affected by the over 2 degree Celsius rise in global temperature.
'India has already taken a lot of steps in the area of innovation and development of different production methodologies which are environmentally friendly in the long run.'
Source: The Economic Times; Oct. 27, 2021
(a) State and discuss any two steps involved in attaining sustainable development in India. (3)
(b) From the given text, state any two factors which challenged the carrying capacity of the environment. (2)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(a) Two steps involved in attaining sustainable development in India are:
(i) Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana Scheme has contributed to cleaner air and resulted in a drastic reduction of respiratory diseases. [1½]
(ii) Government schemes such as Swachh Bharat Mission, Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana, Smart Cities, etc. are all contributing towards achieving sustainable development goals. [1½]
(any other valid strategy to be allotted marks)
(b) Two factors which challenged the carrying capacity of the environment are:
(i) Rise in the temperature of the earth. [1]
(ii) Issue of greenhouse gases [1]
(iii) Decline in the size of the population of various animal species and amphibian (Any two)
(any other valid explanation to be allotted marks)
Q55.2026 Main 58/3/1 · Q346 marks
Read the following passage carefully:
In the present times, green investment and sustainability are priorities in public policy. India has emerged as a global leader at the front of the climate change. India has pledged to seek solutions for the future. The government has contributed to maintain economic growth by implementing various policies and measures relating to sustainable development. Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Scheme has actively contributed to cleaner air. The Jal Jeevan Mission was launched with the objective of achieving water security.
The greenhouse effect is a natural process that warms the Earth’s surface, where certain atmospheric gases, known as greenhouse gases, trap heat from the sun and re-emit it, keeping the planet warm enough to support life. In the present times, the issue of greenhouse gases and rising temperature of the Earth are a global concern.
On basis of the above passage and common understanding, answer the following questions:
(a) Discuss any two steps involved in attaining sustainable development in India. [3]
(b) Mention any two factors which challenged the carrying capacity of the environment. [2]
(c) Define Greenhouse effect. [1]
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/3/1
(a) India has taken the following steps to ensure sustainable development:
- Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Scheme has actively contributed to cleaner air. [1½]
- The Jal Jeevan Mission was launched with the objective of achieving water security. [1½]
(Any other valid strategy/step to be awarded marks)
(b) Two factors that have challenged the carrying capacity of the environment:
- The rising population of the developing countries. [1]
- The affluent consumption and production standards of the developed world. [1]
(c) The greenhouse effect is a natural process that warms the Earth’s surface, where the heat from the sun gets trapped inside atmosphere due to greenhouse gases. [1]
Q56.2026 Main 58/4/1 · Q346 marks
Read the following text carefully:
According to the 2021 World Air Quality Report, India is home to 63 of the 100 most polluted cities. The study also found that PM 2.5 concentration (tiny particles in the air that are 2.5 micrometres or smaller in length) in 48% of the country’s cities are more than 10 times higher than the WHO’s air quality guidelines level. Undoubtedly, this has made air pollution as one of the most pressing environmental issues in India.
Vehicular emission, industrial waste, cooking smoke, the construction sector, crop burning and power generation are among the biggest sources of air pollution in India. The country’s dependence on coal, oil and gas due to rampant electrification makes it the world’s the largest polluter, contributing over 2.65 billion metric tonnes of carbon to the atmosphere every year.
In 2021, India was among the world’s most polluted countries, second only to Bangladesh. The annual average PM 2.5 level in India was about 58.1 µg/m3 in 2021. Scientists have linked persistent exposure to PM 2.5 to many long-term health issues including heart and lung disease, as well as 7.5 million premature deaths each year.
On the basis of the above passage and common understanding, answer the following questions:
(a) State any four sources of air pollution in India [2]
(b) Discuss briefly the adverse impacts of rising levels of PM 2.5 particles in the air. [3]
(c) State the full form of CPCB. [1]
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(a) The four sources of air pollution in India are:
- Vehicular emission [½]
- Industrial waste [½]
- Cooking smoke [½]
- Construction sector [½]
(Any other valid source to be awarded marks)
(b) Scientists have linked persistent exposure to PM 2.5 to many long-term health issues including heart and lung disease, as well as 7.5 million premature deaths each year. [3]
(c) Full form of CPCB is Central Pollution Control Board [1]
Q57.2025 Main 58/2/1 · Q346 marks
Read the following text carefully:
Climate change and sustainability of environment are two pressing issues that have captured global attention. In recent years, the world has witnessed a surge in extreme weather events including severe droughts, cloud bursts, floods, land slides, receding coastlines and the alarming melting of arctic ice and Himalayan Glaciers. Wildfires have become more frequent and intense.
In this context, sustainable agriculture emerges as a crucial solution.
This refers to those farming practices that meet today’s requirements while preserving resources for the future generation. This means adopting methods that protect the environment, reduce dependence on chemical inputs, efficiently use water and land and ensuring socio-economic equity for farmers.
On one hand sustainable agricultural practices are necessary, on the other, they are often more expensive to implement compared to conventional methods. Sustainable practices like organic farming, climate-smart technologies, modern irrigation system may seem costly upfront, but they offer long-term benefits by improving productivity, and environmental stewardship. Without accessible and affordable financing options, the much-needed shift to sustainable farming practices will remain a distant dream for many.
Therefore, sustainable finance should not only promote eco-friendly practices but also ensure that financial resources are available to the farmers who need it.
Source: https://website.vbi.org.in/web/rbi/-speches–interview/financing-for-sustainable-agriculture (adopted and modified)
On the basis of the given text and common understanding, answer the following questions:
(a) Define Sustainable Agriculture.
(b) “Sustainable Agriculture practices, like organic farming may seem costly initially, but offer long term benefits.”
Discuss the long term benefits these practices can offer.
(c) State any two strategies to promote sustainable development in a developing country like India.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(a) Sustainable agriculture refers to those farming practices that meet today’s requirements while preserving resources for future generations. [1]
(b) Sustainable Agriculture practices, like organic farming, may seem costly initially but offer long-term benefits. Such practices improve productivity, restore, maintain and enhance the ecological balance. They reduce dependence on chemical inputs and help in soil conservation. (To be marked as a whole) [3]
(c) Two strategies to promote sustainable development in a developing country like India are:
- Use of Solar Power [1]
- Use of Mini-Hydel Plants [1]
(Any other relevant strategy to be awarded marks)
Q58.2025 Main 58/6/1 · Q346 marks
Read the following text carefully:
Growing carbon footprint of industries have put power and steel sector in the spotlight as the major contributor to the climate crisis. The challenge of climate change can be tackled only by making our industries and businesses follow practices and processes that reduce their carbon footprint. It can be possible only with green financing.
Green financing aims to increase the level of financial flows (from banking, micro-credit, insurance and investment) from the public, private and not-for-profit sectors to sustainable development priorities.
Global green finance has also started chasing Indian companies. Global development finance institutions and funds are ready to offer long-term support (both equity and debt) at cheap rates to projects like solar energy and hydropower.
Green finance can positively affect environment quality, economic development and financial issues that promote the green economy, such as reducing greenhouse gas emissions, improving energy efficiency or enhancing the organic economy.
On the basis of the given text and common understanding, answer the following questions:
(a) State the meaning and objective of green finance. [3]
(b) Discuss any two benefits of green financing. [3]
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/6/1
(a) Green finance refers to the practices and processes that industries and businesses should follow to reduce carbon footprints. [1]
The aim of green financing is to increase the level of financial flows (from banking, micro-credit, insurance and investment) from the public, private and not-for-profit sectors to sustainable development priorities. [2]
(b) The benefits of green financing are:
- Green finance positively affects environmental quality by reducing greenhouse gas emissions. [1½]
- Improves energy efficiency by investing in projects that promote green economy. [1½]
(Any other valid benefit to be awarded marks)
Q59.2025 Supp 58/S/1 · Q346 marks
Read the following text carefully:
The need for eco-friendly agriculture in India
A major highlight of this year’s budget was achieving green growth for a cleaner, greener Earth. Launched under the Green Growth Targets, the PM-PRANAM Scheme is designed as a programme for Restoration, Nourishment and Amelioration of the Earth.
This scheme will incentivise the states and union territories to use alternative fertilisers. Furthermore, the budget also outlined that the Centre will assist the transition of one crore farmers to organic farming, reiterating the long term vision of eco-friendly agriculture.
Emphasis on natural farming techniques and optional chemical usage has strong linkages with the green revolution that aided the large-scale usage of chemical fertilizers in India. Over the period of time, fertilizer runoff to water bodies and subsequent nutrient overload resulted in eutrophication, massive algal blooms in lakes and rivers and the formation of dead zones. These runoffs also pollute the groundwater resources in the long term.
It also accelerates land degradation and desertification by destroying the natural soil properties. Thus, the rationale behind the government’s move to include sustainable and natural farming techniques becomes clear. Organic farming will aid in reducing cumulative GHG emissions as chemical fertilizers account for over 77% of agricultural nitrogen oxide emissions in India. Hence, promoting agro-forestry initiatives will boost soil organic carbon and fertility. Trees will also serve as storehouses of sequestered carbon.
On the basis of the given text and common understanding, answer the following questions:
(a) Explain any two problems associated with the usage of chemical fertilizers. [3]
(b) Discuss briefly the economic rationale behind the government’s move to promote organic farming. [2]
(c) State the meaning of green growth. [1]
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Supplementary), Set 58/S/1
(a) Two problems associated with the usage of chemical fertilizers:
- Fertilizers runoff to water bodies and subsequent nutrient overload result in eutrophication, massive algal blooms in lakes and rivers and the formation of dead zones. [1½]
- Use of chemical fertilizers accelerates land degradation and desertification by destroying the natural soil properties. [1½]
(b) Organic farming aids in reducing cumulative GHG emissions as chemical fertilizers account for over 77% of agricultural nitrogen oxide emissions in India. Hence, promoting agro-forestry initiatives boosts soil organic carbon and fertility. [2] (To be marked as a whole)
(c) Green growth refers to the economic growth that is achieved in such a manner that minimizes environmental damage. [1]
Q60.2024 Main 58/1/1 · Q346 marks
Read the following text carefully:
In order to address two major environmental concerns in India, viz. water and air pollution, the government set up the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) in 1974. This was followed by states establishing their own state level boards to address all the environmental concerns. They investigate, collect and disseminate information relating to water, air and land pollution, lay down standards for sewage/trade effluent and emissions. These boards provide technical assistance to governments in promoting cleanliness of streams and wells by prevention, control and abatement of water pollution, and improve the quality of air and to prevent, control or abate air pollution in the country.
These boards also carry out and sponsor investigation and research relating to problems of water and air pollution and for their prevention, control or abatement. They organize, through mass media, a comprehensive mass awareness programme for the same. The PCBs prepare manuals, codes and guidelines relating to treatment and disposal of sewage and trade effluents.
They assess the air quality through regulation of industries. In fact, state boards, through their district level officials, periodically inspect every industry under their jurisdiction to assess the adequacy of treatment measures provided to treat the effluent and gaseous emissions. It also provides background air quality data needed for industrial siting and town planning.
The pollution control boards collect, collate and disseminate technical and statistical data relating to water pollution. They monitor the quality of water in 125 rivers (including the tributaries), wells, lakes, creeks, ponds, tanks, drains and canals.
On the basis of the given text and common understanding, answer the following questions:
(a) State any two concerns owing to which the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) was established.
(b) Explain any two functions performed by the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB).
