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Biology (Science 086) · Class X · Chapter-wise Board Questions

CBSE Board papers 2022 to 2026, plus CBSE Sample Question Papers. Biology chapters of Class X Science as per CBSE Curriculum 2026-27. 468 questions. Click Reveal answer under any question to see the official marking scheme.

Marks
Unit II · World of Living

1. Life Processes

Q1.2026 Main 31/1/1 · Q11 mark

Which structure in a leaf is mainly responsible for gaseous exchange ?

  1. Xylem
  2. Stomata
  3. Phloem
  4. Cuticle
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/1/1

(B) Stomata [1 mark]

Q2.2026 Main 31/1/1 · Q51 mark

Pancreas secretes pancreatic juice which contain certain enzyme that helps in digestion of food.

Choose the correct option from the following :

  1. Trypsin digests emulsified fats and lipase digests proteins.
  2. Trypsin digests proteins and lipase digests emulsified fats.
  3. Trypsin and lipase both digests fats.
  4. Trypsin digests proteins and lipase digests carbohydrates.
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/1/1

(B) Trypsin digests proteins and lipase digests emulsified fats. [1 mark]

Q3.2026 Main 31/1/1 · Q91 mark

Directions: Questions 8 and 9 are Assertion and Reason based questions. Select the correct answer from the codes (A), (B), (C) and (D) as given below.

Assertion (A) : In human beings, the respiratory pigment is haemoglobin present in red blood cells.

Reason (R) : Haemoglobin has a very high affinity for carbon dioxide.

  1. Both, Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  2. Both, Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/1/1

(C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false. [1 mark]

Q4.2026 Main 31/2/1 · Q41 mark

The carbohydrates, which are not used immediately in plants, are stored in the form of ‘a’, which serves as an internal energy reserve. What does ‘a’ stand for ?

  1. Starch
  2. Sugar
  3. Fat
  4. Protein
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/2/1

(A) Starch [1 mark]

Q5.2026 Main 31/2/1 · Q51 mark

The following events occur during the process of photosynthesis. Choose the option that indicates the correct events.

(i) Oxidation of carbon dioxide to carbohydrates

(ii) Conversion of light energy into chemical energy

(iii) Absorption of light energy by chlorophyll

(iv) Conversion of hydrogen and oxygen into water

Options :

  1. (i) and (ii)
  2. (ii) and (iii)
  3. (iii) and (iv)
  4. (i) and (iv)
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/2/1

(B) (ii) and (iii) [1 mark]

Q6.2026 Main 31/2/1 · Q81 mark

Assertion (A) : Blood plasma transports carbon dioxide in dissolved form, while oxygen is transported by respiratory pigments.

Reason (R) : Carbon dioxide is more soluble in water than in oxygen.

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/2/1

(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). [1 mark]

OR

(C) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false [1 mark]

Q7.2026 Main 31/3/1 · Q11 mark

Pravin was given a list of characteristics associated with the process of anaerobic respiration in humans, in the table given below :

Characteristic(i) Location(ii) Condition(iii) End Product
Muscle CellRequires presence of Oxygen (O2) and Carbon dioxide (CO2)3-Carbon molecules

Which of the above characteristics is/are related to the above process ?

  1. (i) and (ii)
  2. (i) and (iii)
  3. (ii) and (iii)
  4. (i) only
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/3/1

(B) (i) and (iii) [1 mark]

Q8.2026 Main 31/3/1 · Q21 mark

Observe the figure given below and identify the incorrect step for the activity set-up :

Figure

  1. Both plants are kept in the dark room for three days before placing them in separate glass jars.
  2. Both plants are covered with separate wooden bell-jars.
  3. Use vaseline to seal the bottom of the jars with the glass plates.
  4. Both potted plants were kept in sunlight for a few hours before the iodine test for the presence of starch.
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/3/1

(B) Both plants are covered with separate wooden bell-jars [1 mark]

Q9.2026 Main 31/3/1 · Q91 mark

Assertion (A) : The basic filtration unit in the kidneys, like in the lungs, is a cluster of very thin-walled blood capillaries.

Reason (R) : Each capillary cluster in the kidney is associated with the cup-shaped end of a coiled tube called Bowman’s capsule.

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/3/1

(B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A [1 mark]

Q10.2026 Main 31/4/1 · Q11 mark

Observe the given figure and select the statement that correctly states how these fungi obtain nutrition.

Figure

  1. By eating the bread on which it is growing.
  2. By using nutrients from the bread to prepare their own food.
  3. By breaking down the nutrients of bread outside the body and then absorbing them.
  4. By allowing other organisms to grow on the bread and then consuming them.
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/4/1

(C) By breaking down the nutrients of bread outside the body and then absorbing them. [1 mark]

Q11.2026 Main 31/4/1 · Q71 mark

In human beings the oxygen rich blood is pumped out to the body by :

  1. contraction of right atrium
  2. relaxation of left ventricle
  3. contraction of right ventricle
  4. contraction of left ventricle
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/4/1

(D) Contraction of Left Ventricle. [1 mark]

Q12.2026 Main 31/5/1 · Q11 mark

Identify the part that controls the closing and opening of the stomatal pore in leaves of plants.

Select the correct option.

  1. Stomata
  2. Epidermal cells
  3. Guard cells
  4. Chloroplasts
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/5/1

(C) Guard cells [1 mark]

Q13.2026 Main 31/5/1 · Q31 mark

Choose the equation of reaction that correctly represents anaerobic respiration in muscles :

  1. Glucose → Pyruvate → (absence of O2) Ethanol + CO2 + Energy
  2. Glucose → (O2) Pyruvate → (O2) Energy
  3. Glucose → (O2) Pyruvate → (lack of oxygen) Ethanol + Energy
  4. Glucose → Pyruvate → (lack of oxygen) Lactic acid + Energy
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/5/1

(D) Glucose → pyruvate → (lack of oxygen) Lactic acid + Energy [1 mark]

Q14.2026 Main 31/5/1 · Q91 mark

Assertion (A) : The peristaltic movements occur all along the gut.

Reason (R) : The lining of the gut has muscles that contract rhythmically to push the food in regulated manner.

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/5/1

(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. [1 mark]

Q15.2026 Exam 2 31/7/1 · Q11 mark

Name the enzyme that acts on the protein-rich diet inside our stomach :

  1. Pepsin
  2. Amylase
  3. Trypsin
  4. Lipase
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Exam 2), Q.P. Code 31/7/1

(A) Pepsin [1 mark]

Q16.2026 Exam 2 31/7/1 · Q21 mark

Which of the following is not a function of transpiration ?

  1. It helps in regulation of temperature.
  2. It helps in upward movement of water.
  3. It transports food to different parts of the plant body.
  4. It helps in movement of minerals from the roots to the leaves.
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Exam 2), Q.P. Code 31/7/1

(C) It transports food to different parts of the plant body. [1 mark]

Q17.2026 Exam 2 31/7/1 · Q71 mark

Which of the following options is not a step in the process of photosynthesis ?

  1. Absorption of light energy by chlorophyll
  2. Conversion of light energy to chemical energy and splitting of water molecules into hydrogen and oxygen
  3. Reduction of carbon dioxide to carbohydrates
  4. Storage of food in roots and stems
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Exam 2), Q.P. Code 31/7/1

(D) Storage of food in roots and stems [1 mark]

Q18.2026 Exam 2 31/7/1 · Q81 mark

Directions: For Questions 8 and 9, two statements are given - one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select the correct answer from the codes (A), (B), (C) and (D) as given below.

Assertion (A) : Walls of the ventricles are thicker than those of the atria.

Reason (R) : Thick walls of the ventricles help in preventing the backflow of blood.

  1. Both, Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  2. Both, Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Exam 2), Q.P. Code 31/7/1

(C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false. [1 mark]

Q19.2026 Exam 2 31/8/1 · Q11 mark

Select the correct option that shows the path of flow of only the deoxygenated blood through the human circulatory system.

  1. Body → left atrium → left ventricle → lungs → right atrium → right ventricle → body.
  2. Right atrium → right ventricle → lungs → left atrium → left ventricle → body
  3. Body → left atrium → left ventricle → lungs
  4. Body → right atrium → right ventricle → lungs
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Exam 2), Q.P. Code 31/8/1

(D) Body → Right atrium → Right ventricle → Lungs [1 mark]

Q20.2026 Exam 2 31/8/1 · Q21 mark

Which of the following groups consists entirely of substances that are broken down by an enzyme, lipase ?

  1. Carbohydrates, proteins and vitamins
  2. Fats, oils and ghee
  3. Minerals, starch and vitamins
  4. Proteins, sugars and esters
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Exam 2), Q.P. Code 31/8/1

(B) Fats, oils and ghee [1 mark]

Q21.2026 Exam 2 31/8/1 · Q61 mark

During the process of exhalation, air follows a definite path from lungs to outside.

Choose the correct option showing the path of exhaled air.

  1. Alveoli → Trachea → Larynx → Pharynx → Nostril
  2. Nasal cavity → Pharynx → Larynx → Trachea → Bronchi → Bronchioles
  3. Body tissue → Blood → Lungs → Nose
  4. Alveoli → Trachea → Pharynx → Larynx → Nostril
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Exam 2), Q.P. Code 31/8/1

(A) Alveoli → Trachea → Larynx → Pharynx → Nostril [1 mark]

Q22.2025 Main 31/1/1 · Q81 mark

Secretion of less saliva in mouth will effect the conversion of :

  1. proteins into amino acids
  2. fats into fatty acids and glycerol
  3. starch into simple sugars
  4. sugars into alcohol
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/1/1

(C) starch into simple sugars [1 mark]

Q23.2025 Main 31/1/1 · Q121 mark

The breakdown of glucose has taken the following pathway :

Glucose →(a) Pyruvate + Energy →(b) Lactic acid + Energy

The sites ‘a’ and ‘b’ respectively are :

  1. Mitochondria and Oxygen deficient muscle cells
  2. Cytoplasm and Oxygen rich muscle cells
  3. Cytoplasm and Yeast cells
  4. Cytoplasm and Oxygen deficient muscle cells
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/1/1

(D) Cytoplasm and Oxygen deficient muscle cells [1 mark]

Q24.2025 Main 31/2/1 · Q61 mark

The opening and closing of stomata is regulated by :

  1. CO2 concentration in stomata
  2. Temperature in guard cells
  3. O2 concentration in stomata
  4. Amount of water in guard cells
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/2/1

(D) Amount of water in guard cells [1 mark]

Q25.2025 Main 31/2/1 · Q71 mark

One-cell thick blood vessels are known as :

  1. Alveoli
  2. Capillaries
  3. Arteries
  4. Veins
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/2/1

(B) Capillaries [1 mark]

Q26.2025 Main 31/2/1 · Q201 mark

Assertion (A) : Animals will not get energy if they eat (consume) coal as food.

Reason (R) : Specific enzymes are needed for the breakdown of a particular food.

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/2/1

(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A). [1 mark]

Q27.2025 Main 31/3/1 · Q101 mark

The gastric glands present in the wall of the stomach release :

  1. Mucus and Trypsin
  2. Pepsin and Trypsin
  3. Mucus and Pepsin
  4. Pepsin and Salivary amylase
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/3/1

(C) Mucus and Pepsin [1 mark]

Q28.2025 Main 31/4/1 · Q51 mark

The essential element taken up from the soil by the plants to synthesize proteins is :

  1. Phosphorus
  2. Nitrogen
  3. Iron
  4. Magnesium
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/4/1

(B) Nitrogen [1 mark]

Q29.2025 Main 31/4/1 · Q61 mark

Select TRUE statements about lymph from the following :

A. Lymph vessels carry lymph through the body and finally open into larger arteries.

B. Lymph contains some amount of plasma, proteins and blood cells.

C. Lymph contains some amount of plasma, proteins and red blood cells.

D. Lymph vessels carry lymph through the body and finally open into larger veins.

The true statements are :

  1. A and B
  2. B and D
  3. A and C
  4. C and D
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/4/1

(B) B and D [1 mark]

Q30.2025 Main 31/4/1 · Q171 mark

Assertion (A) : In large animals, oxygen can reach different parts of the animal's body easily.

Reason (R) : Respiratory pigments take up oxygen from the air and carry it to body tissues.

