Geography (Social Science 087) · Class X · Chapter-wise Board Questions
Geography (Contemporary India II) questions from CBSE Class X Social Science board papers 2022 to 2026, plus CBSE Sample Question Papers, map-pointing questions included. Chapters as per CBSE Curriculum 2026-27. 264 questions, shown by marks, lowest first. Click Reveal answer under any question to see the official marking scheme.
Contemporary India II · Geography
1. Resources and Development
Q1.2026 Main 32/1/1 · Q101 mark
Identify the correct soil from the given options to complete the flow chart :
Alluvial soil
Laterite soil
Red soil
Black soil
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026, Set 32/1/1
(B) Laterite Soil
Q2.2026 Main 32/1/1 · Q141 mark
Choose the correct option related to the factors that determined the land use pattern in India :
Political and Religious factors
Cultural and Geological factors
Economical and Historical factors
Physical and Human factors
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026, Set 32/1/1
(D) Physical and Human factors
Q3.2026 Main 32/3/1 · Q111 mark
Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option :
Column I (Type of Soil)
Column II (Characteristic)
a.
Alluvial soil
i.
Sandy in texture and saline in nature
b.
Black soil
ii.
Very fertile, containing potash, phosphorus and lime
c.
Laterite soil
iii.
Made from lava parent rocks, suitable for cotton cultivation
d.
Arid soil
iv.
Decrease in humus content in semi-arid environment
a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i
a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026, Set 32/3/1
(C) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
Q4.2026 Main 32/4/1 · Q101 mark
Read the given infographics carefully and choose the correct option that identifies the soil described.
Laterite soil
Forest soil
Arid soil
Black soil
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026, Set 32/4/1
(C) Arid Soil
Q5.2026 Main 32/4/1 · Q141 mark
In which of the following categories of ‘land-use’ has India registered an increase ?
Permanent pasture
Unsuitable for agriculture
Barren
Forest
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026, Set 32/4/1
(D) Forest
Q6.2026 Main 32/5/1 · Q101 mark
Identify the soil with the help of the following informations given in the box and choose the correct option :
It is made up of extremely fine material.
It is rich in soil nutrients.
It is ideal for growing cotton.
Alluvial Soil
Black Soil
Laterite Soil
Arid Soil
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026, Set 32/5/1
(B) Black soil
Q7.2026 Main 32/5/1 · Q141 mark
Which of the following is an example of ‘current fallow land’ ?
Land left without cultivation for five agricultural years.
Land left without cultivation for three agricultural years.
Land left without cultivation for two agricultural years.
Land left without cultivation for one agricultural year.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026, Set 32/5/1
(D) Land left without cultivation for one agricultural year
Q8.2025 Main 32/4/1 · Q51 mark
A researcher is examining a soil type which is formed by the weathering of volcanic rock and is rich in minerals. Which one of the following soils is it ?
Laterite soil
Alluvial soil
Black soil
Desert soil
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025, Set 32/4/1
(c) Black Soil
Q9.2025 Supp 32/S/1 · Q51 mark
A farmer is planning to grow cotton crops in a high temperature area with light rainfall and frost-free days.
Which of the following soils is suitable for it ?
Black soil
Laterite soil
Alluvial soil
Yellow soil
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Supplementary 2025, Set 32/S/1
(A) Black soil
Q10.2024 Main 32/1/1 · Q71 mark
Identify the soil with the help of following information.
It develops in areas with high temperature.
It is the result of intense leaching due to heavy rain.
Humus content is low.
Soil :
Arid soil
Yellow soil
Laterite soil
Black soil
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024, Set 32/1/1
(c) Laterite soil
Q11.2024 Main 32/2/1 · Q61 mark
Read the following characteristics of a soil and identify the soil from the given options.
It is widely spread and important soil.
Northern plains are made of it.
It consists of sand, silt and clay.
Options :
Yellow soil
Black soil
Laterite soil
Alluvial soil
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024, Set 32/2/1
(D) Alluvial Soil
Q12.2023 Main 32/1/1 · Q71 mark
Which of the following pair is correctly matched ?
Alluvial Soil – Gangetic Plain
Black Soil – Himalayan Region
Arid Soil – Western Ghats
Laterite Soil – Desert Area
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023, Set 32/1/1
(A) Alluvial Soil -Gangetic Plains.
Q13.2023 Main 32/2/1 · Q51 mark
Which one of the following soils develops in an area with high temperature and heavy rainfall ?
Red and Yellow
Black
Alluvial
Laterite
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023, Set 32/2/1
(d) Laterite
Q14.2023 Main 32/4/1 · Q61 mark
Match the column - 1 with column - 2 and choose the correct option :
Column - 1 (Resources)
Column - 2 (Example)
(I) Biological
1. Coal
(II) Renewable
2. Wildlife
(III) Non-renewable
3. Solar Energy
Options :
I-1, II-3, III-2
I-3, II-2, III-1
I-2, II-3, III-1
I-1, II-2, III-3
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023, Set 32/4/1
(c) I-2, II-3, III-1
Q15.2023 Main 32/4/1 · Q71 mark
Which of the following is correctly matched ?
Alluvial Soil – Consist of sand and silt
Black Soil – Salt content is high
Arid Soil – Diffusion of iron in crystalline
Laterite Soil – Made up of Lava flows
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023, Set 32/4/1
(a) Alluvial soil – Consist of sand and silt
Q16.2023 Main 32/5/1 · Q71 mark
Mention the main reason for land degradation in states like Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh and Odisha.
Over-grazing
Mining
Over irrigation
Mineral processing
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023, Set 32/5/1
(b) Mining
Q17.2023 Main 32/6/1 · Q71 mark
Which of the following pair is correctly matched ?
Alluvial Soil – Western Rajasthan
Black Soil – Northern Plain
Arid Soil – Deccan Plateau
Laterite Soil – Western Ghats
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023, Set 32/6/1
(D) Laterite Soil – Western Ghats
Q18.2023 Supp 32/C/1 · Q71 mark
Match Column 1 with Column 2 and select the correct option from the following :
Column 1 (Soil Erosion)
Column 2 (Explanation)
A.
Gully Erosion
I.
Water flows as a sheet over large areas down a slope
B.
Wind Erosion
II.
Ploughing in a wrong way i.e., up and down the slope form channels for quick flow of water
C.
Sheet Erosion
III.
The running water cuts through clayey soils and makes deep channels
D.
Defective methods of farming
IV.
Wind blows loose soil off flat or sloping land
Options :
A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Supplementary Examination July 2023, Set 32/C/1
(c) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
Q19.SQP 2025-26 · Q101 mark
What is essential for resource development to contribute to overall development?
The availability of resources alone is enough.
The presence of foreign invaders and their governance.
Technological development and institutional changes.
Only human resources can contribute to development.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26
(C) Technological development and institutional changes.
Q20.SQP 2025-26 · Q111 mark
Identify the appropriate option to fill in the empty boxes:
Classification of Soils
Alluvial
?
?
Ideal for the growth of sugarcane, paddy, wheat and other cereal and pulse crops.
Ideal for growing cotton
suitable for crops like cashew nut.
Black soil, Red and Yellow soils
Laterite soil, Black soil.
Red & Yellow soils & Black soil.
Black soil & Laterite soil.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26
(D) Black soil & Laterite soil.
Q21.SQP 2026-27 · Q101 mark
A mineral deposit, that is known but cannot be used currently due to lack of technology, fits into which category of resources?
Renewable resource
Developed resource
Potential resource
Reserve
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27
(C) Potential resource
Q22.SQP 2026-27 · Q111 mark
Which of the following options is the correct match?
Column I
Column II
1. Equitable distribution of resources
X. Ensures long-term survival of all life forms
2. Sustainable existence
Y. Prevents concentration of resources in a few hands
3. Resource planning
Z. Balances current development with conservation for the future
Choose the correct option-
1-Y, 2-X, 3-Z
1-Z, 2-Y, 3-X
1-X, 2-Z, 3-Y
1-Y, 2-Z, 3-X
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27
(A) 1-Y, 2-X, 3-Z
Q23.2025 Main 32/1/1 · Q222 marks
Explain any two problems of the ‘global ecology’ arising due to indiscriminate use of resources.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025, Set 32/1/1
Human beings use the resources indiscriminately and this has led to major problems.
This has led to global ecological crisis such as global warming.
Ozone layer is being depleted.
It has increased environmental pollution.
Land degradation is also increasing.
Any other relevant point
Any two points to be explained.
Q24.2025 Main 32/2/1 · Q222 marks
Why is planning necessary for judicious use of resources ? Explain.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025, Set 32/2/1
Planning is the widely accepted strategy for judicious use of resources.
It has importance in a country like India, which has enormous diversity in the availability of resources.
There are regions which are rich in certain types of resources but are deficient in some other resources.
There are some regions which can be considered self-sufficient in terms of the availability of resources and there are some regions which have acute shortage of some vital resources.
For example, the states of Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh and Madhya Pradesh are rich in minerals and coal deposits.
Arunachal Pradesh has abundance of water resources but lacks in infrastructural development.
The state of Rajasthan is very well endowed with solar and wind energy but lacks in water resources.
The cold desert of Ladakh is relatively isolated from the rest of the country. It has very rich cultural heritage but it is deficient in water, infrastructure and some vital minerals.
This calls for balanced resource planning at the national, state, regional and local levels.
Any other relevant point.
Any two points to be explained.
Q25.2025 Main 32/3/1 · Q232 marks
(a) Describe any two features of ‘arid soils’.
OR
(b) Describe any two features of ‘forest soils’.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025, Set 32/3/1
(a)
Arid soils range from red to brown in colour.
They are generally sandy in texture and saline in nature.
In some areas the salt content is very high and common salt is obtained by evaporating the water.
Due to the dry climate and high temperature evaporation is faster and the soil lacks humus and moisture.
The lower horizons of the soil are occupied by Kankar because of the increasing calcium content downwards.
Any other relevant point.
(Any two points to be explained.)
(b)
Mainly found in the hilly and mountainous areas where sufficient rain forests are available.
Soils texture varies according to the mountain environment.
Loamy and silty in valley sides and coarse grained in the upper slopes.
In the snow-covered areas of Himalayas, these soils experience denudation and are acidic with low humus content.
The soils found in the lower parts of the valleys particularly on the river terraces and alluvial fans are fertile.
Any other relevant point.
(Any two points to be explained.)
Q26.2025 Main 32/4/1 · Q232 marks
(A) “Planning is the widely accepted strategy for judicious use of resources.” Explain the statement.
OR
(B) “An equitable distribution of resources has become essential for a sustained quality of human life.” Explain the statement.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025, Set 32/4/1
(A)
Planning is important for a country which has enormous diversity in the availability of resources.
It is important for regions which are rich in certain types of resources but are deficient in some other resources.
Planning helps in balanced distribution of resources across national, state and regional levels.
Planning helps in sustainable development.
Any other relevant point.
Any two points to be explained.
(B)
Sustainable existence is a component of sustainable development.
If the present trend of resource depletion by a few individuals and countries continue the future of our planet will be in danger.
There is a dire need to address economic and environmental protection plans.
Uneven distribution of resources will create a wide gap in regional development resulting in disunity in a nation.
Resource planning is essential for sustainable existence of all forms of life.
Appropriate technology, skill and institutional set up is required for resource development and distribution.
Judicious use of resources with qualitative and quantitative estimates is necessary.
Any other relevant point.
Any two points to be explained.
Q27.2025 Main 32/5/1 · Q222 marks
Describe any two ways to solve the problem of land degradation.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025, Set 32/5/1
Afforestation and proper management of grazing.
Planting of shelter belts of plants.
Control on over grazing.
Stabilisation of sand dunes by growing thorny bushes are some of the methods to check land degradation in arid areas.
Proper management of waste lands.
Control of mining activities.
Proper discharge and disposal of industrial effluents and wastes after treatment can reduce land and water degradation in industrial and suburban areas.
Any other relevant point.
Any two points to be described.
Q28.2025 Supp 32/S/1 · Q232 marks
(a) Explain the measures to reduce land degradation.
OR
(b) Explain the measures to reduce soil erosion.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Supplementary 2025, Set 32/S/1
(a)
Afforestation
Planting shelter belts of plants,
Control on over grazing,
Stabilisation of sand dunes by growing thorny bushes in arid areas.
Proper management of wasteland.
Control of mining activities.
Proper discharge and disposal of industrial effluents and wastes after treatment in industrial and suburban areas.
Any other relevant point
Any two points to be explained.
(b)
Ploughing along the contour lines can decelerate the flow of water down the slopes.
Steps can be cut out on the slopes making terraces. Terrace cultivation restricts erosion.
Large fields can be divided into strips. Strips of grass are left to grow between the crops. This breaks up the force of the wind.
Planting lines of trees to create shelter belts to stop soil erosion.
Any other relevant point
Any two points to be explained.
Q29.2024 Main 32/3/1 · Q222 marks
(a) Suggest any two ways to solve the problem of land degradation.
OR
(b) Suggest any two ways for the conservation of resources.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024, Set 32/3/1
(a)
Afforestation and proper management of posture.
Planting of shelter belts of plants, control on overgrazing, stabilization of sand dunes by growing thorny bushes are some of the methods to check land degradation in arid areas.
Proper management of waste lands.
Control of mining activities.
Proper discharge and disposal of industries effluents and wastes after treatment can reduce land and water degradation in industrial and suburban areas.
Any other relevant point.
Any two points to be explained.
(b)
Avoid over utilization of Resources.
Recycle of Resources.
Reduce wastage of resources.
Judicious use of resources.
Any other relevant point.
Any two points to be suggested.
Q30.2026 Exam 2 32/7/1 · Q153 marks
Explain the difference between renewable and non-renewable resources.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Exam 2), Set 32/7/1
Renewable
Non-Renewable
These resources are renewed or replenished by nature in short span of time.
These resources are renewed or replenished by nature in very long span of time.
These resources are non-exhaustible.
These resources are exhaustible.
For example: Solar energy, wind energy etc.
For example: Coal Petroleum etc.
Any other relevant point
Any other relevant point.
Any three points of differences to be explained.
Q31.2026 Exam 2 32/8/1 · Q153 marks
“Planning is the widely accepted strategy for judicious use of resources.” Support the statement by giving appropriate example with reference to India.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 Exam 2, Set 32/8/1
Resource planning is importance in a country like India, which has enormous diversity in the availability of resources.
There are regions which are rich in certain types of resources but are deficient in some other resources.
There are some regions which can be considered self- sufficient in terms of the availability of resources and there are some regions which have acute shortage of some vital resources.
An equitable distribution of resources has become essential for a sustained quality of life and global peace.
Resource planning is essential for sustainable existence of all forms of life which is a component of sustainable development.
Any other relevant point
Any three points to be explained
Q32.2026 Main 32/2/1 · Q153 marks
Explain any three main factors responsible for land degradation.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026, Set 32/2/1
Mining sites are abandoned after excavation work is complete leaving deep scars and traces of over-burdening.
Deforestation due to mining has caused severe land degradation.
Overgrazing is one of the main reasons for land degradation in many parts of the country.
Over irrigation is responsible for land degradation due to water logging leading to increase in salinity and alkalinity in the soil.
The mineral processing like grinding of limestone generates huge quantity of dust in the atmosphere which retards the process of infiltration of water into the soil after it settles down on the land.
Any other relevant point.
Any three points to be explained.
Q33.2025 Main 32/2/1 · Q263 marks
Read the story of Rinjha and answer the question that follows :
Story of Rinjha
Rinjha lived with her family in a small village at the outskirts of Diphu in Assam. She enjoys watching her family members clearing, slashing and burning a patch of land for cultivation. She often helps them in irrigating the fields with water running through a bamboo canal from the nearby spring. She loves the surroundings and wants to stay here as long as she can, but this little girl has no idea about the declining fertility of the soil and her family’s search for a fresh patch of land in the next season.
Suggest any three measures to Rinjha so that the fertility of the soil of her fields remains intact for a long time.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025, Set 32/2/1
Use of crop rotation method.
Use of manure.
Growing leguminous crops
Managing pests and plant diseases.
Any other relevant point.
Any three points to be explained.
Q34.2024 Supp 32/S/1 · Q263 marks
How is planning a widely accepted strategy for judicious use of resources ? Explain with examples.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Supplementary 2024, Set 32/S/1
Planning helps in identifying the available resources and allocating them efficiently across various sectors.
It ensures maximising their utility and minimising wastage during activities.
Planning allows for a balanced development of different regions and sectors within the country.
By prioritizing areas that need development the most, planning ensures that resources are distributed equitably. For instance, the planned development during the Green Revolution focused on enhancing agricultural productivity in regions that were lagging behind.
Planning involves setting long-term goals and creating strategies to achieve them.
Planning facilitates the development of infrastructure such as roads, railways, ports, and communication networks. This infrastructure supports economic activities and enhances connectivity, leading to overall development.
Any other relevant point
Any three points to be explained
Q35.2023 Supp 32/C/1 · Q263 marks
How is resource planning a complex process ? Explain.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Supplementary Examination July 2023, Set 32/C/1
Identification and inventory of resources - surveying, mapping, qualitative and quantitative estimation and measurement.
Evolving a planning structure - appropriate technology, skill and institutional setup.
Matching the resource development plans with overall national development plans.
Planning is the widely accepted strategy for judicious use of resources.
Any other relevant point.
Any three points to be explained.
Q36.2024 Main 32/4/1 · Q354 marks
Read the given source and answer the questions that follow :
Conservation of Resources : Resources are vital for any developmental activity. But irrational consumption and over-utilisation of resources may lead to socio-economic and environmental problems. To overcome these problems, resource conservation at various levels is important. This had been the main concern of the leaders and thinkers in the past. For example, Gandhiji was very apt in voicing his concern about resource conservation in these words: “There is enough for everybody’s need and not for any body’s greed.” He placed the greedy and selfish individuals and exploitative nature of modern technology as the root cause for resource depletion at the global level. He was against mass production and wanted to replace it with the production by the masses.
(35.1) Define the term ‘Resource Planning’.
(35.2) Explain the need for conservation of resources.
(35.3) Why did Gandhiji say – “There is enough for everybody’s need and not for any body’s greed ?” Analyse any two reasons.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024, Set 32/4/1
(35.1) Resource planning is a complex process which involves identification and inventory of resources across the regions of the country.
(35.2) Irrational consumption and over utilisation of resources may lead to socio economic and environmental problems.
(35.3)
He placed the greedy and selfish individuals and exploitative nature of modern technology as the root cause for resource depletion.
He was against mass production and wanted to replace it with the production by the masses.
Any other relevant point.
Any two points to be mentioned.
Q37.2024 Main 32/5/1 · Q354 marks
Read the given source and answer the questions that follow :
Conservation of Resources
At the international level, the Club of Rome advocated resource conservation for the first time in a more systematic way in 1968. Subsequently, in 1974, Gandhian philosophy was once again presented by Schumacher in his book Small is Beautiful. The seminal contribution with respect to resource conservation at the global level was made by the Brundtland Commission Report, 1987. This report introduced the concept of ‘Sustainable Development’ and advocated it as a means for resource conservation, which was subsequently published in a book entitled Our Common Future. Another significant contribution was made at the Earth Summit at Rio de Janeiro, Brazil in 1992.
(35.1) Explain the meaning of sustainable development.
(35.2) In which international conference was ‘Agenda-21’ accepted ?
(35.3) Explain any two outcomes of the Summit.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024, Set 32/5/1
35.1 Development should take place without damaging the environment and development in the present should not compromise with the needs of the future generations.
35.2 Rio de Janeiro Earth Summit, 1992
35.3
Global cooperation on common interests.
Mutual needs
Shared responsibilities
Creation of the commission on sustainable development.
Any other relevant point
Any two points to be mentioned.
Q38.2025 Main 32/6/1 · Q325 marks
(a) Explain the main features of alluvial soil.
OR
(b) Explain the various stages of resource planning and its need in India.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025, Set 32/6/1
(a)
Alluvial soil have been deposited by three important Himalayan river systems– the Indus, the Ganga and the Brahmaputra.
The alluvial soil consists of various proportions of sand, silt and clay.
As we move inlands towards the river valleys, soil particles appear somewhat bigger in size.
In the upper reaches of the river valley i.e. near the place of the break of slope, the soils are coarse, commonly found in piedmont plains such as Duars, Chos and Terai.
According to their age alluvial soils can be classified as old alluvial (Bangar) and new alluvial (Khadar).
The bangar soil has higher concentration of kanker nodules than the Khadar. Khadar has more fine particles and is more fertile than the bangar.
Mostly these soils contain adequate proportion of potash, phosphoric acid and lime, ideal for the growth of sugarcane, paddy, wheat and other cereal and pulse crops.
Due to its high fertility, regions of alluvial soils are intensively cultivated and densely populated.
Any other relevant point.
Any five points to be explained.
(b)
Resource planning is a complex process which involves:
Identification and inventory of resources across the regions of the country.
This involves surveying, mapping and qualitative and quantitative estimation and measurement of the resources.
Evolving a planning structure endowed with appropriate technology, skill and institutional set up for implementing resource development plans.
Matching the resource development plans with overall national development plans.
India has made concerted efforts for achieving the goals of resource planning.
Any other relevant point.
Any three points to be assessed.
Need in India:
Resources are essential for development.
Technology and quality human resources are prerequisites for development of any region.
Uneven distribution of resources.
Any other relevant point.
Any two points to be assessed.
To be assessed as a whole.
Contemporary India II · Geography
2. Forest and Wildlife Resources
Q1.2026 Exam 2 32/7/1 · Q101 mark
Two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are given below. Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option :
Assertion (A) : Forests play a vital role in the ecosystem. Reason (R) : They are secondary producers upon which all other organisms depend.
Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Exam 2), Set 32/7/1
(C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false
Q2.2026 Exam 2 32/8/1 · Q101 mark
Choose the correctly matched pair from the following :
(National Park/Sanctuary) – (State)
Sunderbans National Park – Andhra Pradesh
Bandhavgarh National Park – Madhya Pradesh
Corbett National Park – West Bengal
Sariska Sanctuary – Gujarat
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 Exam 2, Set 32/8/1
(B) Bandhavgarh National Park- Madhya Pradesh.
Q3.2026 Main 32/1/1 · Q111 mark
Identify the state related with the Chipko Movement :
Arunachal Pradesh
Madhya Pradesh
Uttarakhand
Bihar
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026, Set 32/1/1
(C) Uttarakhand
Q4.2026 Main 32/1/1 · Q151 mark
Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ?
Column – A (National Parks)
Column – B (States)
Periyar
Madhya Pradesh
Manas
Assam
Bandhavgarh
Rajasthan
Corbett
Uttar Pradesh
Periyar – Madhya Pradesh
Manas – Assam
Bandhavgarh – Rajasthan
Corbett – Uttar Pradesh
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026, Set 32/1/1
(B) Manas – Assam
Q5.2026 Main 32/4/1 · Q111 mark
In which of the following regions did the “Beej-Bachao Andolan” of farmers begin ?
Kumaon
Tehri
Almora
Chamoli
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026, Set 32/4/1
(B) Tehri
Q6.2026 Main 32/4/1 · Q121 mark
Match Column – I with Column – II and choose the correct option :
Column – I (National Park)
Column – II (States)
a.