(c) Elaborate any two strategies to ensure sustainable development as adopted by India.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(a) Two major concerns owing to which the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) was established were:
- Water pollution [½]
- Air pollution [½] (Or any other valid concern to be awarded marks)
(b) Functions performed by the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) are:
- It investigates, collects and disseminates information relating to water, air and land pollution. [1]
- It lays down standards for sewage/trade effluent and emissions. [1]
(Any other valid function to be awarded marks)
(c) In order to ensure sustainable development, following strategies are adopted by India:
- Use of wind energy: In areas where speed of wind is usually high, windmills are used to generate electricity without any adverse impact on the environment. [1½]
- Use of solar energy: With the help of photovoltaic cells/solar panels, solar energy can be converted into electricity. This technology is extremely useful for remote areas and is free from pollution. [1½]
(Any other valid strategy to be awarded marks)
Q61.2024 Main 58/3/1 · Q346 marks
Read the following text carefully:
In the contemporary world with a lot of sustainable development concerns, green growth, and net zero emissions are two important concepts which are generally discussed together. These two concepts are essential for the future of the Earth, as by working together on them we can create a more sustainable future for ourselves and for the generations to come.
Green growth refers to, “the economic growth that is achieved in a way that minimizes environmental impact”, whereas, “net zero emission is the state of achieving balance between anthropogenic emission of greenhouse gases and removal of such emissions from the atmosphere.”
There exists a robust connection between the two concepts:
(1) Green growth can help to reduce greenhouse gas emissions, which is essential for achieving net zero emissions.
(2) Green growth can help to create jobs and boost economic growth, which can help to make it more affordable for countries to invest in net zero emissions technology.
A nation can do a lot to promote these two factors together, like:
(a) Investing in renewable energy sources which do not produce greenhouse gases.
(b) Adopting energy efficient measures, such as insulation and other such appliances which can help to reduce energy consumption.
(c) Altering transportation habits, like adopting walking, biking and using public transportation as they are lower-carbon ways to travel.
On the basis of the given text and common understanding, answer the following questions:
(i) State the meaning of green growth and net zero emissions. 2
(ii) Discuss briefly the interconnection between green growth and net zero emissions. 3
(iii) Illustrate any one factor to promote net zero emission. 1
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/3/1
(i) Green growth refers to the economic growth that is achieved in a way that minimizes environmental impact. [1]
Net zero emission refers to the state of achieving balance between anthropogenic emission of greenhouse gases and removal of such emissions from the atmosphere. [1]
(ii) There exists a robust connection between green growth and net zero emissions:
- Green growth can help to reduce greenhouse gas emissions, essential for achieving net zero emissions. [1½]
- Green growth can help to create jobs and boost economic growth, to make it more affordable for countries to invest in net zero emissions technology. [1½]
(iii) A nation can invest in renewable energy sources which do not produce greenhouse gases. [1]
(Any other valid factor to be awarded marks)
Q62.2024 Main 58/4/1 · Q336 marks
“We are One-Earth, One Family and we share One Future.” is the opening sentence of the G-20 New Delhi Leader's Declaration Statement.
In this statement the leaders pledged to “resolve to fully and effectively implement the 2030 Agenda and the Sustainable Developmental Goals (SDG's)”. The leader's commitments contained in the Declaration statement reflect, “the philosophy of living in harmony with our surrounding ecosystem”.
The Declaration recognises the “Cascading challenges and crisis that have reversed gains” on the 2030 Agenda of SDG's.
The leaders “affirm that no country should have to choose between fighting poverty and fighting for our planet”.
The leaders resolved to act
- accelerate strong, sustainable, balanced and inclusive growth;
- accelerate the full & effective implementation of 2030 Agenda
- pursue low-carbon and environmentally sustainable development pathways;
- Pursue reforms for better, comprehensive and more effective finance avenues.
The leaders commit to “taking collective actions for effective and timely implementation of the G-20 2023 Action Plan to accelerate progress on the SDG's; including through actions on eliminating hunger and malnutrition, strengthening global health and implementation of One Health approach, and delivering quality education.”
(a) State and discuss the importance of collective fight in achieving SDG's. 3
(b) Discuss briefly the action plan of G-20 leaders in promoting ‘One Health’ approach. 3
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(a) Collective fight in achieving SDGs will be instrumental in the effective and timely implementation of the G-20 2023 Action Plan by eliminating hunger and malnutrition, strengthening global health, ensuring the implementation of One Health approach and delivering quality education. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
(b) The action plan of G-20 leaders in promoting ‘One Health’ approach is to accelerate strong, sustainable, balanced & inclusive growth and full & effective implementation of 2030 Agenda. It also aims to pursue low-carbon & environmentally sustainable development pathways and reforms for better, comprehensive & more effective finance avenues. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q63.2024 Main 58/5/1 · Q346 marks
Read the following text carefully:
India has aimed to reduce the country’s carbon intensity by approximately 45% by 2030. To achieve this ‘Green finance’ plays a vital role. At the initial stages, green finance needs a big push from the government. The Indian government has identified projects worth ₹ 25,000 crore that will be financed by proceeds from Sovereign Green Bonds.
According to the framework approved by finance ministry, the sovereign green bonds will focus on financing public projects including renewable energy, climate change, clean transportation, sustainable water and waste management and pollution control.
Businesses that take green finance can get benefit in various ways. It can help them follow different environmental norms and regulations and thus avoid possible fines. Adopting sustainable developmental practices enhances brand value of businesses. Customers tend to prefer brands that adopt clear sustainable development practices. The energy-efficient and other sustainable development practices promoted by green finance also often help in saving cost, boosting profitability of businesses etc.
– The Economic Times, April 22, 2023 (Modified)
On the basis of given text and common understanding, answer the following questions:
(a) Define sustainable development. 1
(b) State the public project areas, where Sovereign Green Bond are focussed. 2
(c) How can businesses get benefit from green finance? 3
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(a) Sustainable development is the development that meets the need of the present generation without compromising the ability of the future generation to meet their own needs. [1]
(b) The Sovereign Green Bonds focus on financing public projects such as renewable energy, climate change, clean transportation, sustainable water and waste management and pollution control. [2]
(c) Green finance can benefit businesses in the following ways:
- It can help them follow different environmental norms and regulations and thus avoid possible fines.
- Adopting sustainable developmental practices enhances brand value of businesses.
- The energy-efficient practices help in saving cost, boosting profitability of businesses etc.
[3] (To be marked as a whole)
(Any other valid argument to be awarded marks)
Q64.SQP 2026-27 · Q346 marks
Refer to the following text carefully:
India is adopting a multifaceted approach to mitigate global warming by diversifying its energy sources and enhancing access while also increasing the share of non-fossil fuels, improving energy efficiency, and promoting stability across its energy systems. India’s energy transition is being pursued through a combination of initiatives across various sectors, including nuclear, solar, and wind energy, green hydrogen, battery storage, and critical minerals, which help to address both energy security and transition imperatives simultaneously.
India has already surpassed the goal of 50 per cent installed power capacity from non-fossil fuel sources, which stood at 51.93% at the end of December 2025, supported by record annual additions of renewable energy capacity. The progress in expanding non-fossil fuel-based power capacity has been supported by a wide variety of initiatives to boost renewable energy systems. Additionally, new measures are being taken to support other clean sources of energy such as the National Nuclear Mission, the Green Hydrogen Mission, and the Bio Energy Programme.
Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2219915&utm_source=chatgpt.com®=3&lang=2 (adapted and modified)
On the basis of the given text and common understanding, answer the following questions:
(I) State the meaning of Global Warming.
(II) India has already achieved more than 50% of its installed power capacity from non-fossil fuel sources. Identify any two major government initiatives that support this transition.
(III) Elaborate any two strategies adopted by India to ensure sustainable development.
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 · Marking Scheme
(I) Global warming is a gradual increase in the average temperature of the earth’s lower atmosphere as a result of the increase in greenhouse gases. [1]
(II) Two major government initiatives are:
- National Nuclear Mission [½]
- Green Hydrogen Mission [½]
(III) Two strategies adopted by India to ensure sustainable development are:
- Use of wind energy: In areas where speed of wind is usually high, windmills can be used to generate electricity without any adverse impact on the environment. Although the initial cost is high but the benefits are such that the high cost gets easily absorbed. [2]
- Use of solar energy: With the help of photovoltaic cells/solar panels, solar energy can be converted into electricity. This technology is extremely useful for remote areas and for places where supply of power through grid or power lines is either not possible or proves very costly. This technique is free from pollution. [2]
Part B · Indian Economic Development
13. Comparative Development Experiences of India and its Neighbours
Q1.2026 Main 58/1/1 · Q271 mark
Arrange the following events in China’s economic development history in correct chronological sequence and select the correct option:
I. Great Proletarian Cultural Revolution.
II. Great leap forward
III. Introduction of Economic Reforms
IV. Launch of the First Five Year Plan
Options:
- II, IV, III, I
- IV, II, I, III
- II, IV, I, III
- IV, I, II, III
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(B) IV, II, I, III
Q2.2026 Main 58/2/1 · Q261 mark
China adopted _________ strategy in which farmers and industries bought and sold certain quantities at government fixed prices, while remaining transactions occurred at market prices. (Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)
Options:
- Dual Pricing
- Special Economic Zones
- Great Proletarian Cultural Revolution
- Great Leap Forward
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(A) Dual Pricing
Q3.2026 Main 58/3/1 · Q191 mark
Arrange the following events of Pakistan in correct chronological order :
I. Nationalisation of capital goods industries
II. Establishment of Pakistan
III. Introduction of economic reforms
IV. Announcement of First Five Year Plan
(Choose the correct option)
Options :
- III, IV, I, II
- III, II, I, IV
- IV, III, II, I
- II, IV, I, III
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/3/1
(D) II, IV, I, III
Q4.2026 Main 58/3/1 · Q231 mark
Read the following text carefully:
“Between 1966 – 67, Mao introduced this movement under which professionals and students were asked to work and learn from the countryside of China.”
Identify the correct option with reference to the aforesaid text.
- Commune System
- Great Leap Forward
- Open Door Policy
- Great Proletarian Cultural Revolution
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/3/1
(D) Great Proletarian Cultural Revolution
Q5.2026 Main 58/3/1 · Q251 mark
Nations worldwide typically establish Regional and Global economic groups in order to _______. (Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)
Options:
- Strengthen their economies
- Ensure liberty
- Promote judicial independence
- Gain control over other countries
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/3/1
(A) Strengthen their economies
Q6.2026 Main 58/3/1 · Q271 mark
Identify, which of the following is an income indicator. (Choose the correct option)
Options:
- Mortality rate
- Malnourishment
- GDP per capita
- Morbidity rate
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/3/1
(C) GDP per capita
Q7.2026 Main 58/4/1 · Q251 mark
Identify the correct option with reference to the following statement:
“Farmers and industrial units were required to transact fixed quantities of raw materials and finished goods on the basis of prices fixed by the government, while the rest were purchased and sold at market price.”
Options:
- Great Leap Forward
- Dual Pricing Policy
- Special Economic Zones (SEZs)
- Commune System
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(B) Dual Pricing Policy
Q8.2026 Main 58/5/1 · Q261 mark
Read the following statements: Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose the correct option from those given below:
Assertion (A): India is a member of various regional and economic groupings such as BRICS, G20, etc.
Reason (R): Membership of economic and regional groupings helps a nation to understand their strengths and weaknesses in comparison to other nations.