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/4/1

(D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true. [1 mark]

Q31.2025 Main 31/5/1 · Q81 mark

Listed below are the steps of nutrition in Amoeba. Select the correct sequence of these steps :

(i) Diffusion of simple nutrients into cytoplasm

(ii) Food vacuole formation

(iii) Formation of finger like temporary extensions of cell surface

(iv) Complex substances broken to simpler ones

(v) Undigested material thrown out of the cell surface

  1. (iv), (i), (ii), (iii), (v)
  2. (iii), (ii), (iv), (i), (v)
  3. (ii), (i), (iv), (v), (iii)
  4. (iii), (iv), (i), (ii), (v)
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/5/1

(B) (iii), (ii), (iv), (i), (v) [1 mark]

Q32.2025 Main 31/5/1 · Q121 mark

In aerobic respiration, the steps are : breakdown of glucose to pyruvate and its further conversion to carbon dioxide. Both processes respectively occur in -

  1. Vacuole and Cytoplasm
  2. Chloroplast and Mitochondria
  3. Mitochondria and Cytoplasm
  4. Cytoplasm and Mitochondria
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/5/1

(D) Cytoplasm and Mitochondria [1 mark]

Q33.2025 Main 31/6/1 · Q111 mark

The basic filtration unit of the excretory system in human beings is :

  1. Nephron
  2. Urethra
  3. Neuron
  4. Urinary bladder
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/6/1

(A) Nephron [1 mark]

Q34.2025 Main 31/6/1 · Q121 mark

In human alimentary canal, the digestive juice secreted by the gastric glands are

  1. Bile, Trypsin, Pepsin
  2. Hydrochloric acid, Pepsin, Mucus
  3. Lipase, Bile, Mucus
  4. Salivary amylase, Pepsin, Bile
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/6/1

(B) Hydrochloric acid, Pepsin, Mucus [1 mark]

Q35.2025 Main 31/6/1 · Q181 mark

Assertion (A) : Xylem tissue moves water and minerals obtained from the soil by the roots.

Reason (R) : Xylem tissue is found only in the roots of a plant.

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/6/1

(C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false. [1 mark]

Q36.2025 Supplementary 31/S/1 · Q61 mark

The valves in the human heart ensure that :

(i) Oxygen-rich blood flows from left atrium to left ventricle only.

(ii) Deoxygenated blood flows from left atrium to left ventricle only.

(iii) Oxygen-rich blood flows from right atrium to right ventricle only.

(iv) Deoxygenated blood flows from right atrium to right ventricle only.

  1. (i) and (iii)
  2. (ii) and (iv)
  3. (i) and (iv)
  4. (ii) and (iii)
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Supplementary), Q.P. Code 31/S/1

(C) (i) and (iv) [1 mark]

Q37.2025 Supplementary 31/S/1 · Q181 mark

Assertion (A) : Transpirational pull helps in the absorption and upward movement of water and dissolved minerals in plants.

Reason (R) : The effect of root pressure in transport of water is more significant at night.

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Supplementary), Q.P. Code 31/S/1

(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A). [1 mark]

Q38.2024 Main 31/1/1 · Q111 mark

A stomata closes when :

(i) it needs carbon dioxide for photosynthesis.

(ii) it does not need carbon dioxide for photosynthesis.

(iii) water flows out of the guard cells.

(iv) water flows into the guard cells.

The correct reason(s) in this process is/are :

  1. (i) only
  2. (i) and (iii)
  3. (ii) and (iii)
  4. (ii) and (iv)
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2024 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/1/1

(C) (ii) and (iii) [1 mark]

Q39.2024 Main 31/1/1 · Q191 mark

Assertion (A) : The rate of breathing in aquatic organisms is much faster than in terrestrial organisms.

Reason (R) : The amount of oxygen dissolved in water is very high as compared to the amount of oxygen in air.

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2024 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/1/1

(C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false. [1 mark]

Q40.2024 Main 31/2/1 · Q81 mark

Which of the following statement(s) is (are) true about human heart ?

(a) Right atrium receives oxygenated blood from lungs through pulmonary artery.

(b) Left atrium transfers oxygenated blood to left ventricle which sends it to various parts of the body.

(c) Right atrium receives deoxygenated blood through vena cava from upper and lower body.

(d) Left atrium transfers oxygenated blood to aorta which sends it to different parts of the body.

  1. (a)
  2. (a) and (d)
  3. (b) and (c)
  4. (b) and (d)
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2024 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/2/1

(C) (b) and (c) [1 mark]

Q41.2024 Main 31/2/1 · Q101 mark

In human respiratory system, when a person breathes in, the position of ribs and diaphragm will be :

  1. lifted ribs and curve/dome shaped diaphragm.
  2. lifted ribs and flattened diaphragm.
  3. relaxed ribs and flattened diaphragm.
  4. relaxed ribs and curve/dome shaped diaphragm
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2024 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/2/1

(B) Lifted ribs and flattened diaphragm [1 mark]

Q42.2024 Main 31/3/1 · Q111 mark

Which of the following statement (s) is (are) true about human heart ?

(a) Right atrium receives oxygenated blood from lungs through pulmonary artery.

(b) Left atrium transfers oxygenated blood to left ventricle which sends it to various parts of the body.

(c) Right atrium receives deoxygenated blood from different parts of the body through vena cava.

(d) Left atrium transfers oxygenated blood to aorta which sends it to different parts of the body.

  1. (b) only
  2. (a) and (d)
  3. (b) and (c)
  4. (b) and (d)
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2024 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/3/1

(C) (b) and (c) [1 mark]

Q43.2024 Main 31/4/1 · Q61 mark

In human beings, when the process of digestion is completed, the (i) proteins, (ii) carbohydrates, and (iii) fats are respectively finally converted into :

  1. (i) Amino acids, (ii) glucose and (iii) fatty acids
  2. (i) Amino acids, (ii) glucose, (iii) fatty acids and glycerol
  3. (i) Glucose, (ii) fatty acids and glycerol, (iii) amino acids
  4. (i) Sugars, (ii) amino acids, (iii) fatty acids and glycerol
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2024 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/4/1

(B) (i) Amino acids, (ii) glucose, (iii) fatty acids and glycerol [1 mark]

Q44.2024 Main 31/4/1 · Q181 mark

Assertion (A) : In the human heart ventricles have thicker muscular walls than atria.

Reason (R) : Ventricles have to pump the blood into various organs.

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2024 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/4/1

(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A). [1 mark]

Q45.2024 Main 31/5/1 · Q61 mark

The process in which transport of soluble products of photosynthesis takes place in plants is known as :

  1. Transpiration
  2. Evaporation
  3. Conduction
  4. Translocation
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2024 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/5/1

(D) Translocation [1 mark]

Q46.2024 Supplementary 31/S/1 · Q81 mark

In the human respiratory system, the path taken by air when we breathe in is :

  1. Nostrils → Larynx → Trachea → Pharynx → Alveoli
  2. Nostrils → Trachea → Larynx → Pharynx → Alveoli
  3. Nostrils → Pharynx → Larynx → Trachea → Alveoli
  4. Nostrils → Larynx → Pharynx → Trachea → Alveoli
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2024 (Supplementary), Q.P. Code 31/S/1

(C) Nostrils → Pharynx → Larynx → Trachea → Alveoli [1 mark]

Q47.2024 Supplementary 31/S/1 · Q121 mark

In plants, waste products like resins and gums are stored in :

  1. leaves that fall off
  2. old xylem
  3. phloem
  4. cellular vacuoles
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2024 (Supplementary), Q.P. Code 31/S/1

(B) old xylem [1 mark]

Q48.2023 Main 31/1/1 · Q81 mark

An organism which breaks down the food material outside the body and then absorbs it is

  1. a plant parasite, Cuscuta
  2. an animal parasite, Tapeworm
  3. a bacteria, Rhizobium
  4. a fungi, Rhizopus
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2023 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/1/1

(D) a fungi, Rhizopus [1 mark]

Q49.2023 Main 31/1/1 · Q91 mark

Consider the following statements about small intestine and select the one which is NOT correct :

  1. The length of the small intestine in animals differs as it depends on the type of food they eat.
  2. The small intestine is the site of complete digestion of food.
  3. The small intestine receives secretions from liver and pancreas.
  4. The villi of the small intestine absorb water from the unabsorbed food before it gets removed from the body via the anus.
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2023 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/1/1

(D) The villi of the small intestine absorb water from the unabsorbed food before it gets removed from the body via the anus. [1 mark]

Q50.2023 Main 31/1/1 · Q191 mark

Assertion (A) : Blood clotting prevents excessive loss of blood.

Reason (R) : Blood clotting is due to blood plasma and white blood cells present in the blood.

Select the correct answer from the options given below.

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  3. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
  4. (A) is false, but (R) is true.
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2023 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/1/1

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false. [1 mark]

Q51.2023 Main 31/2/1 · Q81 mark

Sphincter muscles are present at the exit of :

  1. Stomach and small intestine
  2. Stomach and anus
  3. Small intestine and large intestine
  4. Oesophagus and stomach
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2023 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/2/1

(B) Stomach and anus [1 mark]

Q52.2023 Main 31/2/1 · Q91 mark

In the following diagram, identify the cells through which massive amounts of gaseous exchange takes place for photosynthesis :

Figure

  1. I
  2. IV
  3. III
  4. II
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2023 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/2/1

(B) IV [1 mark]

Q53.2023 Main 31/2/1 · Q101 mark

During vigorous exercise, the occurrence of cramps in the outer muscles of an athlete is due to the conversion of pyruvate to :

  1. Glucose
  2. Ethanol
  3. Lactic acid
  4. Lactose
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2023 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/2/1

(C) Lactic acid [1 mark]

Q54.2023 Main 31/4/1 · Q81 mark

Observe the following diagram and identify the process and its significance from the following options :

Figure

  1. Evaporation : maintains water contents in leaf cells.
  2. Transpiration : creates a suction force which pulls water inside the plant.
  3. Excretion : helps in excreting out waste water from the plant.
  4. Translocation : helps in transporting materials from one cell to another.
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2023 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/4/1

(B) Transpiration : creates a suction force which pulls water inside the plant. [1 mark]

Q55.2023 Main 31/4/1 · Q91 mark

Opening and closing of stomata is due to :

  1. High pressure of gases inside the cells.
  2. Movement of water in and out of the guard cells.
  3. Stimulus of light in the guard cells.
  4. Diffusion of CO2 in and out of the guard cells.
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2023 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/4/1

(B) Movement of water in and out of the guard cells. [1 mark]

Q56.2023 Main 31/4/1 · Q191 mark

Assertion (A) : The inner walls of the small intestine have finger like projections called villi which are rich in blood.

Reason (R) : These villi have a large surface area to help the small intestine in completing the digestion of food.

Select the correct answer from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below.

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  2. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  3. (A) is true but (R) is false.
  4. (A) is false but (R) is true.
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2023 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/4/1

(C) (A) is true but (R) is false. [1 mark]

Q57.2023 Main 31/5/1 · Q81 mark

The process in which loss of water in the form of vapours from the aerial parts of plants takes place is X, which helps in Y. Here X and Y respectively are :

  1. transpiration and photosynthesis.
  2. transpiration and temperature regulation.
  3. translocation and movement of soluble products of photosynthesis in phloem.
  4. translocation and absorption of water and minerals from soil by roots.
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2023 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/5/1

(B) transpiration and temperature regulation. [1 mark]

Q58.2023 Main 31/5/1 · Q91 mark

As compared to terrestrial organisms, the rate of breathing in aquatic organisms is :

  1. faster because they need more oxygen for their survival.
  2. faster because the amount of dissolved oxygen in water is fairly low.
  3. slower because the amount of dissolved oxygen in water is fairly low.
  4. slower because the capacity of water of dissolving atmospheric air is limited.
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2023 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/5/1

(B) faster because the amount of dissolved oxygen in water is fairly low. [1 mark]

Q59.2023 Main 31/5/1 · Q191 mark

Assertion (A) : The walls of atria are thicker than those of the ventricles.

Reason (R) : Ventricles have to pump blood into various organs at high pressure.

Select the correct answer from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below.

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2023 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/5/1

(D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true. [1 mark]

Q60.2023 Main 31/6/1 · Q51 mark

In the given diagram of a closed stomata : (1), (2), (3) and (4) respectively are

Figure

  1. nucleus, chloroplast, guard cell, vacuole
  2. nucleus, chloroplast, vacuole, guard cell
  3. chloroplast, nucleus, vacuole, guard cell
  4. vacuole, guard cell, nucleus, chloroplast
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2023 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/6/1

(B) nucleus, chloroplast, vacuole, guard cell [1 mark]

Q61.2023 Main 31/6/1 · Q191 mark

Assertion (A) : Amoeba takes in food using finger like extensions of the cell surface.