Corbett
i.
Rajasthan
b.
Sunderban
ii.
Uttarakhand
c.
Sariska
iii.
Kerala
d.
Periyar
iv.
West Bengal
a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv
a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i
a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026, Set 32/4/1
(D) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
Q7.2026 Main 32/5/1 · Q111 mark
In which of the following States of India, has the largest area under permanent forests ?
Uttar Pradesh
Madhya Pradesh
Gujarat
Maharashtra
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026, Set 32/5/1
(B) Madhya Pradesh
Q8.2026 Main 32/5/1 · Q151 mark
Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option :
Column-I (National Parks)
Column-II (States)
a.
Sariska
i.
Madhya Pradesh
b.
Sunderban
ii.
Uttarakhand
c.
Corbett
iii.
West Bengal
d.
Bandhavgarh
iv.
Rajasthan
a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i
a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026, Set 32/5/1
(C) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
Q9.2025 Main 32/1/1 · Q51 mark
Arrange the following categories of forests in India from the largest to the smallest in terms of area and choose the correct option :
Reserved
Protected
Unclassed
Options :
III, II, I
I, II, III
II, III, I
III, I, II
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025, Set 32/1/1
(B) I, II, III
Q10.2025 Main 32/1/1 · Q61 mark
‘Sariska Tiger Reserve’ is located in which one of the following states ?
Madhya Pradesh
Rajasthan
Uttar Pradesh
Maharashtra
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025, Set 32/1/1
(B) Rajasthan
Q11.2025 Main 32/2/1 · Q51 mark
Choose the correctly matched pair from the following (National Park / Tiger Reserve – State) :
Corbett National Park – Himachal Pradesh
Bandhavgarh National Park – Rajasthan
Periyar Tiger Reserve – Tamil Nadu
Manas Tiger Reserve – Assam
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025, Set 32/2/1
(D) Manas Tiger Reserve- Assam
Q12.2025 Main 32/2/1 · Q61 mark
Which of the following characteristics of the Indian Wild Life (Protection) Act are correct ? Choose the most appropriate option.
Characteristics :
To make provisions for habitat for wild animals.
To publish list of protected species.
To ban hunting to save endangered species.
To include important subjects like forests and wildlife in the Union List.
Options :
Only I, II and III are correct.
Only I, II and IV are correct.
Only II, III and IV are correct.
Only I, III and IV are correct.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025, Set 32/2/1
(A) Only I, II and III are correct
Q13.2025 Main 32/3/1 · Q151 mark
Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option :
Column I
Column II
a. Sariska Wildlife Sanctuary
i. Uttarakhand
b. Manas Tiger Reserve
ii. Rajasthan
c. Periyar Tiger Reserve
iii. Assam
d. Corbett National Park
iv. Kerala
Options :
a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii
a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025, Set 32/3/1
(B) a – (ii), b – (iii), c – (iv), d – (i)
Q14.2025 Main 32/5/1 · Q61 mark
Choose the correctly matched pair :
Corbett National Park – Himachal Pradesh
Sunderban National Park – Kerala
Bandhavgarh National Park – Rajasthan
Manas Tiger Reserve – Assam
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025, Set 32/5/1
(D) Manas Tiger Reserve- Assam
Q15.2025 Main 32/6/1 · Q171 mark
Which state of India has the maximum area under permanent forest ?
Haryana
Himachal Pradesh
Punjab
Madhya Pradesh
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025, Set 32/6/1
(D) Madhya Pradesh
Q16.2024 Main 32/4/1 · Q51 mark
Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A) : The famous ‘Chipko Movement’ in the Himalayas successfully resisted deforestation in several areas. Reason (R) : Through this, community afforestation campaign with indigenous species was made enormously successful.
Options :
Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(A) is true, but (R) is false.
(A) is false, but (R) is true.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024, Set 32/4/1
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Q17.2024 Main 32/5/1 · Q51 mark
Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option.
Column I (National Park)
Column II (State)
i. Kaziranga
a. Madhya Pradesh
ii. Jim Corbett
b. Assam
iii. Sunderbans
c. Uttarakhand
iv. Bandhavgarh
d. West Bengal
Options :
i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a
i-c, ii-b, iii-d, iv-a
i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024, Set 32/5/1
(D) i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a
Q18.2024 Supp 32/S/1 · Q51 mark
Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A) : We need to protect forests and wildlife.
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Supplementary 2024, Set 32/S/1
(C) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Q19.2023 Main 32/5/1 · Q61 mark
When was the Wildlife Protection Act implemented ?
1972
1978
1980
1985
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023, Set 32/5/1
(a) 1972
Q20.2023 Supp 32/C/1 · Q61 mark
Which among the following statements is not correct regarding the Bhairodev Dakav ‘Sonchuri’ ?
It includes 1200 hectares of forest land.
The inhabitants of five villages in the Alwar district of Rajasthan declared this ‘Sonchuri’.
They are protecting the wildlife against any outside encroachments.
The rules and regulations followed here are declared by the government.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Supplementary Examination July 2023, Set 32/C/1
(d) The rules and regulations followed here are declared by the govt.
Q21.SQP 2025-26 · Q121 mark
A total of 628 tigers died in India during the past five years due to natural causes and other reasons, including poaching, according to government data. Meanwhile, 349 people were killed in tiger attacks during this period, with one state alone recording 200 deaths.
Which of the following is the most significant indirect consequence of poaching on the tiger population?
Reduction in the prey species, dwindling tiger's food supply.
Increase in human-wildlife conflicts in protected areas
Rise in the tiger population.
Decrease in tourism revenue in national parks
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26
(A) Reduction in the prey species leading to the tiger's dwindling food supp[ly]
Q22.SQP 2025-26 · Q131 mark
Based on the classification of forests, which of the following statements would most likely apply to places like Jammu and Kashmir, Andhra Pradesh, and Kerala etc.?
These places mostly have forests managed as reserved or protected forests for conservation.
They rely on unclassed forests and local community management for forest conservation.
They have forest resources and primarily focus on industrial development.
There are no classified forests and forest management is entirely left to private ownership.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26
(A) These places have a significant portion of forests managed as reserved or protected forests for conservation.
Q23.2026 Main 32/2/1 · Q142 marks
(a) Describe the role of communities in the conservation of forests in India.
OR
(b) Describe any two steps taken by the Government of India to protect forests and wildlife.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026, Set 32/2/1
(a)
In India, forests are home to some of the traditional communities.
The inhabitants of five villages in the Alwar district of Rajasthan have declared 1200 hectares of forest as “Bhairodev Dakav Sonchuri” declaring their own set of rules and regulations.
Communities are protecting wildlife against any outside encroachment.
Movements like Chipko, Beej Bachao Andolan and Navdanya played an important role in conserving the forests.
Any other relevant points.
Any two points to be described.
(b)
The Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act was implemented in 1972.
An all-India list of protected species was published.
Hunting was banned.
In 1973, Project Tiger was launched.
Various Tiger reserves were established.
In 1988, Odisha passed the First resolution for ‘Joint Forest Management’.
Any other relevant point.
Any two points to be described.
Q24.2024 Main 32/1/1 · Q222 marks
(A) Suggest any two measures for the conservation of forest.
OR
(B) Suggest any two measures for the conservation of wildlife.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024, Set 32/1/1
(A)
Excessive cutting down of forest trees should not be allowed by the Government to conserve forests.
More trees should be planted in the forest in place of cut down trees to conserve forests.
Paper products such as old newspapers, magazines, books and notebooks etc. should be recycled.
Laws should be implemented to save the forest.
Communities should be made aware about conservations of forests.
Any other relevant point.
Any two points to be explained.
(B)
To survey and collect all the information about wildlife, especially, their number of growth.
To protect habitat by protecting forests.
To delimit the areas of their natural habitat.
To protect wildlife from pollution and from natural hazard.
In order to protect animals, many national parks, sanctuaries and biosphere reserves should be set up.
Laws should be implemented to save the wildlife.
Programmes such as Joint Forest Management should be encouraged.
Any other relevant point.
Any two points to be explained.
Q25.2023 Main 32/2/1 · Q222 marks
Suggest any two ways to conserve wildlife in India.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023, Set 32/2/1
Wildlife (Protection) Act was implemented in 1972 with various provisions for protecting habitat. (Ban on hunting, poaching, encroachment, legal protection to wildlife habitat, restricting trade in wildlife, established national parks and wildlife sanctuaries, initiated various projects)
Organize wildlife club/ nature clubs to create awareness among people.
Enabling wildlife conservation-friendly community empowerment.
Introducing afforestation programs.
Controlling forest fire.
Proper utilization of forest resources.
Any other relevant point
Any two points to be explained.
Q26.2026 Main 32/3/1 · Q174 marks
Joint Forest Management
In India the Joint Forest Management (JFM) programme furnishes a good example for involving local communities in the management and restoration of degraded forests. The programme has been in formal existence since 1988 when the state of Odisha passed the first resolution for joint forest management. JFM depends on the formation of local (village) institutions that undertake protection activities mostly on degraded forest land managed by the forest department. In return, the members of these communities are entitled to intermediary benefits like non-timber forest produces and share in the timber harvested by ‘successful protection’.
The clear lesson from the dynamics of both environmental destruction and reconstruction in India is that local communities everywhere have to be involved in some kind of natural resource management. But there is still a long way to go before local communities are at the centre-stage in decision-making. Accept only those economic or developmental activities, that are people centric, environment-friendly and economically rewarding.
(17.1) Why is conservation of forests necessary ?
(17.2) Which type of forests are protected under the ‘Joint Forest Management’ programme ?
(17.3) Explain the role of local communities in forest conservation.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026, Set 32/3/1
17.1
To maintain ecological balance
To conserve wildlife.
Any other relevant point.
Any one point to be explained
17.2 Degraded Forest.
17.3
In India, forests are home to some of the traditional communities.
The inhabitants of five villages in the Alwar district of Rajasthan have declared 1200 hectares of forests as ‘Bhairavodev Dakav Sonchuri’ declaring their own set of rules and regulations.
Local communities and the government can join hands in the conservation of forest.
Local communities can suggest methods of forest conservation.
Local communities can organize protests and movements to sensitize public about the need of forest conservation viz. Chipko and Navdanya movement.
Any other relevant point.
Any two points to be explained.
Q27.2025 Main 32/4/1 · Q354 marks
Read the given source and answer the questions that follow :
Sacred Groves – a wealth of diverse and rare species
Nature worship is an age old tribal belief based on the premise that all creations of nature have to be protected. Such beliefs have preserved several virgin forests in pristine form called Sacred Groves (the forests of God and Goddesses). These patches of forest or parts of large forests have been left untouched by the local people and any interference with them is banned. Certain societies revere a particular tree which they have preserved from time immemorial. The Mundas and the Santhal of Chota Nagpur region worship mahua (Bassia latifolia) and kadamba (Anthocaphalus cadamba) trees, and the tribals of Odisha and Bihar worship the tamarind (Tamarindus indica) and mango (Mangifera indica) trees during weddings. To many of us, peepal and banyan trees are considered sacred.
Indian society comprises several cultures, each with its own set of traditional methods of conserving nature and its creations. Sacred qualities are often ascribed to springs, mountain peaks, plants and animals which are closely protected. You will find troops of macaques and langurs around many temples. They are fed daily and treated as a part of temple devotees. In and around Bishnoi villages in Rajasthan, herds of blackbuck (chinkara), nilgai and peacocks can be seen as an integral part of the community and nobody harms them.
35.1 How do sacred groves show the inter-connectivity of spirituality and ecology ? (1)
35.2 How do tribal practices promote conservation of forests ? (1)
35.3 Why is conservation of wildlife important for all of us ? Explain. (2)
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025, Set 32/4/1
35.1
Sacred qualities are often ascribed to springs, mountain peaks, plants and animals which are closely protected.
In many communities mountains, plants and animals are worshipped.
Any other relevant point.
Any one point to be explained.
35.2
The Mundas and the Santhals of Chota Nagpur region worship mahua and kadamba trees.
Tribals of Odisha and Bihar worship the tamarind and mango trees during weddings.
Any other relevant point.
Any one point to be explained.
35.3
It maintains ecological balance.
Preserves ecological diversity.
Preserves our life support system.
Any other relevant point.
Any two points to be explained.
Q28.2024 Main 32/2/1 · Q354 marks
Read the following source carefully and answer the questions that follow :
Project Tiger
Tiger is one of the key wildlife species in the faunal web. In 1973, the authorities realized that the tiger population had dwindled to 1,827 from an estimated 55,000 at the turn of the 20th century. The major threats to tiger population are numerous, such as poaching for trade, shrinking habitat, depletion of prey base species, growing human population, etc. The trade of tiger skins and the use of their bones in traditional medicines, especially in the Asian countries left the tiger population on the verge of extinction. Since India and Nepal provide habitat to about two-thirds of the surviving tiger population in the world, these two nations become prime targets for poaching and illegal trading.
“Project Tiger”, one of the well publicised wildlife campaigns in the world, was launched in 1973. Tiger conservation has been viewed not only as an effort to save an endangered species but with equal importance as a means of preserving biotypes of sizeable magnitude. Corbett National Park in Uttarakhand, Sunderbans National Park in West Bengal, Bandhavgarh National Park in Madhya Pradesh, Sariska Wildlife Sanctuary in Rajasthan, Manas Tiger Reserve in Assam and Periyar Tiger Reserve in Kerala are some examples of the tiger reserves in India.
(35.1) Why was ‘Project Tiger’ considered a significant step for Tiger Conservation ?
(35.2) What role did India play in the global tiger population ?
(35.3) Mention any two major threats to the wildlife species.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024, Set 32/2/1
(35.1)
‘Project Tiger’ is an effort to save a single species on a large scale.
Project aimed to address the decline in tiger numbers caused by threats like poaching, habitat loss, depletion of prey species and human encroachment.
Played vital role in safeguarding the tiger population while indirectly protecting entire ecosystems.
Any other relevant point.
Any one point to be mentioned
(35.2)
Wildlife Protection Act for protecting Habitat
Ban on hunting
Restriction on trade in wildlife
National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuary
India and Nepal provide habitat to about two-third of the surviving tiger population in the world.
Project Tiger was launched to protect tigers and their habitats.
There are 39 tiger reserves in India.
Any other relevant point.
Any one point to be mentioned
(35.3)
Poaching for trade: Illegal hunting of tigers for their valuable skin and bones used in traditional medicines.
Habitat Loss: Human activities like deforestation, urban expansion and agricultural activities etc.
Depletion of prey base species: Reduction in the number of animals that tiger prey upon, resulting in food scarcity.
Any other relevant point.
Any two points to be mentioned.
Q29.2024 Main 32/3/1 · Q354 marks
Read the following source and answer the questions that follow :
Sacred Groves – A wealth of diverse and rare species
Nature worship is an age old tribal belief based on the premise that all creations of nature have to be protected. Such beliefs have preserved several virgin forests in pristine form called Sacred Groves (the forests of God and Goddesses). These patches of forest or parts of large forests have been left untouched by the local people and any interference with them is banned.
Certain societies revere a particular tree which they have preserved from time immemorial. The Mundas and the Santhal of Chota Nagpur region worship mahua (Bassia latifolia) and kadamba (Anthocephalus cadamba) trees, and the tribals of Odisha and Bihar worship the tamarind (Tamarindus indica) and mango (Mangifera indica) trees during weddings. To many of us, peepal and banyan trees are considered sacred.
Indian society comprises several cultures, each with its own set of traditional methods of conserving nature and its creations. Sacred qualities are often ascribed to springs, mountain peaks, plants and animals which are closely protected. You will find troops of macaques and langurs around many temples. They are fed daily and treated as a part of temple devotees. In and around Bishnoi villages in Rajasthan, herds of blackbuck, (chinkara), nilgai and peacocks can be seen as an integral part of the community and nobody harms them.
(35.1) How does sacred groves relate to the belief in nature worship ?
(35.2) How do communities incorporate trees into their cultural practices ? Explain with example.
(35.3) Explain the cultural values that contribute to the coexistence of nature.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024, Set 32/3/1
(35.1)
The concept of ‘Sacred Groves’ refers to patches of untouched, pristine forests that are preserved in nature worship.
There groves are considered sacred and are protected by local communities as they believe that all creations of nature must be safeguarded.
In these areas human interference is banned to maintain the sanctity of natural environment. The groves exemplify the deep-rooted connection between nature worship and environment conservation.
Any other relevant points
Any one Point
(35.2)
Certain societies express reverence for specific trees by incorporating them into their cultural practices.
The Mundas and Santhal tribes worship the mahua and kadamba trees, respectively, during ceremonies.
During weddings, the tribes in Odisha and Bihar hold special reverence for tamarind beliefs, reflecting a harmonious relationship between natures.
Any other relevant points
Any one Point
(35.3)
Animals like blackbucks, nilgai and peacocks hold significance for the Bishnoi communities in Rajasthan.
They are considered integral to the community and way of life, representing a harmonious relationship with nature.
The Bishnois follow the principle of and Jeev daya; (compassion for all living beings) and have a strong cultural commitment to protect animals and the environment.
This coexistence is driven by their religious beliefs and values that prioritize the well – being of all creatures.
Any other relevant points
Any two points to be mentioned.
Q30.2023 Main 32/6/1 · Q354 marks
COMMUNITY AND CONSERVATION
Conservation strategies are not new in our country. We often ignore that in India, forests are also home to some of the traditional communities. In some areas of India, local communities are struggling to conserve these habitats along with government officials, recognising that only this will secure their own long-term livelihood. In Sariska Tiger Reserve, Rajasthan, villagers have fought against mining by citing the Wildlife Protection Act. In many areas, villagers themselves are protecting habitats and explicitly rejecting government involvement. The inhabitants of five villages in the Alwar district of Rajasthan have declared 1,200 hectares of forest as the Bhairodev Dakav ‘Sonchuri’, declaring their own set of rules and regulations which do not allow hunting, and are protecting the wildlife against any outside encroachments.
(35.1) How are forests related with Communities ?
(35.2) Explain the aim of ‘Wildlife Protection Act.
(35.3) How are communities working for the conservation of Wildlife ? Explain with example.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023, Set 32/6/1
(35.1)
It serves as the home to the traditional communities.
It serves as a source of livelihood.
Any other relevant point.
Any one point.
(35.2)
To prohibit hunting of wild animals; birds.
Impose punishment for violating these rules/ laws.
To protects wildlife against any outside encroachment.
To provide security to animals that is not in danger of becoming extinct.
Any other relevant point.
Any one point.
(35.3)
In many areas, villagers themselves are protecting habitats and explicitly rejecting government involvement.
The inhabitants of five villages in the Alwar district of Rajasthan have declared 1,200 hectares of forest as the Bhairodev Dakav ‘Sonchuri’.
Here they declaring their own set of rules and regulations which do not allow hunting and are protecting the wildlife against any outside encroachments.
Any other relevant point
Any two points.
Q31.SQP 2026-27 · Q184 marks
Read the given text and answer the following questions:
Role of Communities in Forest Conservation
In many parts of India, especially in tribal and mountainous regions, local communities depend on forests for fuel, fodder, and livelihood. Over time, people realised that uncontrolled exploitation by contractors and commercial interests was destroying forests and threatening their survival. This led to community-led conservation efforts where people actively protected forests through traditional practices and movements. One such movement began in the Himalayan region, where villagers protected trees by hugging them, highlighting the importance of people’s participation in conservation.
Source- Contemporary India – II, NCERT, Chapter 2
18.1 State any one objective of community-based forest conservation. 18.2 How does people’s participation lead to more effective forest resource management? Elaborate with the help of two examples. 18.3 Name the forest conservation movement referred to in the given source.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27
18.1 To ensure the protection and sustainable use of forest resources by involving local communities.
18.2
Local communities possess traditional knowledge of forests, which helps in their sustainable management.
People develop a sense of responsibility and ownership, preventing over-exploitation of resources.
Examples:
Farmers and citizen’s groups like the Beej Bachao Andolan in Tehri and Navdanya have shown that adequate levels of diversified crop production without the use of synthetic chemicals are possible and economically viable.
Joint Forest Management (JFM), where local communities and the government jointly manage forest resources.
(Or any other relevant example(s)) – (any 2)
18.3 Chipko Movement
Contemporary India II · Geography
3. Water Resources
Q1.2026 Main 32/2/1 · Q111 mark
In which Indian state is ‘Bamboo drip irrigation’ system used ?
Himachal Pradesh
Kerala
Rajasthan
Meghalaya
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026, Set 32/2/1
(D) Meghalaya
Q2.2026 Main 32/3/1 · Q131 mark
Arrange the location of the following dams of India from North to South and choose the correct option :
I. Pravara II. Salal III. Koyna IV. Gandhi Sagar
II, IV, III, I
II, IV, I, III
III, II, IV, I
III, IV, II, I
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026, Set 32/3/1
(B) II, IV, I, III
Q3.2025 Main 32/1/1 · Q71 mark
Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option :
Column I (Dam)
Column II (River)
a. Hirakud
i. Chambal
b. Gandhi Sagar
ii. Krishna
c. Nagarjuna Sagar
iii. Kaveri
d. Mettur
iv. Mahanadi
Options :
a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii
a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii
a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025, Set 32/1/1
(C) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
Q4.2025 Main 32/1/1 · Q81 mark
Choose the correct option regarding major states involved in the Krishna – Godavari issue :
Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu
Maharashtra, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh
Gujarat, Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh
Jharkhand, Andhra Pradesh and Odisha
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025, Set 32/1/1
(B) Maharashtra, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh
Q5.2025 Main 32/2/1 · Q71 mark
Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option :
Column I (River)
Column II (Dam)
a. Chambal
i. Salal
b. Ganga
ii. Bhakra Nangal
c. Chenab
iii. Gandhi Sagar
d. Satluj
iv. Tehri
Options :
a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025, Set 32/2/1
(C) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
Q6.2025 Main 32/2/1 · Q81 mark
Choose the correct option of the states that have been majorly benefitted by the Sardar Sarovar Dam.
Rajasthan, Gujarat, Punjab and Haryana
Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat and Rajasthan
Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Telangana and Andhra Pradesh
Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Karnataka and Chhattisgarh
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025, Set 32/2/1
(B) Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat and Rajasthan
Q7.2025 Main 32/5/1 · Q71 mark
Choose the correct option to fill the blank.
An artificial lake built in the 11th century for water conservation is __________.
Sambhar Lake
Wular Lake
Bhopal Lake
Chilka Lake
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025, Set 32/5/1
(C) Bhopal Lake
Q8.2025 Main 32/5/1 · Q81 mark
Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option :
Column-I (Dam)
Column-II (River)
a. Sardar Sarovar
i. Mahanadi
b. Salal
ii. Chambal
c. Gandhi Sagar
iii. Narmada
d. Hirakud
iv. Chenab
a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025, Set 32/5/1
(C) a-iii, b- iv, c- ii, d-i
Q9.2025 Main 32/6/1 · Q201 mark
Choose the correctly matched pair :
I (Multi-purpose River Project)
II (River)
(A) Gandhi Sagar
Chambal
(B) Hirakud
Godavari
(C) Nagarjuna Sagar
Kaveri
(D) Salal
Beas
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025, Set 32/6/1
(A) Gandhi Sagar-Chambal
Q10.2024 Main 32/3/1 · Q81 mark
Which one of the following is the irrigation system in Meghalaya ?