Options:
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
- Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
- Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
Q9.2026 Supp 58/7/1 · Q271 mark
From the set of terms given in Column I and the corresponding facts given in Column II, choose the correct pair:
| Column I | | Column II |
|---|
| a. | Great Leap Forward | i. | Students and professionals were sent to the countryside |
| b. | Great Proletarian Cultural Revolution | ii. | Aimed at bringing changes in agriculture and industry |
| c. | Economic Reforms in China | iii. | Aimed at nationalisation of capital good industries |
| d. | Establishment of People’s Republic of China | iv. | All critical sectors were brought under government control |
Options:
- a-i
- b-ii
- c-iii
- d-iv
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Supplementary), Set 58/7/1
(D) d-iv
Q10.2025 Main 58/1/1 · Q181 mark
______ sector was the primary focus of the Great Leap Forward in China. (Fill up the blank with correct option)
Options:
- Tax
- Industrial
- Financial
- Educational
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(B) Industrial
Q11.2025 Main 58/1/1 · Q231 mark
Read the following statements carefully: Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose the correct option from those given below:
Assertion (A): Prior to economic reforms, public investment in social infrastructure by China resulted in better Human Development Indicators (HDI).
Reason (R): China is ahead of India and Pakistan on many Human Development Indicators (HDI).
Options:
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
- Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
Q12.2025 Main 58/1/1 · Q251 mark
From the following terms given in Column-I, match the correct pair of meaning given in Column-II:
| Column-I | Column-II |
|---|
| (a) Human Development Indicator | (i) Rule of Law |
| (b) Demographic Indicator | (ii) Constitutional Protection |
| (c) Special Economic Zone | (iii) Generation of additional economic activities |
| (d) Commune System | (iv) Collective industrialisation |
Options:
- (a) – (i)
- (b) – (ii)
- (c) – (iii)
- (d) – (iv)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(C) (c) – (iii)
Q13.2025 Main 58/1/1 · Q271 mark
India is NOT a member of which of the following regional/global economic grouping?
- BRICS
- SAARC
- G-20
- G-7
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(D) G-7
Q14.2025 Main 58/2/1 · Q191 mark
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement 1: In 1978, commune lands were divided into small plots to the individual households for cultivation.
Statement 2: Under commune system, professionals were sent to work and learn from the country side.
In the light of the given statements, choose the correct option from the following:
- Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
- Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
- Both statements 1 and 2 are true.
- Both statements 1 and 2 are false.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(A) Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
Q15.2025 Main 58/4/1 · Q201 mark
Identify, which of the following does not indicate the similarities in the policies of India and Pakistan in the post 1947 period.
- Dual pricing policy
- Green revolution
- Import substitution
- Mixed economic system
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(A) Dual pricing policy
Q16.2025 Main 58/5/1 · Q271 mark
Study the following image carefully:

From the following, choose the correct option which indicates similarities in the policies of India and Pakistan, in the post-1947 period: (Choose the correct option)
- Dual pricing policy
- Commune system
- Import substitution
- Great Proletarian Cultural Revolution
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(C) Import substitution
Q17.2025 Main 58/6/1 · Q191 mark
Mao initiated the ‘Great Leap Forward’ movement in the year ___________. (Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)
- 1951
- 1955
- 1958
- 1962
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/6/1
(C) 1958
Q18.2025 Main 58/6/1 · Q231 mark
In China, under __________, peasants were provided with pooled land to create larger fields that could yield greater output and they shared farm implements. (Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)
- Joint Farming System
- Commune System
- Great Proletarian Cultural Revolution
- Green Revolution
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/6/1
(B) Commune System
Q19.2025 Main 58/6/1 · Q251 mark
__________ indicator may be defined as the measure of the extent of demographic participation in social and political decision-making. (Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)
- Economic
- Liberty
- Health
- Demographic
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/6/1
(B) Liberty
Q20.2025 Main 58/6/1 · Q271 mark
Which of the following country/countries followed the Five-Year Planning structure of economic development? (Choose the correct option)
(i) India
(ii) China
(iii) Pakistan
(iv) USA
Options:
- (i), (ii) and (iii)
- (ii) and (iii)
- (i) and (iv)
- Only (iv)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/6/1
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Q21.2025 Main 58/7/1 · Q231 mark
Recently, India hosted and chaired the summit of __________ one of the regional and economic groupings. (Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)
- SAARC
- G8
- ASEAN
- G20
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/7/1
(D) G20
Q22.2025 Main 58/7/1 · Q251 mark
__________ is one of the demographic indicators in which Pakistan is ahead of India and China. (Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)
- Urbanisation
- Fertility rate
- Population density
- Sex ratio
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/7/1
(B) Fertility rate
Q23.2025 Supp 58/S/1 · Q181 mark
In 2018, Pakistan implemented its __________ five year development plan. (Choose the correct alternative to fill in the blank)
- 10th
- 11th
- 12th
- 13th
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Supplementary), Set 58/S/1
(C) 12th
Q24.2025 Supp 58/S/1 · Q201 mark
Read the following statements : Assertion (A) and Reason (R) carefully. Choose the correct alternative from those given below:
Assertion (A): India and Pakistan adopted many similar strategies for their respective economic developmental paths.
Reason (R): In late 1970s, India and Pakistan came up with the policy of denationalisation of capital goods industries.
Alternatives:
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
- Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Supplementary), Set 58/S/1
(C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
Q25.2025 Supp 58/S/1 · Q221 mark
The geographical areas in which specific laws are applied to encourage foreign investments are known as __________. (Choose the correct alternative to fill in the blank)
- European Union
- G-7
- G-20
- Special Economic Zones
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Supplementary), Set 58/S/1
(D) Special Economic Zones
Q26.2025 Supp 58/S/1 · Q231 mark
The extent of constitutional protection of the independence of the Judiciary and the Rule of Law, is an example of ____________ indicator. (Choose the correct alternative to fill in the blank)
- economic growth
- liberty
- human destruction
- human values
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Supplementary), Set 58/S/1
(B) liberty
Q27.2024 Main 58/1/1 · Q191 mark
In the decade of the 1970s, Pakistan nationalized its ________ industries. (Choose the correct alternative to fill in the blank)
- Medical infrastructure
- Consumer goods
- Capital goods
- Foreign trade
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(C) Capital goods
Q28.2024 Main 58/1/1 · Q231 mark
Read the following statements- Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose the correct alternative given below:
Assertion (A): China has used the market mechanism to create additional social and economic opportunities for its citizens.
Reason (R): Social infrastructure creation by the government has brought positive results in human development indicators in China.
Alternatives:
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
- Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A)
Q29.2024 Main 58/1/1 · Q251 mark
Economic reforms were introduced in India and Pakistan in the years ___________ and ____________, respectively. (Choose the correct alternative to fill in the blanks)
- 1988, 1978
- 1991, 1978
- 1991, 1988
- 1981, 1991
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(C) 1991, 1988
Q30.2024 Main 58/1/1 · Q271 mark
Identify which of the following is not a member nation of G20:
- Brazil
- Australia
- Bangladesh
- Argentina
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(C) Bangladesh
Q31.2024 Main 58/2/1 · Q191 mark
China was able to control its rapid population growth rate owing to ________ . (Choose the correct alternative to fill in the blank)
- Economic reforms
- One-Child Policy
- Great Proletarian Cultural Revolution
- Special Economic Zones
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(B) One-Child Policy
Q32.2024 Main 58/2/1 · Q211 mark
The present day rapid industrial growth in China can be traced back to the economic reforms introduced in 1978, where_____________. (Choose the correct alternative to fill in the blank)
(i) initially reforms were initiated in agriculture, foreign trade and investment sectors
(ii) the policy of dual pricing was adopted
(iii) the Government revoked the policy of Special Economic Zones
Alternatives:
- Only (i)
- only (ii)
- (i) and (ii)
- (i), ( ii) and (iii)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(C) (i) and (ii)
Q33.2024 Main 58/2/1 · Q231 mark
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement 1: India, Pakistan and China have similar physical endowments, but totally different political systems.
Statement 2: Both India and Pakistan laid great emphasis on creating a large private sector.
In the light of the given statements, choose the correct alternative from the following:
- Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
- Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(A) Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
Q34.2024 Main 58/2/1 · Q261 mark
After the implementation of economic reforms, Pakistan experienced slowdown of growth due to various reasons including _________. (Choose the correct alternative to fill in the blank)
(i) Volatile performance of the agriculture sector
(ii) Over-dependence on remittances from abroad
(iii) Political instability
Alternatives:
- (i) and (ii)
- (ii) and (iii)
- (i), (ii) and (iii)
- (i) and (iii)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Q35.2024 Main 58/3/1 · Q191 mark
Identify which of the following alternatives are not true with reference to the Chinese economy.
(i) In 1958, communes were established.
(ii) In the foreign sector, Special Economic Zones (SEZ) were set up.
(iii) Better health facilities reduced mortality rate in China.
Alternatives:
- (i) and (ii)
- (ii) and (iii)
- (i), (ii) and (iii)
- (i) and (iii)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/3/1
One mark to be awarded to all the candidates attempting the question [1]
Q36.2024 Main 58/3/1 · Q231 mark
Identify which of the following is not a member nation of G20.
- Argentina
- Australia
- Brazil
- Bangladesh
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/3/1
(D) Bangladesh [1]
Q37.2024 Main 58/3/1 · Q251 mark
Identify which of the following is not a Human Development Indicator (HDI).
- Life Expectancy at Birth
- Adult Literacy Rate
- Maternal Mortality Rate
- Unemployment
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/3/1
(D) Unemployment [1]
Q38.2024 Main 58/3/1 · Q271 mark
On the basis of the data given below, identify the incorrect statement with reference to annual growth of GDP (%):
Annual Growth of Gross Domestic Product (%), 1980 - 2017
| Country | 1980 - 90 | 2015 - 2017 |
|---|
| India | 5.7 | 7.3 |
| China | 10.3 | 6.8 |
| Pakistan | 6.3 | 5.3 |
Alternatives:
- Pakistan and China experienced a fall in growth rate during 2015-17.
- China achieved double-digit growth rate in 1980-1990.
- GDP of India accelerated moderately in 2015-2017 period.
- Pakistan was ahead of India during 1980-2017 in terms of GDP.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/3/1
(D) Pakistan was ahead of India during 1980-2017 in terms of GDP. [1]
Q39.2024 Main 58/4/1 · Q201 mark
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement 1: China has used the market mechanism to create additional social and economic opportunities for its citizens.
Statement 2: In China, Social Infrastructure created by the government brought positive results in human development indicators.
In the light of the given statements, choose the correct alternative from the following :
- Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
- Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
- Both Statement 1 and 2 are true.
- Both Statement 1 and 2 are false.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(C) Both Statement 1 and 2 are true. [1]
Q40.2024 Main 58/4/1 · Q231 mark
Economic reforms were introduced in the year___________ in India and in the year _______________in Pakistan. (Fill up the blanks with correct alternative.)
- 1978, 1988
- 1988, 1978
- 1978, 1991
- 1991, 1988
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(D) 1991, 1988 [1]
Q41.2024 Main 58/4/1 · Q251 mark
Read the following statements — Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose one of the correct alternatives given below:
Assertion (A): The developmental experiences of India and Pakistan have a lot of similarities.
Reason (R): Both India and Pakistan laid emphasis on creating a large private sector.
Alternatives :
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
- Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false. [1]
Q42.2024 Main 58/4/1 · Q271 mark
In the decade of 1970's, Pakistan nationalised its __________industry. (Fill up the blank with correct alternative.)
- Medical infrastructure
- Consumer goods
- Capital goods
- Foreign trade
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(C) Capital goods [1]
Q43.2024 Main 58/5/1 · Q191 mark
From the events given in Column-I and facts given in Column-II about China, choose the correct pair:
| Column - I | Column - II |
|---|
| (a) Structural transformation | (i) Limited Urbanisation |
| (b) Great leap forward campaign | (ii) Reduced global demand for Chinese products |
| (c) Less stress of usage on natural resources | (iii) Low density of population |
| (d) Slowdown in GDP, since 2014 | (iv) Aimed at massive industrialisation |
Alternatives:
- (a) – (i)
- (b) – (ii)
- (c) – (iii)
- (d) – (iv)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(C) (c) – (iii) [1]
Q44.2024 Main 58/5/1 · Q231 mark
Introduction of Economic Reforms in Pakistan took place in year________. (Fill up the blank with correct alternative.)