Reason (R) : In all unicellular organisms, the food is taken in by the entire cell surface.

Select the correct answer from the options given below.

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2023 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/6/1

(C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false. [1 mark]

Q62.2023 Supplementary 31/C/1 · Q81 mark

Which one of the following molecules is produced initially when glucose breaks down in the cytoplasm of a cell in aerobic as well as anaerobic respiration ?

  1. Lactic acid
  2. Ethanol
  3. Carbon dioxide
  4. Pyruvate
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2023 (Supplementary), Q.P. Code 31/C/1

(D) Pyruvate [1 mark]

Q63.2023 Supplementary 31/C/1 · Q91 mark

As compared to daytime, the amount of carbon dioxide released by the plants during night is more because :

  1. It is not produced during daytime.
  2. It is stored in the leaves of plants during daytime.
  3. Major amount of carbon dioxide produced is used up for photosynthesis during daytime.
  4. Plants do not respire during daytime.
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2023 (Supplementary), Q.P. Code 31/C/1

(C) Major amount of carbon dioxide produced is used up for photosynthesis during daytime. [1 mark]

Q64.SQP 2025-26 · Q11 mark

Select the group in which all organisms have the same mode of nutrition.

  1. Cuscuta, yeast, legumes, leeches and tapeworm
  2. Cactus, ticks, lice, leeches and cow
  3. Cuscuta, ticks, lice, leeches and tapeworm
  4. Cactus, grass, lice, lion and tapeworm
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CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 Marking Scheme (Class X Science)

(C) Cuscuta, ticks, lice, leeches and tapeworm; as all of these are parasites. [1 mark]

Q65.SQP 2025-26 · Q21 mark

Which of the following options indicates the products formed after breakdown of the glucose in our muscle cells when there is lack of oxygen?

  1. Ethanol + carbon dioxide + Energy
  2. Lactic acid + Energy
  3. Lactic acid + carbon monoxide + Energy
  4. Carbon dioxide + Water + Energy
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CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 Marking Scheme (Class X Science)

(B) Lactic acid + Energy [1 mark]

Q66.SQP 2026-27 · Q11 mark

During photosynthesis, what happens to carbon dioxide and water as glucose is formed?

  1. Carbon dioxide gains hydrogen, while water loses electrons.
  2. Carbon dioxide loses oxygen, while water gains oxygen.
  3. Carbon dioxide is oxidised, while water is reduced.
  4. Both carbon dioxide and water undergo reduction.
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CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 Marking Scheme (Class X Science)

(A) Carbon dioxide gains hydrogen, while water loses electrons. [1 mark]

Q67.SQP 2026-27 · Q21 mark

Lime water turns cloudy in the presence of a gas, which is a by-product of respiration. Shown below are four setups kept in sunlight for 24 hours. In which setup is lime water expected to be the cloudiest?

Figure
  1. P
  2. Q
  3. R
  4. S
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CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 Marking Scheme (Class X Science)

(C) R [1 mark]

Q68.SQP 2026-27 · Q31 mark

During urine formation, tubular reabsorption and secretion take place in the kidneys. Which of the following sets correctly indicates both the substances that are reabsorbed in the kidneys?

  1. Glucose and salts
  2. Glucose and starch
  3. Glycogen and salts
  4. Glycogen and starch
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CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 Marking Scheme (Class X Science)

(A) Glucose and salts [1 mark]

Q69.SQP 2026-27 · Q81 mark

Assertion (A) : The rate of breathing in aquatic organisms is much lower than in the terrestrial organisms.

Reason (R) : The amount of oxygen dissolved in water is less as compared to the amount of oxygen in air.

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
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CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 Marking Scheme (Class X Science)

(D) A is false but R is true. [1 mark]

Q70.2026 Main 31/1/1 · Q102 marks

What is the function of diaphragm in human respiratory system ? Where is it present in human body ?

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/1/1
  • The main function of the diaphragm is to flatten during inhalation, which expands the chest cavity and draws the air into the lungs / helps in breathing. [1]
  • It is located at the base of the chest cavity. [1]
Q71.2026 Main 31/3/1 · Q112 marks

What kind of respiration provides more energy and why ?

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/3/1
  • Aerobic Respiration [1]
  • Complete breakdown of glucose takes place in presence of oxygen releasing more energy. [1]
Q72.2026 Main 31/3/1 · Q122 marks

Separation of right side and left side of the heart is useful to keep oxygenated and deoxygenated blood from mixing. Various organisms have different types of heart.

(I) Fill in the blanks (i) to (iii) correctly according to the type of organisms and their evolution in terms of blood circulation :

OrganismsNumber of chambers in heartType of blood being circulatedType of circulation
Fish(i) ______MixedSingle
(ii) ______3-chamberedMixedIncomplete double circulation
Birds and Mammals4-chamberedSeparated circulation path of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood(iii) ______

(II) Which type of circulation is most efficient ?

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/3/1

I.

  • (i) 2-chambered
  • (ii) Amphibians / Reptiles
  • (iii) Double circulation

[½ × 3]

II. Double circulation [½]

Q73.2026 Main 31/4/1 · Q102 marks

“Transpiration in plants is a necessary evil.” Comment on the statement giving two reasons.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/4/1
  • Necessary - It helps in transport of water and minerals from roots to leaves / helps in temperature regulation. [1]
  • Evil - It results in loss of water. [1]
Q74.2026 Main 31/5/1 · Q102 marks

Give a diagrammatic representation of nutrition in Amoeba.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/5/1

[Diagram: four stages of Amoeba feeding - (a) Amoeba with nucleus and a food particle nearby; (b) pseudopodia extending around the food particle; (c) food particle engulfed in a food vacuole; (d) food digested and absorbed, Amoeba with nucleus. Labels: Nucleus, Food particle, Pseudopodia, Food vacuole] [2]

Q75.2026 Main 31/5/1 · Q122 marks

Briefly mention the steps in double-circulation through human heart.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/5/1
  • Oxygenated blood from lungs comes to left atrium which pushes it to left ventricle → [½]
  • Left ventricle contracts to push blood into aorta, to be sent to body parts → [½]
  • Deoxygenated blood from body parts is collected and sent to right atrium → [½]
  • Right atrium pushes it to right ventricle, to be sent to lungs for oxygenation. [½]
Q76.2026 Exam 2 31/8/1 · Q102 marks

(A) How does translocation of food and other substances take place in plants ?

OR

(B) Explain mechanism of opening and closing of stomata in plants.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Exam 2), Q.P. Code 31/8/1

(A) [2]

  • Translocation of food and other substances takes place through sieve tubes of phloem by utilising energy. This increases osmotic pressure of the tissue causing water to move into it.
  • This pressure moves the material in the phloem to tissues which have less pressure, which allows the phloem to transport food according to the plant needs.

OR

(B)

  • When water flows into the guard cells they swell, causing the stomatal pore to open. [1]
  • When water flows out the guard cells shrink, causing the stomatal pore to close. [1]
Q77.2025 Main 31/1/1 · Q232 marks

(a) Besides minimising the loss of blood, why is it essential to plug any leak in a blood vessel ? Name the component of blood which helps in this process and state how this component perform this function.

OR

(b) (i) The transport system in plants is relatively slower than in animals. Give reasons.

(ii) State the role of phloem in the transport of materials in plants.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/1/1

(a)

  • Plugging of the leak in blood vessels prevents lowering of the blood pressure / maintains the efficiency of the pumping system. [1]
  • Platelets [½]
  • Help to clot the blood at the site of injury. [½]

OR

(b)

(i)

  • Plants have low energy needs because they have a large proportion of dead cells in many tissues / Plants have low energy needs as they do not move. [1]

(ii)

  • Translocation of soluble products of photosynthesis from leaves to other parts of the plant / It transports amino acids and other substances to storage organs of roots, fruits and seeds and to growing organs. [1]
Q78.2025 Main 31/3/1 · Q232 marks

State the main function of veins in human circulatory system. Why do they not need thick walls ?

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/3/1
  • Veins carry deoxygenated blood from different organs and bring it back to the heart. [1]
  • They do not need thick walls because blood flows at low pressure inside veins. [1]
Q79.2025 Main 31/4/1 · Q232 marks

“Plants use a variety of techniques to get rid of waste material.” Justify this statement giving any four ways.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/4/1

Four ways:

  • O2 as a waste product through stomata.
  • Excess water by transpiration.
  • Shedding of leaves.
  • Stored as resins and gums in old xylem.
  • Into the soil.
  • Stored in cellular vacuoles.

(Any four) [½ × 4 = 2]

Q80.2025 Main 31/5/1 · Q232 marks

(A) How is lymph formed ? State its important function.

OR

(B) (a) Identify ‘X’ in the figure of human nephron shown below. What role does it play in the process of urine formation ?

Figure

(b) Why some substances are selectively reabsorbed from the initial filtrate of urine, as it flows along the tubular part of nephron ?

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/5/1

(A)

  • Through the pores present in the walls of capillaries some amount of plasma, proteins and blood cells escape into intercellular spaces in the tissue to form the tissue fluid called lymph. [1]
  • Lymph carries digested and absorbed fat from intestine / drains excess fluid from extracellular space back into the blood. [1]

OR

(B)

  • (a) X – Bowman’s capsule [½]; Function: collects the filtrate [½]
  • (b) It is because the nephron monitors how much excess water is there in the body and how much dissolved waste is to be removed or how much useful substances are retained by the body. [1]
Q81.2025 Supplementary 31/S/1 · Q232 marks

Give reasons :

(a) During a breathing cycle, the lungs always contain a residual volume of air.

(b) As compared to oxygen, carbon dioxide is mostly transported in dissolved form in our blood.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Supplementary), Q.P. Code 31/S/1

(a) So that there is sufficient time for oxygen to be absorbed and for the carbon dioxide to be released. [1]

(b) Carbon dioxide is more soluble in water than oxygen is, hence is mostly transported in dissolved form in our blood. [1]

Q82.2024 Main 31/1/1 · Q222 marks

State one role of each of the following in human digestive system :

(i) Hydrochloric acid

(ii) Villi

(iii) Anal Sphincter

(iv) Lipase

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2024 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/1/1

Role of:

(i) Hydrochloric acid: Creates an acidic medium for facilitating the action of enzyme / kills microorganisms. [½]

(ii) Villi: Increases the surface area for absorption of digested food. [½]

(iii) Anal Sphincter: Exit of waste material from anus is regulated. [½]

(iv) Lipase: Breakdown / digestion of emulsified fats or lipids. [½]

Q83.2024 Main 31/2/1 · Q222 marks

Photosynthesis takes place in the leaves and the food prepared by it reaches other parts of the plants. Name the process involved and explain it.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2024 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/2/1
  • Translocation [½]
  • Transport of soluble products or food prepared by photosynthesis, through phloem in the sieve tubes with the help of companion cells, both in upward and downward directions by utilising energy. [1½]
Q84.2024 Main 31/4/1 · Q232 marks

(a) We need to water the soil in plants on a regular basis. But it ultimately reaches the leaves of the plant. Explain how this takes place.

OR

(b) Name the type of nutrition exhibited by Amoeba. Explain how food is taken in and digested by this organism.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2024 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/4/1

(a) When water is lost through stomata in the leaves by transpiration, it creates a suction force / transpiration pull. Due to which water is pulled up through xylem of the roots to the leaves. [2]

OR

(b)

  • Heterotrophic / Holozoic nutrition [1]
  • Amoeba takes in food using temporary finger-like projections / pseudopodia of the cell which fuse over the food particle forming a food vacuole. Inside the food vacuole complex substances are broken down into simpler substances. / (award marks if explained diagrammatically) [1]
Q85.2024 Main 31/5/1 · Q232 marks

(a) Sometimes while running, the athletes suffer from muscle cramps. Why ? How is the respiration in this case different from aerobic respiration ?