To irrigate land only during rainy season.
To use large volumes of water for irrigation.
To remove water from soil.
To use bamboo drip irrigation system.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024, Set 32/3/1
(D) To use bamboo drip irrigation system
Q11.2024 Main 32/4/1 · Q61 mark
Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option.
Column I (Dams)
Column II (Rivers)
i.
Sardar Sarovar
a.
Sutlej
ii.
Hirakud
b.
Krishna
iii.
Bhakra Nangal
c.
Narmada
iv.
Nagarjuna Sagar
d.
Mahanadi
Options :
i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c
i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a
i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024, Set 32/4/1
(D) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b
Q12.2024 Main 32/5/1 · Q61 mark
In which one of the following states is ‘bamboo drip irrigation system’ prevalent ?
Tamil Nadu
West Bengal
Meghalaya
Odisha
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024, Set 32/5/1
(C) Meghalaya
Q13.2024 Supp 32/S/1 · Q61 mark
In which one of the following states are ‘Tankas’ prominently prevalent for rainwater harvesting ?
Tamil Nadu
Rajasthan
Bihar
Jharkhand
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Supplementary 2024, Set 32/S/1
(B) Rajasthan
Q14.2023 Main 32/1/1 · Q61 mark
In which of the following States Tungabhadra Dam is located ?
Tamil Nadu
Kerala
Andhra Pradesh
Karnataka
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023, Set 32/1/1
(D) Karnataka
Q15.2023 Main 32/6/1 · Q61 mark
Match the Column – A with Column – B and choose the correct option :
Column – A (River)
Column – B (Dam)
I. Mahanadi
1. Sardar Sarovar
II. Narmada
2. Hirakud
III. Chambal
3. Salal
IV. Chenab
4. Rana Pratap Sagar
Options :
I – 4, II – 3, III – 2, IV – 1
I – 3, II – 4, III – 1, IV – 2
I – 2, II – 1, III – 4, IV – 3
I – 1, II – 2, III – 3, IV – 4
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023, Set 32/6/1
(C) I – 2, II – 1, III – 4, IV – 3
Q16.SQP 2025-26 · Q141 mark
Which one of the following states has made roof top water harvesting compulsory in India?
Haryana
Punjab
Assam
Tamil Nadu.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26
(D) Tamil Nadu
Q17.SQP 2025-26 · Q151 mark
Which of the following statements best evaluates the overall goal of the Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchaee Yojana?
Addressing the negative ecological effects of large dams by reducing water usage.
To provide better irrigation systems and sustainable water conservation practices for farmers.
Shifting farmers from traditional crops to more commercial, water-intensive crops.
Preserve the natural river flow and prevent the fragmentation of aquatic ecosystems.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26
(B) To provide better irrigation systems and sustainable water conservation practices for farmers.
Q18.SQP 2026-27 · Q162 marks
A drought-prone district wants to adopt a sustainable water conservation method using traditional knowledge. Suggest two suitable rainwater harvesting practices that could be implemented.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27
Rooftop rainwater harvesting: Rainwater collected from rooftops is stored in tanks for domestic use, helping reduce dependence on surface and groundwater sources during dry periods.
Johads or khadins: These structures store rainwater and allow it to seep into the ground, which helps recharge groundwater and supports irrigation in water-scarce areas.
Q19.2025 Main 32/3/1 · Q263 marks
How have industrialisation and urbanisation impacted water supply ? Explain.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025, Set 32/3/1
It has created a huge pressure on our water resources.
Fragile water resources are being over-exploited.
Depletion of ground water resources.
Untreated release of affluents by industries have increased the toxicity in water.
Any other relevant point.
(Any three points to be described and students views to be considered.)
Q20.2026 Exam 2 32/7/1 · Q174 marks
Water Supply
Post-independent India witnessed intensive industrialisation and urbanisation, creating vast opportunities for us. Today, large industrial houses are as commonplace as the industrial units of many MNCs (Multinational Corporations). The ever-increasing number of industries has made matters worse by exerting pressure on existing freshwater resources. Industries, apart from being heavy users of water, also require power to run them. Much of this energy comes from hydroelectric power. Moreover, multiplying urban centres with large and dense populations and urban lifestyles have not only added to water and energy requirements but have further aggravated the problem. If you look into the housing societies or colonies in the cities, you would find that most of these have their own groundwater pumping devices to meet their water needs. Not surprisingly, we find that fragile water resources are being over-exploited and have caused their depletion in several of these cities.
(17.1) Explain the significance of water in the industrialisation of the country.
(17.2) How has urbanisation increased the demand for water ?
(17.3) Suggest any two measures to prevent the over-exploitation of water resources.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Exam 2), Set 32/7/1
17.1
Water is the most important component for industries like jute, cotton textile, pulp etc.
Industries use electricity which are mostly provided by the hydroelectricity as clean fuels.
Any other relevant point.
Any One point to be explained.
17.2
As and when urban areas expands, population increase so demand of water also increases.
Any other relevant point
Any One point to be explained.
17.3
Water should be used in judicious manner.
Recycling of water.
Reuse of water.
Any other relevant point.
Any two suggestion to be explained.
Q21.2026 Exam 2 32/8/1 · Q174 marks
Read the given source carefully and answer the questions that follow :
Dam
A dam is a barrier across flowing water that obstructs, directs or retards the flow, often creating a reservoir, lake or impoundment. “Dam” refers to the reservoir rather than the structure. Most dams have a section called a spillway or weir over which or through which it is intended that water will flow either intermittently or continuously. Dams are classified according to structure, intended purpose or height. Based on structure and the materials used, dams are classified as timber dams, embankment dams or masonry dams, with several subtypes. According to the height, dams can be categorised as large dams and major dams or alternatively as low dams, medium height dams and high dams.
17.1 Define the term Dam. (1) 17.2 How do dams help in water management ? (1) 17.3 Why are dams called as multipurpose projects ? (2)
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 Exam 2, Set 32/8/1
17.1 A dam is a barrier to flowing water that obstruct, direct or refeeds the flow often creating a reservoir, lake or impoundment.
17.2 Dams manage flow of water and through canals provide water for irrigation.
17.3
Dams control flood water.
Through canals, dams provide water for agriculture.
They are a source of electricity generation.
Dams provide water for domestic and industrial use.
Dams provide inland navigation.
Dams promote fish breeding.
Any other relevant point.
Any two points to be explained
Q22.2026 Main 32/4/1 · Q184 marks
Sardar Sarovar Project
Sardar Sarovar Dam has been built over the Narmada river in Gujarat. This is one of the largest water resources projects of India covering four states – Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat and Rajasthan. The Sardar Sarovar Project would meet the requirement of water in drought prone and desert areas. Sardar Sarovar Project will provide irrigation facilities to 18.45 lakh hectare of land, covering 3112 villages in 15 districts of Gujarat. It will also irrigate 2,46,000 hectare of land in the strategic desert districts of Barmer and Jalore in Rajasthan and 37,500 hectare in the tribal hilly tract of Maharashtra through lift. About 75% of the command area in Gujarat is drought prone while entire command in Rajasthan is drought prone. Assured water supply will soon make this area drought proof.
18.1 Why is Sardar Sarovar Project considered important for Gujarat ?
18.2 Why is Sardar Sarovar Project designed to cover four states ?
18.3 In what ways does this project promote sustainability ?
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026, Set 32/4/1
18.1
Sardar Sarovar Project provides irrigation facilities to 18.45 lakh hectare of land, covering 3112 villages in 15 districts of Gujarat.
Any other relevant point.
(Any one point to be explained.)
18.2
The Sardar Sarovar Project is designed to cover the requirement of water in drought prone and desert areas of all these four states.
It is also aimed to provide irrigation facilities in some areas in Gujarat, Rajasthan and Maharashtra.
Any other relevant point.
(Any one point to be explained.)
18.3
Sardar Sarovar Projects provides drinking water facilities to the draught prone areas of these states.
It irrigates large areas of agricultural lands ensuring food security to large populations.
It also generates hydro-electric energy which is renewable and clean energy source.
It also ensures recharge of ground water supporting sustainable water management.
Any other relevant point.
(Any two points to be explained.)
Q23.2026 Main 32/5/1 · Q184 marks
Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana
Floods have not only devastated life and property but also caused extensive soil erosion. Sedimentation also meant that the flood plains were deprived of silt, a natural fertilizer, further adding on to the problem of land degradation. It was also observed that the multipurpose projects induced earthquakes, caused water-borne diseases and pests and pollution resulting from excessive use of water.
Irrigation has also changed the cropping pattern of many regions with farmers shifting to water intensive and commercial crops. This has great ecological consequences like salinisation of the soil.
Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana has been started which ensures access to some means to protective irrigation for all agricultural farms in the country, thus bringing much desired rural prosperity. Some of the broad objectives of this programme are to enhance the physical access of water on the farm and expand cultivable area under assured irrigation (har khet ko pani), improve on farm water, use efficiency to reduce wastage and increase availability both in duration and extent, irrigation and other water saving technologies (per drop more crop) and introduce sustainable water conservation practices, etc.
(18.1) Explain the role of floods in land degradation.
(18.2) How has irrigation changed cropping pattern ?
(18.3) Explain any two objectives of the ‘Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana’.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026, Set 32/5/1
18.1
Floods cause soil erosion.
Floods also cause sedimentation, which means that flood plains are deprived of silt, a natural fertilizer, further adding to the problem of land degradation.
Any other relevant point.
Any one point to be explained.
18.2
Farmers are shifting to water intensive crops.
They are also shifting to commercial cropping.
Any other relevant point.
Any one point to be explained.
18.3
Increase physical access of water on the farm.
Expand cultivable area under assured irrigation. (har khet ko pani)
Improve on farm water use efficiency to reduce wastage.
Introduce sustainable water conservation practices.
Reduce wastage of water and increase efficiency of irrigation by adopting drip and sprinkler irrigation.
Irrigation and other water saving technologies (per drop more crop).
Any other relevant point.
Any two points to be explained.
Q24.2025 Supp 32/S/1 · Q354 marks
Read the given source and answer the questions that follow :
Sardar Sarovar
Sardar Sarovar Dam has been built over the Narmada River in Gujarat. This is one of the largest water resource projects of India covering four states — Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat and Rajasthan. The Sardar Sarovar project would meet the requirement of water in drought-prone and desert areas. Sardar Sarovar Project will provide irrigation facilities to 18.45 lakh hectare of land, covering 3112 villages in 15 districts of Gujarat. It will also irrigate 2,46,000 hectare of land in the strategic desert districts of Barmer and Jalore in Rajasthan and 37,500 hectare land in the tribal hilly tract of Maharashtra through lift. About 75 per cent of the command area in Gujarat is drought-prone while entire command in Rajasthan is drought-prone. Assured water supply will soon make this area drought-proof.
(35.1) Explain the importance of Sardar Sarovar Dam. (1)
(35.2) How does Sardar Sarovar Dam align with sustainable development ? (1)
(35.3) Examine the role of community participation in the success of the Sardar Sarovar Project. (2)
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Supplementary 2025, Set 32/S/1
35.1
To meet the requirement of water in draught prone and desert areas.
Sardar Sarovar project has provided irrigation facilities.
Any other relevant point.
Any one point to be explained.
35.2
Sardar Sarovar Project is a source of clean energy.
It caters for the needs of future generations.
Any other relevant point
Any one point to be explained.
35.3
Sardar Sarovar project covers four states — Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat and Rajasthan.
Project provide irrigation facilities to 18.45 lakh hectare of land, covering 3112 villages in 15 districts of Gujarat.
It facilitates irrigation to 2,46,000 hectares of land in the strategic desert districts of Barmer and Jalore in Rajasthan and 37,500-hectare land in the tribal hilly tract of Maharashtra through lift.
Any other relevant point
Any two points to be examined.
Q25.2023 Main 32/2/1 · Q354 marks
Most of the objections to the projects arose due to their failure to achieve the purposes for which they were built. Ironically, the dams that were constructed to control the floods have triggered floods due to sedimentation in the reservoir. Moreover, the big dams have mostly been unsuccessful in controlling floods at the time of excessive rainfall. You may have seen or read how the release of water from the dams during heavy rains aggravated the flood situation in Maharashtra and Gujarat in 2006. The floods have not only devastated life and property but also caused extensive soil erosion. Sedimentation also meant that the flood plains were deprived of silt, a natural fertiliser, further adding on to the problem of land degradation. It was also observed that the multi-purpose projects induced earthquakes, caused water-borne diseases and pests and pollution resulting from excessive use of water.
(35.1) Name the movement against the river project in Gujarat.
(35.2) How have the big dams mostly been unsuccessful in controlling floods at the time of excessive rainfall ?
(35.3) Analyse any two merits of multi-purpose river projects.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023, Set 32/2/1
(35.1)
Narmada Bachao Andolan
(35.2)
Because big dams release of water from dams during heavy rains aggravated the flood situation.
Any other relevant points.
(35.3)
Generation of electricity
Canal for irrigation
Soil conservation in nearby areas
Any other relevant points
Any two points to be explained
Q26.2023 Main 32/4/1 · Q354 marks
RAINWATER HARVESTING
Many thought that given the disadvantages and rising resistance against the multi purpose projects, water harvesting system was a viable alternative, both socio-economically and environmentally. In ancient India, along with the sophisticated hydraulic structures, there existed an extraordinary tradition of water harvesting system. People had in-depth knowledge of rainfall regimes and soil types and developed wide ranging techniques to harvest rainwater, groundwater, river water and flood water in keeping with the local ecological conditions and their water needs. In hill and mountainous regions, people built diversion channels like the ‘guls’ or ‘kuls’ of the Western Himalayas for agriculture. ‘Rooftop rainwater harvesting’ was commonly practised to store drinking water, particularly in Rajasthan. In the flood plains of Bengal, people developed inundation channels to irrigate their fields. In arid and semi-arid regions, agricultural fields were converted into rain fed storage structures that allowed the water to stand and moisten the soil like the ‘khadins’ in Jaisalmer and ‘Johads’ in other parts of Rajasthan.
(I) Why is water harvesting system a viable alternative ?
(II) Describe the process of ‘rooftop rainwater harvesting.’
(III) Mention any two methods adopted by ancient India for water conservation.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023, Set 32/4/1
(I)
It is an inexpensive method of conservation of water.
Common people can also afford it.
Water harvesting techniques are environmentally friendly.
Any other relevant points.
Any one point to be explained.
(II)
Rooftop rainwater is collected using a PVC pipe.
Filtered using sand and bricks.
Underground pipe takes water to sump for immediate usage.
Excess water from the sump is taken to the well
Water from the well recharge the underground
Take water from the well
Any other way of description may be considered.
Any one point to be explained.
(III)
Hydraulic structures
In hilly regions people-built diversion channels like the guls or kuls for agriculture.
Roof-top rainwater harvesting was practised in Rajasthan.
In the flood plains of Bengal people developed inundation channels to irrigate their fields.
Khadins, Johads and Tanks are the forms of rainwater harvesting practised in Rajasthan.
Any other relevant point
Any two points to be explained.
Q27.2023 Main 32/5/1 · Q354 marks
In ancient India, along with the sophisticated hydraulic structures, there existed an extraordinary tradition of water-harvesting system. People had an in-depth knowledge of rainfall regimes and soil types and developed wide ranging techniques to harvest groundwater, rainwater, river water and flood water in keeping with the local ecological conditions and their water needs. In hilly and mountainous regions, people built diversion channels like the ‘kuls’ and ‘guls’ of Western Himalayas for agriculture. Rooftop rainwater harvesting was very commonly practised to store drinking water, particularly in Rajasthan.
(35.1) Mention any two methods of traditional water-harvesting used in India.
(35.2) How do people of Rajasthan utilise rainwater ?
(35.3) Explain any two benefits of rainwater harvesting.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023, Set 32/5/1
(35.1)
Inundation channels of Bengal.
Khadins of Rajasthan
Johads of Rajasthan
Any other relevant point
Any two.
(35.2)
They have arranged underground tanks or tankas for storing water.
They have a well developed roof top rainwater harvesting system (palarpani) and were built inside the main house or courtyard.
It is a reliable source of drinking water
It beats the summer heat as it would keep the room cool
Any other relevant point.
Any one point to be explained.
(35.3)
Rainwater harvesting is used to meet peoples and regions water needs.
Rain water can be used by building diversion channels used for agriculture .
They can be stored as drinking water particularly in Rajasthan
Rainwater harvesting is used to maintain water in tanks.
Rainwater harvesting is used to maintain room temperature through tanks and ducting.
Any other relevant point
Any two points to be explained.
Q28.2023 Supp 32/C/1 · Q354 marks
Read the following source carefully and answer the questions that follow :
A dam is a barrier across flowing water that obstructs, directs or retards the flow, often creating a reservoir, lake or impoundment. “Dam” refers to the reservoir rather than the structure. Most dams have a section called a spillway or weir over which or through which it is intended that water will flow either intermittently or continuously. Dams are classified according to structure, intended purpose or height. Based on structure and the materials used, dams are classified as timber dams, embankment dams or masonry dams, with several subtypes. According to the height, dams can be categorised as large dams and major dams or alternatively as low dams, medium height dams and high dams.
(35.1) What does the word ‘Dam’ actually refer to ?
(35.2) Mention any one benefit of a Multi-purpose River Valley Project.
(35.3) How have multi-purpose river valley projects a cause of social movements ? Explain.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Supplementary Examination July 2023, Set 32/C/1
(35.1) “Dam” refers to the reservoir rather than the structure or a dam is a barrier across flowing water that obstructs, directs or retards the flow, often creating a reservoir, lake or impoundment.
(35.2)
Dams are used for electricity generation.
Dams are used for irrigation purpose.
Any other relevant point.
Any one point to be mentioned.
(35.3)
Large scale displacement of local communities.
Local people had to give up their land and livelihood.
Local people lost control over their meagre resources for the greater good of the nation.
Any other relevant point.
Any two points to be mentioned.
Contemporary India II · Geography
4. Agriculture
Q1.2026 Exam 2 32/7/1 · Q111 mark
Read the information given in the box carefully and choose the most appropriate option related to crop.
It is a crop from an equatorial region.
It requires more than 200 cm of rainfall.
It requires a warm and humid climate with high temperature.
Rubber
Sugarcane
Wheat
Oilseeds
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Exam 2), Set 32/7/1
(A) Rubber
Q2.2026 Exam 2 32/7/1 · Q121 mark
Match Column I with Column II related to the slash and burn agriculture system and choose the correct option :
Column I (Name of slash and burn system)
Column II (State)
a.
Bewar
i.
Odisha
b.
Podu
ii.
Madhya Pradesh
c.
Pama Dabi
iii.
Jharkhand
d.
Kuruwa
iv.
Andhra Pradesh
a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i
a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv
a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Exam 2), Set 32/7/1
(B) a – ii, b – iv, c – i, d – iii
Q3.2026 Exam 2 32/8/1 · Q111 mark
Which of the following names was given to the ‘Bhoodan-Gramdan Movement’ ?
Blood Revolution
Green Revolution
White Revolution
Blood-less Revolution
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 Exam 2, Set 32/8/1
(D) Blood-less Revolution.
Q4.2026 Exam 2 32/8/1 · Q121 mark
Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option :
Assertion (A) : The states like West Bengal, Bihar, Assam, Odisha are leading in jute production. Reason (R) : Regur soil is mainly found in these states.
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(A) is true, but (R) is false.
(A) is false, but (R) is true.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 Exam 2, Set 32/8/1
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
Q5.2026 Main 32/1/1 · Q121 mark
Match Column - I with Column - II and choose the correct option :
Column - I (Types of Farming)
Column - II (Features)
I. Primitive subsistence farming
(a) Use of modern inputs with less labour
II. Intensive subsistence farming
(b) Single crop cultivation on large scale
III. Commercial farming
(c) Slash and burn cultivation
IV. Plantation farming
(d) Labour intensive cultivation
I-(c), II-(a), III-(d), IV-(b)
I-(a), II-(b), III-(d), IV-(c)
I-(c), II-(d), III-(a), IV-(b)
I-(d), II-(c), III-(b), IV-(a)
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026, Set 32/1/1
(C) I -(c), II-(d), III-(a), IV-(b)
Q6.2026 Main 32/2/1 · Q131 mark
Identify the plantation crop from the following :
Wheat
Bajra
Rice
Rubber
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026, Set 32/2/1
(D) Rubber
Q7.2026 Main 32/3/1 · Q121 mark
Choose the correct option related to main crops of Kharif cropping season :
Urad, Gram, Groundnut, Mustard
Wheat, Peas, Soyabean, Bajra
Maize, Mustard, Gram, Jowar
Paddy, Maize, Groundnut, Soybean
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026, Set 32/3/1
(D) Paddy, Maize, Groundnut, Soybean
Q8.2026 Main 32/4/1 · Q151 mark
Which one of the following crops grows well in hot and humid climate ?
Sugarcane
Peas
Wheat
Gram
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026, Set 32/4/1
(A) Sugarcane
Q9.2026 Main 32/5/1 · Q121 mark
Identify the correct option related to major crops grown in the ‘Kharif’ cropping season in India :
Paddy, Peas, Mustard
Paddy, Mustard, Gram
Paddy, Jowar, Maize
Paddy, Maize, Gram
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026, Set 32/5/1
(C) Paddy, Jowar, Maize
Q10.2025 Main 32/1/1 · Q91 mark
Imagine you are travelling from Delhi to Chandigarh to attend a wedding, by road in January. Which of the following crops will you notice prominently in the fields during the journey ?
Paddy
Maize
Wheat
Jowar
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025, Set 32/1/1
(C) Wheat
Q11.2025 Main 32/2/1 · Q91 mark
Swapna is a small farmer. Swapna wants to cultivate cotton. What kind of geographical conditions will be suitable for this ? Choose the most appropriate option.
Laterite soil, Moderate rainfall, Low temperature and Bright sunshine
Black soil, Light rainfall, High temperature and Bright sunshine
Laterite soil, Light rainfall, High temperature and Moderate sunshine
Black soil, High rainfall, Low temperature and Moderate sunshine
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025, Set 32/2/1
(B) Black Soil, Light rainfall, High Temperature and Bright Sunshine
Q12.2025 Main 32/3/1 · Q161 mark
Mrs. Monica, along with her family, clears a piece of land and grows grain and other food crops to feed her family. When the soil’s fertility decreases, she prepares another piece of land for agriculture. Which of the following methods of agriculture does she use ?
Plantation farming
Slash and burn farming
Intensive subsistence farming
Commercial farming
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025, Set 32/3/1
(B) Slash and burn farming
Q13.2025 Main 32/4/1 · Q61 mark
Identify the crop with the help of information given in the box.
This crop is a major cash crop in India.
It is cultivated mainly in the states of Karnataka and Tamil Nadu.
It is known for its aroma.
Tea
Coffee
Jute
Cotton
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025, Set 32/4/1
(b) Coffee
Q14.2025 Main 32/5/1 · Q91 mark
With the help of following information identify the agricultural crop from the given options :
It requires more than 200 cm. rainfall and temperature above 25 °C.
It is mainly used as raw material in industries.
It is primarily a crop of the equatorial region.