- 1978
- 1980
- 1988
- 1991
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(C) 1988 [1]
Q45.2024 Main 58/5/1 · Q241 mark
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement 1: China has used Market system mechanism without loosing political commitment to create additional social and economic opportunities.
Statement 2: India, Pakistan and China have similar physical endowments but totally different Political systems.
- Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
- Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(C) Both Statements 1 and 2 are true. [1]
Q46.2024 Main 58/5/1 · Q251 mark
__________ indicator may be defined as the measure of the extent of demographic participation in Social and Political decision making in a Country. (Fill up the blank with correct alternative.)
- Economic
- Health
- Demographic
- Liberty
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(D) Liberty [1]
Q47.2024 Supp 58/S/1 · Q191 mark
In 1965, Mao introduced the ____________ under which students and professionals were sent to work and learn from the countryside. (Choose the correct alternative to fill in the blank)
- Great Leap Forward Campaign
- Commune System
- Great Proletarian Cultural Revolution
- Medium Term Development Plan
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Supplementary), Set 58/S/1
(C) Great Proletarian Cultural Revolution [1]
Q48.2024 Supp 58/S/1 · Q221 mark
Under the economic reforms introduced in China in 1978, ______ were set up to attract foreign investors. (Choose the correct alternative to fill in the blank)
- Remittance Zones
- Land Zones
- Special Commune Zones
- Special Economic Zones
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Supplementary), Set 58/S/1
(D) Special Economic Zones [1]
Q49.2024 Supp 58/S/1 · Q231 mark
___________ is geographically the largest nation among India, China and Pakistan and its density is _______ among the three nations. (Choose the correct alternative to fill in the blanks)
- China, highest
- Pakistan, lowest
- India, lowest
- China, lowest
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Supplementary), Set 58/S/1
(D) China, lowest [1]
Q50.2024 Supp 58/S/1 · Q271 mark
__________ measure introduced in China led to the decline in its population as well as sex ratio. (Choose the correct alternative to fill in the blank)
- Nationalisation of capital goods
- Denationalisation of capital goods
- One-child norm
- Two-child norm
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Supplementary), Set 58/S/1
(C) One-child norm [1]
Q51.2023 Main 58/1/1 · Q21(a)1 mark
The Great Leap Forward (GLF) campaign in China focused on _________. (Choose the correct alternative to fill up the blank)
- Widespread industrialisation
- New agricultural strategy
- Privatisation
- Economic reforms
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(a) Widespread industrialisation
Q52.2023 Main 58/1/1 · Q21(b)1 mark
India is not a member of which of the following regional / global economic groups?
- European Union
- BRICS
- G20
- SAARC
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(a) European Union
Q53.2023 Main 58/1/1 · Q231 mark
Identify the correct alternative with reference to the following statement:
“Between 1966-76, Mao introduced this movement under which professionals and students were asked to work and learn from real life situations prevailing in the countryside of China.”
- Commune System
- Great Leap Forward
- Open Door Policy
- Great Proletarian Cultural Revolution
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(d) Great Proletarian Cultural Revolution
Q54.2023 Main 58/1/1 · Q241 mark
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement 1: In both India and Pakistan, the service sector has been emerging as a major source of development.
Statement 2: Amongst the neighbours of India, China has the highest life expectancy rate.
In light of the given statements, choose the correct alternative from the following:
- Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
- Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(c) Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
Q55.2023 Main 58/1/1 · Q271 mark
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement 1: India announced its First Five Year Plan in 1951.
Statement 2: India, Pakistan and China adopted economic planning as the core development strategy.
In light of the given statements, choose the correct alternative from the following:
- Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
- Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(c) Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
Q56.2023 Main 58/2/1 · Q211 mark
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement 1: China introduced structural economic reforms on its own, without any pressure.
Statement 2: Scholars argue that in India, the economic reforms process led to the worsening of all the economic indicators.
In the light of the given statements, choose the correct alternatives from the following:
- Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
- Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(a) Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
Q57.2023 Main 58/2/1 · Q24(a)1 mark
China initiated __________ in 1958, that aimed at industrializing the country on a massive scale. (Fill up the blank with correct alternative)
- The Great Proletarian Cultural Revolution
- Setting up of Special Economic Zones
- Introduction of Economic Reforms
- The Great Leap Forward Campaign
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(d) The Great Leap Forward Campaign.
Q58.2023 Main 58/2/1 · Q24(b)1 mark
________ acts as a measure of 'the extent of democratic participation in social and political decision-making.’ (Fill up the blank with correct alternative)
- Human Development Index
- Liberty Indicator
- Economic Growth
- Poverty Index
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(b) Liberty Indicator
Q59.2023 Main 58/2/1 · Q261 mark
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement 1: Amongst India, China and Pakistan, China is the largest nation and has the highest population density.
Statement 2: One-child policy introduced in the late 1970s in China led to a considerable decline in the population growth rate.
In the light of the given statements, choose the correct alternative from the following:
- Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
- Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(b) Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
Q60.2023 Main 58/2/1 · Q271 mark
On the basis of the data given below, identify the incorrect statement in terms of annual growth of GDP (%): (Choose the correct alternative)
Annual Growth of Gross Domestic Product (%), 1980-2017
| Country | 1980-90 | 2015-17 |
|---|
| India | 5.7 | 7.3 |
| China | 10.3 | 6.8 |
| Pakistan | 6.3 | 5.3 |
Source: Key Indicators for Asia and Pacific 2016. Asian Development Bank. Philippines: World Development Indicators 2018
Alternatives:
- China was able to maintain near double-digit growth during the 1980s.
- Pakistan was ahead of India during 1980-2017.
- India experienced a rapid rise in Gross Domestic Product during 2015-17
- Both China and Pakistan experienced a decline in growth rate during 2015-17.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(b) Pakistan was ahead of India during 1980 – 2017.
Q61.2023 Main 58/3/1 · Q20(a)1 mark
Identify the correct alternative with reference to the following statement:
"Between 1966 - 76, Mao introduced this movement under which professionals and students were asked to work and learn from real life situations prevailing in the countryside of China."
- Commune System
- Great Leap Forward
- Open Door Policy
- Great Proletarian Cultural Revolution
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/3/1
(d) Great Proletarian Cultural Revolution
Q62.2023 Main 58/3/1 · Q20(b)1 mark
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement 1: In the agricultural sector, communes were established, where land holdings were allocated to individual households for ownership.
Statement 2: Special Economic Zones (SEZs) were established to attract foreign investments and technology.
In light of the given statements, choose the correct alternative from the following:
- Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
- Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/3/1
(b) Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true
Q63.2023 Main 58/3/1 · Q221 mark
"Multiple reasons for economic slowdown and re-emergence of poverty in Pakistan may be enumerated."
Identify which of the following might not be one of them.
(i) Rising dependence on foreign loans
(ii) Stable macroeconomic indicators
(iii) Unstable agricultural growth
Alternatives:
- (i), (ii) and (iii)
- (ii) and (iii)
- (i) and (iii)
- Only (ii)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/3/1
(d) Only (ii)
Q64.2023 Main 58/3/1 · Q241 mark
Read the following statements: Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose the correct alternative from those given below.
Assertion (A): Lower child mortality rate is a better indicator of gender equality.
Reason (R): Preference for a male child exists in India, Pakistan and China.
Alternatives:
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
- Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
- Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/3/1
(d) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Q65.2023 Main 58/3/1 · Q271 mark
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement 1: One-child policy' was very effectively used in controlling the population by the Chinese authorities.
Statement 2: One-child policy, according to scholars, led to a decline in gender ratio (the proportion of females per 1000 males).
In light of the given statements, choose the correct alternative from the following:
- Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
- Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/3/1
(c) Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
Q66.2023 Main 58/4/1 · Q20(a)1 mark
Economic reforms were introduced in the year ________ in India and in the year ______ in Pakistan. (Choose the correct alternative to fill up the blank)
- 1978, 1988
- 1988, 1978
- 1978, 1991
- 1991, 1988
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(d) 1991, 1988
Q67.2023 Main 58/4/1 · Q20(b)1 mark
Pakistan is ahead of India in the case of_____. (Choose the correct alternative to fill up the blank)
- HDI value
- Per capita income
- Access to sanitation facilities
- Life expectancy at birth
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(c) Access to sanitation facilities
Q68.2023 Main 58/4/1 · Q221 mark
Arrange the following events of China in chronological order and choose the correct alternative:
(i) Great Proletarian Cultural Revolution
(ii) Great Leap Forward Campaign
(iii) Introduction of Economic Reforms
(iv) First Five Year Plan
Alternatives:
- (ii), (iv), (iii), (i)
- (iv), (ii), (i), (iii)
- (ii), (iv), (i), (iii)
- (iv), (i), (ii), (iii)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(b) (iv), (ii), (i), (iii)
Q69.2023 Main 58/4/1 · Q241 mark
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement 1: ‘Liberty indicators’ measure the extent of constitutional protection given to the citizens.
Statement 2: India provides fair constitutional protection to its citizens.
In light of the given statements, choose the correct alternative from the following:
- Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
- Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(c) Both statements 1 and 2 are true.
Q70.2023 Main 58/4/1 · Q271 mark
Read the following statements: Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose the correct alternative given below.
Assertion (A): China adopted the 'Open Door Policy' as a major economic reform initiative.
Reason (R): It aimed at industrialising the country on a massive scale.
Alternatives:
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
- Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
- Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
Q71.2023 Main 58/5/1 · Q20(a)1 mark
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement 1: Great Proletarian Cultural Revolution was introduced in China in 1950's.
Statement 2: China's growth is mainly contributed by the manufacturing sector.
In the light of given statements, choose the correct alternative from the following:
- Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
- Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
- Both statements 1 and 2 are true.
- Both statements 1 and 2 are false.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(d) Both statements 1 and 2 are false.
Q72.2023 Main 58/5/1 · Q20(b)1 mark
Identify the incorrect statement from the following: (Choose the correct alternative)
- China's Economic growth rate is better than that of Pakistan.
- Pakistan is behind India in HDI ranking.
- One Child Policy norm was adopted in Pakistan
- In 1991, India adopted New Economic Reforms.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(c) One Child Policy norm was adopted in Pakistan.
Q73.2023 Main 58/5/1 · Q221 mark
Read the following statements - Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose one of the correct alternatives given below:
Assertion (A): During 1980's, economic growth rate of Pakistan was more than that of India.
Reason (R): Pakistan followed the path of mixed economic structure with equal participation of the public and the private sector.
Alternatives:
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
- Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
- Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(c) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
Q74.2023 Main 58/5/1 · Q241 mark
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement 1: Special Economic Zones (SEZ's) policy has led to huge Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) flow to China.
Statement 2: China's rapid industrial growth was the result of its economic reform in 1981.
In the light of the given statements, choose the correct alternative:
- Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
- Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
- Both statements 1 and 2 are true.
- Both statements 1 and 2 are false.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(a) Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
Q75.2023 Main 58/5/1 · Q271 mark
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement 1: First Five Year Plan of China commenced in the year 1956.
Statement 2: Both India and China adopted Socialist Economy model, following USSR.
In the light of the given statements, choose the correct alternative:
- Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
- Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
- Both statements 1 and 2 are true.
- Both statements 1 and 2 are false.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(d) Both statements 1 and 2 are false.
Q76.2023 Supp 58/C/1 · Q24(a)1 mark
Read the following statements : Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose the correct alternative from those given below:
Assertion (A): China has the highest life expectancy in the world.
Reason (R): Maternal Mortality Rate of India is higher than that of China.