OR

(b) Write the other name given to lymph. State its two functions.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2024 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/5/1

(a)

  • Formation of lactic acid in muscles causes cramps. [1]
  • Aerobic respiration takes place in the presence of oxygen whereas the respiration taking place above is due to lack of oxygen. / End products of aerobic respiration are CO2 + H2O + Energy whereas in the above case, Lactic acid + Energy is formed. [1]

OR

(b)

  • Tissue fluid / Extracellular fluid [1]
  • Functions (any two): (i) Carries digested and absorbed fats from the intestine. (ii) Drains excess fluid from extracellular space back into the blood. (iii) Fight against infections. [½ + ½]
Q86.2023 Main 31/1/1 · Q232 marks

(a) Name the type of blood (oxygenated / deoxygenated) transported by each of the following mentioning the path (i.e. from one organ (which place) to another (which place)).

(i) Vena cava

(ii) Pulmonary artery

OR

(b) With the help of a schematic flow chart, show the breakdown of glucose in a cell to provide energy –

(i) in the presence of oxygen

(ii) in lack of oxygen

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2023 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/1/1

(a) (i) Vena cava – deoxygenated blood from body to heart. [½, ½]

(ii) Pulmonary artery – deoxygenated blood from heart to lungs. [½, ½]

OR

(b) (i) [Flow chart: Glucose (in cytoplasm) → Pyruvate → (presence of oxygen, in mitochondria) → CO2 + Water + Energy] [1]

(ii) [Flow chart: Glucose (in cytoplasm) → Pyruvate → (lack of oxygen, in human muscle cells) → Lactic acid + Energy] [1]

Q87.2023 Main 31/1/1 · Q242 marks

Name the part of the human excretory system where nephrons are found. Write the structure and function of nephrons.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2023 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/1/1
  • Kidneys [½]
  • Structure: A cluster of thin-walled capillaries (glomerulus) associated with the cup-shaped end of a tube called Bowman’s capsule. This further extends into a tubular part which ends in collecting ducts. [1]
  • Function: Filtration of nitrogenous waste from blood to form urine / Reabsorption of useful materials from the filtrate / Osmoregulation (any one function) [½]
Q88.2023 Main 31/2/1 · Q222 marks

(a) Why is it important to prevent oxygenated and deoxygenated blood from mixing in birds and mammals ?

(b) Which animals can tolerate some mixing of the oxygenated and deoxygenated blood streams ? On what factor does the body temperature of these animals depend ?

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2023 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/2/1

(a) Birds and mammals have high energy needs to maintain their body temperature. The separation of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood allows a highly efficient supply of oxygen to maintain their body temperature. [1]

(b) Amphibians / reptiles [½]; the body temperature of these animals depends on the temperature of the environment. [½]

Q89.2023 Main 31/4/1 · Q232 marks

Write one specific function each of the following organs in relation with excretion in human beings :

(i) Renal Artery

(ii) Urethra

(iii) Glomerulus

(iv) Tubular part of nephron

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2023 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/4/1
  • (i) Renal artery – brings the blood containing nitrogenous waste into the kidney. [½]
  • (ii) Urethra – removal of urine / passing out of urine. [½]
  • (iii) Glomerulus – filtration of blood. [½]
  • (iv) Tubular part of nephron – selective reabsorption of useful materials. [½]
Q90.2023 Main 31/4/1 · Q242 marks

Two green plants are kept separately in oxygen free containers, one in the dark and other in sunlight. It was observed that plant kept in dark could not survive longer. Give reason for this observation.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2023 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/4/1
  • The plant kept in the dark is unable to carry out photosynthesis and, due to absence of oxygen, it cannot respire. [1]
  • But the plant kept in light is able to photosynthesize, converting CO2 into oxygen which it can use for respiration. [1]
Q91.2023 Main 31/5/1 · Q232 marks

(a) List the events in proper sequence that take place during the process of photosynthesis.

OR

(b) Explain in brief two ways by which leaves of a plant help in excretion.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2023 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/5/1

(a) Events in sequence: (i) Absorption of light energy by chlorophyll. [½] (ii) Conversion of light energy to chemical energy and splitting of water molecules into hydrogen and oxygen. [1] (iii) Reduction of carbon dioxide to carbohydrates. [½]

OR

(b) (any two) [1, 1]

  • Excess water is excreted by transpiration.
  • Oxygen, as waste product of photosynthesis, is excreted through stomata.
  • Shedding of leaves.
Q92.2023 Main 31/5/1 · Q242 marks

In the process of digestion of food in human beings, two protein-digesting enzymes are secreted. Name the enzymes along with the glands that secrete them.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2023 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/5/1
  • Gastric gland – Pepsin [½ × 2]
  • Pancreas – Trypsin [½ × 2]
Q93.2023 Main 31/6/1 · Q232 marks

Give the name of the enzyme present in the fluid in our mouth cavity. State the gland which produces it. What would happen to the digestion process if this gland stops secreting this enzyme ?

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2023 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/6/1

Salivary amylase / ptyalin – enzyme. [½] Salivary gland. [½] The breakdown of starch into sugar will not take place. [1]

Q94.SQP 2025-26 · Q102 marks

Unlike animals, plants do not have any excretory products as they do not eat food. Comment upon the statement with justification.

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CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 Marking Scheme (Class X Science)

It is completely wrong to say that plants do not produce any excretory products. However, plants use completely different strategies for excretion than those of the animals. They get rid of these wastes in different manner (any two):

  • Oxygen, a photosynthetic waste, is removed through stomata.
  • Excess water is removed by transpiration through stomata.
  • Other metabolic wastes are either stored in dead cells, resins and gums or are removed through falling of old leaves.
  • Many waste products are stored in cellular vacuoles.
Q95.SQP 2025-26 · Q112 marks

Students to attempt either option A or B.

A. How many chambers are there in the heart of the following organisms? How is mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood prevented in their body?

(i) Fishes

(ii) Humans

OR

B. Explain the mechanism by which the water is transported in plants?

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CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 Marking Scheme (Class X Science)

A.

  • (i) There are two chambers in the heart of fish. The blood is pumped to the gills, is oxygenated there and passes directly to the rest of the body.
  • (ii) There are four chambers in the heart of a human being. Separation of the right side and the left side of the heart by septum prevents mixing of oxygenated and de-oxygenated bloods.

OR

B. Xylem moves water and minerals obtained from the soil through roots to all other parts of the plant in a unidirectional manner // Transpiration takes place from leaf which causes a transpirational pull in the tracheids and vessels of xylem facilitating upward movement of water // roots actively uptake ions from the soil, leading to difference in concentration gradient, thereby water moves into the roots to eliminate this difference / creating a steady movement of water into root xylem.

Q96.SQP 2026-27 · Q102 marks

A. Due to narrowing of the bile duct, the bile secretion from the liver to the small intestine was obstructed. How will the process of digestion be affected?

B. How does the length of the intestine depend on the nature of food habit in different animals?

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CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 Marking Scheme (Class X Science)

A. The bile juice from the liver makes the food alkaline for the pancreatic enzymes to act. In addition, bile salts break down fats into smaller globules increasing the efficiency of enzyme action. If bile duct is obstructed, it can lead to improper digestion of fats. [0.5 + 0.5]

B. Herbivores eating grass need a longer small intestine to allow the cellulose to be digested. Meat is easier to digest, hence carnivores like tigers have a shorter small intestine. [1]

Q97.2026 Main 31/1/1 · Q143 marks

Give differences between the following :

(a) Nephron and neuron

(b) Sensory nerve and motor nerve

(c) Consumers and decomposers

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/1/1

(a)

NephronNeuron
(i) Filtration / Structural / Functional unit of the kidney.
(ii) Filters nitrogenous wastes from the blood.
(i) Structural / Functional unit of the nervous system.
(ii) Transmits information from one part of the body to another.

(any one, any other suitable difference) [1]

(b)

Sensory NerveMotor Nerve
(i) Carries impulse from receptors to CNS / Brain and Spinal cord.(i) Carries impulse from CNS / Brain and Spinal cord to the motor area / effector organ.

(any other suitable difference) [1]

(c)

ConsumersDecomposers
(i) Organisms that feed on producers and other consumers.
(ii) Transfer energy through the food chain.
(i) Organisms that breakdown dead organic matter into simpler inorganic substances.
(ii) Recycle nutrients back into the environment.

(any one, any other suitable difference) [1]

Q98.2026 Main 31/2/1 · Q133 marks

Complete the pathways given below, showing the breakdown of glucose.

Figure

Identify ‘A’, ‘B’, ‘C’, ‘D’, ‘E’ and ‘F’.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/2/1
  • A: Cytoplasm [½]
  • B: Ethanol / Carbon dioxide [½]
  • C: Carbon dioxide / Ethanol [½]
  • D: Lactic acid [½]
  • E: Carbon dioxide / Water [½]
  • F: Water / Carbon dioxide [½]

(B and C may be given in either order; E and F may be given in either order, as in the scheme.)

Q99.2026 Main 31/3/1 · Q133 marks

In xylem tissue, vessels and tracheids of the roots, stems and leaves are interconnected to form a continuous system of water-conducting channels reaching all parts of the plant. Explain how this is achieved.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/3/1
  • Root pressure: Cells in the contact of the soil actively take up ions and creates a difference in concentration between roots and soil, water moves from soil to root to eliminate this difference. [½ + 1]
  • Transpirational pull: Water lost through transpiration from aerial parts of plants, creates a suction which pulls water column from xylem cells of roots. [½ + 1]
Q100.2026 Exam 2 31/7/1 · Q133 marks

During respiration, glucose is broken down into pyruvate. State the end products formed from it on further breakdown, in each of the following cases :

(a) In yeast, in absence of oxygen.

(b) Lack of oxygen in muscles.

(c) In presence of oxygen in mitochondria.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Exam 2), Q.P. Code 31/7/1

(a) Ethanol + carbon dioxide + energy [1]

(b) Lactic acid + energy [1]

(c) Carbon dioxide + water + energy [1]

Q101.2025 Main 31/3/1 · Q293 marks

On the basis of the characteristics of the processes given in the brackets in each case, differentiate between the following :

(a) Products of breakdown of pyruvate in aerobic and anaerobic respiration in human beings (product(s) of the processes)

(b) Respiration and photosynthesis in plants (gas released)

(c) Respiration in terrestrial animals and fishes (organs involved)

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/3/1
  • (a) Aerobic – carbon dioxide + water [½]; Anaerobic – lactic acid [½]
  • (b) Respiration – carbon dioxide [½]; Photosynthesis – oxygen [½]
  • (c) Terrestrial animals – lungs / skin [½]; Fish – gills [½]
Q102.2025 Main 31/4/1 · Q293 marks

The digestion of food in human alimentary canal is a complex process. State the enzyme/salt present in the following and mention their function in the process of digestion :

(i) Saliva

(ii) Bile Juice

(iii) Pancreatic Juice

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/4/1
  • (i) Saliva: Salivary amylase [½] – converts starch to sugar [½]
  • (ii) Bile juice: Bile salts [½] – change the acidic food to alkaline / emulsify fats [½]
  • (iii) Pancreatic juice: Trypsin [½] – helps in digestion of proteins / Lipase – breaking down emulsified fats [½]
Q103.2025 Main 31/5/1 · Q293 marks

(a) Write the name and one function of respiratory pigment found in human beings.

(b) Why do lungs always contain a residual volume of air ?

(c) Why is ATP known as energy currency of the living beings ?

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/5/1
  • (a) Haemoglobin [½]; to take up oxygen from lungs and carry it to tissues which are deficient in oxygen / transports oxygen to various body parts [½]
  • (b) To provide sufficient time for oxygen to be absorbed and for carbon dioxide to be released. [1]
  • (c) ATP provides energy for various cellular processes. [1]
Q104.2025 Main 31/6/1 · Q293 marks

Name the blood vessel that brings (i) oxygenated blood (ii) deoxygenated blood, to the human heart. Also name that chamber of the heart which receives deoxygenated blood and state how deoxygenated blood from this chamber is sent to lungs for oxygenation.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/6/1
  • (i) Pulmonary vein [½]
  • (ii) Vena cava [½]
  • Chamber receiving deoxygenated blood: Right atrium [½]
  • After receiving blood, the right atrium contracts; as a result, blood passes into the right ventricle; then the ventricle contracts and the deoxygenated blood flows into the lungs through the pulmonary artery. [½ × 3]
Q105.2025 Supplementary 31/S/1 · Q293 marks

(a) Write the end products of the breakdown of pyruvate in yeast cells and in our muscle cells under anaerobic conditions.

(b) In which part of the cell does the above process take place ?