Cotton
Rubber
Groundnut
Mustard
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025, Set 32/5/1
(B) Rubber
Q15.2025 Main 32/6/1 · Q191 mark
Which among the following crop is known as ‘Golden Fibre’ ?
Cotton
Wool
Jute
Silk
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025, Set 32/6/1
(C) Jute
Q16.2025 Supp 32/S/1 · Q61 mark
Identify the fibre crop with the help of the following information :
It is known as Golden fibre.
It is extensively cultivated in Odisha and parts of Meghalaya.
Jute
Cotton
Silk
Linen
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Supplementary 2025, Set 32/S/1
(A) Jute
Q17.2024 Main 32/1/1 · Q61 mark
Read the given statements and choose the correct option with regard to Rabi cropping season from the following :
Rabi crops are sown in winter.
Sown from October to December and harvested from April to June.
Important crops are Maize, Cotton, Jute.
Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh are important for the production of wheat.
Options :
I, III and IV
II, III and IV
I, II and IV
I, II and III
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024, Set 32/1/1
(c) I, II and IV
Q18.2024 Main 32/2/1 · Q71 mark
Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option :
Column-I (Crop)
Column-II (Type)
I.
Wheat
a.
Millet Crop
II.
Ragi
b.
Beverage Crop
III.
Tea
c.
Food Crop
IV.
Maize
d.
Food & Fodder Crop
Options :
I
II
III
IV
(A)
d
a
c
b
(B)
c
d
b
a
(C)
c
a
b
d
(D)
d
b
a
c
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024, Set 32/2/1
(C) I-c, II-a, III-b, IV-d
Q19.2024 Main 32/3/1 · Q91 mark
Read the following informations and identify the crop.
It is the staple food crop of majority of people in India.
India is the second largest producer of this crop.
It is a Kharif crop.
It requires high humidity with 100 cm of annual rainfall.
Crops :
Ragi
Bajra
Wheat
Rice
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024, Set 32/3/1
(D) Rice
Q20.2024 Supp 32/S/1 · Q71 mark
Read the following features of plantation agriculture and choose the correct option :
A single crop is grown on a large area.
It is capital intensive farming.
It is practised in areas of high population pressure on land.
Food grain crops are the major crops of this type of farming.
Options :
Only I and II are correct.
Only II and III are correct.
Only III and IV are correct.
Only I and IV are correct.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Supplementary 2024, Set 32/S/1
(A) Only I and II are correct
Q21.2023 Main 32/1/1 · Q51 mark
Identify the crop with the help of the following information and choose the correct option.
This is the second most important Cereal Crop.
This is a Rabi crop.
It requires a cool growing season and bright sunshine at the time of ripening.
It requires 50 to 75 cm annual rainfall.
Wheat
Maize
Rice
Sugarcane
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023, Set 32/1/1
(A) Wheat
Q22.2023 Main 32/5/1 · Q51 mark
Choose the correctly matched pair.
Primitive subsistence farming — practised on large patches of land
Intensive subsistence farming — single crop production farming
Commercial farming — use of higher doses of modern inputs
Plantation farming — practised on small patches of land
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023, Set 32/5/1
(c) Commercial farming - use of higher doses of modern inputs
Q23.2023 Main 32/6/1 · Q51 mark
Identify the Crop with the help of the following information and choose the correct option.
This is the staple food crop.
This is a Kharif crop.
It requires high temperature and high humidity.
It requires above 100 cm of annual rainfall.
Wheat
Maize
Rice
Jwar
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023, Set 32/6/1
(C) Rice
Q24.2023 Supp 32/C/1 · Q51 mark
Identify the crop with the help of the given information.
India is the largest producer as well as the consumer of this crop.
This crop provides the major source of protein in a vegetarian diet.
This crop needs less moisture and survives even in dry conditions.
This crop is mostly grown in rotation with other crops.
Options :
Wheat
Bajra
Pulses
Rice
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Supplementary Examination July 2023, Set 32/C/1
(c) Pulses
Q25.2026 Main 32/1/1 · Q162 marks
Suggest any two measures for better productivity and organic farming.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026, Set 32/1/1
Use of organic manure and compost improves soil fertility
Provides essential nutrients to crops naturally.
Growing different crops in sequence help to reduce pests.
Biological pest control by using natural predators and bio-pesticides protects crops without harmful chemicals.
Practice crop rotation to increase productivity of soil.
Integrating Drip irrigation.
Mulching.
Any other relevant point.
Any two points to be explained.
Q26.2026 Main 32/4/1 · Q162 marks
If every farmer in India follows modern farming practices, explain any two positive changes this could bring to villages.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026, Set 32/4/1
Modern farming practices will facilitate optimum use of water and other resources.
There will be increase in agricultural productivity.
Economic status will get better.
More employment opportunities will be generated.
Any other relevant point.
(Any two points to be explained.)
Q27.2026 Main 32/5/1 · Q162 marks
Explain the measures made by government to improve Indian agriculture.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026, Set 32/5/1
‘Land reform’ was the main focus of our First Five Year Plan. Thus, collectivisation, consolidation of holdings, cooperation and abolition of zamindari, etc. were given priority to bring about institutional reforms in India after Independence.
Multipurpose projects were started and dams and canals were constructed for irrigation, electricity and flood control.
The Green Revolution based on the use of package technology and the White Revolution (Operation Flood) were some of the strategies initiated to improve the lot of Indian agriculture.
In the 1980s and 1990s, a comprehensive land development programme was initiated which included both institutional and technical reforms.
Provision for crop insurance against drought, flood, cyclone, fire and disease were made.
Grameen banks, cooperative societies and banks were established to provide loan facilities to the farmers at lower rates of interest.
Kisan Credit Card (KCC), Personal Accident Insurance Scheme (PAIS) are some other schemes introduced by the Government of India for the benefit of the farmers.
Special weather bulletins and agricultural programmes for farmers were introduced on the radio and television.
The government also announces minimum support price (MSP), remunerative and procurement prices for important crops to check the exploitation of farmers by speculators and middlemen.
Any other relevant point.
Any two points to be explained
Q28.2024 Main 32/2/1 · Q232 marks
(a) Differentiate between Primitive Subsistence and Commercial Farming.
OR
(b) Differentiate between Rabi and Kharif cropping seasons.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024, Set 32/2/1
(a)
Primitive subsistence
Primitive subsistence agriculture is practiced on small patches of land with the help of primitive tools like hoe, dao and digging sticks and family/community labour.
This type of farming depends upon monsoons, natural fertility of the soil and suitability of other environmental conditions to the crops grown.
It is ‘slash and burn’ agriculture. Farmers clear a patch of land and produce crops. When soil fertility decreases, the farmers shift and clear a fresh patch of land for cultivation.
Crops are produced to sustain the family.
It is labour intensive farming, since most of the activities are done by human labour.
Land fertility is low as fertilizers are not used.
This type of shifting allows nature to replenish the fertility of soil through natural process.
Commercial Farming
In this type of farming higher dose of modern inputs is used.
High Yielding Variety (HYV) seeds, chemical fertilizers, insecticides and pesticides etc. are used to obtain higher productivity.
The degree of commercialization of agriculture varies from one region to another. For example, rice is a commercial crop in Haryana and Punjab and it is a subsistence crop in Odisha.
Commercial farming is done with the view to sell the crops and gain profit.
It is capital intensive since it depends on machines to get the work done.
Land productivity is high.
Does not allow nature to replenish the soil fertility through natural process.
Any other relevant points.
Any two points to be differentiated.
(b)
Rabi Crops
Rabi crops are sown in winter from October to December and harvested in summer from April to June.
Some of the important rabi crops are wheat, barley, peas, gram and mustard.
Punjab, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Jammu and Kashmir, Uttarakhand and Uttar Pradesh are important for the production of rabi crops.
Require warm climate for germination and cold climate to grow. Availability of precipitation during winter months due to the western temperate cyclones help in the success of these crops.
Kharif Crops
Kharif crops are grown with the onset of monsoon in different parts of the country and these are harvested in September-October.
Important crops grown during this season are paddy, maize, jowar, bajra, tur (arhar), moong, urad, cotton, groundnut and soyabean.
Some of the important rice growing regions are Assam, west Bengal, coastal regions of Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Tamil Nadu, Kerala and Maharashtra, particularly the Konkan coast with Uttar Pradesh and Bihar.
Kharif crops require hot weather and good rainfall.
Any other relevant point.
Any two points to be differentiated.
Q29.2023 Main 32/1/1 · Q222 marks
Mention any two features of Plantation agriculture.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023, Set 32/1/1
Use of higher doses of modern inputs, e.g. High Yielding Variety (HYV) seeds, chemical fertilisers, insecticides and pesticides in order to obtain higher productivity.
A single crop is grown on a large area.
The plantation has an interface of agriculture and industry.
Plantations cover large tracts of land, using capital intensive inputs, with the help of migrant labourers.
All the produce is used as raw material in respective industries. In India, tea, coffee, rubber, sugarcane, banana, etc., are important plantation crops.
Tea in Assam and North Bengal and coffee in Karnataka are some of the important plantation crops grown in these States.
The degree of commercialisation of agriculture varies from one region to another. For example, rice is a commercial crop in Haryana and Punjab, but in Odisha, it is a subsistence crop.
Any other relevant point
Any two points to be mentioned.
Q30.2023 Main 32/6/1 · Q222 marks
(a) Explain any two efforts taken by the Government of India to modernise agriculture.
OR
(b) Explain any two features of Rabi cropping season.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023, Set 32/6/1
(a)
Considering the importance of agriculture in India, the Government of India made concerted efforts to modernise agriculture.
Establishment of Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR), agricultural universities, veterinary services
Animal breeding centres.
Horticulture development.
Research and development in the field of meteorology and weather forecast, etc.
Improving the rural infrastructure to strengthen and support agricultural sector.
Several initiatives have been taken by Government of India under ‘The Atmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyan.’
Any other relevant point.
Any two points to be explained.
(b)
Rabi crops are sown in winter from October to December.
These are harvested in summer from April to June.
Some of the important rabi crops are wheat, barley, peas, gram and mustard.
These crops are grown in large parts of India,
States from the north and north-western parts such as Punjab, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Jammu and Kashmir, Uttarakhand and Uttar Pradesh are important for the production of wheat and other rabi crops.
Any other relevant point.
Any two points to be explained.
Q31.2023 Supp 32/C/1 · Q232 marks
(a) Explain any two technological reforms initiated by the Indian Government in agriculture.
OR
(b) How has agriculture been the backbone of the Indian economy ? Explain.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Supplementary Examination July 2023, Set 32/C/1
(a)
Green Revolution based on package approach
White Revolution
Weather Bulletin
Agricultural programs for the farmers on radio and televisions
HYV Seeds
Use of fertilizers, manure, insecticides, pesticides, etc.
Any other relevant points.
Any two points to be explained.
(b)
Agriculture gives employment - Two-third of India’s population engaged in agricultural activities.
Produces food for consumption.
Produces raw material for various industries.
Provides agricultural products for exports (E.g., Tea, coffee, spices)
Contributes to the National Income
Contributes in GDP
Any other relevant point.
Any two points to be explained.
Q32.SQP 2025-26 · Q162 marks
Rice is grown as a commercial crop in Haryana and Punjab, but as a subsistence crop in Odisha. Using your understanding of geographical factors and economic practices, explain why rice cultivation differs in these regions.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26
Climate and Irrigation:
Haryana and Punjab have a well-developed irrigation system (e.g., canal irrigation from the Sutlej-Yamuna Link Canal), which allows for large-scale commercial cultivation of rice. The climate is suitable for high-yielding varieties, and irrigation ensures water availability.
In contrast, Odisha has a more monsoonal climate, and while rice is grown, the farming is often rainfed and primarily for local consumption. The lack of large-scale irrigation systems limits its commercialization.
Economic Factors (Market Access):
In Punjab and Haryana, rice is grown for commercial purposes to meet national and international demand. The proximity to markets, government procurement systems, and well-developed transport networks enable these states to export surplus rice.
In Odisha, rice is mostly grown for personal or local use, with less access to large markets for profit-driven farming, making it a subsistence crop.
Farming Practices:
In Punjab and Haryana, the use of modern farming techniques, machinery, and high-yielding varieties supports commercial rice cultivation.
In Odisha, rice farming is more traditional and focused on family sustenance rather than large-scale production, which reflects the subsistence nature of cultivation.
Or any other relevant point(s) (Any 2 point to be considered out of which at least one should be related to climate and one economic)
Q33.2026 Main 32/3/1 · Q153 marks
“Plantation agriculture is also a type of commercial farming.” Support the statement with suitable arguments.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026, Set 32/3/1
In plantation type of farming, a single crop is grown on a large area.
The plantation has an interface of agriculture and industry.
Plantation covers a large tract of land.
It requires huge capital.
It is labour intensive.
The production is mainly for market.
Example Tea, coffee and rubber.
Any other relevant point.
Any three points to be explained.
Q34.2025 Main 32/1/1 · Q263 marks
Read the story of Rinjha and answer the question that follows :
Story of Rinjha
Rinjha lived with her family in a small village at the outskirts of Diphu in Assam. She enjoys watching her family members clearing, slashing and burning a patch of land for cultivation. She often helps them in irrigating the fields with water running through a bamboo canal from the nearby spring. She loves the surroundings and wants to stay here as long as she can, but this little girl has no idea about the declining fertility of the soil and her family’s search for a fresh patch of land in the next season.
What type of farming is Rinjha’s family doing ? Describe any two of its characteristics.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025, Set 32/1/1
Type of farming- Primitive subsistence farming
Features of primitive subsistence farming:
This farming is practiced on small patches of land.
It is done with the help of primitive tools like hoe, dao and digging sticks.
It is done with the help of family or community labour.
This type of farming depends upon monsoon, natural fertility of the soil and suitability of other environmental conditions to the crops grown.
Any other relevant point
Any two points to be described.
Q35.2025 Main 32/4/1 · Q263 marks
Examine the measures taken by the government to make agriculture profitable in India.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025, Set 32/4/1
Land reforms in the 1980s and 1990s included institutional and technical reforms.
Provisions for crop insurance against drought, flood, cyclone, fire and disease were introduced.
Establishment of Grameen banks and cooperative societies for providing loans at lower rates of interest.
Initiative taken by the government to provide Kisan Credit Card (KCC).
Personal Accident Insurance Scheme (PAIS) introduced by the government.
Special weather bulletins and agricultural programmes for farmers on radio and TV.
Announcement of MSP, remunerative and procurement prices for important crops by the government.
Any other relevant point.
Any three points to be examined.
Q36.2025 Main 32/6/1 · Q273 marks
Explain any three features of Plantation Agriculture.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025, Set 32/6/1
In this type of farming, a single crop is grown on a large area.
The plantation has an interface of agriculture and industry.
Plantations cover large tracts of land.
It uses capital intensive inputs.
All the produce is used as raw material in respective industries.
In India, tea, coffee, rubber, sugarcane, banana, etc., are important plantation crops.
Any other relevant point.
Any three points to be explained.
Q37.2025 Supp 32/S/1 · Q263 marks
Explain the main features of commercial agriculture.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Supplementary 2025, Set 32/S/1
Crops are grown for the purpose of selling in market.
Higher doses of modern inputs, e.g. high yielding variety (HYV) seeds, chemical fertilisers, insecticides and pesticides are used to obtain higher productivity.
The degree of commercialisation of agriculture varies from one region to another.
Plantation is also a type of commercial farming.
In this type of farming, a single crop is grown on a large area.
The plantation has an interface of agriculture and industry.
Plantations cover large tracts of land, using capital intensive inputs, with the help of migrant labourers.
All the produce is used as raw material in respective industries.
Any other relevant point.
Any three points to be explained.
Q38.2024 Main 32/4/1 · Q263 marks
Describe any three features of cultivation of millets in India.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024, Set 32/4/1
Jowar, Bajra, Ragi are few important millets grown in India.
It is a rain-fed crop mostly grown in the moist areas, which hardly need irrigation.
Major jowar producing states are Maharashtra, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh.
Bajra grows well on sandy soils and shallow black soil. Major bajra producing states are Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra and Gujarat,
Ragi is a crop of dry seasons and grows well on red, black, sandy loamy soils.
Any other relevant point.
Any three points to be described.
Q39.2024 Main 32/5/1 · Q263 marks
Describe any three impacts of globalisation on Indian agriculture.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024, Set 32/5/1
Farmers are investing in new technology in farming genetically modified seeds and organic farming.
They are diversifying from traditional crops to a wide range of high value crops- horticulture, millets, herbs and mushrooms.
Small and marginal farmers are adopting inexpensive organic farming
Farmers are exploring new markets outside India.
Agricultural progress for farmers.
Insurance schemes for farmers.
Any other relevant point.
Any three points to be described and students views to be considered.
Q40.2024 Supp 32/S/1 · Q273 marks
Why should Indian farmers practice crop rotation ? Explain any three reasons.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Supplementary 2024, Set 32/S/1
To increase crop yield.
To protect fertility of soil.
To diversify their crop.
To increase their income.
Any other relevant point
Any three points to be explained.
(Any other view of the candidates may also be considered related to crop rotation.)
Q41.2023 Main 32/4/1 · Q263 marks
Explain any three institutional reforms taken for the development of Indian agriculture.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023, Set 32/4/1
Provision for crop insurance against drought, flood, cyclone, fire, and disease.
Establishment of Grameen Banks, Cooperative Societies, and Banks for providing loan facilities to the farmers at lower rates of interest.
Kissan Credit Card (KCC)
Personal Accident Insurance Scheme (PAIS).
Special Weather Bulletins and agricultural programmes for farmers.
The government has also announced Minimum Support Price, remunerative and procurement prices for important crops.
Check the exploitation of farmers by speculators and middlemen.
Any other relevant point
Any three points to be explained.
Q42.2026 Main 32/2/1 · Q174 marks
Cropping Pattern
Rabi crops are sown in winter from October to December and harvested in summer from April to June. Kharif crops are grown with the onset of monsoon in different parts of the country and these are harvested in September-October. In between the rabi and the kharif seasons, there is a short season during the summer months known as the zaid season.
(17.1) Rice cultivation is an example of which type of agricultural season ?
(17.2) Name any one crop which is harvested between April to June in India.
(17.3) Mention any two zaid crops.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026, Set 32/2/1
17.1 Kharif
17.2
Wheat
Barley
Peas
Gram
Mustard
Any other crop
Any one crop to be mentioned.
17.3
Watermelon
Muskmelon
Cucumber
Vegetables
Fodder crop
Sugarcane
Any other crop
Any two crops to be mentioned.
Q43.2025 Main 32/5/1 · Q354 marks
Read the given source and answer the questions that follow :
Primitive Subsistence Farming
It is a ‘slash and burn’ agriculture. Farmers clear a patch of land and produce cereals and other food crops to sustain their family. When the soil fertility decreases, the farmers shift and clear a fresh patch of land for cultivation. This type of shifting allows Nature to replenish the fertility of the soil through natural processes; land productivity in this type of agriculture is low as the farmer does not use fertilisers or other modern inputs. It is known by different names in different parts of the country.
It is jhumming in north-eastern states like Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram and Nagaland; Pamlou in Manipur, Dipa in Bastar district of Chhattisgarh, and in Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
(35.1) ‘Slash and Burn’ system of agriculture comes under which type of farming ? (1)
(35.2) Why is productivity low in ‘Slash and Burn’ system ? (1)
(35.3) Describe any two features of ‘Slash and Burn’ system of agriculture. (2)
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025, Set 32/5/1
35.1
Primitive Subsistence Farming
35.2
Land productivity in this type of agriculture is low as the farmer does not use fertilisers or other modern inputs.
This system uses traditional farming methods.
Any other relevant points.
Any one point to be mentioned.
35.3
It is practiced on small patches of land with the help of primitive tools.
This type of farming depends upon monsoon and natural fertility of the soil.
This type of shifting allows nature to replenish the fertility of the soil through natural processes.
It has different names in different parts of the world.
Any other relevant point.
Any two points to be described.
Q44.2025 Main 32/3/1 · Q315 marks
(a) The Government of India has invited some suggestions for institutional reforms in agriculture. Propose any five institutional reforms to the Government for the betterment of agriculture.
OR
(b) Suppose you are a farmer. You want to cultivate rice in India. Describe any three geographical conditions which will be suitable for rice cultivation in India and write the names of two leading rice producing states of India.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025, Set 32/3/1
(a)
Implementation of Crop Insurance Scheme against drought, flood, cyclone, fire and disease in an effective manner.
Encourage farmers to borrow loan from the Grameen Banks, Co-operative societies and Banks.
Promote the use of the Kisan Credit Cards among peasants.
Promote Personal Accident Insurance Scheme.
Co-ordination over Minimum Support Price to avoid the exploitation of farmers by speculators and middlemen.
Awareness among farmers about special weather bulletins and agricultural programmes for farmers.
Any other relevant point.
(Any five points to be explained.)
(b)
Rice is a kharif crop.
It requires high temperatures (above 25°C) for cultivation.
It requires high humidity for cultivation.
It requires more than 100 cm of rainfall for cultivation.
In areas with less rainfall, it can be cultivated through proper irrigation.
Major rice-producing states are West Bengal, Bihar, Assam, Eastern Uttar Pradesh, Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu (any two).
Any other relevant point.
(Any five points to be explained.) (3+2=5)
Q45.2024 Main 32/3/1 · Q315 marks
(a) Explain the importance of agriculture in the Indian Economy.
OR
(b) Explain the Technological and Institutional reforms taken by the government in the interest of farmers.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024, Set 32/3/1
(a)
Gives employment- Two-third of India’s population engaged in agricultural activities.
Provide livelihood to more than half of the population.
Produces food for consumption.
Produces raw material for various industries.
Provides agricultural products for exports (E.g., Tea, coffee, spices)
Contributes to the National income.
Contribute in the GDP.
Any other relevant point.
Any five points to be explained.
(b)
Green Revolution based on package technology.
White Revolution
Weather Bulletin
Agricultural programs for the farmers on radio and televisions
HYV Seeds
Use of fertilizers, manure, insecticides, pesticides, etc.
Provision for crop insurance against drought, flood, cyclone, fire, and disease.
Establishment of Grameen Banks, Cooperative Societies, and Banks for providing loan facilities to the farmers at lower rates of interest.
Kissan Credit Card (KCC)
Personal Accident Insurance Scheme (PAIS).
Special Weather Bulletins and agricultural programmes for farmers.
The government has also announced Minimum Support Price, remunerative and procurement prices for important crops.
Check the exploitation of farmers by speculators and middlemen.
Any other relevant point.
Any five points to be explained.
Q46.2023 Main 32/2/1 · Q315 marks
(a) Explain the features of primitive subsistence and commercial farming in India.
OR
(b) Explain the features of intensive subsistence and plantation farming in India.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023, Set 32/2/1
(a)
Primitive Subsistence Farming:
This type of farming is still practised in few pockets of India.
Primitive subsistence farming practised on small patches of land.
Use primitive tools like Hoe, Dao and digging sticks.
This type of farming depends upon monsoon, natural fertility of soil and suitability of essential condition to crops grown.
It is a slash and burn agriculture.
Any other relevant Points.
Any two relevant Points. (2x1=2)
Commercial farming:
The main characteristics of this type of farming is the use of higher doses of modern inputs e.g., HYV seeds, Chemical fertilizers insecticides and pesticides.