Alternatives :
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
- Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
- Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
- Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Supplementary), Set 58/C/1
(d) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Q77.2023 Supp 58/C/1 · Q24(b)1 mark
In China, reforms were introduced in phased manner. In the second and later phases, reforms were introduced in ___________ sector. (Choose the correct alternative to fill up the blank)
- Agriculture
- Industrial
- Foreign Trade
- Demographic
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Supplementary), Set 58/C/1
(b) Industrial
Q78.2023 Supp 58/C/1 · Q251 mark
In the 1970s, Pakistan nationalised the industries related to ____________ goods. (Choose the correct alternative to fill up the blank)
- Consumer
- Sports
- Capital
- Defence
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Supplementary), Set 58/C/1
(c) Capital
Q79.2023 Supp 58/C/1 · Q261 mark
India is not a member of which of the following regional/global economic groups? (Choose the correct alternative)
- SAARC
- BRICS
- G-7
- G-20
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Supplementary), Set 58/C/1
(c) G-7
Q80.2023 Supp 58/C/1 · Q271 mark
In terms of the sectoral contribution to Gross Domestic Product (GDP), economy of India is relying more on _________ sector. (Choose the correct alternative to fill up the blank)
- Primary
- Secondary
- Tertiary
- Financial
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Supplementary), Set 58/C/1
(c) Tertiary
Q81.SQP 2025-26 · Q271 mark
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement 1: Great Leap Forward (GLF) campaign met with many problems like severe drought, conflict with Russia etc.
Statement 2: Under agricultural reforms, commune lands were allocated to individual households for ownership, who were allowed to keep all post-tax income.
In light of the given statements, choose the correct option from the following:
- Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
- Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 · Marking Scheme
(A) Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
Q82.SQP 2026-27 · Q181 mark
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement 1: In the normal course of development, countries shift employment and output from agriculture to industry and then to services.
Statement 2: The service sector is the key driver of development for both India and Pakistan, with a direct shift from agriculture to service sector.
In light of the given statements, choose the correct option from the following:
- Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
- Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
- Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 · Marking Scheme
(C) Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
Q83.SQP 2026-27 · Q231 mark
Arrange the following events in chronological order:
(i) Introduction of economic reforms in Pakistan
(ii) China’s Great Proletarian Cultural Revolution
(iii) Nationalisation of capital goods industries in Pakistan
(iv) India’s last Five-Year Plan
Choose the correct option:
- (ii) → (iii) → (i) → (iv)
- (iii) → (ii) → (i) → (iv)
- (ii) → (i) → (iii) → (iv)
- (iii) → (i) → (ii) → (iv)
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 · Marking Scheme
(A) (ii) → (iii) → (i) → (iv)
Q84.2026 Main 58/1/1 · Q293 marks
“In the late 1970’s China’s population growth rate has sharply declined as compared to India.”
Elucidate the reasons and impacts of this situation.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/1/1
In the late 1970s, China experienced a sharp decline in its population growth rate compared to India due to the implementation of one-child policy introduced by the government. [1½]
This policy led to an ageing population, with a higher proportion of elderly people as compared to the young population. [1½]
Q85.2026 Main 58/2/1 · Q283 marks
“In the late 1970s and 1980s, Pakistan experienced significant changes in its policies, incentives and new investments.”
Do you agree with the above statement? Justify your answer with valid arguments.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/2/1
Yes. In the late 1970s and 1980s, there was a shift in policy orientation in Pakistan emphasising on denationalisation and promotion of the private sector. Pakistan also received financial assistance from Western countries and remittances from emigrants to the Middle East, which stimulated economic growth. The government also offered incentives to the private sector, creating a conducive environment for new investments. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q86.2026 Main 58/4/1 · Q283 marks
Define Liberty Indicator and mention its significance.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/4/1
Liberty indicator may be defined as the measure of the extent of democratic participation in the social and political decision making. [1½]
Without including these indicators, the construction of a human development index may be incomplete and its usefulness limited. [1½]
Q87.2026 Main 58/5/1 · Q29(a)3 marks
‘‘At the time of independence, both India and Pakistan inherited similar colonial economic structures. Both the nations adopted many similar economic planning strategies.’’
Explain any two such similarities in the developmental path of India and Pakistan.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/5/1
Two similar developmental strategies adopted by India and Pakistan are:
- Both the nations have followed the path of mixed economic system involving the public as well as the private sector. [1½]
- Both India and Pakistan adopted import substitution policy in order to protect their domestic industries from foreign competition. [1½]
(Any other valid strategy to be awarded marks)
Q88.2026 Main 58/5/1 · Q29(b)3 marks
‘‘In 1958, China launched the Great Leap Forward (GLF) campaign with a definite aim.’’
(i) State the rationale behind the introduction of the Great Leap Forward (GLF) campaign.
(ii) State any two failures of the Great Leap Forward (GLF) campaign.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/5/1
(i) The rationale behind the introduction of Great Leap Forward (GLF) campaign was to promote industrialization in China on a massive scale. People were encouraged to set up industries in their backyards. [2]
(ii) The two failures of the Great Leap Forward (GLF) campaign were:
- A severe drought caused havoc in China. [½]
- Russia had conflicts with China and it withdrew its professionals. [½]
Q89.2026 Supp 58/7/1 · Q283 marks
“India and Pakistan followed similar developmental strategies for their own development paths.”
Do you agree with the given statement? Justify your answer with a relevant explanation.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Supplementary), Set 58/7/1
Yes. The similar developmental strategies adopted by both India and Pakistan are:
- They followed the path of mixed economic system involving the public as well as the private sector. [1½]
- They adopted import substitution policy in order to protect their domestic industries from foreign competition. [1½]
(Any other valid strategy to be awarded marks)
Q90.2025 Main 58/2/1 · Q283 marks
(a) Define liberty indicator.
(b) State any two liberty indicators.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(a) Liberty indicator may be defined as the measure of the extent of democratic participation in the social and political decision making. [1]
(b) Two liberty indicators are:
- The extent of Constitutional protection given to rights of citizens [1]
- The extent of constitutional protection of the Independence of the Judiciary and the Rule of Law [1]
Q91.2025 Main 58/4/1 · Q283 marks
Elaborate the economic reforms in agriculture sector undertaken by China.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/4/1
Under the economic reforms initiated by China in agriculture sector, commune lands were divided into small plots, which were allocated to individual households, for use and not ownership. They were allowed to keep all income from the land after paying stipulated taxes. (To be marked as a whole) [3]
Q92.2025 Main 58/5/1 · Q293 marks
Using the following data, analyse the sectoral contribution of India and Pakistan towards Gross Value Added (GVA).
Sectoral Share of Employment and GVA (%) in 2018-19
| Sector | Contribution to GVA | Distribution of Workforce |
|---|
| India | China | Pakistan | India | China | Pakistan |
|---|
| Agriculture | 16 | 7 | 24 | 43 | 26 | 41 |
| Industry | 30 | 41 | 19 | 25 | 28 | 24 |
| Services | 54 | 52 | 57 | 32 | 46 | 35 |
| Total | 100 | 100 | 100 | 100 | 100 | 100 |
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/5/1
The given data pertains to the sectoral share of Gross Value Added (GVA) of India and Pakistan. According to the given data, the contribution of the agricultural sector to GVA in India is 16% whereas, in Pakistan it is 24%. In India, the Industrial sector contributed 30% to GVA whereas this contribution stands at 19% in Pakistan. In India and Pakistan, the contribution of service sector to GVA is the highest, 54% and 57% respectively. Thus, in both the countries, service sector has emerged as a key contributor to growth. (To be marked as a whole) [3]
Q93.2022 Main 58/1/1 · Q123 marks
Case Study: Read the following text carefully and answer, Q. No.-12 and 13, given below:
Chinese Economy Risks Deeper Slowdown than Markets Realise - (Bloomberg, 24th October, 2021)
China's Economy risks slowdown faster than global investors realise. It is pushing to cut its dependence on real-estate. It has started regulating sectors from education to technology, as it is facing power shortage and the pandemic.
Many economists have warned that the GDP growth rate will fall to 8.2% this year and to below 5% in the next year.
China is now planning to stabilise debt growth, curb inequality and channelise resources into hi-tech manufacturing. Data released in last week already showed a sharp slow down in third quarter GDP growth to 4.9% from 7.9% in the previous quarter. There is more pain likely to come as electricity shortage persist, while new COVID 19 infections are expected to rise in coming days.
Even before the pandemic hit, China was surprising economists with slower-than-expected growth rate caused by the easing off debt risks.
China's Premier Li Keqiang, announced in March a growth target of "above 6%" in the coming financial year.
China has signalled, in recent weeks that it could loosen some policies like telling banks to pick up the pace of mortgage lending as a short term stimulus. Governor of People's Bank of China Yi Gang, recently said he sees an expansion of about 8% for this year.
China's slowdown comes as the global recovery from COVID-19 risks looses momentum. Among those at risks from falling investments in China are commodity exporters like Australia, South Africa, Chile, Peru and Brazil. Slower trades could also hit countries like Malaysia, Singapore and Thailand.
The other risk is that China's policy-makers may struggle to flick the switch back to growth model if they feel that's needed. Economists noted that the electricity shortages that are crimping industrial production will make it harder to cushion growth by boosting investment in infrastructure. That kind of policy could only work next year once the power crunch eases.
12. State and discuss any two reasons that exhibit slowdown in the Chinese economy.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 58/1/1
Two reasons exhibiting the slowdown in Chinese economy are
(i) Investment in China is expected to fall due to fall in demand from commodity exporters such as Australia, South Africa, Chile, Peru and Brazil. [1½]
(ii) Electricity shortages crimped industrial production; it will make it harder to cushion growth by boosting investment in infrastructure. [1½]
(any other valid point/ reason/argument to be awarded marks)
Q94.2022 Main 58/1/1 · Q133 marks
Case Study: Read the following text carefully and answer, Q. No.-12 and 13, given below:
Chinese Economy Risks Deeper Slowdown than Markets Realise - (Bloomberg, 24th October, 2021)
China's Economy risks slowdown faster than global investors realise. It is pushing to cut its dependence on real-estate. It has started regulating sectors from education to technology, as it is facing power shortage and the pandemic.
Many economists have warned that the GDP growth rate will fall to 8.2% this year and to below 5% in the next year.
China is now planning to stabilise debt growth, curb inequality and channelise resources into hi-tech manufacturing. Data released in last week already showed a sharp slow down in third quarter GDP growth to 4.9% from 7.9% in the previous quarter. There is more pain likely to come as electricity shortage persist, while new COVID 19 infections are expected to rise in coming days.
Even before the pandemic hit, China was surprising economists with slower-than-expected growth rate caused by the easing off debt risks.
China's Premier Li Keqiang, announced in March a growth target of "above 6%" in the coming financial year.
China has signalled, in recent weeks that it could loosen some policies like telling banks to pick up the pace of mortgage lending as a short term stimulus. Governor of People's Bank of China Yi Gang, recently said he sees an expansion of about 8% for this year.
China's slowdown comes as the global recovery from COVID-19 risks looses momentum. Among those at risks from falling investments in China are commodity exporters like Australia, South Africa, Chile, Peru and Brazil. Slower trades could also hit countries like Malaysia, Singapore and Thailand.
The other risk is that China's policy-makers may struggle to flick the switch back to growth model if they feel that's needed. Economists noted that the electricity shortages that are crimping industrial production will make it harder to cushion growth by boosting investment in infrastructure. That kind of policy could only work next year once the power crunch eases.