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Supplementary), Q.P. Code 31/S/1

(a) Yeast cells: Ethanol, Carbon dioxide, Energy [½ × 3]

Muscle cells: Lactic acid, Energy [½ + ½]

(b) Cytoplasm [½]

Q106.2025 Supplementary 31/S/1 · Q303 marks

(a) Explain the process of translocation of food and other substances in the phloem of plants.

OR

(b) Differentiate between xylem and phloem on the basis of the following :

(i) Direction of transport of the substances

(ii) Major driving forces involved in the transport

(iii) Nature of the substance(s) transported

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Supplementary), Q.P. Code 31/S/1

(a)

  • The translocation of food and other substances takes place in the sieve tubes with the help of adjacent companion cells.
  • Material like sucrose is transferred into phloem tissue using energy from ATP.
  • This increases osmotic pressure of the tissue causing water to move into it that moves material in the phloem to tissue which have less pressure.

[1 × 3]

OR

(b)

XylemPhloem
Direction of transportationUnidirectional / upwards onlyBidirectional / both upwards and downwards
Major driving forceTranspiration pull (or root pressure)Osmotic pressure
Nature of the substances transportedWater and dissolved mineralsProducts of photosynthesis / amino acid, sucrose

[1 × 3]

Q107.2024 Main 31/1/1 · Q293 marks

(i) Why is respiratory pigment needed in multicellular organisms with large body size ?

(ii) Give reasons for the following :

(a) Rings of cartilage are present in the throat.

(b) Lungs always contain a residual volume of air.

(c) The diaphragm flattens and ribs are lifted up when we breathe in.

(d) Walls of alveoli contain an extensive network of blood vessels.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2024 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/1/1

(i) Diffusion / Diffusion pressure alone cannot take care of oxygen delivery to all parts of the body. [1]

(ii) Reasons:

(a) To ensure that the air-passage does not collapse. [½]

(b) There is sufficient time for oxygen to be absorbed and for the carbon dioxide to be released. [½]

(c) Chest cavity becomes larger. [½]

(d) Because exchange of gases takes place in the alveoli. [½]

Q108.2024 Main 31/2/1 · Q293 marks

(a) Give reasons for the following :

(i) Alveoli in lungs are richly supplied with blood capillaries.

(ii) Respiratory pigment in the blood takes up oxygen and not carbon dioxide.

(iii) During anaerobic respiration, a 3-carbon molecule is formed as an end product instead of CO2 in human beings.

OR

(b) (i) Name the movements that occur all along the gut in human digestive system. How do they help in digestion ?

(ii) Where is bile juice stored in human body ? List two roles of bile juice.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2024 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/2/1

(a)

(i) To facilitate efficient exchange of gases. [1]

(ii) It has high affinity for oxygen. [1]

(iii) Lack of oxygen does not oxidise glucose completely and forms a 3-carbon molecule or lactic acid. [1]

OR

(b)

(i)

  • Peristaltic movements [½]
  • Muscles contract rhythmically in order to push the food forward in a regulated manner to be digested properly. [1]

(ii)

  • Gall bladder [½]
  • Two roles: Emulsification of fats [½]; Makes the acidic medium alkaline. [½]
Q109.2024 Main 31/3/1 · Q293 marks

We water the soil but it reaches the topmost leaves of the plants. Explain in brief the process involved.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2024 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/3/1

When water is lost through stomata in the leaves by transpiration, it creates a suction force / transpiration pull, due to which water is pulled up through xylem of the roots to the leaves. [1+1+1]

Q110.2023 Main 31/1/1 · Q293 marks

(a) (i) State the role of ATP in cellular respiration.

(ii) What ensures sufficient exchange of gases in plants ?

(iii) State the conditions on which the direction of diffusion of gases in plant depend upon.

OR

(b) (i) What is the internal energy reserve in plants and animals ?

(ii) How desert plants perform photosynthesis if their stomata remain closed during the day ?

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2023 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/1/1

(a) (i) Energy currency for cellular processes / ATP breaks down to give a fixed amount of energy which can drive the endothermic reactions taking place in the cell. [1]

(ii) Stomata and surface of leaves, stems and roots. [1]

(iii) Environmental conditions [½]; requirements of the plant. [½]

OR

(b) (i) Plants – Starch [1]; Animals – Glycogen [1]

(ii) Desert plants take up carbon dioxide at night and prepare an intermediate compound which is acted upon by the energy absorbed by the chlorophyll during the day. [1]

Q111.2023 Main 31/2/1 · Q293 marks

(a) (i) What is the first step in the breakdown of glucose during aerobic and anaerobic respiration ? Where does it take place ?

(ii) ATP is called the energy currency of the cell. Why ?

(iii) What is meant by residual volume of air in a breathing cycle ?

OR

(b) Write in sequence the steps for experimental verification of the fact that sunlight is essential for photosynthesis.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2023 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/2/1

(a) (i) Glucose → Pyruvic acid / pyruvate [½]; it takes place in the cytoplasm. [½]

(ii) It is used as fuel for all activities in a cell / ATP is broken down giving rise to a fixed amount of energy which drives endothermic reactions in the cell. [1]

(iii) When air is taken in and let out, the lungs always contain a residual volume of air so that there is sufficient time for the oxygen to be absorbed and for the carbon dioxide to be released / volume of air present in the lungs after exhalation. [1]

OR

(b) [½ × 6]

  • A potted plant is taken and kept in the dark for 24 hrs to destarch it.
  • Cover a part of a leaf of the plant with black paper to prevent that area from getting sunlight.
  • Keep the plant in sunlight for 24 hours.
  • Pluck the leaf, remove the black paper, boil it in alcohol and dip the leaf in iodine solution for the starch test.
  • The covered part showed no change in colour indicating that starch has not been produced due to the absence of sunlight.
  • The rest of the leaf turned blue-black proving that starch is produced during photosynthesis and sunlight is essential for that.
Q112.2023 Main 31/4/1 · Q293 marks

(A) (i) How does Paramecium obtain its food ?

(ii) List the role of each of the following in our digestive system :

(a) Hydrochloric acid   (b) Trypsin   (c) Muscular walls of stomach   (d) Salivary amylase

OR

(B) (i) What is double circulation ?

(ii) Why is the separation of the right side and the left side of the heart useful ? How does it help birds and mammals ?

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2023 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/4/1

(A) (i) Food enters through a specific spot with the help of movement of cilia. [1]

(ii) (a) Hydrochloric acid – creates an acidic medium which facilitates the action of the enzyme / kills microorganisms ingested with the food. [½]

(b) Trypsin – digestion of proteins. [½]

(c) Muscular walls of stomach – mixing the food thoroughly with digestive juices / pushes food forward by peristalsis. [½]

(d) Salivary amylase – conversion of starch into sugar. [½]

OR

(B) (i) Blood goes through the heart twice during each cycle. [1]

(ii) To prevent oxygenated and deoxygenated blood from mixing, for efficient supply of oxygen to the body. [1] It helps birds and mammals, who have high energy needs and constantly use energy to maintain their body temperature. [1]

Q113.2023 Main 31/5/1 · Q293 marks

(a) With the help of an activity, explain the action of saliva on the food we eat.

(b) Why is bile juice important in the process of digestion ?

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2023 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/5/1

(a) (any activity; e.g.) [½ × 4]

  • Take 1 ml of 1% starch solution in two test tubes A and B.
  • Add 1 ml saliva in test tube A and leave both test tubes undisturbed for 20–30 minutes. Now add a few drops of iodine to both the test tubes.
  • The colour of iodine does not change in test tube A as starch is converted to sugar by enzymes present in saliva.
  • The colour of iodine changes to blue-black in test tube B because it contains only starch solution.

[Note: if quantity is not mentioned do not deduct marks]

(b) (1) Bile changes the acidic medium of food to alkaline medium so that the pancreatic enzymes can act on it. [1] (2) It also emulsifies fats / breaks down the large fat globules into smaller particles. [any one]

Q114.2023 Main 31/6/1 · Q273 marks

Explain the process of transport of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood in a human body.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2023 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/6/1
  • Oxygen-rich blood from the lungs comes to the left atrium of the heart. [½]
  • It then contracts and the blood is transferred to the left ventricle. [½]
  • The left ventricle in turn contracts and the blood is pumped out to the body. [½]
  • Deoxygenated blood from the body enters the right atrium. [½]
  • On its contraction, blood enters the right ventricle. [½]
  • The right ventricle pumps it to the lungs for oxygenation. [½]
Q115.2023 Supplementary 31/C/1 · Q273 marks

What is photosynthesis ? Name the organelle and the organs in which photosynthesis takes place. Where does the oxygen liberated come from during this process ? What happens to the carbohydrates which are not immediately used by the plant ?

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2023 (Supplementary), Q.P. Code 31/C/1
  • Photosynthesis: the process in which plants/autotrophs take in substances from outside and convert them into a stored form of energy. / The process in which CO2 and water are converted into carbohydrates in the presence of sunlight and chlorophyll. [6CO2 + 12H2O → (chlorophyll, sunlight) C6H12O6 (glucose) + 6O2 + 6H2O] [1]
  • Organelle: chloroplast [½]
  • Organs: leaves / green part of the plant [½]
  • Oxygen liberated comes from: water [½]
  • Carbohydrates not immediately used: stored as starch [½]
Q116.2023 Supplementary 31/C/1 · Q293 marks

(a) Give the structure and function of alveoli in human respiratory system.

(b) What is meant by residual volume of air in the lungs ?

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2023 (Supplementary), Q.P. Code 31/C/1

(a) Structure: within the lungs the air passage divides into smaller and smaller tubes which finally terminate into balloon-like structures; these are called alveoli. [1] (a labelled diagram of alveoli is also acceptable)

Function: it provides a surface where the exchange of gases takes place. [1]

(b) It is the volume of air left in the lungs after exhalation. [1]

Q117.2023 Supplementary 31/C/1 · Q303 marks

Write any two ways by which plants obtain carbon dioxide. What causes the opening and closing of the stomata ?

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2023 (Supplementary), Q.P. Code 31/C/1
  • Exchange of gases through stomata. [½]
  • By the process of respiration. [½]
  • The guard cells absorb water and swell, causing the stomatal pore to open. [1]
  • The guard cells lose water and shrink, and hence the pore closes. [1]
Q118.2026 Main 31/3/1 · Q154 marks

Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow :

Not all plants carry out photosynthesis by the same mechanism. In most plants, it depends directly on gaseous carbon dioxide that diffuses into the leaf. However, some plants can store carbon dioxide in the vacuole of the leaf cells as part of a complex carbon compound. This compound is transported to the chloroplast and releases carbon dioxide when required for photosynthesis. This special mechanism is believed to have evolved as an adaptation in such plants which do not open stomata during the daytime to conserve water for survival in dry conditions (desert conditions).

Attempt either (a) or (b) :

(a) (i) Which process in these plants is minimised to help the plants survive in dry conditions ?

(ii) Which part of the leaf is responsible for exchange of gases during photosynthesis ?

OR

(b) (i) List the events that occur during the process of photosynthesis.

(ii) When are such desert plants likely to take in carbon dioxide from the environment, unlike other plants ?

(iii) Draw a labelled diagram of stomata with open stomatal pore.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/3/1

(a)

(i) Opening of stomata during the day is minimised to prevent loss of water by evaporation. / Transpiration (loss of water in the form of water vapour) is minimised. [2]

(ii) Stomata [2]

OR

(b)

(i) [1]

  • Absorption of light energy by chlorophyll.
  • Conversion of light energy to chemical energy and splitting of water molecules into hydrogen and oxygen
  • Reduction of carbon dioxide into carbohydrates

(ii) At night. [1]

(iii) [Diagram of an open stomatal pore: two bean-shaped guard cells enclosing the stomatal pore, with chloroplasts in the guard cells; label guard cells, stomatal pore, chloroplast] [Diagram 1 + Labelling 1 = 2]

Q119.2026 Main 31/5/1 · Q154 marks

Kidneys help to regulate the volume of fluid and various metabolites waste products in the body. Normally, kidney filter about 180 L of fluid daily but the volume actually excreted out is only a litre or two a day. Patients with kidney failures can be saved by dialysis and kidney transplant.