It obtains higher productivity.
The degree of commercialisation of agriculture varies from one region to another.
Plantation is also a type of Commercial farming.
Example : Rice is a commercial crop in Haryana but in Odisha, it is a subsistence crops.
Any other relevant point
Any three points to be explained from each part. (3x1=3)
(b)
Intensive Subsistence Farming:
This type of farming is practised in areas of high population pressure on land.
It is labour-intensive farming
High doses of biochemical inputs
Irrigation is used for obtaining higher production.
Any other relevant point.
Any two points to be explained. (2x1=2)
Plantation Farming:
It is a type of commercial farming.
In this type of farming a single crop is grown.
The plantation has an interface of agriculture and industry.
Plantations cover large tracts of land intensive imports with help of migrant labours.
Any other relevant point.
Any three points to be explained. (3x1=3)
Q47.SQP 2026-27 · Q175 marks
(A) A farmer plans to shift from food crops to plantation crops and is to choose between tea and coffee. Highlight the difference in the conditions associated with their growth.
OR
(B) Farmers in a region experiencing moderate rainfall, cool winters, and assured irrigation plan to move from mixed cropping to the cultivation of a single cereal crop. Should they opt for rice or wheat? Support your answer with appropriate reasons based on crop requirements.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27
(A)
Tea is more suitable in areas with high rainfall distributed throughout the year, unlike coffee which prefers seasonal rainfall.
Tea requires a frost-free climate, making it ideal for tropical and sub-tropical regions.
Coffee (Arabica) is suitable for regions with moderate temperatures and well-drained slopes, such as the Western Ghats.
Tea plantations demand large-scale labour availability, while coffee requires comparatively less labour.
Coffee cultivation is geographically more restricted, whereas tea can be grown in several regions of India.
(B)
Wheat is more suitable as it grows well in cool temperatures during the growing season.
The region’s moderate rainfall matches wheat’s requirement of 50–75 cm.
Wheat requires bright sunshine at the time of ripening, which is common in winter months.
Availability of irrigation supports wheat cultivation in areas with limited rainfall.
Wheat is traditionally grown in north and north-western regions, matching the given conditions.
Contemporary India II · Geography
5. Minerals and Energy Resources
Q1.2026 Exam 2 32/7/1 · Q131 mark
Choose the correct option related to the types of iron-ore :
I. Magnetite II. Lignite III. Hematite IV. Anthracite
Only I and II are correct.
Only II and III are correct.
Only III and IV are correct.
Only I and III are correct.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Exam 2), Set 32/7/1
(D) Only I and III are correct
Q2.2026 Exam 2 32/7/1 · Q141 mark
Arrange the following bauxite-producing states in India in order from the highest to the lowest production and choose the correct option :
I. Maharashtra II. Gujarat III. Odisha IV. Madhya Pradesh
I, IV, II, III
I, IV, III, II
III, II, I, IV
III, II, IV, I
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Exam 2), Set 32/7/1
(C) III, II, I and IV
Q3.2026 Exam 2 32/8/1 · Q131 mark
Choose the correct option related to types of coal from the following :
I. Lignite II. Anthracite III. Magnetite IV. Bituminous
Options :
Only I, II and III are correct.
Only I, III and IV are correct.
Only I, II and IV are correct.
Only II, III and IV are correct.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 Exam 2, Set 32/8/1
(C) Only I, II and IV are correct.
Q4.2026 Exam 2 32/8/1 · Q141 mark
Arrange the following ‘Atomic energy plants’ from north to south as per their location and choose the correct option :
I. Kakrapara II. Kaiga III. Rawat Bhata IV. Tarapur
Options :
IV, II, I, III
IV, II, III, I
III, I, II, IV
III, I, IV, II
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 Exam 2, Set 32/8/1
(D) III, I, IV, II
Q5.2026 Main 32/1/1 · Q131 mark
Choose the appropriate option to fill in the blank :
Energy Minerals
Non-Metallic Minerals
Non-Ferrous Minerals
Precious Minerals
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026, Set 32/1/1
(C) Non-Ferrous Minerals
Q6.2026 Main 32/2/1 · Q121 mark
Choose the correct option to fill in the blank. The largest wind farm cluster in India is located between __________.
Nagercoil to Madurai
Jaipur to Jodhpur
Bokaro to Raniganj
Hazira to Jhabua
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026, Set 32/2/1
(A) Nagercoil to Madurai
Q7.2026 Main 32/4/1 · Q131 mark
Choose the correct option to fill in the blank :
Non-metallic
Metallic
Precious
Energy
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026, Set 32/4/1
(A) Non-Metallic
Q8.2026 Main 32/5/1 · Q131 mark
Choose the appropriate option to fill in the blank :
Non-Ferrous minerals
Igneous minerals
Energy minerals
Ferrous minerals
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026, Set 32/5/1
(C) Energy minerals
Q9.2025 Main 32/1/1 · Q101 mark
Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option :
Assertion (A) : Minerals are an indispensable part of our lives.
Reason (R) : All living things need minerals.
Options :
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(A) is true, but (R) is false.
(A) is false, but (R) is true.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025, Set 32/1/1
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Q10.2025 Main 32/1/1 · Q111 mark
Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option :
Column I (Minerals)
Column II (Major Mines)
a. Iron ore
i. Gaya
b. Mica
ii. Singarauli
c. Bauxite
iii. Chandrapur
d. Coal
iv. Maikala
Options :
a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025, Set 32/1/1
(A) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
Q11.2025 Main 32/2/1 · Q101 mark
Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements and choose the correct option :
Assertion (A) : India has enormous possibilities of production of solar energy.
Reason (R) : Most of the land area of India falls under the cold zone.
Options :
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(A) is true, but (R) is false.
(A) is false, but (R) is true.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025, Set 32/2/1
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
Q12.2025 Main 32/2/1 · Q111 mark
Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option :
Column I (Thermal Power Plant)
Column II (State)
a. Talcher
i. Telangana
b. Ramagundam
ii. Odisha
c. Bhusawal
iii. Andhra Pradesh
d. Vijayawada
iv. Maharashtra
Options :
a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025, Set 32/2/1
(A) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
Q13.2025 Main 32/4/1 · Q71 mark
Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option :
Column-I (Minerals)
Column-II (Features)
A. Copper
(i) Used in manufacturing of steel and paints
B. Bauxite
(ii) Used in electric and electronic industries
C. Mica
(iii) Used in electric cables and utensils
D. Manganese
(iv) Used in aluminium production
A-(i), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(ii)
A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(iv)
A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iii)
A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(i)
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025, Set 32/4/1
(d) (iii), (iv), (ii) and (i)
Q14.2025 Main 32/5/1 · Q101 mark
Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A) : Certain minerals may occur as alluvial deposits in sands of valley floors and the base of hills.
Reason (R) : These are usually minerals, that are not corroded by water.
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(A) is true but (R) is false.
(A) is false but (R) is true.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025, Set 32/5/1
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Q15.2025 Main 32/5/1 · Q111 mark
Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option :
Column-I (Atomic Power Plants)
Column-II (State)
a. Kakrapara
i. Rajasthan
b. Rawat Bhata
ii. Karnataka
c. Kaiga
iii. Maharashtra
d. Tarapur
iv. Gujarat
a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025, Set 32/5/1
(C) a-iv, b- i, c- ii, d-iii
Q16.2025 Main 32/6/1 · Q181 mark
Read the characteristics given in the box and identify the type of coal from the option given below :
This is low grade brown coal.
The principal reserves are in Neyveli in Tamilnadu.
It is soft with high moisture content.
Pit Coal
Anthracite Coal
Lignite Coal
Bituminous Coal
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025, Set 32/6/1
(C) Lignite Coal
Q17.2025 Supp 32/S/1 · Q71 mark
Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option :
Column I (Minerals)
Column II (Uses)
a. Manganese
i. Used in the production of aluminium
b. Bauxite
ii. Used for making insecticides
c. Copper
iii. Used in cement manufacturing
d. Limestone
iv. Used for electrical wiring
a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii
a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Supplementary 2025, Set 32/S/1
(B) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
Q18.2024 Main 32/1/1 · Q51 mark
Choose the correctly matched pair.
Ferrous – Natural Gas
Non-Ferrous – Nickel
Non-Metallic Minerals – Limestone
Energy Minerals – Cobalt
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024, Set 32/1/1
(c) Non – Metallic Minerals - Limestone
Q19.2024 Main 32/2/1 · Q51 mark
Choose the correct option to fill the blank.
Non Metallic Mineral :
Mica
Energy Mineral :
............
Natural Gas
Bauxite
Manganese
Platinum
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024, Set 32/2/1
(A) Natural Gas
Q20.2024 Main 32/3/1 · Q21 mark
Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option.
Column-I (Minerals)
Column-II (Examples)
I.
Ferrous
a.
Coal
II.
Non-Ferrous
b.
Granite
III.
Non-Metallic
c.
Bauxite
IV.
Energy
d.
Cobalt
Options :
I
II
III
IV
(A)
b
d
c
a
(B)
d
c
b
a
(C)
a
b
d
c
(D)
c
d
b
a
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024, Set 32/3/1
(B) I-d, II-c, III-b, IV-a
Q21.2024 Main 32/4/1 · Q71 mark
Choose the correct option for the following States’ share (in percentage) in the production of ‘manganese’ in India from the highest to the lowest order.
Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Odisha
Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Odisha, Karnataka
Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka, Odisha
Maharashtra, Odisha, Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024, Set 32/4/1
Which one of the following is the highest ‘bauxite’ producing state of India ?
Maharashtra
Jharkhand
Gujarat
Odisha
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024, Set 32/5/1
(D) Odisha
Q23.2024 Supp 32/S/1 · Q81 mark
Which one of the following is a non-conventional source of energy ?
Natural gas
Petroleum
Coal
Geothermal energy
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Supplementary 2024, Set 32/S/1
(D) Geothermal energy
Q24.2023 Main 32/4/1 · Q51 mark
Which one of the following is an example of the Ferrous Metal ?
Copper
Tin
Bauxite
Nickel
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023, Set 32/4/1
(d) Nickel
Q25.SQP 2026-27 · Q121 mark
Which of the following statements about placer deposits are correct? (a) They are commonly found in valley floors and at the base of hills (b) They mainly contain minerals that easily dissolve in water (c) Gold and platinum are typical minerals found in such deposits (d) They are formed due to deposition by running water
Choose the correct option as answer-
(a), (b), (d)
(b), (c), (d)
(a), (b), (c)
(a), (c), (d)
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27
(D) (a), (c), (d)
Q26.SQP 2026-27 · Q131 mark
A steel company requires iron ore with the best physical properties for high-quality steel production. Which mining region would be the most suitable choice, based on the nature of iron ore found there?
Maharashtra–Goa belt
Odisha–Jharkhand belt
Durg–Bastar–Chandrapur belt
Ballari–Chitradurga belt
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27
(C) Durg–Bastar–Chandrapur belt
Q27.2026 Main 32/3/1 · Q142 marks
(a) Differentiate between ferrous and non-ferrous minerals.
OR
(b) Differentiate between conventional and non-conventional sources of energy.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026, Set 32/3/1
(a)
Ferrous Minerals
Non-Ferrous Minerals
They provide a strong base for the development of metallurgical industries.
They play a vital role in a number of metallurgical, engineering and electrical industries.
They account for about three fourths of the total value of the production of metallic minerals.
India’s reserves and production of non-ferrous minerals is not very satisfactory.
Iron ore, Manganese are the examples.
Copper, Bauxite are the examples.
Any other relevant point.
Any other relevant point.
Any two points of differentiation to be explained.
(b)
Conventional energy sources
Non-conventional energy sources
Non-renewable sources.
Renewable sources.
A source of pollutant.
Eco friendly.
Limited stock, and exhaustible.
Unlimited stock and inexhaustible.
Conventional sources are coal, firewood, petroleum natural gas etc.
Non-conventional sources are solar, wind etc.
Any other relevant point.
Any other relevant point.
Any two points of differentiation to be explained.
Q28.2025 Main 32/6/1 · Q232 marks
Why is the conservation of conventional sources of energy significant ? Explain any two reasons.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025, Set 32/6/1
Energy is a basic requirement for economic development.
Every sector of the national economy - agriculture, industry, transport, commercial and domestic - needs inputs of energy.
The implementation of economic developmental plans require increasing amounts of energy.
The consumption of energy in all forms has been steadily rising and hence there is an urgent need to develop a sustainable path of energy development.
The conventional sources of energy require millions of years to be created and concentrated. For example coal.
Any other relevant point.
Any two points to be explained.
Q29.2024 Main 32/4/1 · Q222 marks
How is energy a basic requirement for economic development of a country ? Explain with examples.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024, Set 32/4/1
Every sector of the national economy- agriculture, industry, transport, commercial and domestic needs inputs of energy.
The economic development plans implemented since independence necessarily required increasing amount of energy to remain operational.
Energy is used for manufacturing of products.
Any other relevant point.
Any two points to be explained.
Q30.2024 Main 32/5/1 · Q222 marks
(a) “Minerals occur in igneous and metamorphic rocks.” Explain the statement with example.
OR
(b) “The ocean waters contain vast quantities of minerals.” Explain the statement with example.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024, Set 32/5/1
(a)
Minerals may occur in the cracks, crevices, faults or joints.
The smaller occurrences are called veins and the larger are called lodes.
In most cases they are formed when minerals in liquid/molten and gaseous forms are forced upward through cavities towards the earth’s surface. Eg, tin, copper, zinc and lead.
Any other relevant point.
Any two points to be explained.
(b)
Most of the minerals are too widely diffused to be of economic significance.
Common salt, magnesium and bromine are largely derived from ocean water.
The ocean beds, too, are rich in manganese nodules
Any other relevant point.
Any two points to be explained.
Q31.2024 Supp 32/S/1 · Q222 marks
“In sedimentary rocks a number of minerals occur in beds or layers.” Support the statement with example.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Supplementary 2024, Set 32/S/1
In sedimentary rocks a number of minerals occur in beds or layers. They have been formed as a result of deposition, accumulation and concentration in horizontal strata.
Coal and some forms of iron ore have been concentrated as a result of long periods under great heat and pressure.
Another group of sedimentary minerals include gypsum, potash salt and sodium salt.
These are formed as a result of evaporation especially in arid regions.
Any other relevant point.
Any two points to be explained
Q32.2023 Main 32/5/1 · Q232 marks
(a) ‘Energy saved is energy produced.’ Support the statement.
OR
(b) Why is there a pressing need to use non-conventional energy resources ? Explain.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023, Set 32/5/1
(a)
There is an urgent need to develop a sustainable path of development.
Promotion of energy conservation and increased use of renewable energy resources are twin planks of energy conservation.
Judicious use of limited energy resources.
Reduce, reuse and recycling of resources.
Stoppage of wastage of resources
Any other relevant point.
Any two points to be explained.
(b)
Limited availability of resources
The growing consumption of energy has resulted in depletion of fossil fuels.
Rising prices of oil and gas and their potential shortages have raised uncertainties.
Increasing use of fossil fuel has caused serious environmental problems.
Urbanization and industrialization
Any other relevant point.
Any two points to be explained.
Q33.2023 Main 32/2/1 · Q263 marks
“Energy is required for all activities.” Explain the statement with examples.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023, Set 32/2/1
Energy is a basic requirement for economic development
Every sector of the national economic- Agriculture, industry, transport, communication needs inputs of energy.
Required in vehicles.
To drive machinery in industries.
Required in all the facets of life.
Required in household.
Used in all commercial requirements.
Any other relevant point
Any three points to be explained.
Q34.2025 Main 32/3/1 · Q354 marks
Read the given source and answer the questions that follow :
Iron Ore
Iron ore is the basic mineral and the backbone of industrial development. India is endowed with fairly abundant resources of iron ore. India is rich in good quality iron ores. Magnetite is the finest iron ore with a very high content of iron up to 70 per cent. It has excellent magnetic qualities, especially valuable in the electrical industry. Hematite ore is the most important industrial iron ore in terms of the quantity used, but has a slightly lower iron content than magnetite (50 – 60 per cent). In 2018 – 19, almost the entire production of iron ore (97%) accrued from Odisha, Chhattisgarh, Karnataka and Jharkhand. The remaining production (3%) was from other states.
(35.1) In which iron ore is the maximum iron content found ?
(35.2) Which is the most important industrial iron ore ?
(35.3) “Iron ore is a basic mineral.” Support the statement.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025, Set 32/3/1
35.1 Magnetite
35.2 Hematite
35.3
It is abundantly available.
India is rich in good quality iron ore.
It is important for various industries.
Any other relevant points.
Q35.2023 Main 32/1/1 · Q354 marks
CONSERVATION OF ENERGY RESOURCES
Energy is a basic requirement for economic development. Every sector of the national economy – agriculture, industry, transport, commercial and domestic – needs inputs of energy. The economic development plans implemented since independence necessarily required increasing amounts of energy to remain operational. As a result, consumption of energy in all forms has been steadily rising all over the country. In this background, there is an urgent need to develop a sustainable path of energy development. Promotion of energy conservation and increased use of renewable energy sources are the twin planks of sustainable energy. India is presently one of the least energy efficient countries in the world. We have to adopt a cautious approach for the judicious use of our limited energy resources. For example, as concerned citizens we can do our bit by using public transport systems instead of individual vehicles; switching off electricity when not in use, using power-saving devices and using non-conventional sources of energy. At last “Energy Saved is energy produced”
(35.1) Why is sustainable energy a key to sustainable development ?
(35.2) Why is consumption of energy rising in all over India?
(35.3) Explain ‘Energy saved is energy produced’.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023, Set 32/1/1
(35.1)
Energy is a basic requirement for economic development.
Every sector of the national economy- agriculture, industry, transport, commercial and domestic- needs inputs of energy.
Sustenance of future depends upon conservation of energy in all realms.
Any other relevant point.
Any one point to be explained.
(35.2)
India is the world’s third-largest energy consuming country.
Rising incomes and improving standards of living.
Economic development, rising population and technological developments.
Any other relevant point
Any one point to be explained.
(35.3)
Using renewable energy
Improve energy security
Improve access to energy
By ensuring access to affordable, reliable, sustainable, and modern energy
Reduce, resuse and recycle
Any other relevant point
Any two points to be explained.
Q36.2026 Main 32/1/1 · Q175 marks
(A) “Energy saved is energy produced.” Justify the statement with suitable arguments.
OR
(B) “Electricity has a wide range of applications in today’s world that its per capita consumption is considered as an index of development.” Justify the statement with suitable arguments.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026, Set 32/1/1
(A)
When we save electricity, it reduces the need to generate more power in power plants. Therefore, saving energy works like producing new energy.
Energy resources such as coal, petroleum, and natural gas are exhaustible. By saving energy, we conserve these valuable natural resources for the future.
Energy conservation reduces the cost of electricity generation and helps the country save money.
Saving energy also reduces pressure on power stations and prevents electricity shortages.
Simple habits like switching off lights, fans, and electrical appliances when not in use can save a large amount of energy.
Energy conservation is very important because every unit of energy saved is equal to a unit of energy produced.
Some other measures to save energies are: a) Use power saving device. b) Using public transport. c) Use car-pooling.
We have to adopt a cautious approach for the judicious use of our limited energy resources.
Shift to non-conventional sources of energy will lead to sustainable development.
Any other relevant point.
Any five points to be justified.
(B)
Electricity is widely used to run machines and equipment in industries such as iron and steel, textiles, chemicals and engineering for industrial development.
It is used for operating irrigation pumps, tube wells and agricultural machinery, which helps increase agricultural production.
Electricity is used in households for lighting, heating, cooling, cooking and running electrical appliances.
Many modern transport systems such as electric trains and metro railways depend on electricity.
Electricity is essential for telecommunication networks, television, radio, computers and internet services.
Commercial activities like offices, markets, banks, hotels and shopping centres require electricity for daily operations.
Schools, colleges, hospitals and laboratories depend on electricity for lighting, equipment and technology.
Greater availability and use of electricity improve people’s comfort, productivity and quality of life.
Any other relevant point.
Any five points to be justified.
Q37.2026 Main 32/4/1 · Q175 marks
(a) Examine the role of petroleum as an important source of energy and describe its distribution in India.
OR
(b) Examine the role of coal as an important energy resource and describe its distribution in India.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026, Set 32/4/1
(a)
Petroleum as an important source of energy-
Petroleum or mineral oil is the next major energy source in India after coal. It provides fuel for heat and lighting.
It provides lubricants for machinery.
It provides raw materials for a number of manufacturing industries like synthetic textile, fertiliser and numerous chemical industries.
Any other relevant point.
(Any three points to be examined.)
Distribution of Petroleum-
Mumbai High, Gujarat and Assam are major petroleum production areas in India.
Ankeleshwar is the most important field of Gujarat.
Assam is the oldest oil producing state of India.
Digboi, Naharkatiya and Moran-Hugrijan are the important oil fields in Assam.
Any other relevant point.
(Any two points to be described.)
(b)
Coal as an important energy resource
Coal is the most abundantly available fossil fuel in India. It provides a substantial part of the nation’s energy needs.
It is used for power generation.
It is used to supply energy to industry as well as for domestic needs.
India is highly dependent on coal for meeting its commercial energy requirements.
Any other relevant point.
(Any three points to be examined.)
Distribution of Coal in India-
The principal lignite reserves are in Neyveli in Tamil Nadu and are used for generation of electricity.
The major resources of Gondwana coal, which are metallurgical coal, are located in Damodar valley (West Bengal- Jharkhand). Jharia, Raniganj, Bokaro are important coalfields.
The Godavari, Mahanadi, Son and Wardha valleys also contain coal deposits.
Tertiary coals occur in the north eastern states of Meghalaya, Assam, Arunachal Pradesh and Nagaland.
Any other relevant point.
(Any two points to be described.)
Q38.2026 Main 32/5/1 · Q175 marks
(a) “Conserving energy is essential for sustainable development.” Support the statement with suitable arguments.
OR
(b) “Minerals are found in various forms and types, each having distinct properties.” Support the statement with suitable arguments.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026, Set 32/5/1
(a)
Energy is a basic requirement for economic development. Every sector of the national economy – agriculture, industry, transport, commercial and domestic- needs inputs of energy.
There is an urgent need to develop a sustainable path of energy development.
Promotion of energy conservation and increased use of renewable energy sources are the twin planks of sustainable energy.
Using non-conventional sources- solar, wind, bio-gas, geo-thermal etc.
Non-conventional sources are renewable, eco-friendly, cheaper, and do not leave any residue.
India is adopting a cautious approach for the judicious use of its energy resources.
For example, as concerned citizens we can do our bit by using public transport systems instead of individual vehicles.
Switching off electricity when not in use, using power-saving devices and using non-conventional sources of energy.
It is felt that by conserving energy we will protect the delicate ecological balance.
India is also improving energy efficiency.
Any other relevant point.
Any five points to be explained.
(b)
In igneous and metamorphic rocks, minerals form by cooling and solidification of lava in cracks, crevices, faults or joints. The smaller occurrences are called veins and the larger are called lodes. For example, major metallic minerals like tin, copper, zinc and lead etc.