13. Discuss briefly any two measures, which you may suggest as an economic advisor to the Government of China.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 58/1/1
Two measures to curb the situation may be quoted as:
(i) Suggesting banks to pick up the pace of mortgage lending as a short-term stimulus. [1½]
(ii) Planning to cut dependence on real estates and regulate sectors from education to technology. [1½]
(any other valid point/ reason/argument to be awarded marks)
Q95.2022 Main 58/2/1 · Q63 marks
Based on the given data, compare any two parameters for the economies of India and China:
| S. No. | Items | India | China |
|---|
| (i) | Human Development Index (HDI) (Value) | 0.609 | 0.727 |
| (ii) | HDI (Rank) | 130 | 90 |
| (iii) | Life Expectancy at Birth (in years) | 68.2 | 75.8 |
| (iv) | GDP per capita (PPP $ US) | 5,730 | 13,572 |
Source: HDI Report 2014 & WDI
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(i) HDI (values) : Human Development Index (HDI) is an important indicator of socio-economic development. Higher value of HDI shows higher level of growth and development of a nation. As per the given report, HDI for India is 0·609, which is lesser than that of China (0.727).
(ii) HDI (rank) : Human Development Index (HDI) values are used to create ranking of different countries. China is placed at 90th position in the world whereas, India stands at 130th position. Higher rank indicates lower socio-economic development.
(iii) Life Expectancy at Birth (in year) : A country which provides better health and civic facilities secure a higher life expectancy for its citizens. China has higher life expectancy than India by an extra margin of approximately 8 years.
(iv) GDP per capita (PPP $ US) : Higher GDP per capita ensures higher ranking of China in Human Development Index (HDI) . China’s GDP per capita (PPP $ US ) is approximately more than twice than that of India. Higher level of income of people in the country is the direct result of greater economic activities in the country.
[1½ × 2]
(any two parameters to be marked)
Q96.2022 Main 58/2/1 · Q103 marks
"India and Pakistan initiated their journey of development, nearly at the same time, yet the two economies have travelled different distances." Justify the given statement with valid arguments.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 58/2/1
It is true that India and Pakistan started their journey of development nearly at the same time, in a similar way. Both the nations adopted policies like Economic Planning, dominance of public sector, high public expenditure etc. in the post 1947 period.
There has been a decline in the annual growth of GDP in Pakistan over the year, whereas India met with moderate increase in GDP. The probable reasons for slower growth in Pakistan are political instability, overdependence on remittance and foreign aid along with volatile performance of agricultural sector. However, India met with greater success owing to efficient economic planning and better implementation vis-a-vis Pakistan. [3]
(to be marked as a whole)
Q97.2022 Main 58/3/1 · Q83 marks
Explain briefly the problems faced by Great Leap Forward campaign.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 58/3/1
Great Leap Forward campaign met with many problems like :
- A severe drought caused havoc in China killing about 30 million people. [1½]
- Russia withdrew its professionals from China. These experts were earlier sent to China to boost /support the industrialization process. [1½]
Q98.2022 Main 58/3/1 · Q93 marks
Compare and analyse the Annual Growth rate of population of India and China.
| Country | Annual Growth rate of population (2015) |
|---|
| India | 1.2% |
| China | 0.5% |
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 58/3/1
The given data shows that India stands virtually more than double to China, in its annual population growth rate of 1.2% as compared to China’s annual population growth rate of 0.5% p.a.
China could arrest its annual population growth rate with the implementation of some stringent measure in late 1970’s, like the introduction of ‘One Child Norm’. This step was instrumental in controlling the growth of population in China. [3]
(to be marked as a whole)
Q99.2022 Main 58/4/1 · Q63 marks
“In the late 1970s China’s population growth rate had sharply declined as compared to India.” Elucidate the reason and impact of this situation.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 58/4/1
A sharp decline in population growth rate in China as compared to India in late 1970’s was mainly due to implementation of ‘one child policy’. As a result, China has witnessed a decline in the growth rate of population.
Consequently, the proportion of elderly people has risen in comparison to younger ones. [3]
(any other relevant point/reason/argument should be awarded marks accordingly) (to be marked as a whole)
Q100.2022 Main 58/4/1 · Q83 marks
Discuss briefly any two similar development strategies followed by India and Pakistan.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 58/4/1
Two similar developmental strategies opted by India and Pakistan for their respective development are:
- Both India and Pakistan have followed the path of mixed economic structure involving the participation of public as well as the private sector. [1½]
- Both India and Pakistan introduced import substitution policy in order to protect the domestic industries from foreign competition [1½]
(any other relevant point/reason/argument should be awarded marks accordingly)
Q101.2022 Main 58/5/1 · Q93 marks
Define ‘liberty indicator’ with the help of an example and state its importance.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 58/5/1
Liberty indicator may be defined as the measure of the extent of demographic participation in the social and political decision making.
For example: Measure of the extent of the constitutional protection rights, given to citizens.
It is important to include the liberty indicators. Without these the construction of a human development index may be said to be incomplete. [3]
(any other valid example/explanation to be allotted marks)
Q102.2022 Main 58/5/1 · Q103 marks
Briefly explain any two similar developmental strategies opted by India and Pakistan for their respective developmental path.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Main), Set 58/5/1
Two similar developmental strategies opted by India and Pakistan for their respective development are:
(i) Both of them have followed the path of mixed economic structure involving the participation of both public as well as the private sector. [1½]
(ii) Both India and Pakistan introduced import substitution policy in order to protect the domestic industries from foreign competition [1½]
(any other valid strategy to be allotted marks)
Q103.2022 Supp 58/6/1 · Q73 marks
On the basis of the following information, compare and analyse the population growth rate among the given countries:
| Country | Estimated Population (in million) | Annual Growth of Population (in %) |
|---|
| China | 1371 | 0.5 |
| Pakistan | 188 | 2.1 |
Source: World Development Indicators, 2017
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Supplementary), Set 58/6/1
The given data shows that, on annual population growth rate front, Pakistan (2.1%) stands virtually more than four times China (0.5%).
China could arrest its annual population growth rate, with the implementation of some stringent measures in the late 1970s, like the introduction of the ‘One Child Norm’. [3]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q104.2022 Supp 58/6/1 · Q103 marks
State any two reasons for slow economic growth and re-emergence of poverty in Pakistan.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2022 (Supplementary), Set 58/6/1
The reasons for the slowdown of growth and re-emergence of poverty in Pakistan’s economy were:
(i) Volatile performance of the agriculture sector due to lack of institutionalised process of technical change. [1½]
(ii) Over-dependence on remittances and foreign aid. [1½]
(any other relevant point/argument to be allotted marks)
Q105.SQP 2025-26 · Q283 marks
“Pakistan was maintaining a healthy economic growth momentum of 6.3% till 1990s, however it lost its track of economic growth falling to 5.3% between 2015-17.”
Do you agree with the given statement? Justify your answer with valid arguments.
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 · Marking Scheme
Yes. Pakistan maintained healthy growth rate till 1990s owing to the introduction of various policies such as Green Revolution and import substitution-based industrialisation.
However, later it faced slowdown to the magnitude of 5.3 % between 2015-17, due to several interconnected factors such as agricultural growth and food supply which were largely dependent on favourable harvest rather than a systematic process of technological advancement. Moreover, political instability, excessive reliance on remittances, and dependence on foreign aid, significantly hindered Pakistan's economic progress. [3]
Q106.2026 Main 58/1/1 · Q314 marks
“At the time of independence, both India and Pakistan inherited similar colonial economic structures. Both the nations adopted many similar economic planning strategies.”
Explain any two such similarities in the developmental path of India and Pakistan.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/1/1
Two similar developmental strategies adopted by India and Pakistan:
- Both the nations followed the path of mixed economic system involving the public as well as the private sector. [2]
- Both India and Pakistan adopted import substitution policy in order to protect their domestic industries from foreign competition. [2]
(Any other valid strategy to be awarded marks)
Q107.2026 Main 58/2/1 · Q324 marks
(i) State the meaning of ‘Commune system’. [1]
(ii) Explain any two reasons for the slow economic growth in Pakistan. [3]
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(i) The Commune system refers to a system in which people collectively cultivate agricultural land. [1]
(ii) Pakistan experienced slow economic growth owing to:
- its agricultural growth and food supply situation were based not on an institutionalised process of technical change but on good harvest. [1½]
- the problems of overdependence on remittances, rising foreign loans and increased difficulty in paying back the loans. [1½]
(Any other valid reason to be awarded marks)
Q108.2026 Main 58/3/1 · Q304 marks
On the basis of the given data, comment on trends of output growth in different sectors (1980 – 2018), between India and Pakistan.
| Country | 1980 – 90 | 2014 – 18 |
|---|
| Agriculture | Industry | Services | Agriculture | Industry | Services |
|---|
| India | 3·1 | 7·4 | 6·9 | 3·1 | 6·9 | 7·6 |
| Pakistan | 4 | 7·7 | 6·8 | 1·7 | 4·8 | 5·0 |
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/3/1
According to the given data, output growth in the agriculture sector for India remained stable at 3.1%, while Pakistan’s declined sharply from 4% to 1.7%. In the industrial sector, both countries experienced a slowdown, however, the decline was marginal (7.4% to 6.9%) for India and more severe for Pakistan (7.7% to 4.8%). In the service sector, India showed improvement, with growth rising from 6.9% to 7.6%, whereas Pakistan’s growth fell from 6.8% to 5%. Overall, India’s economic growth during this period was largely driven by the service sector, while Pakistan experienced deceleration in all the three sectors. [4]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q109.2026 Main 58/4/1 · Q324 marks
On the basis of the given data, outline and compare the share of Employment and Gross Value Added (GVA) of the sector that emerges to be a prospective employer in India and China.
| Sectoral Share of Employment and GDP (%) in 2021 |
|---|
| Sector | Contribution of GVA | Distribution of workforce |
|---|
| India | China | Pakistan | India | China | Pakistan |
|---|
| Agriculture | 19 | 8 | 24 | 46 | 23 | 37 |
| Industry | 29 | 39 | 20 | 25 | 32 | 25 |
| Services | 52 | 53 | 56 | 29 | 45 | 38 |
| Total | 100 | 100 | 100 | 100 | 100 | 100 |
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/4/1
The given data pertains to the sectoral share of employment and Gross Value Added (GVA). Due to topographic and climatic conditions, the cultivable area in China is relatively smaller than that of India. Hence, the contribution of the agricultural sector to the GVA in China is 8% employing 23% of its workforce, whereas in India it is 19% employing 46% of its workforce.
Owing to rapid industrialisation in China, the contribution of the industrial sector to GVA stands at 39% with 32% of the workforce as against corresponding figures of 29% and 25% in India.
Both the nations have similar contribution of the Service sector to GVA standing at 52% and 53% with corresponding 29% and 45% to the workforce, respectively in India and China. [4]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q110.2026 Main 58/5/1 · Q314 marks
On the basis of the given data, comment upon the annual growth of Gross Domestic Product (GDP) of India and China.
Annual Growth of Gross Domestic Product (%), 1980 – 2017
| Country | 1980-90 | 2015-17 | 2022 |
|---|
| India | 5.7 | 7.3 | 7.0 |
| China | 10.3 | 6.8 | 3.0 |
| Pakistan | 6.3 | 5.3 | 4.8 |
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Main), Set 58/5/1
The given data indicates that China gained economic strength after the reforms initiated in late 1970’s. When many developed countries were finding it difficult to maintain a growth rate of even 5%, China was able to maintain near double-digit growth during the decade of 1980s. The growth rate of China has decelerated to 6.8% in 2015-17 and further to 3.0% in 2022. Whereas; India had maintained a reasonable growth rate of 5.7% in the decade of 1980’s, it has shown remarkable progress by registering an annual growth of Gross Domestic Product of 7.3% and 7.0% respectively in 2015-17 and 2022. [4]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q111.2026 Supp 58/7/1 · Q304 marks
“Higher productivity has performed an economic miracle in China. Chinese productivity increased at an annual rate of 3.9% during 1979-94, compared to 1.1% during 1953-78. By the early 1990s, output growth exceeded 50%. Such explosive growth in productivity is remarkable.”