(a) Write the structure and function of Bowman’s capsule. [1]

(b) Although kidneys filter a large amount (about 180 L daily) of fluids, still the excretion from the body is only about a litre or two. Why ? [1]

(c) What is excretion ? Why is it necessary for any living organism ? [2]

OR

(c) State two similarities between lungs and kidneys. [2]

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/5/1

(a)

  • Structure → Bowman’s capsule is a cup shaped end of a coiled tube (nephron) [½]
  • Function → Bowman’s capsule collects the filtrate from the blood. [½]

(b) Most of the water, salt, glucose, amino acids are selectively reabsorbed from the filtrate into the blood as the urine flows along the tubular part of nephron. [1]

(c)

  • Excretion is the process of removal of metabolic wastes / nitrogenous waste / urea / uric acid from the body. [1]
  • It is essential for survival of a living organism as the excretory products are toxic and harmful to the organism. [1]

OR

(c)

  • Both lungs and kidneys remove metabolic waste / Lungs remove carbon dioxide gas (CO2) from the blood while kidneys remove nitrogenous wastes like urea from the blood. [1]
  • Both lungs and kidneys have thin-walled blood capillaries involved in exchange of gases and filtration of blood respectively. [1]
Q120.2026 Exam 2 31/8/1 · Q154 marks

The given diagram shows the human kidney and its associated structures.

Figure

Study the Table I and Table II that shows the concentration of certain substances found within the structure P and Q.

Table I - Structure P

ComponentsConcentration %
Urea0.05
Amino acids0.06
Salts1.72
Glucose0.10

Table II - Structure Q

ComponentsConcentration %
Urea1.00
Amino acids0.00
Salts1.60
Glucose0.00

(A) Where are kidneys located in the human body ? Name the filtration unit of them. [1]

(B) List two factors on which reabsorption of water from the filtrate depends. [1]

(C) Why is there variation in the concentration of given substance in structure P and Q listed in table I and II respectively ? [2]

OR

(C) If a person is suffering from diabetes, concentration of which substance present in structure Q (listed in table II) will be modified and why ? [2]

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Exam 2), Q.P. Code 31/8/1

(A) Kidneys are located in the abdomen. [½] Nephrons [½]

(B) (i) Amount of water in the body. [½] (ii) Amount of dissolved wastes that need to be excreted. [½]

(C) Urea content is higher in structure Q, whereas the concentration of useful substances such as glucose, amino acids and salt is lesser in Q as they will be reabsorbed back into the blood. [2]

OR

(C) There will be more glucose in structure Q. [1] A diabetic person may not have sufficient insulin, so the glucose level of the blood rises. [1]

Q121.2025 Main 31/1/1 · Q384 marks

The maintenance functions of all living organisms must go on even when they are not doing anything particular. Even when we are just sitting in a class or even asleep, this maintenance job has to go on. These maintenance processes require energy to prevent damage and break-down of cells and tissues, which is obtained by the individual organism from the food prepared by the autotrophs, called producers.

(a) Name and define the process by which green plants prepare food. [1]

(b) Write chemical equation involved in the above process. [1]

(c) (i) State in proper sequence the events that occur in synthesis of food by desert plants. [2]

OR

(c) (ii) Explain giving reasons what happens to the rate at which the green plants will prepare food (I) during cloudy weather, and (II) when stomata get blocked due to dust. [2]

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/1/1

(a) Photosynthesis [½]

A process by which green plants capture sunlight and convert it to chemical energy with the help of chlorophyll / Process by which carbon dioxide and water is converted into carbohydrates in the presence of sunlight, chlorophyll and water. [½]

(b) 6CO2 + 12H2O → (chlorophyll, sunlight) C6H12O6 + 6O2 + 6H2O [1]

(c) (i) [2]

  • Absorption of light energy by chlorophyll
  • Conversion of light energy to chemical energy.
  • Reduction of carbon dioxide to carbohydrates.
  • Desert plants take up CO2 at night and prepare an intermediate, which is acted upon by the energy absorbed by the chlorophyll during the day.

OR

(c) (ii)

  • (I) Decrease the rate of photosynthesis due to low amount of sunlight. [1]
  • (II) Decreases the rate of photosynthesis due to reduced gaseous exchange. [1]
Q122.2024 Main 31/3/1 · Q384 marks

Human digestive system is a tube running from mouth to anus. Its main function is to breakdown complex molecules present in the food which cannot be absorbed as such into smaller molecules. These molecules are absorbed across the walls of the tube and the absorbed food reaches each and every cell of the body where it is utilised for obtaining energy.

(a) Name the glands present in the buccal cavity and write the components of food on which the secretion of these glands act upon.

(b) Two organs have a sphincter muscle at their exit. Name them.

(c) What will happen if :

(i) mucus is not secreted by the gastric glands.

(ii) Villi are absent in the small intestine.

OR

(c) “Bile juice does not contain any enzyme, yet it has important roles in digestion.” Justify the statement.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2024 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/3/1

(a) Salivary glands; Starch / Carbohydrate [½ + ½]

(b) Stomach, Anus [½ + ½]

(c)

(i) The inner lining of the stomach will not be protected from the action of acid. [1]

(ii) Digested food will not be absorbed. / Absorption area will be reduced. [1]

OR

(c)

  • Emulsification of fats. [1]
  • Acidic medium has to be made alkaline for the pancreatic enzymes to act. [1]
Q123.2024 Main 31/4/1 · Q384 marks

Kidneys are vital organs for survival. Several factors like infections, injury or restricted blood flow to kidneys reduce the activity of kidneys. This leads to accumulation of poisonous wastes in the body, which can even lead to death. In case of kidney failure, an artificial kidney can be used. An artificial kidney is a device to remove waste products from the blood through dialysis.

(a) (i) Name the artery that brings oxygenated blood to the kidney.

(ii) Name the cluster the thin-walled blood capillaries present in the Bowman's capsule.

(b) In human excretory system name the organ which stores urine. Is this organ under hormonal control or nervous control ?

(c) (i) List two major steps involved in the formation of urine and state in brief their functions.

OR

(c) (ii) In which part of the nephron does selective reabsorption take place ? List the factors which the amount of water reabsorbed depends on.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2024 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/4/1

(a) (i) Renal artery [½]

(ii) Glomerulus [½]

(b) Urinary bladder [½]; Nervous control [½]

(c) (i) Filtration: Nitrogenous wastes such as urea or uric acid are removed. [½+½] Reabsorption: Glucose, amino acids, salts / some useful materials and major amounts of water reabsorbed. [½+½]

OR

(c) (ii) Tubular part of nephron. [1] The amount of water absorbed depends on: how much water is there in the body; how much dissolved waste is there to be excreted. [½ + ½]

Q124.SQP 2025-26 · Q154 marks

Neha consumed boiled sweet potatoes and boiled eggs for breakfast. Help her to understand some steps in the process of digestion of the food taken by her by answering the questions given below.

Attempt either subpart A or B.

A. Which of these food items is rich in proteins? In which part of the alimentary canal is the digestion of this component initiated? Name the enzymes, conditions required and the glands associated with the digestion here.

OR

B. Which of these food items contains fats? How is it digested?

C. Which of these food items is rich in starch? How is its digestion initiated?

D. The figure given below represents parts of the human alimentary canal. Which of these parts will have the maximum amount of digested food as soon as the process of digestion is completed?

Figure
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CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 Marking Scheme (Class X Science)

A. Eggs are rich in proteins. The digestion of proteins is initiated in the stomach. Gastric glands present in the wall of the stomach release hydrochloric acid, a protein digesting enzyme called pepsin and mucus. The hydrochloric acid creates an acidic medium which facilitates the action of enzyme pepsin.

OR

B. Eggs contain fats. Bile juice from the liver breaks down large fat globules into smaller ones for increasing the efficiency of the enzymes and making the medium alkaline. Emulsified fats are digested by lipase secreted by pancreas.

C. Sweet potatoes are rich in starch. The saliva secreted by salivary glands present in buccal cavity contain an enzyme called salivary amylase that breaks down starch which is a complex molecule to give sugar.

D. Small intestine will have a maximum amount of digested food as the process of digestion is completed in the small intestine.

Q125.2026 Main 31/4/1 · Q165 marks

(A) (a) Draw a labelled diagram showing open and closed stomatal pore.

(b) List the main events that occur during the process of photosynthesis.

(c) Write a balanced chemical equation showing photosynthesis in plants.

OR

(B) (a) Draw a well-labelled diagram of nephron and label atleast 4 of its parts.

(b) Write the role of capillary cluster inside Bowman’s capsule.

(c) What is meant by selective reabsorption ?

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/4/1

(A)

(a) [Diagram: (a) open stomatal pore and (b) closed stomatal pore, each showing two guard cells with chloroplasts and the stomatal pore labelled] [1 + 1]

(b) [2]

  • Absorption of light energy by chlorophyll.
  • Conversion of light energy to chemical energy and splitting of water molecule into hydrogen and oxygen.
  • Reduction of carbon dioxide to carbohydrates.

(c) 6CO2 + 12H2O → (chlorophyll, sunlight) C6H12O6 (glucose) + 6O2 + 6H2O [1]

OR

(B)

(a) [Diagram of nephron as in the scheme, labelled e.g. Glomerulus, Bowman’s capsule, Tubular part of nephron, Collecting duct, Capillaries, Branch of renal artery, Branch of renal vein (any 4 parts)] [Diagram 1; labelling of any 4 parts ½ × 4]

(b) Filtration of blood to remove wastes. [1]

(c) It is a process by which useful substances like glucose, amino acids, vitamins, salts and most of water are reabsorbed from filtrate, back into the blood. [1]

Q126.2025 Main 31/2/1 · Q355 marks

(a) (i) “The length of the small intestine in various animals depends on the food they eat.” Justify the statement.

(ii) Discuss the role of the pancreas and bile juice in the digestion of food in human beings.

(iii) How is the small intestine designed to absorb digested food ?

OR

(b) (i) State the role of rings of cartilage present in the throat.

(ii) Discuss the role of the ribs and diaphragm when air is taken in during the breathing cycle.

(iii) Why do we get muscle cramps during heavy exercise ? Explain.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/2/1

(a)

(i) Animals (herbivores) eating grass need a longer small intestine to digest cellulose. Meat is easier to digest, hence meat-eating animals (carnivores) have a shorter small intestine. [2]

(ii)

  • Role of pancreas – secretes pancreatic juice which contains trypsin for digesting proteins, lipase for breaking down emulsified fats. [1]
  • Role of bile – bile emulsifies fats and makes the medium alkaline in the small intestine so that pancreatic enzymes can act. [1]

(iii) The inner lining of the small intestine has numerous finger-like projections called villi which increase the surface area for absorption of food. The villi are richly supplied with blood vessels which take the absorbed food to each and every cell of the body. [1]

OR

(b)

(i) ‘Rings of cartilage’ ensure that the air passage does not collapse in absence of air. [1]

(ii) Ribs are lifted → Diaphragm flattens → Chest cavity becomes larger → Air is sucked into the lungs (alveoli) and we breathe in. [2]

(iii) Due to lack of oxygen in our muscle cells (anaerobic respiration), pyruvate is converted into lactic acid; build-up of lactic acid in our muscles causes cramps. [2]

Q127.2024 Main 31/5/1 · Q355 marks

(a) Design an experiment to demonstrate that carbon dioxide is essential for photosynthesis. Write the observation and conclusion of the experiment.

OR

(b) (i)

Figure

In the experimental set-up shown above in diagram (I) atmospheric air is being passed into lime water with a syringe while in diagram (II) air is being exhaled into lime water. The time taken for the lime water to turn milky in both the test tubes is different. Give reason.

(ii) Draw the diagram of an open stomatal pore and label (I) Guard cells, and (II) Chloroplast on it. Mention two functions performed by stomata.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2024 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/5/1

(a)

  • Take two healthy potted plants, A and B of nearly the same size.
  • Keep them in darkness for three days. (Destarch the plant)
  • Place a watch glass containing potassium hydroxide by the side of potted plant A but not in potted plant B.
  • Cover both the plants with separate bell jars and seal the bottom of the jars with Vaseline.
  • Keep both the plants in sunlight for two hours.
  • Pluck one leaf each from both the plants and test for the presence of starch with iodine solution. [½ x 6]
  • Observation: The leaf of the potted plant A with KOH did not turn blue-black. The leaf of the potted plant B turns blue. [1]
  • Conclusion: KOH absorbs CO2 so photosynthesis did not occur in potted plant A. [1]

OR

(b)

(i) In set up (I) lime water turns milky in more time as compared to set up (II) because the air we exhaled contains high percentage of CO2 as compared to atmospheric air. [1, 1]

(ii) [Diagram: open stomatal pore with a pore in the centre bounded by two bean-shaped guard cells, each containing chloroplasts; labels: Guard cells, Chloroplast] [1]

Two labellings: (I) Guard cells [½], (II) Chloroplast [½]

Two functions performed by stomata: Gaseous exchange [½]; Transpiration [½]

Q128.2024 Supplementary 31/S/1 · Q355 marks

(a) (i) Study the diagram below of alimentary canal of man and name the parts marked as A, B and C. Write the name of the enzyme present in each labelled part.