In sedimentary rocks a number of minerals have been formed as a result of deposition, accumulation and concentration in horizontal strata. Coal and some forms of iron ore have been concentrated as a result of long periods under great heat and pressure.
Another group of sedimentary minerals include gypsum, potash salt and sodium salt. These are formed as a result of evaporation in arid regions.
Another mode of formation involves the decomposition of surface rocks, and the removal of soluble constituents, leaving a residual mass of weathered material containing ores. Bauxite is formed in this way.
Certain minerals may occur as alluvial deposits in sands of valley floors and the base of hills. These deposits are called ‘placer deposits’ and generally contain minerals which are not corroded by water. Gold, silver, tin and platinum are most important among such minerals.
The ocean waters contain vast quantities of minerals, but most of these are too widely diffused to be of economic significance. However, common salt, magnesium and bromine are largely derived from ocean waters.
Any other relevant point.
Any five points to be explained.
Q39.2025 Main 32/4/1 · Q315 marks
(A) “It would be beneficial to develop sustainable way to meet the growing energy demand in India.” Support the statement by giving suitable arguments.
OR
(B) “We have to use a planned and sustainable manner to conserve our minerals.” Support the statement by giving suitable arguments.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025, Set 32/4/1
(A)
Energy is the basic requirement for economic development.
Every sector like agriculture, industry, transport, commercial and domestic- needs inputs of energy.
Consumption of energy in all forms has been steadily rising all over the country.
Promotion of energy conservation and increased use of renewable energy sources are the twin planks of sustainable energy.
Need of the hour is to develop a sustainable path of energy development through use of energy efficient programmes.
Public awareness campaigns to promote the idea of energy conservation.
Cautious approach to the judicious use of limited energy resources.
Use of non-conventional sources of energy like solar, wind and geo-thermal.
Adopting small steps to save energy like use of public transport, switching of electricity when not in use, using power saving devices etc.
Any other relevant point.
Any five arguments to be explained.
(B)
Mineral resources are finite and non-renewable.
Example, coal and iron ore which will take millions of years to be created and concentrated.
High dependence of industry and agriculture on mineral deposits.
Replenishment of used resources is a time-consuming process.
Judicious use of mineral resources is the need of the hour.
Improving technology to allow the use of low-grade ores at low cost.
Reusing of metals.
Enforcement of stricter regulations of environmental laws.
Any other relevant point.
Any five arguments to be explained.
Q40.2025 Supp 32/S/1 · Q315 marks
(a) Explain the importance of non-conventional sources of energy with examples.
OR
(b) Explain with examples the importance of minerals for human life.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Supplementary 2025, Set 32/S/1
(a)
The growing consumption of energy has resulted in the country becoming increasingly dependent on fossil fuels such as coal, oil and gas.
Rising prices of oil and gas and their potential shortages have raised uncertainties about the security of energy supply in future, which in turn has serious repercussions on the growth of the national economy.
Increasing use of fossil fuels also causes serious environmental problems. There is a pressing need to use renewable energy sources like solar energy, wind, tide, biomass and energy from waste material.
India is blessed with an abundance of sunlight, water, wind and biomass.
It has various programmes for the development of these renewable energy resources.
There is an urgent need to develop a sustainable path of energy development.
Promotion of energy conservation and increased use of renewable energy sources are the twin planks of sustainable energy.
Any other relevant point.
Any five points to be explained.
(b)
Minerals are an indispensable part of our lives.
Almost everything we use, from a tiny pin to a towering building or a big ship, all are made from minerals.
The railway lines and the tarmac (paving) of the roads, our implements and machinery too are made from minerals.
Cars, buses, trains, aero planes are manufactured from minerals and run on power resources derived from the earth.
The food that we eat contains minerals.
In all stages of development, human beings have used minerals for their livelihood, decoration, festivities, religious and ceremonial rites.
Any other relevant point.
Any five points to be explained.
Q41.2024 Main 32/1/1 · Q315 marks
(A) How is energy a basic requirement for economic development ? Explain.
OR
(B) How are conventional sources of energy different from non-conventional sources ? Explain.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024, Set 32/1/1
(A)
Energy is required for all activities for example cooking, light, propelling vehicles, run machinery in industries, etc.
Energy can be classified as conventional and non- conventional sources of energy.
Energy is required for large scale manufacturing that is essential for economic development.
Energy is also required for the development of small scale industries.
Energy is required to modernise agriculture and increase agricultural production.
Examples of conventional sources of energy are firewood, cattle dung cake, coal, petroleum, natural gas, electricity (thermal) etc.
Examples of non-conventional sources of energy are solar, wind, tidal, geo-thermal, biogas, etc.
Any other relevant point.
Any five points to be explained
(B)
Conventional sources of energy are exhaustible, non-conventional sources are renewable.
Conventional sources of energy take a long time to form. Non-conventional forms of energy are readily available
Conventional forms of energy are usually derived from fossil fuels. Non-conventional sources of energy are derived from sources like sun, wind and Earth.
Conventional sources of energy are relatively cheaper. Non-Conventional energy sources are initially expensive but become cheaper in due course of time.
Non-conventional sources of energy are sustainable while Conventional sources of energy are not sustainable.
Conventional sources of energy often cause air and water pollution. Non-conventional sources of energy cause less damage to the environment.
Examples of Conventional sources of energy are firewood, petroleum, coal, natural gas etc. Examples of non- conventional energy sources are solar, tidal, wind, hydel power.
Any other relevant point.
Any five points of difference to be explained
Q42.2024 Main 32/2/1 · Q315 marks
(a) “Promotion of energy conservation is important plank of sustainable energy.” Explain the statement with examples.
OR
(b) “Energy is required for all kinds of activities.” Explain this statement with examples.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024, Set 32/2/1
(a)
Judicious use of limited energy resources.
For example, as concerned citizens we can do our bit by using public transport systems instead of individual vehicles.
Switching off electricity when not in use.
Using power saving devices.
Using non-conventional sources of energy.
Any other relevant point.
Any five points to be explained with examples.
(b)
Energy is a basic requirement for economic development as it is needed for all types of activities.
In agriculture, energy is required for water pumps, tractor and other harvesting machines. Green revolution further increased need of energy for using modern farming methods.
No industry can run without energy. With growth of industrial sector the need of energy is rapidly rising all over the country.
Transport sector has high consumption of energy.
Commercial and domestic sectors of the economy need inputs of energy.
Any other relevant point.
Any five points to be explained with examples.
Q43.SQP 2025-26 · Q175 marks
(A) Person P is willing to establish a mineral based industry. He has been advised to set up a bauxite industry in Odisha as a suitable way to make a profitable venture. Analyse the possible reasons behind the advice given to her.
OR
(B) ‘Coal is the most important and abundant fossil fuel in India.’ Justify the statement by evaluating the significant role it plays in the growth of the Indian economy in its different forms.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26
(A)
Odisha was the largest bauxite producing state in India in 2016-17. Panchpatmali deposits in Koraput district are the most important bauxite deposits in the state.
Aluminium is an important metal because it combines the strength of metals such as iron,
It is a good alternative to other metals due to its extreme lightness and
also has good conductivity and
great malleability
(any other relevant point - 5 points)
(B)
Significance:
It is used for power generation,
To supply energy to industry as well as for domestic needs.
India is highly dependent on coal for meeting its commercial energy requirements. e.g., in metallurgy
any other relevant point (at least 2)
Variety of coal types-
Coal, is found in a variety of forms depending on the degrees of compression and the depth and time of burial.
Peat - Decaying plants in swamps produce peat. Which has a low carbon and high moisture contents and low heating capacity.
Lignite - is a low grade brown coal, which is soft with high moisture content. The principal lignite reserves are in Neyveli in Tamil Nadu and are used for generation of electricity.
Bituminous coal-Coal that has been buried deep and subjected to increased temperatures. It is the most popular coal in commercial use. Metallurgical coal is high grade bituminous coal which has a special value for smelting iron in blast furnaces.
Anthracite -is the highest quality hard coal.
Contemporary India II · Geography
6. Manufacturing Industries
Q1.2025 Main 32/3/1 · Q141 mark
Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements and choose the correct option :
Assertion (A) : Most of the jute industry in India is located in a narrow belt along the banks of Hugli river.
Reason (R) : India is the second largest exporter of jute.
Options :
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(A) is true, but (R) is false.
(A) is false, but (R) is true.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025, Set 32/3/1
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Q2.2023 Main 32/2/1 · Q61 mark
There are two statements given as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A) : Agriculture and industry move hand in hand.
Reason (R) : Industrial development is a precondition for eradication of unemployment and poverty from the country.
Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023, Set 32/2/1
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Q3.SQP 2026-27 · Q141 mark
Despite India’s strong capacity in spinning, the weaving sector continues to produce relatively lower-quality fabric. Which of the following is the most appropriate reason?
Overdependence on imported cotton yarn
Limited use of high-quality yarn due to decentralised weaving structure
Excessive mechanisation of weaving mills
Decline in traditional weaving skills
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27
(B) Limited use of high-quality yarn due to decentralised weaving structure
Q4.SQP 2026-27 · Q151 mark
In the following question, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason(R). Choose the appropriate answer from the options given below as the correct answer:
Assertion (A): Bengaluru has developed as one of the leading centres of the Information Technology and electronics industry in India. Reason (R): The city is located close to major ports, which has been the primary factor encouraging the growth of electronics and IT industries there.
Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
A is true, but R is false
A is false, but R is true
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27
(C) A is true, but R is false
Q5.2023 Main 32/4/1 · Q222 marks
“Agriculture and industry move hand in hand.” Support the statement with examples.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023, Set 32/4/1
The agro-industries in India have given a major boost to agriculture by raising its productivity.
Industries depend on the agriculture for raw materials and Agricultural sector gets products such as irrigation pumps, fertilisers, insecticides, pesticides, plastic and PVC pipes, machines, and tools, etc.
Development and competitiveness of manufacturing industry has not only assisted agriculturists in increasing their production but also made the production processes very efficient.
In globalisation, our industry and agricultural sectors need to work in coherence.
Any other relevant point
Any two points to be explained.
Q6.2022 Main 32/1/1 · Q52 marks
Study the given flowchart and answer the questions that follow :
(5.1) Which is the basic material required for garment manufacturing ?
(5.2) Give one example of value addition in the textile industry.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2022 Term II, Set 32/1/1
5.1 Raw Fibre.
5.2 Spinning / Weaving / Dyeing / Stitching and Finishing.
(Any other example)
Q7.2022 Main 32/2/1 · Q22 marks
How is chemical industry in India diversified ? Explain.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2022 Term II, Set 32/2/1
It comprises both large- and small-scale manufacturing units.
Rapid growth has been recorded in both inorganic and organic sectors.
Inorganic chemicals include sulphuric acid, nitric acid, soda ash and caustic soda.
Manufacturing of fertilizers, synthetic fibres, plastics, etc. depends upon inorganic industry.
Glass, soaps and detergents, paper industries are related with soda ash.
Organic chemicals include petrochemicals used for plastics, dye stuffs and pharmaceuticals.
Processed chemicals have wide usage.
Any other relevant point.
Any two points to be mentioned
Q8.2022 Main 32/2/1 · Q42 marks
Classify industries on the basis of raw materials.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2022 Term II, Set 32/2/1
Mineral-based — Examples — Iron and steel, cement, aluminium, machine tools, petrochemicals etc.
Any other relevant point
Q11.2022 Supp 32/6/1 · Q32 marks
Why is the iron and steel industry called as the 'basic industry' ? Explain.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2022 Term II Compartment, Set 32/6/1
The iron and steel Industry is the basic industry because all other industries are based on it.
It is used to manufacture a variety of engineering goods and construction material.
It is used in defence, medical, telephonic and scientific equipment.
It is used in variety of consumer goods.
Any other relevant point
Any two points to be explained
Q12.2025 Main 32/6/1 · Q283 marks
(a) Explain any three factors responsible for water pollution.
OR
(b) Explain any three factors responsible for air pollution.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025, Set 32/6/1
(a)
Water pollution is caused by organic and inorganic industrial waste and affluents discharged into rivers.
The main culprits in this regard are paper, pulp, chemical, textile and dyeing, petroleum refineries, tanneries and electroplating industries.
These industries let out dyes, detergents, acids, salts, heavy metals like lead and mercury pesticides, fertilizers, synthetic chemicals with carbon, plastics and rubber, etc. into the water bodies.
Fly ash, phospo-gypsum and iron and steel slags are the major solid wastes in India.
Any other relevant point.
Any three points to be explained.
(b)
Air pollution is caused by the presence of high proportion of undesirable gases, such as Sulphur dioxide and carbon monoxide.
Air borne particulate materials contain both solid and liquid particles like dust, sprays mist and smoke.
Smoke is emitted by chemical and paper factories, brick kilns, refineries and smelting plants, and burning of fossil fuels in big and small factories that ignore pollution norms.
Toxic gas leaks can be very hazardous with long-term effects.
Air pollution adversely affects human health, animals, plants, buildings and the atmosphere as a whole.
Any other relevant point.
Any three points to be explained.
Q13.2024 Main 32/1/1 · Q263 marks
‘Manufacturing industries are considered the backbone of the economic development.’ Justify the statement.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024, Set 32/1/1
Manufacturing industries help in modernizing agriculture.
They reduce the heavy dependence of people on agricultural income by providing them jobs in secondary and tertiary sectors.
Industrial development is a precondition for eradication of unemployment and poverty from our country.
Public sector industries and joint sector ventures in India also aimed at bringing down regional disparities by establishing industries in tribal and backward areas.
Export of manufactured goods expands trade and commerce, and brings in much needed foreign exchange.
India has increased and diversified its manufacturing industries quickly to be able to transform their raw materials into a wide variety of finished goods of higher value.
The agro-industries in India have given a major boost to agriculture by raising its productivity.
Any three points to be explained.
Q14.2024 Main 32/2/1 · Q263 marks
“India’s prosperity lies in expanding and diversifying its manufacturing industries.” Justify the statement.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024, Set 32/2/1
Manufacturing industries help in modernizing agriculture, which forms the backbone of our economy, they also reduce the heavy dependence of people on agricultural income by providing them jobs in secondary and tertiary sectors.
Industrial development is a precondition for eradication of unemployment and poverty from our country.
It aims at bringing down regional disparities by establishing industries in tribal and backward areas.
Export of manufactured goods expands trade and commerce, and brings in much needed foreign exchange.
Countries that transform their raw materials into a wide variety of finished goods of higher value are prosperous.
Any other relevant point.
Any three points to be explained.
Q15.2024 Main 32/3/1 · Q263 marks
“The development process of India has experienced transformation due to the significant influence of Information Technology (I.T.) and Electronic Industry.” Explain the statement with examples.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024, Set 32/3/1
The electronics industry covers a wide range of product from transistor sets to television, telephones, cellular telecom, telephone exchange, radar, computers and many other equipment’s required by telecommunication industry.
Bengaluru has emerges as the electronic capital of India.
Other important centers for electronic goods are Mumbai, Delhi, Hyderabad, Pune, Chennai, Kolkata, Lucknow and Coimbatore.
The speedy communication has given boost to India’s contact with the outside world.
A major impact of this industry has been on employment generation.
The continuing growth in the hardware and software is the key to the success of IT industry.
Development of satellite technology.
Due to information technology and electronic industry trade and commerce are expanding.
Expansion of diversified Manufacturing Industries.
It helps in providing economic strength of nation.
Any other relevant point.
Any three points to be explained.
Q16.2023 Main 32/1/1 · Q263 marks
How has Information Technology affected Electronic Industry ? Explain.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023, Set 32/1/1
The electronics industry covers a wide range of products.
These include transistor sets, television, telephones, cellular telecom, telephone exchange, radars, computers and many other equipments.
The continuing growth in the hardware and software is the key to the success of electronic industry.
It has enabled more productivity, quality of service and efficiency in the Electronic Industry.
Any other relevant point.
Any three points to be explained.
Q17.2022 Main 32/3/1 · Q124 marks
National Thermal Power Corporation (NTPC) shows the way
NTPC is a major power providing corporation in India. It has ISO certification for EMS (Environment Management System) 14001. The corporation has a proactive approach for preserving the natural environment and resources like water, oil, gas and fuels in places where it is setting up power plants. This has been possible through :
(a) Optimum utilisation of equipment adopting latest techniques and upgrading existing equipment. (b) Minimising waste generation by maximising ash utilisation. (c) Providing green belts for nurturing ecological balance and addressing the question of special purpose vehicles for afforestation. (d) Reducing environmental pollution through ash pond management, ash water recycling system and liquid waste management. (e) Ecological monitoring, reviews and online database management for all its power stations.
(12.1) Define the term 'sustainable development'.
(12.2) What is the idea behind ISO certification ?
(12.3) Examine the proactive approach of National Thermal Power Corporation (NTPC).
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2022 Term II, Set 32/3/1
12.1
Sustainable development means 'development' should take place without damaging the environment and developing in the present should not compromise with the needs of the future generation.
12.2
It is a mark of quality and credibility for any company.
12.3
Optimum utilisation of equipment adopting latest techniques and upgrading existing equipment.
Minimising waste generation by maximising ash utilisation.
Providing green belts for nurturing ecological balance and addressing the question of special purpose vehicles for afforestation.
Reducing environmental pollution through ash pond management, ash water recycling system and liquid waste management.
Ecological monitoring, reviews.
Any other relevant point.
Any two points to be explained
Q18.2022 Main 32/4/1 · Q124 marks
Challenges faced by the Jute industry include stiff competition in the international market from synthetic substitutes and from other competitors like Bangladesh, Brazil, Philippines, Egypt and Thailand. However, the internal demand has been on the increase due to the Government policy of mandatory use of jute packaging. To stimulate demand, the products need to be diversified. In 2005, National Jute Policy was formulated with the objective of increasing productivity, improving quality, ensuring good prices to the jute farmers and enhancing the yield per hectare. The main markets are U.S.A., Canada, Russia, United Arab Republic, U.K. and Australia. The growing global concern for environment friendly, biodegradable materials, has once again opened the opportunity for jute products.
(12.1) Mention any two challenges faced by 'jute industry' in India.
(12.2) What was the main objective of National Jute Policy formulated in 2005 ?
(12.3) How has jute industry once again opened the new opportunities for its products ?
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2022 Term II, Set 32/4/1
12.1
Stiff competition in the international market
Competitors are Bangladesh, Brazil, Philippines, Egypt and Thailand
Stiff competition from the synthetic substitutes
Any other relevant point
Any two points
12.2
To Increase productivity
To improve quality
To ensure good prices to the farmers
To enhance the yield per hectare
Any other relevant point
Any one point
12.3
Biodegradable materials have once again opened the opportunity for jute products
The global concern for environment friendly products is increasing day by day
Synthetic substitutes are being avoided.
Any other relevant point
Any two points
Q19.2022 Supp 32/6/1 · Q124 marks
NTPC shows the way
NTPC is a major power providing corporation in India. It has ISO certification for EMS (Environment Management System) 14001. The corporation has a pro-active approach for preserving the natural environment and resources like water, oil, gas and fuels in places where it is setting up power plants. This has been possible through –
(a) Optimum utilisation of equipment adopting latest techniques and upgrading existing equipment. (b) Minimising waste generation by maximising ash utilisation. (c) Providing green belts for nurturing ecological balance and addressing the question of special purpose vehicles for afforestation.
(12.1) Which is the major power providing corporation in India ?
(12.2) Name the institution which issues ISO certification for Environment Management System.
(12.3) Explain the pro-active approach of NTPC for preserving the natural environment.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2022 Term II Compartment, Set 32/6/1
12.1
National Thermal Power Corporation
12.2
The International Accreditation Forum (IAF)
12.3
Optimum utilisation of equipment adopting latest techniques and upgrading existing equipment.
Minimising waste generation by maximising ash utilisation.
Providing green belts for nurturing ecological balance and addressing the question of special purpose vehicles for afforestation
Any other relevant point
Any two points to be explained
Q20.SQP 2025-26 · Q184 marks
Read the given text and answer the following questions: (1+2+1=4)
Global pollution is rising due to rapid economic growth, population increases, and insufficient environmental management. This poses serious health risks for people and ecosystems, particularly in low- and middle-income countries. Contributing to these challenges, the global economy relies on deeply intertwined supply chains, sustained by more than 100 billion tons of raw materials entering the system each year. Intensive material consumption depletes natural resources and causes negative environmental impacts at every stage of the product lifecycle. Global waste is expected to increase to 3.4 billion tons by 2050.
Pollution of all types hinders development outcomes. Exposure to air pollution, water pollution, and hazardous chemicals and wastes like mercury, lead and persistent organic pollutants (POPs) causes debilitating and fatal illnesses, creates harmful living conditions, and destroys ecosystems. Pollution undermines sustainable economic growth, exacerbates poverty and inequality in both urban and rural areas, and significantly contributes to climate change. Poor people, who cannot afford to protect themselves from the negative impacts of pollution, end up suffering the most. Pollution is the largest environmental cause of disease and premature death. It is estimated to be several times more deaths than from AIDS, tuberculosis, and malaria combined. Global health crises, such as the COVID-19 pandemic, are reminders of the strong linkages between environment and health and of the need to address such linkages systematically.
18.1 Why do you think is global waste expected to increase by 2050? 18.2 How do manufacturing industries cause pollution of different types? Explain with examples. 18.3 Is it correct to consider pollution as a possible cause for worsening of the current global trends of poverty and inequality? Justify.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26
18.1 Due to intensive material production and consumption.
18.2 Manufacturing industries are a major cause for-
air pollution – Smoke is emitted by chemical and paper factories, brick kilns, refineries and smelting plants, and burning of fossil fuels in big and small factories that ignore pollution norms. Toxic gas leaks can be very hazardous with long-term effects.
Water pollution is caused by organic and inorganic industrial wastes and affluents discharged into rivers. The main culprits in this regard are paper, pulp, chemical, textile and dyeing, petroleum refineries, tanneries and electroplating industries that let out dyes, detergents, acids, salts and heavy metals like lead and mercury pesticides, fertilisers, synthetic chemicals with carbon, plastics and rubber, etc. into the water bodies.
Thermal pollution of water occurs when hot water from factories and thermal plants is drained into rivers and ponds before cooling.
Dumping of wastes specially glass, harmful chemicals, industrial effluents, packaging, salts and garbage renders the soil useless.
Rain water percolates to the soil carrying the pollutants to the ground and the ground water also gets contaminated.
Industrial and construction activities, machinery, factory equipment, generators, saws and pneumatic and electric drills also make a lot of noise.
(Or any other relevant point) – Any two points
18.3 Poor people, cannot afford to protect themselves from the negative impacts of pollution, end up suffering the most. This also leads to social disparity/inequality due to the ill effects of poverty. (Can be explained with the help of an example)
Q21.2026 Exam 2 32/7/1 · Q165 marks
(a) Describe the importance of manufacturing industries in the economic development of the country.
OR
(b) Describe the relationship between agriculture and industries.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Exam 2), Set 32/7/1
(a)
Manufacturing sector is considered the backbone of development.
It helps in modernising agriculture.
Industrial development is a pre-condition for eradication of unemployment.
It helps in bringing down regional disparities by establishing industries in tribal and backward areas.
Exports of manufactured goods expands trade and commerce.
It brings in much needed foreign exchange.