In the light of the given text and common understanding related to economics, discuss the most likely reasons behind this growth of productivity in China during 1979-94.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2026 (Supplementary), Set 58/7/1
The remarkable growth in China’s productivity during 1979-94 was mainly due to the introduction of economic reforms. Initially, reforms in agriculture, foreign trade, and investment allowed farmers to cultivate individual plots and retain surplus income after paying taxes, increasing efficiency and output. Later, industrial reforms encouraged private sector participation and introduced competition for government enterprises, leading to higher productivity, innovation and rapid economic growth. [4]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q112.2025 Main 58/1/1 · Q324 marks
Describe the path of developmental initiatives taken by Pakistan for its economic development.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/1/1
Pakistan adopted a mixed economy model with the co-existence of public and private sectors. A variety of regulated policy frameworks were initiated to ensure import substitution-based industrialisation.
The introduction of Green Revolution led to the mechanisation of agricultural procedures. An increase in public investment in infrastructure changed the agrarian structure drastically. Pakistan also nationalised its capital goods industries. Later on, economic reforms were initiated to encourage privatisation. (To be marked as a whole) [4]
Q113.2025 Main 58/2/1 · Q324 marks
On the basis of the given data, compare and analyse the Distribution of workforce and its contribution to Gross Value added in India and China.
Sectoral Share of Employment and GVA (%) in 2018 -2019
| Sector | Contribution to GVA | Distribution of Workforce |
|---|
| India | China | Pakistan | India | China | Pakistan |
|---|
| Agriculture | 16 | 7 | 24 | 43 | 26 | 41 |
| Industry | 30 | 41 | 19 | 25 | 28 | 24 |
| Services | 54 | 52 | 57 | 32 | 46 | 35 |
| Total | 100 | 100 | 100 | 100 | 100 | 100 |
Source: Human Development Report 2019: Key Indicators of Asia and Pacific 2019.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/2/1
The given data shows the data pertaining to the sectoral share of employment and Gross Value Added (GVA). Due to topographic and climatic conditions, the cultivable area in China is relatively smaller than that of India. Hence, the contribution of the agricultural sector to the GVA in China is 7% employing 26% of its workforce, whereas in India it is 16% employing 43% of its workforce.
Owing to rapid industrialisation in China, the contribution of the industrial sector to GVA stands at 41% with 28% of the workforce as against corresponding figures of 30% and 25% in India.
Both the nations have similar contribution of the Service sector to GVA standing at 54% and 52% with corresponding 32% and 46% to the workforce, respectively in India and China. (To be marked as a whole) [4]
Q114.2025 Main 58/4/1 · Q314 marks
Read the given text carefully and answer the following questions:
In response to the problem of rapidly rising population, China introduced the ‘One Child Policy’. The policy restricted couples to having only one child. This policy helped China to limit the population growth.
This policy led to significant consequences, such as an increase ageing population, gender imbalances due to male child preference, and social challenges for single children, etc.
This policy was relaxed in 2015, allowing all couples to have two children and further relaxed to three children in 2021.
Overall, while the One Child Policy achieved its primary goal of controlling population growth, it also created a complex set of demographic and social challenges that China continues to address today.
(a) Explain the consequences of implementation of the One Child Policy in China.
(b) State any one reason for the implementation of the One Child Policy in China.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(a) Implementation of the One Child Policy in China led to a drastic fall in population growth rate in China. Besides, it had various adverse effects like a higher proportion of elderly population, gender imbalances due to male child preference and various social challenges for single child, etc. (To be marked as a whole) [3]
(b) One Child Policy in China was implemented to curb the rapidly rising population. [1]
Q115.2025 Main 58/5/1 · Q304 marks
Read the following text carefully:
China underwent substantial policy changes to stimulate their economy. China’s economic growth was rapid in the late 1970s across various sectors. However, India had to wait much longer for its economic transformation. India’s significant economic progress was only realised after the economic reforms of 1991, which were implemented out of compulsion.
On the basis of given text and common understanding, compare the impact of subsequent reforms initiated by China and India.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/5/1
China’s rapid economic growth can be traced back to the voluntarily initiated reforms in 1978. China was able to maintain near double-digit growth during 1980s which paved the strategic shift towards a manufacturing-driven economy. Moreover, agricultural reforms brought prosperity to a vast number of poor people. It fostered industrial expansion and strengthening support for further reforms.
In contrast, India was compelled to introduce economic reforms in 1991. The industrial sector reported fluctuation, the growth of the service sector has gone up. This indicates that GDP growth is mainly driven by growth in the service sector. (To be marked as a whole) [4]
(Any other valid explanation to be awarded marks)
Q116.2025 Main 58/6/1 · Q304 marks
Evaluate any two factors that led to the rapid growth in economic development in China.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/6/1
Two factors that led to economic development in China are:
- In the initial phase, reforms were initiated in agriculture, foreign trade and investment sectors. In agriculture, commune lands were divided into small plots, which were allocated (for use not ownership) to individual households. They were allowed to keep all income from the land after paying stipulated taxes. [2]
- In the later phase, reforms were initiated in the industrial sector. Private sector firms (owned and operated by local collectives) were allowed to produce goods. Subsequently, enterprises owned by the government were made to face competition. [2]
(Any other valid factor to be awarded marks)
Q117.2025 Supp 58/S/1 · Q304 marks
“China has experienced rapid economic growth owing to the introduction of economic reforms in 1978.”
Elaborate any two economic reforms introduced by China.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Supplementary), Set 58/S/1
The rapid economic growth in China can be traced back to the following reforms introduced in 1978:
- In the initial phase, reforms were initiated in agriculture, foreign trade and investment sectors. For instance, in agriculture commune lands were divided into small plots, which were allocated to individual households (for use not ownership). They were allowed to keep all income from the land after paying stipulated taxes. [2]
- In the subsequent phase, reforms were initiated in the industrial sector. Private sector firms, in general, and township and village enterprises, in particular, were allowed to produce goods. At this stage, State Owned Enterprises were made to face competition. [2]
Q118.2024 Main 58/1/1 · Q304 marks
(a) “United Nations Department of Economic and Social Affairs indicated that India has overtaken China as the world’s most populous country in the month of April 2023.”
Explain the consequences of one-child policy adopted by China in the 1970s.
(b) Discuss the impacts of Special Economic Zones (SEZs) on the economic growth of China.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/1/1
(a) In the late 1970’s, owing to the population explosion and the subsequent socio-economic concerns, China adopted the One Child Norm. This policy led to a sharp decline in its population growth rate. In addition to this, the sex ratio declined. Furthermore, the implementation of the one-child norm led to increase in the population of elderly people in proportion to young people. [2]
(b) The setting up of Special Economic Zones (SEZs) in China led to a substantial increase in foreign direct investment in the economy. With the massive inflow of foreign capital and technology in China, the productive capacity increased thereby contributing to the rapid economic growth of China. [2]
Q119.2024 Main 58/2/1 · Q324 marks
On the basis of the data given below, discuss the shift in output and employment sector-wise, in India and China:
Sectoral share of Employment and GVA (%) in 2018 – 2019
| Sector | Contribution to GVA | Distribution of Workforce |
|---|
| India | China | Pakistan | India | China | Pakistan |
|---|
| Agriculture | 16 | 7 | 24 | 43 | 26 | 41 |
| Industry | 30 | 41 | 19 | 25 | 28 | 24 |
| Service | 54 | 52 | 57 | 32 | 46 | 35 |
| Total | 100 | 100 | 100 | 100 | 100 | 100 |
Source: Human Development Report 2019: Key Indicators of Asia and Pacific, 2019
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/2/1
The given data shows the data pertaining to the sectoral share of employment and Gross Value Added (GVA). Due to topographic and climatic conditions, the cultivable area in China is relatively smaller than that of India. Hence, the contribution of the agricultural sector to the GVA in China is 7% employing 26% of its workforce, whereas in India it is 16% employing 43% of its workforce.
Owing to rapid industrialisation in China, the contribution of the industrial sector to GVA stands at 41% with 28% of the workforce as against corresponding figures of 30% and 25% in India.
Both the nations have similar contribution of the Service sector to GVA standing at 54% and 52% with corresponding 32% and 46% to the workforce, respectively in India and China. [4]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q120.2024 Main 58/3/1 · Q304 marks
From the given data, compare and analyse India and China’s sectoral contribution towards Gross Value Added (GVA).
Sectoral Share of Employment and GVA (%) in 2018 - 2019
| Sector | Contribution to GVA | Distribution of Workforce |
|---|
| India | China | Pakistan | India | China | Pakistan |
|---|
| Agriculture | 16 | 7 | 24 | 43 | 26 | 41 |
| Industry | 30 | 41 | 19 | 25 | 28 | 24 |
| Services | 54 | 52 | 57 | 32 | 46 | 35 |
| Total | 100 | 100 | 100 | 100 | 100 | 100 |
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/3/1
The given data shows the sectoral contribution in Gross Value Added (GVA) of India and China. In China, due to topographic and climatic conditions, the cultivable area is relatively smaller to that of India. Hence, the contribution of the agricultural sector to the GVA in China is 7%, whereas in India it is more than double to that of China i.e. 16%.
Owing to rapid industrialisation in China, the contribution of industries to GVA stands at 41% as against 30% in India. In both the countries, India and China, service sector contributes highest share of GVA at 54% and 52% respectively. [4]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q121.2024 Main 58/4/1 · Q314 marks
(a) “Scholars find son preference as a common phenomenon in India, Pakistan and China.”
Justify the given statement in the light of skewed sex-ratio. 2
(b) State any two liberty indicators. 2
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/4/1
(a) Owing to traditional and socio-economic reasons, ‘son preference’ is common in India, Pakistan and China. Due to this, the sex ratio is skewed i.e. low and biased against females in all the three nations. [2]
(b) Two liberty indicators are -
- The extent of Constitutional protection given to rights of citizens [1]
- The extent of constitutional protection of the Independence of the Judiciary and the Rule of Law [1]
Q122.2024 Main 58/5/1 · Q304 marks
From the given data compare and analyse the Population Density and Fertility Rate of China and Pakistan, with valid reasons:
Demographic Indicators, 2017-18
| Country | Estimated Population (in million) | Annual Growth of Population | Population Density (per sq. km) | Sex Ratio | Fertility Rate | Urbanisation |
|---|
| India | 1352 | 1.03 | 455 | 924 | 2.2 | 34 |
| China | 1393 | 0.46 | 148 | 949 | 1.7 | 59 |
| Pakistan | 212 | 2.05 | 275 | 943 | 3.6 | 37 |
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Main), Set 58/5/1
The given data shows that geographically, China occupies a larger area in comparison to Pakistan. The density of population in China stands at 148 per sq. km which is lower than that of Pakistan i.e. 275 per sq. km. [2]
The fertility rate in Pakistan is 3.6 which is more than double as compared to China’s fertility rate of 1.7. In China, the adoption of one child norm led to a significant decline in the fertility rate. [2]
Q123.2024 Supp 58/S/1 · Q314 marks
On the basis of the data given below, outline and discuss the shift in employment and output for India and China.