Figure

(ii) Explain how digested food reaches each and every cell of the body and is utilised.

OR

(b) (i) Study the diagram below showing schematic representation of transport and exchange of gases in human heart and name the parts labelled as A, B and C. Mention the function of each part.

Figure

(ii) Explain how separation of right and left side of the heart is useful for birds.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2024 (Supplementary), Q.P. Code 31/S/1

(a) (i) A – Mouth/buccal cavity [½]; B – Stomach [½]; C – Pancreas [½]

Enzymes: A – Salivary amylase [½]; B – Pepsin [½]; C – Trypsin/Lipase [½]

(ii)

  • Digested food is taken up by the walls of the small intestine / villi
  • The food is absorbed here
  • Blood vessels in the villi take absorbed food to each and every cell of the body.
  • Utilisation of this food is done to obtain energy, building up new tissues and repair of old tissues.

[2] (if explained in paragraph award full marks)

OR

(b) (i) A – Pulmonary artery [½]; B – Aorta [½]; C – Capillaries [½]

Functions: A – Carries deoxygenated blood from heart to lungs. [½] B – Carries oxygenated blood to different parts of the body. [½] C – Exchange of material between blood and surrounding parts. [½]

(ii)

  • To prevent oxygenated and deoxygenated blood from mixing
  • This allows a highly efficient supply of oxygen to the body of birds to maintain their body temperature.

[2]

Q129.SQP 2026-27 · Q165 marks

Attempt either option A or B

Figure

A. Observe the structure of hearts A, B and C shown above and answer the following questions

I. Which of the hearts depicted above is present in both birds and Mammals and how are they able to maintain their body temperature? Give reason for your answer.

II. Which of the hearts depicted above is present in fishes, how does circulation of blood take place in them?

OR

B.

I. Observe both the diagrams A and B. Which diagram indicates inhalation? Describe how it occurs.

Figure

II. If diffusion were to move oxygen in our body, it is estimated that it would take 3 years for a molecule of oxygen to get to our toes from our lungs. Then, how is oxygen delivered to all parts of our body?

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CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 Marking Scheme (Class X Science)

A.

I. C – Four chambered heart. [1] The separation of the right side and the left side of the heart is useful to keep oxygenated and deoxygenated blood from mixing. Such separation allows a highly efficient supply of oxygen to the body. This is useful in animals that have high energy needs, such as birds and mammals, which constantly use energy to maintain their body temperature. [2]

II. A – Two chambered heart. [1] The blood is pumped to the gills, is oxygenated there, and passes directly to the rest of the body. Thus, blood goes only once through the heart in the fish during one cycle of passage through the body. [1]

OR

B.

I. A depicts inhalation. [1]

  • Ribs get lifted [0.5]
  • Diaphragm is flattened [0.5]
  • The chest cavity becomes larger [0.5]
  • Air is sucked in [0.5]

II. In human beings, the respiratory pigment haemoglobin has a very high affinity for oxygen. This pigment is present in the red blood corpuscles. This oxygen-rich blood is then pumped by the heart to the rest of the body. [2]

Unit II · World of Living

2. Control and Coordination

Q1.2026 Main 31/1/1 · Q41 mark

Human brain has various parts or regions that help in different actions responses and coordination. From the following, identify the part responsible for precision of voluntary actions :

  1. Cerebrum
  2. Cerebellum
  3. Medulla
  4. Pons
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/1/1

(B) Cerebellum [1 mark]

Q2.2026 Main 31/1/1 · Q81 mark

Directions: Questions 8 and 9 are Assertion and Reason based questions. Two statements are given, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Select the correct answer from the codes (A), (B), (C) and (D) as given below.

Assertion (A) : Reflex actions do not involve thinking.

Reason (R) : Most reflex actions are controlled by the spinal cord.

  1. Both, Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  2. Both, Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/1/1

(A) Both, Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A). [1 mark]

Q3.2026 Main 31/2/1 · Q21 mark

Identify the type of tropic movement that is responsible for the movement of the pollen tube towards an ovule from the following options.

  1. Hydrotropism
  2. Geotropism
  3. Chemotropism
  4. Phototropism
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/2/1

(C) Chemotropism [1 mark]

Q4.2026 Main 31/3/1 · Q31 mark

Walking in a straight line and riding a bicycle are activities which are possible due to coordination of which part of the brain ?

Part of the BrainName of the area of the Brain
(A)Fore-BrainCerebrum
(B)Mid-BrainCerebellum
(C)Hind-BrainCerebellum
(D)Hind-BrainMedulla
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/3/1

(C) Hind Brain - Cerebellum [1 mark]

Q5.2026 Main 31/3/1 · Q41 mark

In a synapse, the chemical signal is transmitted from :

  1. Dendritic end of one neuron to axonal end of another neuron.
  2. Axon to cell body of the same neuron.
  3. Cell body to axonal end of the same neuron.
  4. Axonal end of one neuron to dendritic end of another neuron.
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/3/1

(D) Axonal end of one neuron to dendritic end of another neuron [1 mark]

Q6.2026 Main 31/3/1 · Q71 mark

The growth of tendrils in grapes plants is due to :

  1. Effect of light
  2. Effect of gravity
  3. Rapid cell division in tendril cells in contact with the support
  4. Rapid cell division in tendril cells that are away from the support
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/3/1

(D) Rapid cell division in tendril cells that are away from the support [1 mark]

Q7.2026 Main 31/4/1 · Q51 mark

Following are the statements about the different parts of the brain. Select the correct statements.

(i) The thinking part of the brain is the forebrain.

(ii) Centres for smell, hearing, memory, sight are located in forebrain.

(iii) Salivation, vomiting, blood pressure are controlled by medulla in the hind brain.

(iv) Cerebellum does not control the posture and balance of the body.

  1. (i), (ii) and (iii)
  2. (ii), (iii) and (iv)
  3. (i), (ii) and (iv)
  4. (i), (iii) and (iv)
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/4/1

(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) [1 mark]

Q8.2026 Main 31/5/1 · Q21 mark

Identify the endocrine gland that regulates the growth of human body.

  1. Pituitary gland
  2. Thyroid gland
  3. Pancreas
  4. Adrenal gland
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/5/1

(A) Pituitary gland [1 mark]

Q9.2026 Exam 2 31/7/1 · Q31 mark

The growth of tendril in pea plant is due to which of the following ?

  1. Effect of chemotropism
  2. Effect of gravity
  3. Rapid growth of part of the tendril away from the point of contact with the support (object)
  4. Rapid growth of the part of the tendril in contact with the support (object)
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Exam 2), Q.P. Code 31/7/1

(C) Rapid growth of part of the tendril away from the point of contact with the support. [1 mark]

Q10.2026 Exam 2 31/7/1 · Q41 mark

Identify the hormone that regulates carbohydrate, protein and fat metabolism in the body :

  1. Growth hormone
  2. Adrenaline
  3. Thyroxin
  4. Testosterone
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Exam 2), Q.P. Code 31/7/1

(C) Thyroxin [1 mark]

Q11.2026 Exam 2 31/8/1 · Q31 mark

Identify the gland that enables the human beings to deal with an emergency situation.

  1. Pineal gland
  2. Pituitary gland
  3. Adrenal gland
  4. Pancreatic gland
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Exam 2), Q.P. Code 31/8/1

(C) Adrenal gland [1 mark]

Q12.2026 Exam 2 31/8/1 · Q51 mark

A man underwent MRI of brain which shows some defects in the cerebellum of his brain. Which activity of that person will be affected ?

  1. Heart beat
  2. Feeling of hunger and thirst
  3. Reflexes
  4. Walking in straight line
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Exam 2), Q.P. Code 31/8/1

(D) Walking in straight line [1 mark]

Q13.2025 Main 31/1/1 · Q91 mark

The plant hormone whose concentration stimulates the cells to grow longer on the side of the shoot which is away from light is :

  1. Cytokinins
  2. Gibberellins
  3. Adrenaline
  4. Auxins
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/1/1

(D) Auxins [1 mark]

Q14.2025 Main 31/2/1 · Q81 mark

Observe the given figures A and B. When chhui-mui (sensitive) plant is touched, its leaves fold. This is due to :

Figure

  1. Hormonal effect
  2. Thermal effect
  3. Change in amount of water in cells
  4. Electromagnetic effect
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/2/1

(C) Change in amount of water in cells [1 mark]

Q15.2025 Main 31/3/1 · Q71 mark

The part of the brain which maintains the posture and balance of the body is :

  1. Pons
  2. Cerebrum
  3. Cerebellum
  4. Medulla
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/3/1

(C) Cerebellum [1 mark]

Q16.2025 Main 31/3/1 · Q81 mark

The plant hormone present in greater concentration in the areas of rapidly dividing cells is :

  1. Auxin
  2. Cytokinins
  3. Gibberellins
  4. Abscisic acid
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/3/1

(B) Cytokinins [1 mark]

Q17.2025 Main 31/3/1 · Q181 mark

Assertion (A) : In our actions of writing or talking, our nervous system communicates with the muscles.

Reason (R) : Cranial nerves and spinal nerves form the peripheral nervous system.

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/3/1

(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A). [1 mark]

Q18.2025 Main 31/5/1 · Q91 mark

Figure

Which among the following is not a neural action controlled by the part of human brain labelled ‘X’ in the figure above ?

  1. Salivation
  2. Hunger
  3. Vomiting
  4. Blood Pressure
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/5/1

(B) Hunger [1 mark]

Q19.2025 Main 31/5/1 · Q111 mark

The plant hormones promoting rapid cell division in seeds and wilting of leaves respectively are

  1. Auxins and Abscisic acid
  2. Cytokinins and Abscisic acid
  3. Gibberellins and Auxins
  4. Abscisic acid and Gibberellins
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/5/1

(B) Cytokinins and Abscisic acid [1 mark]

Q20.2025 Main 31/6/1 · Q91 mark

A pair of endocrine glands located in the human brain is

  1. Parathyroid and Pituitary
  2. Pineal and Thymus
  3. Hypothalamus and Thymus
  4. Hypothalamus and Pineal
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/6/1

(D) Hypothalamus and Pineal [1 mark]

Q21.2025 Supplementary 31/S/1 · Q71 mark

The part of the hindbrain present immediately above the medulla is :

  1. Cerebellum
  2. Pons
  3. Cerebrum
  4. Spinal cord
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Supplementary), Q.P. Code 31/S/1

(B) Pons [1 mark]

Q22.2025 Supplementary 31/S/1 · Q81 mark

Application of Abscisic acid on plants promotes :

  1. Development of fruits
  2. Wilting of leaves
  3. Elongation of stem
  4. Formation of flowers
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Supplementary), Q.P. Code 31/S/1

(B) Wilting of leaves [1 mark]

Q23.2024 Main 31/1/1 · Q101 mark

In a nerve cell, the site where the electrical impulse is converted into a chemical signal is known as :

  1. Axon
  2. Dendrites
  3. Neuromuscular junction
  4. Cell body
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2024 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/1/1

(C) Neuromuscular junction [1 mark]

Q24.2024 Main 31/2/1 · Q91 mark

Select out of the following a gland which does NOT occur as a pair in the human body :

  1. Pituitary
  2. Ovary
  3. Testis
  4. Adrenal
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2024 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/2/1

(A) Pituitary [1 mark]

Q25.2024 Main 31/3/1 · Q81 mark

Select from the following a plant hormone which promotes cell division.