Countries that transform their raw materials into wide variety of finished goods of higher value are prosperous.
Countries prosperity lies in increasing and diversifying its manufacturing industries.
Any other relevant point.
Any Five points to be described.
(b)
Agriculture and industries are not exclusive of each other. They move hand in hand.
The agro-industry in India have given a major boost to agriculture by rising its productivity.
They depend on the latter for raw materials and sell their product such as irrigation pumps, fertilisers, insecticides, pesticides, plastic and PVC pipe, machines and tools etc. to the farmers.
Development and competitiveness of manufacturing industries has assisted agriculturists in increasing their production.
It also made the production processes very efficient.
In recent year our manufactured goods have become at par in quality with those in the international market.
Any other relevant point.
Any five points to be described.
Q22.2026 Exam 2 32/8/1 · Q165 marks
(a) Describe the main characteristics of Information Technology and Electronics Industry in India.
OR
(b) Describe the main characteristics of Chemical Industry in India.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 Exam 2, Set 32/8/1
(a)
The electronics industry covers a wide range of products from transistor sets to Television, telephones, cellular telecom etc.
A major impact of this industry has been on employment generation.
The continuing growth in the hardware and software is the key to the success of industry in India.
It fulfils many requirements of the telecommunication industry
Bengaluru, Noida, Mumbai, Delhi, Hyderabad etc have emerged as the important production centers of electronic goods.
Any other relevant point.
Any five points to be explained
(b)
The Chemical industry in India is fast growing and diversifying.
It comprises both large and small scale manufacturing units.
Rapid growth has been recorded in both inorganic and organic sectors.
Inorganic chemicals include sulphuric acid, nitric acid, alkalies, soda ash and caustic soda.
The chemical industry is its own largest consumer.
Basic chemicals undergo processing to further produce other chemicals that are used for industrial application, agriculture or directly for consumer markets
These industries are widely spread all over the country.
Any other relevant point
Any five points to be explained
Q23.2026 Main 32/2/1 · Q165 marks
(a) Explain the reasons why most of the Jute industries in India are located in West Bengal.
OR
(b) Explain the measures to reduce industrial pollution.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026, Set 32/2/1
(a)
Proximity of jute producing area.
Inexpensive and well-connected water transport.
Abundant water for processing raw jute.
Good network of railways and roadways.
Cheap labour.
Kolkata as a large urban centre provides banking, insurance and port facilities for export of jute goods.
Any other relevant point.
Any five points to be explained.
(b)
Treating hot water and effluents before releasing them in water.
Primary treatment by mechanical means.
Secondary treatment by biological process.
Tertiary treatment by biological, chemical and physical processes.
Particulate matter in the air can be reduced by fitting smoke stacks to factories with electrostatic precipitators, fabric filters, scrubbers and inertial separators.
Smoke can be reduced by using oil and gas instead of coal in factories.
Machinery and equipment can be used, and generators should be fitted with silencers.
Machinery should be redesigned to increase energy efficiency and reduced noise.
Noise absorbing materials should be used.
Minimise waste generation.
Provide green belts for nurturing ecological balance.
Ecological monitoring and reviews should be ensured.
Any other relevant point.
Any five points to be explained.
Q24.2026 Main 32/3/1 · Q165 marks
(a) “Manufacturing industries are considered the backbone of the economic development of the country.” Justify the statement with suitable arguments.
OR
(b) “Agriculture and industry move hand-in-hand.” Justify the statement with suitable arguments.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026, Set 32/3/1
(a)
Manufacturing industries help in modernising agriculture.
It reduces the heavy dependence of people on income from agriculture.
Industrial development is a pre-condition for eradication of unemployment.
It aims at bringing down regional disparities.
It reduces poverty.
It helps in the expansion of trade and commerce.
It brings in foreign exchange and thus manufacturing industries contribute to the development of all the economic sectors.
Any other relevant point.
Any five points to be explained.
(b)
The agro-industries in India has given a major boost to agriculture.
They depend on the agriculture for raw material.
The industries provide irrigation pumps, fertilisers, pesticides etc to the farmers.
They assist agriculturists in increasing their productions.
The agro-industries increase the efficiency of the production process.
Agriculture and industry are not exclusive of each other.
Agriculture provides raw material to various industries.
Any other relevant point.
Any five points to be explained.
Q25.2025 Main 32/1/1 · Q315 marks
(a) “Manufacturing industries are considered the backbone of the economic development of a country.” Justify the statement.
OR
(b) “Agriculture and industries complement each other.” Justify the statement.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025, Set 32/1/1
(a)
The economic strength of a country is measured by the development of manufacturing industries.
Manufacturing industries help in modernizing agriculture.
They provide jobs in the secondary and tertiary sectors.
Industrial development is a pre-condition for eradication of unemployment and poverty.
Export of manufactured goods expands trade and commerce and brings much needed foreign exchange.
Countries that transform their raw material into a wide variety of finished goods of higher values are prosperous.
It is also aimed at bringing down regional disparities by establishing industries in tribal and backward areas.
Any other relevant point.
Any five points to be justified.
(b)
Agriculture and industries are not exclusive of each other. They move hand in hand.
For instance, Agro-industries in India have given a major boost to agriculture by raising its productivity.
Industries depend on agriculture for raw material and provide their products for example, irrigation pumps, fertilizers, insecticides, pesticides, plastic and PVC pipes, machines and tools etc to the agricultural sector.
The development and competitiveness of manufacturing industries has not only assisted agriculturists in increasing their productions but also made production process very efficient.
In the present day of globalization, our industries need to be more efficient and competitive. This will increase the productivity of agriculture sector as well.
Any other relevant point.
Any five points to be justified.
Q26.2025 Main 32/2/1 · Q315 marks
(a) Explain the role of industries in increasing air pollution and suggest measures to control it.
OR
(b) Explain the measures taken by ‘National Thermal Power Corporation’ to prevent environmental degradation.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025, Set 32/2/1
(a)
Role of industries in increasing air pollution-
Air pollution is caused by the presence of high proportion of undesirable gases, such as sulphur dioxide and carbon monoxide.
Airborne particulate materials contain both solid and liquid particles like dust, sprays mist and smoke.
Smoke is emitted by chemical and paper factories, brick kilns, refineries and smelting plants, and burning of fossil fuels in big and small factories that ignore pollution norms.
Toxic gas leaks can be very hazardous with long-term effects.
Any other relevant point.
Any two points to be explained.
Suggestions to control air pollution-
Particulate matter in the air can be reduced by increasing the height of chimneys.
Fitting smoke stacks to factories with- a. electrostatic precipitators, b. fabric filters, c. scrubbers and d. inertial separators.
Smoke can be reduced by using oil or gas instead of coal in factories.
Shift to renewable energy sources.
Any other relevant point.
Any three points to be explained.
(b)
The corporation has a proactive approach for preserving the natural environment and resources like water, oil and gas and fuels in places where it is setting up power plants.
This has been possible through optimum utilisation of equipment adopting latest techniques and upgrading existing equipment.
Minimising waste generation by maximising ash utilisation.
Providing green belts for nurturing ecological balance and addressing the question of special purpose vehicles for afforestation.
Reducing environmental pollution through ash pond management, ash water recycling system and liquid waste management.
Ecological monitoring, reviews and on-line database management for all its power stations.
Any other relevant point.
Any five points to be explained.
Q27.2025 Main 32/5/1 · Q315 marks
(A) Study the given flow chart (Figure 1) and answer the question that follows :
Explain the added value product in the textile industry on the bases of above flowchart.
OR
(B) Study the given flowchart (Figure 2) and answer the question that follows :
Explain the steel manufacturing process on the bases of the above flowchart.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025, Set 32/5/1
(A)
Cotton is harvested from cotton plants and processed to remove seeds and impurities. The raw fibre obtained is the initial stage of value addition.
The raw cotton fibre is spun into yarns through various spinning techniques. It enhances the usability of cotton by making it suitable for weaving or knitting.
The spun yarn is woven or knitted to create fabric. This step transforms the material into a more functional form, adding value by making it suitable for further processing.
The fabric undergoes dyeing, printing, and finishing processes to improve its aesthetic appeal, durability, and texture. This increases the fabric's market value and makes it ready for garment production.
The finished fabric is cut and stitched into garments such as shirts, dresses, or jeans making it ready for consumers.
Cotton industry, by creating demands supports many other industries, such as chemicals and dyes.
Any other relevant point.
To be assessed as whole.
(B)
Raw materials like iron ore, coal, and limestone are transported to the steel plant. (Example: Iron ore from mines in India (like Odisha or Jharkhand) is transported to steel plants).
The raw materials are fed into a blast furnace, where they are melted at high temperatures. (Example: In steel plants, coke is used as fuel to melt iron ore).
The molten iron extracted from the blast furnace is called pig iron, which is high in carbon content and not yet steel. (Example: Pig iron is used for refining steel).
The pig iron is processed in steel-making furnaces to reduce impurities and adjust its composition. (Example: Companies produce different grades of steel for various industrial uses).
The purified steel is then shaped into desired forms like sheets, rods, or beams through rolling, forging, or casting. (Example: Steel is used to manufacture construction materials, automobile parts, etc.).
Any other relevant point.
To be assessed as whole.
Q28.2024 Main 32/4/1 · Q315 marks
(a) Describe the role of manufacturing industries in the economic development of a country.
OR
(b) Describe any five steps taken to save fresh water from industrial pollution.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024, Set 32/4/1
(a)
Over the last two decades, GDP of the country has been improved due to the manufacturing sector.
Helped in the modernization of agriculture.
Helped in the reduction of unemployment and poverty.
Helped in bridging down the regional disparity.
Helped in the expansion of trade and commerce.
Helped in raising foreign exchange.
Any other relevant point.
Any five points to be described.
(b)
Minimising the use of water for processing by reusing and recycling it in two or more successive stages.
Harvesting of rainwater to meet water requirements.
Treating hot water and effluents before releasing them in rivers and ponds. Treatment of industrial effluents can be done in three phases-
Primary treatment by mechanical means. This involves screening, grinding, flocculation and sedimentation.
Secondary treatment by biological process.
Tertiary treatment by biological, chemical and physical processes.
This involves recycling of wastewater.
Providing green belts for nurturing ecological balances.
Any other relevant point.
Any five points to be described.
Q29.2024 Main 32/5/1 · Q315 marks
(a) “Manufacturing sector is considered the backbone of development of the country.” Justify the statement.
OR
(b) “Agriculture and Industry move hand in hand.” Justify the statement.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024, Set 32/5/1
(a)
Manufacturing industries helps in modernizing agriculture.
They also reduce the heavy dependence of people on agricultural income by providing them jobs in the secondary and tertiary sectors.
Industrial development is also a pre-condition for eradication of unemployment and poverty from our country.
It also helps in bringing down regional disparities by establishing industries in tribal and backward industries.
Export of manufactured goods expands trade and commerce and brings in much needed foreign exchange.
Manufacturing contributes to the GDP and increase in per capita income.
Any other relevant point.
Any five points to be justified.
(b)
The agro industries have given a major boost to agriculture by raising its productivity.
The depend on the latter for raw materials.
They sell their products such as irrigation pumps, fertilisers, insecticides, pesticides, plastic and PVC pipes, machines and tools to the farmers.
Development and competitiveness of manufacturing industry has not only assisted agriculturalists in increasing their production but also made the production process very efficient.
Both sectors have created job markets in agriculture, manufacturing and service sector.
Any other relevant point.
Any five points to be explained.
Q30.2024 Supp 32/S/1 · Q315 marks
(a) Explain the significance of industries in the Indian economy.
OR
(b) How are industries responsible for air pollution ? Suggest any three measures to control it.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Supplementary 2024, Set 32/S/1
(a)
Industries help in modernising agriculture, which forms the backbone of our economy.
They reduce the heavy dependence of people on agricultural income by providing them jobs in secondary and tertiary sectors.
Industrial development is a precondition for eradication of unemployment and poverty from our country.
It was also aimed at bringing down regional disparities by establishing industries in tribal and backward areas.
Export of manufactured goods expands trade and commerce, and brings in much needed foreign exchange.
Countries that transform their raw materials into a wide variety of finished goods of higher value are prosperous. India’s prosperity lies in increasing and diversifying its manufacturing industries as quickly as possible.
Any other relevant point.
Any five points to be explained
(b)
Air pollution is caused by the presence of high proportion of undesirable gases, such as sulphur dioxide and carbon monoxide.
Airborne particulate materials contain both solid and liquid particles like dust, sprays mist and smoke.
Smoke is emitted by chemical and paper factories, brick kilns, refineries and smelting plants
Burning of fossil fuels in big and small factories that ignore pollution norms.
Toxic gas leaks can be very hazardous with long-term effects.
Any other relevant point.
Any two points to be explained (2X1=2)
Particulate matter in the air can be reduced by-
fitting smoke stacks to factories, with electrostatic precipitators
fabric filters
scrubbers and inertial separators.
Smoke can be reduced by using oil or gas instead of coal in factories.
Any other relevant point.
Any three points to be explained (3X1=3)
Q31.2023 Main 32/5/1 · Q315 marks
(a) Explain the importance of manufacturing industries.
OR
(b) Explain any five ways to reduce industrial pollution.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023, Set 32/5/1
(a)
The economic strength of a country is measured by the development of manufacturing industries and is considered the backbone of the economy.
Helps to modernize agriculture
Reduces dependency on agriculture
Help to eradicate unemployment and poverty
Reduces regional disparities by setting up industries in remote areas.
Earns foreign exchange
Brings overall prosperity
Any other relevant point
Any FIVE points to be explained.
(b)
Minimising use water for processing by reusing and recycling it in two or more successive stages
Harvesting of rainwater to meet water requirements
Treating hot water and effluents before releasing them in rivers and ponds. Treatment of industrial effluents can be done in three phases
(a) Primary treatment by mechanical means. This involves screening, grinding, flocculation and sedimentation.
(b) Secondary treatment by biological process
(c) Tertiary treatment by biological, chemical and physical processes. This involves recycling of wastewater.
Overdrawing of ground water reserves by industry where there is a threat to ground water resources also needs to be regulated legally.
Particulate matter in the air can be reduced by fitting smoke stacks to factories with electrostatic precipitators, fabric filters, scrubbers and inertial separators. Smoke can be reduced by using oil or gas instead of coal in factories.
Machinery and equipment can be used and generators should be fitted with silencers.
Almost all machinery can be redesigned to increase energy efficiency and reduce noises.
Any other relevant point.
Any FIVE points to be explained.
Q32.2023 Main 32/6/1 · Q315 marks
(a) How can the industrial pollution of fresh water be reduced ? Explain with examples.
OR
(b) “The economic strength of a country is measured by the development of manufacturing industries.” Explain with examples.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023, Set 32/6/1
(a)
Minimising use of water for processing by reusing and recycling it in two or more successive stages.
Harvesting of rainwater to meet water requirements
Treating hot water and effluents before releasing them in rivers and ponds. Treatment of industrial effluents can be done in three phases-
(a) Primary treatment by mechanical means. This involves screening, grinding, flocculation and sedimentation.
(b) Secondary treatment by biological process.
(c) Tertiary treatment by biological, chemical, and physical processes. This involves recycling of wastewater.
Overdrawing of groundwater reserves by industry where there is a threat to groundwater resources also needs to be regulated legally.
Particulate matter in the air can be reduced by fitting smoke stacks to factories with electrostatic precipitators, fabric filters, scrubbers, and inertial separators. Smoke can be reduced by using oil or gas instead of coal in factories.
Machinery and equipment can be used and generators should be fitted with silencers.
Almost all machinery can be redesigned to increase energy efficiency and reduce noise. Noise absorbing material may be used apart from personal use of earplugs and earphones. The challenge of sustainable development requires integration of economic development with environmental concerns.
Any other relevant point.
Any five points to be explained.
(b)
Manufacturing industries not only help in modernising agriculture, which forms the backbone of our economy, they also reduce the heavy dependence of people on agricultural income by providing them jobs in secondary and tertiary sectors.
Industrial development is a precondition for eradication of unemployment and poverty from our country. This was the main philosophy behind public sector industries and joint sector ventures in India.
It was also aimed at bringing down regional disparities by establishing industries in Tribal and Backward areas.
Export of manufactured goods expands trade and commerce, and brings in much needed foreign exchange.
Countries that transform their raw materials into a wide variety of furnished goods of higher value are prosperous. India’s prosperity lies in increasing and diversifying its manufacturing industries as quickly as possible.
Any other relevant point.
Any five points to be explained.
Q33.2023 Supp 32/C/1 · Q315 marks
(a) Examine the importance of manufacturing industries for the Indian economy.
OR
(b) How can the industrial pollution of fresh water be reduced ? Give any five suggestions.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Supplementary Examination July 2023, Set 32/C/1
(a)
Manufacturing sector is considered the backbone of development in general and economic development in particular.
Manufacturing industries help in the modernization of agriculture.
They reduce the heavy dependence of people on agricultural income by providing them jobs in secondary and tertiary sectors.
Industrial development is a precondition for eradication of unemployment and poverty from our country.
Public sector industries and joint sector ventures in India also aimed at bringing down regional disparities by establishing industries in tribal and backward areas.
Export of manufactured goods expands trade and commerce, and brings in much needed foreign exchange.
India has increased and diversified its manufacturing industries quickly to be able to transform their raw materials into a wide variety of finished goods of higher value.
The agro-industries in India have given a major boost to agriculture by raising its productivity.
Agricultural sector depends on the latter for raw materials and sell their products such as irrigation pumps, fertilizers, insecticides, pesticides, plastic and PVC pipes, machines and tools, etc. to the farmers.
Any other relevant point.
Any five points to be explained
(b)
Minimizing water usage.
Reusing and recycling it in two or more successive stages.
Harvesting of rainwater to meet water requirements.
Treating hot water and effluents before releasing them in rivers and ponds.
Treatment of industrial effluents can be done in three phases: (a) Primary treatment by mechanical means. This involves screening, grinding, flocculation and sedimentation. (b) Secondary treatment by biological process. (c) Tertiary treatment by biological, chemical and physical processes. This involves recycling of wastewater.
Overdrawing of ground water reserves by industry where there is a threat to ground water resources also needs to be regulated legally.
Any other relevant point.
Any five points to be explained
Contemporary India II · Geography
7. Lifelines of National Economy
Q1.2023 Main 32/2/1 · Q71 mark
Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option.
Column I (Port)
Column II (Type)
i. Kandla
1. Riverine port
ii. Mumbai
2. Deepest landlocked port
iii. Visakhapatnam
3. Biggest port
iv. Kolkata
4. Port developed after independence
Options :
i – 4, ii – 3, iii – 2, iv – 1
i – 2, ii – 1, iii – 3, iv – 4
i – 2, ii – 4, iii – 1, iv – 3
i – 1, ii – 2, iii – 4, iv – 3
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023, Set 32/2/1
(a) i-4, ii-3, iii-2, iv-1
Q2.2022 Main 32/1/1 · Q22 marks
Examine the significance of pipeline as a means of transportation in the country.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2022 Term II, Set 32/1/1
Initial cost of laying pipelines is high but subsequent running costs are minimal.
It rules out trans-shipment losses.
It also rules out delays.
These are used for transporting crude oil, petroleum products and natural gas.
Solids can also be transported through a pipeline when converted into slurry.
Any other relevant point
Any two points to be examined
Q3.2022 Main 32/3/1 · Q52 marks
Read the following table and answer the questions that follow :
The Indian Railway network
Gauge in metres
Route (km)
Running Track (km)
Total Track (km)
Broad Gauge (1.676)
63,491
89,521
1,17,560
Metre Gauge (1.000)
3,200
3,462
3,775
Narrow Gauge (0.762 and 0.610)
1,751
1,752
1,901
Total
68,442
94,735
1,23,236
(5.1) Which gauge covers maximum of track length in hilly areas in India ?
(5.2) Which gauge has the highest length in India ?
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2022 Term II, Set 32/3/1
5.1 Narrow Gauge
5.2 Broad Gauge (track length 1,17,560)
Q4.2022 Main 32/4/1 · Q22 marks
Explain the importance of National Highways in India.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2022 Term II, Set 32/4/1
National Highways link extreme parts of the country
These are the primary road systems
These are laid and maintained by the C.P.W.D.
A number of major National Highways run in North-South and East-West directions
Any other relevant point
Any two points to be explained.
Q5.2022 Supp 32/6/1 · Q22 marks
Mention the importance of Border roads in India.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2022 Term II Compartment, Set 32/6/1
The roads of strategic importance in the northern and north-eastern border areas.
These roads have helped in the economic development of these areas
These roads have improved accessibility in areas of difficult terrain
Any other relevant point
Any two points to be mentioned.
Q6.2023 Main 32/5/1 · Q263 marks
Explain the importance of pipelines as a means of transportation in India.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023, Set 32/5/1
It is not only used to transport water but also crude oil, petroleum products, and natural gas.
Solids can also be transported through a pipeline when converted into slurry
It rules out Trans-shipment delays.
Initial cost of laying pipelines is high but subsequent running costs are minimal.
Pipelines connect through Natural gas fields, fertilizer factories and big thermal power plants.
Any other relevant point.
Any three points to be explained.
Q7.2023 Main 32/6/1 · Q263 marks
(a) Why do we call Tourism as a Trade ? Explain.
OR
(b) Explain the importance of Transportation in the economic development of the country.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023, Set 32/6/1
(a)
Tourism in India has grown substantially over the last three decades.
Foreign tourists’ arrivals in the country witnessed an increase of foreign exchange.
Tourism also promotes national integration, provides support to local handicrafts and cultural pursuits.
It also helps in the development of international understanding about our culture and heritage.
Foreign tourists visit India for heritage tourism, eco tourism, adventure tourism, cultural tourism, medical tourism and business tourism.
Rajasthan, Goa, Jammu and Kashmir and temple towns of South India are important destinations of foreign tourists in India.
There is vast potential of tourism development in the North-eastern States and the interior parts of Himalayas, but due to strategic reasons these have not been encouraged
Any other relevant point.
Any three points to be explained.
(b)
Movement of goods and services can be over three important domains of our Earth i.e. land, water and air. Based on these, transport can also be classified into land, water and air transport.
Today the world has been converted into a large village with the help of efficient and fast-moving transport.
Transport helps in the development of communication. Various means of communication help us in interacting with others in all the parts of the world. It has brought the world closer.
Transport like railways help us in conducting various activities like business, sightseeing, pilgrimage, and transportation of goods over longer distances.
Pipelines are used for transporting crude oil and natural gas to refineries and factories.
Waterways provide the cheapest means of transport and are useful for international trade.
Air transport provides the fastest and most comfortable mode of transport.
Any other relevant point.
Any three points to be explained.
Q8.2022 Main 32/1/1 · Q124 marks
Lifelines of National Economy
For a long time, trade and transport were restricted to a limited space. With the development in science and technology, the area of influence of trade and transport expanded far and wide. Today, the world has been converted into a large village with the help of efficient and fast moving transport. Transport has been able to achieve this with the help of equally developed communication system. Therefore, transport, communication and trade are complementary to each other.
Today, India is well-linked with the rest of the world despite its vast size, diversity and linguistic and socio-cultural plurality. Railways, airways, waterways, newspapers, radio, television, cinema and internet, etc. have been contributing to its socio-economic progress in many ways. The trades from local to international levels have added to the vitality of its economy. It has enriched our life and added substantially to growing amenities and facilities for the comforts of life.