Sectoral Share of Employment and GVA (%) in 2018 – 2019
| Sector | Contribution to GVA | Distribution of workforce |
|---|
| India | China | Pakistan | India | China | Pakistan |
|---|
| Agriculture | 16 | 7 | 24 | 43 | 26 | 41 |
| Industry | 30 | 41 | 19 | 25 | 28 | 24 |
| Services | 54 | 52 | 57 | 32 | 46 | 35 |
| Total | 100 | 100 | 100 | 100 | 100 | 100 |
Source: Human Development Report 2019: Key Indicators of Asia and Pacific 2019.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2024 (Supplementary), Set 58/S/1
The given data pertains to the sectoral share of employment and Gross Value Added (GVA). Due to topographic and climatic conditions, the cultivable area in China is relatively smaller than that of India. Hence, the contribution of the agricultural sector to the GVA in China is 7% employing 26% of its workforce, whereas in India it is 16% employing 43% of its workforce. Owing to rapid industrialisation in China, the contribution of the industrial sector to GVA stands at 41% with 28% of the workforce as against corresponding figures of 30% and 25% in India.
Both the nations have similar contribution of the Service sector to GVA standing at 54% and 52% with corresponding 32% and 46% to the workforce, respectively in India and China. [4]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q124.2023 Main 58/1/1 · Q304 marks
Explain valid reasons for the slow growth and re-emergence of poverty in Pakistan.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/1/1
The reasons for the slow growth and re-emergence of poverty in Pakistan are:
- Agricultural growth and food supply situation were not based on institutional process of technical change but on good harvest. Hence, Pakistan faced a volatile performance in the agriculture sector.
- Overdependence on remittances and foreign aid on the one hand and increasing difficulty in paying back the loans on the other.
(To be marked as a whole)
(Any other valid argument to be allotted marks)
Q125.2023 Main 58/2/1 · Q314 marks
On the basis of the given data:
Some Selected Indicators of Human Development, 2017-2019
| Item | India | China | Pakistan |
|---|
| Human Development Index (Value) | 0.645 | 0.761 | 0.557 |
| Rank (based on HDI) | 130 | 87 | 154 |
| Life Expectancy at Birth (years) | 69.7 | 76.9 | 67.3 |
| Mean years of Schooling (% aged 15 and above) | 6.5 | 8.1 | 5.2 |
| Gross National Income per capita (PPP US$) | 6,681 | 16,057 | 5,005 |
| Percentage of People living Below Poverty Line (National) | 21.9* | 1.7** | 24.3* |
| Infant Mortality Rate (per 1000 live births) | 29.9 | 7.4 | 57.2 |
| Maternal Mortality Rate (per 1 lakh births) | 133 | 29 | 140 |
| Population using at least basic Sanitation (%) | 60 | 75 | 60 |
| Population using at least basic drinking Water Source (%) | 93 | 96 | 91 |
| Percentage of Undernourished Children | 37.9 | 8.1 | 37.6 |
Note: * for the year 2011; for the years 2015.
Sources: Human Development Report 2019 and 2020.
(i) Identify one income indicator and one health indicator, each. (2)
(ii) Compare India and China on the basis of any one of the indicator identified above in part (i). (2)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/2/1
(i) Income indicator – Gross National Income per Capita (PPP US$) [1]
Health indicator – Maternal Mortality Rate (per 1 lakh births) [1]
(ii) Maternal Mortality Rate is very high in India as compared to China. For every 1 lakh births 29 women lose their lives in China, whereas this figure stands at 133 for India. [2]
Q126.2023 Main 58/3/1 · Q304 marks
Read the following schedule carefully:
Trends in Output Growth in Different Sectors, 1980 – 2015
| Country | 1980 – 90 | 2011 – 2015 |
|---|
| Agriculture | Industry | Service | Agriculture | Industry | Service |
|---|
| India | 3·1 | 7·4 | 6·9 | 2·3 | 5 | 8·4 |
| China | 5·9 | 10·8 | 13·5 | 4·1 | 8·1 | 8·4 |
| Pakistan | 4 | 7·7 | 6·8 | 2·7 | 3·4 | 4·4 |
Analyse the output growth trend in the three sectors over the given years between India and China.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/3/1
In the last few decades, output growth in the agriculture sector declined for both India and China. In the industrial sector, China attained a growth rate of 10.8% in 1980s but declined to 8.1% in 2011-15. India also witnessed a decline in the industrial growth rate from 7.4% in 1980s to 5% in 2011-15.
In case of service sector, China was able to maintain highest rate of growth during 1980–1990 i.e. 13.5% which declined to 8.4% in 2011-15. Whereas, India’s growth increased from 6.9% in 1980s to 8.4% in 2011-15.
Thus, China’s growth is contributed by both the manufacturing and service sectors and India’s growth mainly by the service sector.
(To be marked as a whole)
Q127.2023 Main 58/4/1 · Q304 marks
From the data given below, compare and contrast India's and China's sectoral contribution towards GVA/GDP.
Sectoral Contribution to GVA/GDP (in %) (2018-19)
| Sector | India | China |
|---|
| Agriculture | 16 | 7 |
| Industry | 30 | 41 |
| Services | 54 | 52 |
| Total | 100 | 100 |
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/4/1
In both nations, the contribution of the agricultural sector to GDP is the least of the three sectors. Whereas; the service sector is the highest contributor to GDP in both nations.
The contribution of the agriculture sector to the GDP in India stands at 16% which is approximately more than double of China, i.e. 7%.
In China, the contribution of the industrial sector (41%) is way ahead of India (30%), owing to technological upliftment and rapid industrial growth in China in the 1970s.
The service sector contributes more than half to the GDP in both India (54%) and China (52%) indicating the scale of economic growth in the two nations.
(To be marked as a whole)
Q128.2023 Main 58/5/1 · Q304 marks
Compare and analyse the following information related to Annual Growth of Gross Domestic Product (GDP) of India and China:
Annual Growth of Gross Domestic Product
| Country | 1989-90 | 2015-17 |
|---|
| India | 5.7 | 7.3 |
| China | 10.3 | 6.8 |
(Source: Asian Development Bank, Philippines, World Development indicator-2018)
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Main), Set 58/5/1
The given data shows that China has gained economic strength over the given period of time. India witnessed 5.7% growth rate whereas, China was able to maintain near double-digit growth during the decade of 1980s.
The growth rate of China has decelerated to an average of 6.8%, over the period 2015-17.
In the recent past India has posted a decent rise in the growth rate. While India had lesser growth rate in the decade of 1980’s, it has enhanced well by registering an average growth rate of 7.3%, over the period 2015-17. [4]
(To be marked as a whole)
Q129.2023 Supp 58/C/1 · Q314 marks
“Post-1947 India and Pakistan adopted similar developmental strategies for their respective development paths. Do you agree with the given statement? Give valid reason for your answer.
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2023 (Supplementary), Set 58/C/1
Yes. Similar developmental strategies were adopted by India and Pakistan for their respective development paths as:
(i) Both the nations have followed the path of mixed economic structure involving the public as well as the private sector. [2]
(ii) Both India and Pakistan adopted import substitution policy in order to protect their domestic industries from foreign competition. [2]
(Any other valid strategy to be allotted marks)
Q130.SQP 2025-26 · Q314 marks
(I) “India has been a part of many regional and global economic groupings such as G20, SAARC, BRICS etc.”
In the light of the given statement, briefly explain the importance of regional and global economic groupings. [3]
(II) Define ‘Special Economic Zone’. [1]
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 · Marking Scheme
(I) Regional and global economic groupings like G-20, SAARC, BRICS etc., play a vital role for developing nations like India as they help them to understand the developmental processes pursued by their neighbouring nations to better comprehend their own strengths and weaknesses vis-à-vis their neighbours.
Moreover, in the unfolding process of globalisation, as developing nations face competition not only from developed nations but also amongst themselves such groupings help them to flourish well in a shared environment. [3]
(II) Special Economic Zone is a geographical region that has economic laws different from a country’s typical economic laws. [1]
Q131.2025 Main 58/7/1 · Q33(a)6 marks
(i) Explain any two similar developmental strategies followed by India and Pakistan in the post 1947 era. [3]
(ii) State and discuss any two reasons for slow economic growth in Pakistan. [3]
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/7/1
(i) Similar developmental strategies were adopted by India and Pakistan for their respective development paths as:
- Both the nations have followed the path of mixed economic system involving the public as well as the private sector. [1½]
- Both India and Pakistan adopted import substitution policy in order to protect their domestic industries from foreign competition. [1½]
(Any other valid strategy to be awarded marks)
(ii) The reasons for the slow growth in Pakistan are:
- Volatile performance of agriculture sector: Pakistan experienced uneven agricultural growth, food supply situation which were dependent on good harvest and not on the institutional process of technical change. [½ + 1]
- Increasing dependence on foreign funds: Pakistan faced the problems of overdependence on remittances, rising foreign loans and increased difficulty in paying back the loans. [½ + 1]
(Any other valid reason to be awarded marks)
Q132.2025 Main 58/7/1 · Q33(b)6 marks
(i) “China used the tool of Special Economic Zones for its economic development very effectively.”
Justify the given statement with valid explanation. [3]
(ii) Mention and discuss any two indicators of human development, where China has performed well. [3]
Reveal answerHide answer
Official CBSE Marking Scheme · 2025 (Main), Set 58/7/1
(i) The setting up of Special Economic Zones (SEZs) in China led to a substantial increase in Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in the economy. With the massive inflow of foreign capital and technology, the productive capacity increased manifold, thereby contributing to the rapid economic development of China. [3]
(ii) The two indicators of human development, where China has performed well are:
- Maternal Mortality Rate: The Maternal Mortality Rate in China is low due to better public health facilities. [½+1]
- Poverty: The proportion of the population below the poverty line in China has reduced over time. [½+1]
(Any other valid indicator to be awarded marks)
Q133.SQP 2026-27 · Q33(a)6 marks
(I) Refer to the following data carefully:
Some Selected Indicators of Human Development, 2017-2019
| Item | India | China | Pakistan |
|---|
| Maternal Mortality Rate (per 1 lakh births) | 103 | 23 | 154 |
| Gross National Income per Capita (PPP US$) | 6,951 | 18,025 | 5,374 |
| Mean years of Schooling (aged 15 and above) in % | 6.6 | 8.1 | 4.4 |
| People using at least basic drinking Water Source (% of population) | 93 | 97 | 90 |
Answer the following questions on the basis of the given data and common understanding:
(a) List one key measure of both income and health indicators given in the above table.
(b) On the basis of the given data, compare and critically examine any two human development indicators of India and China.
(II) State the meaning of Special Economic Zones and its significance.
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 · Marking Scheme
(I) (a) One key indicator of income is Gross National Income per Capita (PPP US$), while a significant health indicator is Maternal Mortality Rate (per 1 lakh births). [½ + ½]
(b) According to the given data:
Maternal Mortality Rate is very high in India as compared to China. For every 1 lakh births 23 women lose their lives in China, whereas this figure stands at 103 for India. [1½]
Access to basic drinking water is relatively fair in both the countries, China leads with 97% coverage, followed by India at 93% coverage. This shows that a significant progress has been made in providing basic amenities by these nations. [1½]
(II) Special Economic Zone (SEZ) is a geographical region that has economic laws different from a country’s typical economic laws. [1]
SEZs play crucial role in the economic strategies by promoting investment, fostering development and facilitating trade. [1]
Q134.SQP 2026-27 · Q33(b)6 marks
(I) Refer to the given image carefully:

Describe the indicated policy introduced by China in the late 1970s and its consequences.
(II) State any two challenges faced in the effective implementation of Great Leap Forward Campaign.
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 · Marking Scheme
(I) The given image depicts the consequence of one child norm that was introduced by China in late 1970s. This measure was adopted by the Chinese government to control population growth. This policy resulted in a decline in the sex ratio and created demographic imbalance. As a consequence, the elderly population of China is expected to surpass the younger population. [3]
(II) Two challenges faced in the effective implementation of Great Leap Forward Campaign were:
- A severe drought caused havoc in China killing about 30 million people. [1½]
- When Russia had conflicts with China, it withdrew its professionals who had earlier been sent to China to help in the industrialisation process. [1½]