(12.1) How is science an important factor in the development of transport ?
(12.2) How has transport integrated socio-cultural plurality ? Explain.
(12.3) Analyse the significance of communication for a nation.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2022 Term II, Set 32/1/1
12.1
The trade and transport expanded far and wide.
Efficient and fast moving transport.
Any other relevant point.
Any one point to be explained
12.2
India is well linked with rest of world.
Helps in the development of assimilation of cultures.
Any other relevant point.
Any one point to be explained
12.3
It is a source of information.
It enables communication, trade and other forms of exchange.
It plays an important role in economic growth.
It offers social, economic, political and cultural advantages.
It makes the world closer to each other.
Any other relevant point
Any two points to be analysed
Q9.2022 Main 32/2/1 · Q124 marks
Tourism
Tourism in India has grown substantially over the last three decades. More than 15 million people are directly engaged in the tourism industry. Tourism also promotes national integration, provides support to local handicrafts and cultural pursuits. It also helps in the development of international understanding about our culture and heritage. Foreign tourists visit India for heritage tourism, eco tourism, adventure tourism, cultural tourism, medical tourism and business tourism.
There is a vast potential for development of tourism in all parts of the country. Efforts are being made to promote different types of tourism for this upcoming industry.
(12.1) Explain the importance of tourism.
(12.2) Give an example of 'Heritage tourism'.
(12.3) Assess the benefits of improving tourism in India.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2022 Term II, Set 32/2/1
12.1
Tourism promotes national integration.
Helps in development of international understanding about our culture and heritage
Helps in earning foreign exchange
Provides employment to people.
Any other relevant point.
Any one point to be explained
12.2
Taj Mahal in Agra.
Udaipur Fort in Rajasthan
Mahabalipuram in Tamil Nadu.
Any other relevant point.
Any one example to be mentioned
12.3
More foreign tourists will visit in India.
Will help in increasing foreign exchange.
Development of regions will be there.
National and cultural integration will be there.
Nature of the international trade will be transformed.
Any other relevant point.
Any two points to be explained
Q10.2023 Main 32/1/1 · Q315 marks
(a) ‘Efficient means of Transport are pre-requisite for fast development.’ Justify the statement.
OR
(b) ‘Roadways have an edge over Railways.’ Justify the statement.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023, Set 32/1/1
(a)
Movement of goods and services can be over three important domains of our Earth i.e. Land, Water, and Air. Based on these, transport can also be classified into water and air transport.
Today, the world has been converted into a large village with the help of efficient and fast-moving transport.
Transport helps us in interacting with others in all the parts of the world
Transport like railways help us in conducting various activities like business, sightseeing, pilgrimage and transportation of goods over longer distances.
Pipelines are used for transporting crude oil and natural gas to refineries and factories.
Water provides the cheapest means of transport and is useful for international trade.
Air transport provides the fastest, most comfortable mode of transport.
Any other relevant point
Any five points to be explained.
(b)
Construction cost of roads is much lower than of railway lines.
Roads can traverse comparatively more dissected and undulating topography.
Roads can negotiate higher gradients of slopes and as such can traverse mountains such as the Himalayas
Road transport is economical in transportation of few persons and relatively smaller amount of goods over short distances
It also provides door-to-door service, thus the cost of loading and unloading is much lower
Road transport is also used as a feeder to other modes of transport such as they provide a link between railway station, air and sea ports.
Any other relevant point
Any five points to be explained.
Q11.2023 Main 32/4/1 · Q315 marks
(A) How is pipeline transport network important in the transport system of India ? Explain with an example.
OR
(B) How have physical and economic factors influenced the distribution pattern of the Indian Railway Network ? Explain with examples.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023, Set 32/4/1
(A)
Pipelines are being used for transporting crude oil.
They help in transporting petroleum products.
Natural gas also gets transported through pipeline.
It is used for transporting crude oil and other petroleum products from fields to refineries.
It can be transported to far away inland locations like Barauni, Mathura and Panipat.
Pipelines have proved beneficial for gas-based fertiliser plants.
Solids can also be transported through a pipeline when converted into slurry.
Running cost of pipelines is minimal.
They help in uninterrupted supply.
Any other relevant point
Any five points to be explained.
(B)
Northern Plains: Level land, high population density and rich agricultural resources have favoured development of railways in these plains.
Peninsular region and the Himalayan region: It is a hilly terrain. The Himalayan mountainous regions are not favourable for the construction of railway line due to high relief sparse population. So it is very difficult to lay the railway line.
Desert of Rajasthan: On the sandy plains of western Rajasthan it is very difficult, to lay railway lines which has hindered the development of railways.
Swamps of Gujarat, forested tracts of Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha and Jharkhand; these are also not suitable for the development of railways.
The contiguous stretch of Sahyadri could be crossed only through gaps or passes.
The development of Konkan railway along the west coast has facilitated the movement of passengers and goods in this most important economic region of India.
Railways play a major role in transporting goods from the sea port to the interior regions of India and vice versa.
Certain regions like Himalayan region are not economically congenial for the development of railway.
Any other relevant point.
Any five points to be explained.
Contemporary India II · Geography
Map Pointing (Locate and Label)
Q1.2022 Main 32/1/1 · Q13(b)2 marks
On the given political outline map of India (on page 11), locate and label the following :
(a) (I) Narora Nuclear Power Plant
OR
(II) Bengaluru Software Technology Park
(b) Indira Gandhi International Airport
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2022 Term II, Set 32/1/1
See the attached map (marking scheme answer map).
(a) (I) Narora Nuclear Power Plant (Uttar Pradesh) OR (II) Bengaluru Software Technology Park (Karnataka)
(b) Indira Gandhi International Airport (Delhi)
Q2.2022 Main 32/2/1 · Q13.22 marks
On the given Map of India (Map for Q. No. 13), locate and label the following :
I. (a) Ramagundam Thermal Plant
OR
(b) Pune Software Technology Park.
II. Chennai (Meenambakam) International Airport.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2022 Term II, Set 32/2/1
See the attached map (marking scheme answer map).
I. (a) Ramagundam Thermal Plant (Telangana) OR (b) Pune Software Technology Park (Maharashtra)
II. Chennai (Meenambakkam) International Airport (Tamil Nadu)
Q3.2022 Main 32/3/1 · Q13(ii)2 marks
On the given political outline map of India (on page 11), locate and label the following :
(a) (I) Singrauli Thermal Plant
OR
(II) Mumbai Software Technology Park
(b) Kolkata (Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose) International Airport
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2022 Term II, Set 32/3/1
See the attached map (marking scheme answer map).
(a) (I) Singrauli Thermal Plant (Uttar Pradesh) OR (II) Mumbai Software Technology Park (Maharashtra)
(b) Kolkata (Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose) International Airport (West Bengal)
Note : 1 mark to be given in locating Singrauli in UP
Q4.2022 Main 32/4/1 · Q13.22 marks
On the same given Map of India (Map for Q. No. 13), locate and label the following with appropriate symbols.
(i) (a) Tarapur – Nuclear Power Plant
OR
(b) Kalpakkam – Nuclear Power Plant
(ii) Hyderabad – Rajiv Gandhi International Airport
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2022 Term II, Set 32/4/1
See the attached map (marking scheme answer map): Tarapur Nuclear Power Plant (Maharashtra) / Kalpakkam Nuclear Power Plant (Tamil Nadu) and Hyderabad – Rajiv Gandhi International Airport (Telangana) marked on the outline map.
Q5.2022 Supp 32/6/1 · Q13(ii)2 marks
On the given political outline map of India (on page 11), locate and label the following with appropriate symbols :
(a) (I) Noida – Software Technology Park
OR
(II) Pune – Software Technology Park
(b) Paradwip – Major Sea Port
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2022 Term II Compartment, Set 32/6/1
See the attached map (marking scheme answer map).
(a) (I) Noida Software Technology Park (Uttar Pradesh) OR (II) Pune Software Technology Park (Maharashtra)
(b) Paradwip Major Sea Port (Odisha)
Q6.2026 Exam 2 32/7/1 · Q183 marks
On the same outline map of India (page 27) given for question no. 9, locate and label any three of the following with suitable symbols :
(18.1) A major iron and steel plant located in Tamil Nadu
(18.2) The state leading in tea production
(18.3) A major sea port located in Gujarat
(18.4) An international airport located in Punjab
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 (Exam 2), Set 32/7/1
(18.1) Salem
(18.2) Assam
(18.3) Kandala
(18.4) Amritsar / Shri Guru Ramdass ji International Airport
Q7.2026 Exam 2 32/8/1 · Q183 marks
On the given outline map of India for Q. No. 9, locate and label any three of the following by appropriate symbols :
18.1 An iron and steel plant located in Chhattisgarh 18.2 Software Technology Park located in Uttar Pradesh 18.3 A major seaport located in Andhra Pradesh 18.4 An international airport located in Tamil Nadu
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026 Exam 2, Set 32/8/1
Marked on the map (any three).
MS map: 18.1 Bhilai, 18.2 Noida, 18.3 Vishakhapatnam, 18.4 Chennai/Meenambakkam
Q8.2026 Main 32/1/1 · Q193 marks
On the same outline map of India, given for Q. No. 9, locate and label any three of the following with suitable symbols :
19.1 The dam built on Mahanadi river. 19.2 Nuclear power plant located in Uttar Pradesh. 19.3 Software technology park located in Maharshtra. 19.4 Major sea port located in Gujarat.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026, Set 32/1/1
19.1 Dam built on Mahanadi river – Hirakud dam
19.2 Nuclear power plant located in Uttar Pradesh – Narora
19.3 Software technology park located in Maharashtra – Pune / Mumbai
19.4 Major sea port located in Gujarat – Kandla
Please see attached map.
Q9.2026 Main 32/2/1 · Q183 marks
On the same outline map of India (page 27) given for question no. 10, locate and label any three of the following with suitable symbols :
(18.1) A major dam built on the Mahanadi river
(18.2) A Software Technology Park located in Uttar Pradesh
(18.3) A major sea port located in Tamil Nadu
(18.4) Eastern-most terminal station of East-West Corridor of India
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026, Set 32/2/1
(18.1) Hirakud dam
(18.2) Noida
(18.3) Tuticorin / Chennai
(18.4) Silchar
If the examinee has attempted question 18.4, mark be awarded.
Q10.2026 Main 32/3/1 · Q183 marks
On the same outline map of India (page 27) given for question no. 10, locate and label any three of the following with appropriate symbols :
(18.1) The largest dam built on Narmada river in Gujarat
(18.2) International airport located in Punjab
(18.3) Software Technology Park located in Karnataka
(18.4) Major sea port located in Odisha
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026, Set 32/3/1
(18.1) Sardar Sarovar
(18.2) Amritsar / Chandigarh
(18.3) Bengaluru
(18.4) Paradwip
Q11.2026 Main 32/4/1 · Q193 marks
On the same outline map of India given for Q. No. 9, locate and label any three of the following with suitable symbols :
(i) The major dam constructed on the Chenab river
(ii) Nuclear power plant in Maharashtra
(iii) Software Technology Park in Tamil Nadu
(iv) International Airport in Punjab
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026, Set 32/4/1
(i) Salal Dam
(ii) Tarapur
(iii) Chennai
(iv) Amritsar
Q12.2026 Main 32/5/1 · Q193 marks
On the same outline map of India given for Q. No. 9, locate and label any three of the following with suitable symbols :
(i) The dam constructed on Satluj river
(ii) A nuclear power plant located in Gujarat
(iii) A software technology park located in Uttar Pradesh
(iv) An International Airport located in Maharashtra
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2026, Set 32/5/1
(i) Bhakra Nangal Dam
(ii) Kakrapara
(iii) Noida
(iv) Mumbai / Chhatrapati Shivaji International Airport
Q13.2025 Main 32/1/1 · Q37(b)3 marks
On the same political outline map of India, locate and label any three of the following with suitable symbols :
Leading state in production of Jute
Atomic Power Plant located in Gujarat
Iron and Steel Plant located in Jharkhand
Sri Guru Ram Das Jee International Airport
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025, Set 32/1/1
Locations (attempt any three; see MS map): (i) West Bengal (ii) Kakrapara (iii) Bokaro/Jamshedpur (iv) Amritsar
Q14.2025 Main 32/2/1 · Q37(b)3 marks
On the same political outline map of India, locate and label any three of the following with suitable symbols :
Eastern terminal station of the East-West Corridor
Leading state in coffee production
Nuclear power plant located in Uttar Pradesh
Major sea port located in Odisha
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025, Set 32/2/1
Locations (attempt any three; see MS map): (i) Silchar (Assam) (ii) Karnataka (iii) Naraura (iv) Paradwip
Q15.2025 Main 32/3/1 · Q37(b)3 marks
On the same political outline map of India, locate and label any three of the following with suitable symbols :
An international airport of West Bengal
A software technology park of Karnataka
A nuclear power plant located in Maharashtra
A major sea port of Odisha
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025, Set 32/3/1
Locations (attempt any three; see MS map): (i) Kolkata (Calcutta) (ii) Bengaluru (iii) Tarapur (iv) Paradwip
Q16.2025 Main 32/4/1 · Q37(ii)3 marks
On the same political outline map of India, locate and label any three of the following with suitable symbols :
(a) A major dam on the Chenab river. (b) Nuclear Power Plant located in Uttar Pradesh. (c) A major Software Technology Park located in Karnataka. (d) A major Sea Port located in Odisha.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025, Set 32/4/1
(a) A major dam on the Chenab river – Salal
(b) Nuclear Power Plant located in Uttar Pradesh – Naraura
(c) A major Software Technology Park located in Karnataka – Benguluru
(d) A major Sea Port located in Odisha – Paradwip
For answers please see the attached map
Q17.2025 Main 32/5/1 · Q37(b)3 marks
On the same outline map of India locate and label any three of the following with suitable symbols :
(i) Leading state in production of rice (ii) Coal-mines located in Tamil Nadu (iii) Major sea port located in Karnataka (iv) Oil field located in Maharashtra
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025, Set 32/5/1
(i) Leading state in production of rice – West Bengal
(ii) Coal mines located in Tamil Nadu – Neyveli
(iii) Major Sea Port located in Karnataka – New Mangalore
(iv) Oil field located in Maharashtra – Mumbai High/ Bassien
Please see the attached map.
Q18.2025 Main 32/6/1 · Q37(b)3 marks
On the same outline map of India locate and label any three of the following with suitable symbols :
(i) An International Airport located in Punjab. (ii) A major Sea port located in Gujarat. (iii) A major oil field of India located in Arabian Sea. (iv) A Nuclear Power Plant located in Uttar Pradesh.
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2025, Set 32/6/1
(i) International Airport located in Punjab – Shri Guru Ramdas Ji International Airport/Raja Sansi (Amritsar)
(ii) Major Sea port located in Gujarat – Kandla Port (Deendayal Port)
(iii) Major oil field of India located in Arabian Sea – Mumbai High/ Bassein
(iv) Nuclear Power Plant located in Uttar Pradesh – Naraura
For answers, please see the attached map.
Q19.2025 Supp 32/S/1 · Q37(b)3 marks
On the same political outline map of India, locate and label any three of the following with suitable symbols :
(i) Tehri – Dam (ii) Kakrapara – Nuclear Power Plant (iii) Mumbai – Software Technology Park (iv) Sri Guru Ram Das Jee – International Airport
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Supplementary 2025, Set 32/S/1
(i) Tehri – Dam
(ii) Kakrapara – Nuclear Power Plant
(iii) Mumbai – Software Technology Park
(iv) Sri Guru Ram Das Jee – International Airport
Please see attached map.
For Visually Impaired candidates (states): (i) Tehri Dam – Uttarakhand; (ii) Kakrapara Nuclear Power Plant – Gujarat; (iii) Mumbai Software Technology Park – Maharashtra; (iv) Sri Guru Ram Das Jee International Airport – Punjab
Q20.2024 Main 32/1/1 · Q37(ii)3 marks
On the same Political outline map of India, locate and label any three of the following with suitable symbols :
(a) Hirakud – Dam (b) Mumbai – Software Technology Park (c) Raja Sansi – International Airport (d) Naraura – Nuclear Power Plant
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024, Set 32/1/1
Hirakud – Dam (Odisha)
Mumbai – Software Technology Park (Maharashtra)
Raja Sansi – International Airport (Punjab)
Naraura – Nuclear Power Plant (Uttar Pradesh)
Please see the attached Map (any three).
Q21.2024 Main 32/2/1 · Q37(b)3 marks
On the same political outline map of India, locate and label any three of the following with suitable symbols :
Salal – Dam
Kalpakkam – Nuclear Power Plant
Bengaluru – Software Technology Park
Mormugao – Major Sea Port
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024, Set 32/2/1
Salal – Dam (Jammu and Kashmir)
Kalpakkam – Nuclear Power Plant (Tamil Nadu)
Bengaluru – Software Technology Park (Karnataka)
Mormugao – Major Sea Port (Goa)
See attached map (any three).
Q22.2024 Main 32/3/1 · Q37(b)3 marks
On the same political outline map of India, locate and label any three of the following with suitable symbols :
Bhakra Nangal – Dam
Noida – Software Technology Park
Tarapur – Nuclear Power Plant
Haldia – Sea Port
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024, Set 32/3/1
Bhakra Nangal – Dam (Punjab/Himachal Pradesh)
Noida – Software Technology Park (Uttar Pradesh)
Tarapur – Nuclear Power Plant (Maharashtra)
Haldia – Sea Port (MS visually-impaired list gives “Kolkata”; shown on the map near Kolkata, West Bengal)
Please see the attached Map (any three).
Q23.2024 Main 32/4/1 · Q37(b)3 marks
On the same political outline map of India, locate and label any three of the following with suitable symbols :
Naharkatiya – Oil field
Talcher – Major Coal Mines
Narora – Atomic Power Plant
Tuticorin – Major Sea Port
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024, Set 32/4/1
Naharkatiya – Oil field (Assam)
Talcher – Major Coal Mines (Odisha)
Narora – Atomic Power Plant (Uttar Pradesh)
Tuticorin – Major Sea Port (Tamil Nadu)
Please see the attached map (any three).
Q24.2024 Main 32/5/1 · Q37(b)3 marks
On the same political outline map of India, locate and label any three of the following with suitable symbols :
Bailadila – Iron ore Mines
Namrup – Thermal Power Plant
Kandla – Major Sea Port
Meenam Bakkam – International Airport
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2024, Set 32/5/1
Locations as marked on the MS map (attempt any three): Bailadila (Chhattisgarh), Namrup (Assam), Kandla (Gujarat), Meenam Bakkam (Tamil Nadu).
Q25.2024 Supp 32/S/1 · Q37(b)3 marks
On the same political outline map of India, locate and label any three of the following with suitable symbols :
Leading Coffee-producing State
Durg : Major iron-ore mines
Kochi : Major sea port
Rajiv Gandhi International Airport
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Supplementary 2024, Set 32/S/1
Locations as marked on the MS map (attempt any three): Karnataka (leading coffee-producing state), Durg (Chhattisgarh), Kochi (Kerala), Rajiv Gandhi International Airport (Hyderabad).
Q26.2023 Main 32/1/1 · Q37(b)3 marks
On the same outline Map of India, locate and label any THREE of the following with suitable symbols :
Hirakud Dam
Tarapur Atomic Power Station
Pune Software Technology Park
Paradip Sea Port
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023, Set 32/1/1
MS answer is given as a marked map (see figure): Hirakud Dam, Tarapur, Pune and Paradip located and labelled.
Q27.2023 Main 32/2/1 · Q37(b)3 marks
On the same political outline map of India, locate and label any three of the following with suitable symbols :
Noida – Software Technology Park
Bailadila – Iron-ore mines
Tarapur – Nuclear Power Plant
Haldia – Sea port
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023, Set 32/2/1
(See attached map.) Any three of :
Noida (UP)
Chhattisgarh (Bailadila)
Maharashtra (Tarapur)
Haldia
Q28.2023 Main 32/4/1 · Q37(ii)3 marks
On the same outline map of India locate and label any three of the following with suitable symbols :
Tehri Dam
Naraura Atomic Power Station
Pune Software Technology Park
Haldia Sea Port
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023, Set 32/4/1
(See attached map.) Any three of : (a) Tehri, (b) Naraura, (c) Pune, (d) Haldia.
Q29.2023 Main 32/5/1 · Q37(b)3 marks
On the same political outline map of India, locate and label any three of the following with suitable symbols :
Tehri – Dam
Bokaro – Coal mines
Pune – Software Technology Park
Tuticorin – Sea port
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023, Set 32/5/1
(See attached map.) Any three of : (i) Tehri Dam, (ii) Bokaro coal mines, (iii) Pune Software Technology Park, (iv) Tuticorin sea port.
Q30.2023 Main 32/6/1 · Q37(b)3 marks
On the same outline Map of India locate and label any three of the following with suitable symbols.
Indira Gandhi International Airport.
Kakrapara – Atomic Power Station.
Hyderabad – Software Technology Park
Kandla Sea Port
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Board 2023, Set 32/6/1
(See attached map.) Any three of : (i) Delhi (Indira Gandhi International Airport), (ii) Kakrapara, (iii) Hyderabad, (iv) Kandla.
Q31.2023 Supp 32/C/1 · Q37(b)3 marks
On the same political outline map of India, locate and label any three of the following with suitable symbols :
Salal Dam
Ramagundam Thermal Power Plant
Gandhinagar Software Technology Park
Tuticorin Sea Port
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Supplementary Examination July 2023, Set 32/C/1
Salal Dam - Jammu and Kashmir
Ramagundam Thermal Power Plant - Telangana
Gandhinagar Software Technology Park - Gujarat
Tuticorin Sea Port - Tamil Nadu
See attached map (any three).
Q32.SQP 2025-26 · Q193 marks
On the same outline map of India locate and label the following with suitable symbols:
I.(p) The dam in the Sutlej-Beas river basin, which is being used both for hydel power production and irrigation.
OR
(q) The dam in the Mahanadi basin that integrates conservation of water with flood control.
II. Any two of the following: (i) A major sea port in West Bengal (ii) An international airport in Tamil Nadu (iii) An international airport in Punjab
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26
Marked on the map. (1+2=3)
MS map: (p) Bhakra Nangal, (q) Hirakud, (i) Haldia, (ii) Chennai (Meenambakkam), (iii) Amritsar (Raja Sansi - Sri Guru Ramdas Ji)
Q33.SQP 2026-27 · Q193 marks
On the outline map of India locate and label the following with suitable symbols
I.(a) One of the largest water resource projects of India, built over the Narmada River in Gujarat.
OR
(b) The dam in the Sutluj-Beas river basin being used both for hydel power production and irrigation.
II. Any two of the following: i. An Iron and steel plant in Tamil Nadu ii. A cotton textile industry in the capital city of Maharashtra iii. Meenambakkam international airport
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Official CBSE Marking Scheme · CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27
Marked on the map. (1+2=3)
MS map: I(a) Sardar Sarovar Dam, I(b) Bhakra Nangal Dam, II(i) Salem, II(ii) Mumbai, II(iii) Meenambakkam Intl. Airport in Chennai