  1. Gibberellins
  2. Auxins
  3. Abscissic Acid
  4. Cytokinins
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2024 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/3/1

(D) Cytokinins [1 mark]

Q26.2024 Main 31/4/1 · Q71 mark

A plant growth inhibitor hormone which causes wilting of leaves is called :

  1. Auxin
  2. Cytokinin
  3. Abscisic acid
  4. Gibberellin
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2024 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/4/1

(C) Abscisic acid [1 mark]

Q27.2024 Main 31/5/1 · Q71 mark

The correct sequence of events when someone's hand touches a hot object unconsciously :

  1. Receptors in skin → Motor neuron → Relay neuron → Sensory neuron → Effector muscle in arm
  2. Receptors in skin → Relay neuron → Sensory neuron → Motor neuron → Effector muscle in arm
  3. Receptors in skin → Sensory neuron → Relay neuron → Motor neuron → Effector muscle in arm
  4. Receptors in skin → Sensory neuron → Effector muscle in arm → Motor neuron → Relay neuron
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2024 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/5/1

(C) Receptors in skin → Sensory neuron → Relay neuron → Motor neuron → Effector muscle in arm. [1 mark]

Q28.2024 Main 31/5/1 · Q81 mark

Sense organ in which olfactory receptors are present is :

  1. Nose
  2. Skin
  3. Tongue
  4. Inner ear
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2024 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/5/1

(A) Nose [1 mark]

Q29.2024 Supplementary 31/S/1 · Q91 mark

A doctor advised a person to take an injection of insulin because :

  1. his heart was beating slowly.
  2. his blood pressure was low.
  3. he was looking short in height.
  4. his pancreas was not secreting the required hormone in proper amounts.
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2024 (Supplementary), Q.P. Code 31/S/1

(D) his pancreas was not secreting the required hormone in proper amounts. [1 mark]

Q30.2024 Supplementary 31/S/1 · Q101 mark

The movement of sunflowers is in response to a stimulus such as :

  1. gravity
  2. chemicals
  3. day or night
  4. water
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2024 (Supplementary), Q.P. Code 31/S/1

(C) day or night [1 mark]

Q31.2024 Supplementary 31/S/1 · Q181 mark

Assertion (A) : Chemical co-ordination is seen in both plants and animals.

Reason (R) : Plant hormones control directional growth, whereas in animals, growth is never seen in one direction only.

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2024 (Supplementary), Q.P. Code 31/S/1

(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A). [1 mark]

Q32.2023 Main 31/1/1 · Q111 mark

Select from the following the correct statement about tropic movement in plants :

  1. It is due to stimulus of touch and temperature.
  2. It does not depend upon the direction of stimulus received.
  3. It is observed only in roots and not in stems.
  4. It is a growth related movement.
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2023 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/1/1

(D) It is a growth related movement. [1 mark]

Q33.2023 Main 31/4/1 · Q111 mark

In plants the role of cytokinin is :

  1. Promote cell division.
  2. Wilting of leaves.
  3. Promote the opening of stomatal pore.
  4. Help in the growth of stem.
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2023 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/4/1

(A) Promote cell division. [1 mark]

Q34.2023 Main 31/5/1 · Q111 mark

The part in which gustatory receptors are present in our body is :

  1. inner ear
  2. skin
  3. tongue
  4. inner lining of nose
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2023 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/5/1

(C) tongue [1 mark]

Q35.2023 Main 31/6/1 · Q61 mark

Walking in a straight line and riding a bicycle are the activities which are possible due to a part of the brain. Choose the correct location and name of this part from the given table :

Part of the BrainName
(a)Fore brainCerebrum
(b)Mid brainHypothalamus
(c)Hind brainCerebellum
(d)Hind brainMedulla
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2023 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/6/1

(C) Hind brain – Cerebellum [1 mark]

Q36.2023 Supplementary 31/C/1 · Q181 mark

Assertion (A) : A hormone called abscisic acid inhibits growth in plants.

Reason (R) : The role of auxins is opposite to that of abscisic acid in plants.

Select the correct answer from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below.

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2023 (Supplementary), Q.P. Code 31/C/1

(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A). [1 mark]

Q37.SQP 2025-26 · Q31 mark

Which of the following is a correct combination of function and part of the brain?

  1. Posture and balance: Cerebrum
  2. Salivation: Medulla in midbrain
  3. Hunger: Pons in hindbrain
  4. Blood pressure: Medulla in hindbrain
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CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 Marking Scheme (Class X Science)

(D) Blood pressure: Medulla in hindbrain [1 mark]

Q38.SQP 2025-26 · Q41 mark

The blood glucose level in a patient was very high. It may be due to inadequate secretion of:

  1. growth hormone from pituitary gland
  2. oestrogen from ovary
  3. insulin from pituitary gland
  4. insulin from pancreas
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CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 Marking Scheme (Class X Science)

(D) insulin from pancreas [1 mark]

Q39.2026 Main 31/1/1 · Q112 marks

(a) State two differences between the act of chewing food and salivation on sight of food.

OR

(b) State two differences between pollination and fertilization.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/1/1

(a)

Chewing of foodSalivation on sight of food
i) It is a voluntary action. [1]i) It is a reflex / involuntary action.
ii) It is controlled by forebrain. [1]ii) It is controlled by medulla in the hind brain.

(any other suitable difference)

OR

(b)

PollinationFertilization
i) It is the transfer of pollen grains from anther to the suitable stigma. [1]i) It is the fusion of male gamete with the female gamete.
ii) It occurs in plants. [1]ii) It occurs in both plants and animals.

(any other suitable difference)

Q40.2026 Main 31/2/1 · Q102 marks

(a) “The timing and the amount of hormone secreted by a gland are regulated in the human body.” Justify this statement with the help of an example.

OR

(b) Electrical impulse is an excellent means to transmit information in the animal body, but there are some limitations to the use of electrical impulses. State any two limitations.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/2/1

(a) The timing and amount of hormone released are regulated by feedback mechanism. For example, if the sugar levels in the blood rise, they are detected by the cells of the pancreas which respond by producing more insulin. As the blood sugar level falls, insulin secretion is reduced. [2] (Any other suitable example)

OR

(b)

  • Electrical impulse reaches only those cells that are connected by nervous tissue, not each and every cell in the animal body. [1]
  • Once an electrical impulse is generated in the cell and transmitted, the cell will take some time to reset its mechanism before it can generate and transmit a new impulse. / Transmission of electrical impulses is not a continuous process. [1]
Q41.2026 Main 31/4/1 · Q122 marks

(A) Varun is diabetic. His latest ultrasound reports showed a blockage in his pancreatic duct. How will this affect the dual functioning of the pancreas ?

OR

(B) Sunil unconsciously touched the hot iron rod and immediately withdrew his hand. Which type of action is involved ? Also define this action. Draw a flow chart to show the path followed for this action.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/4/1

(A)

  • As his pancreatic duct is blocked, enzymes for digestion will not be transported to small intestine / The blockage will cause difficulty in digestion of proteins, carbohydrates and fats. [1]
  • Insulin secretion is already affected. [1]

OR

(B)

  • Reflex action [½]
  • An automatic and quick response to a stimulus which does not involve thinking. [½]
  • Stimulus → Receptor → sensory neuron → relay neuron (spinal cord) → Motor neuron → effector (muscle) response. [1]
Q42.2026 Main 31/5/1 · Q112 marks

(A) Observe the given figure and identify the labelled parts P, Q, R and S :

Figure

OR

(B) Which of the plant hormones are responsible for the following processes ?

(i) Promote cell division

(ii) Inhibition of growth

(iii) Detection of light

(iv) Wilting of leaves

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/5/1

(A)

  • P – Receptor / Skin [½]
  • Q – Sensory Neuron [½]
  • R – Relay Neuron [½]
  • S – Effector / Muscles in arm. [½]

OR

(B)

  • (i) Cytokinin [½]
  • (ii) Abscisic acid / ABA [½]
  • (iii) Auxin [½]
  • (iv) Abscisic acid / ABA [½]
Q43.2026 Exam 2 31/8/1 · Q122 marks

The sensitive plant shows movement of leaves in response to touch. Explain such movement briefly.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Exam 2), Q.P. Code 31/8/1

In response to touch, plant cells change shape by changing the amount of water in them, resulting in swelling or shrinking of the cells, to show movement. [2]

Q44.2025 Main 31/2/1 · Q232 marks

Name the parts of hind-brain of the human brain. Which part of the hind-brain controls involuntary actions such as blood pressure and salivation ?

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/2/1

Parts of hind-brain:

  • Pons [½]
  • Medulla [½]
  • Cerebellum [½]

Medulla controls involuntary actions such as blood pressure and salivation. [½]

Q45.2025 Main 31/6/1 · Q222 marks

(a) How is brain protected in our body ?

(b) A doctor finds in one of his patients that he is not maintaining a proper posture and balance of his body. State the region of brain and also the part of brain which is responsible for it.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/6/1
  • (a) Brain is protected in a bony box / skull / cranium / fluid filled balloon. [1]
  • (b) Region of brain: hind brain [½] and its part is cerebellum [½].
Q46.2025 Supplementary 31/S/1 · Q242 marks

(a) Explain how tendrils help a pea plant climb up other plants or fences.

OR

(b) List two major limitations of the use of electrical impulses as a means of communication between the cells in most multicellular animals.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Supplementary), Q.P. Code 31/S/1

(a) Tendrils are sensitive to touch. When they come in contact with any support, the part of tendril in contact with the object does not grow as rapidly as the part of tendril away from the object. This causes the tendril to circle around the object and thus cling to it. [2]

OR

(b)

  • Electrical impulses reach only those cells that are connected by nervous tissue / not each and every cell in animal body is connected by nervous tissue. [1]
  • Once an electrical impulse is generated in a cell and transmitted, the cell takes some time to reset its mechanism to generate a new impulse. [1]
Q47.2024 Main 31/1/1 · Q232 marks

(A) How is the movement of leaves of a sensitive plant different from the downward movement of the roots ?

OR

(B) There is a hormone which regulates carbohydrate, protein and fat metabolism in our body. Name the hormone and the gland which secretes it. Why is it important for us to have iodised salt in our diet ?

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2024 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/1/1

(A)

Movement of leaves of sensitive plantDownward movement of roots
(i)Stimulus is touch.Stimulus is gravity.
(ii)No growth is involved in the movement.Growth is involved in the movement.
(iii)Non directionalDirectional

(Any two; any other suitable difference) [1+1]

OR

(B)

  • Thyroxine [½]
  • Thyroid gland [½]
  • Iodine is necessary for thyroid gland to make thyroxine hormone. Deficiency of iodine in our diet causes goitre. [1]
Q48.2024 Main 31/3/1 · Q222 marks

Where are auxins synthesized ? How do they promote phototropism ?

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2024 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/3/1
  • Synthesized at shoot tip / root tip [½]
  • When light falls on one side of the plant, auxin diffuses towards the shady side of shoot. The concentration of auxin stimulates the cells to grow longer on the side of shoot which is away from light. Thus plant appears bent towards light / phototropism. [1½]
Q49.2024 Supplementary 31/S/1 · Q232 marks

(a) In the diagram given below, name the labelled parts X and Y. Mention one function for each.

Figure

OR

(b) Name the parts of the nervous system which are involved in the following activities :

(i) Maintaining body posture

(ii) Salivation

(iii) Hunger

(iv) Answering a question

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2024 (Supplementary), Q.P. Code 31/S/1

(a)

  • X – Sensory neuron [½]
  • Y – Motor neuron [½]
  • Functions: X: to carry message from skin/sense organs to brain / spinal cord [½]
  • Y: to carry response from brain/spinal cord to muscle / body parts [½]

OR

(b) (i) Cerebellum / Hind brain; (ii) Medulla / Hind brain; (iii) Fore-brain; (iv) Cerebrum / Fore-brain [½ × 4]

Q50.2023 Main 31/1/1 · Q222 marks

(a) Write the role of insulin in regulating blood sugar levels in human body. Mention the disease caused due to it.

(b) How is the timing and the amount of release of insulin in the blood regulated ?

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2023 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/1/1

(a) Lowers blood sugar levels [½]; the disease caused (by its deficiency) is Diabetes [½]

(b) The rise in sugar level in blood produces more insulin; as the blood sugar level falls, secretion is reduced. [1]

Q51.2023 Main 31/4/1 · Q222 marks

(A) Name the part of brain which is responsible for the following actions :

(i) Maintaining posture and balance

(ii) Beating of heart

(iii) Thinking

(iv) Blood pressure

OR

(B) Where are auxins synthesized in a plant ? Which organ of the plant shows :

(i) Positive phototropism

(ii) Negative geotropism

(iii) Positive hydrotropism

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2023 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/4/1

(A) (i) Cerebellum / hind brain [½] (ii) Medulla / hind brain [½] (iii) Cerebrum / fore-brain [½] (iv) Medulla / hind brain [½]

OR

(B) Auxins are synthesised at the tip of shoot / tip of root. [½]

(i) Shoot / stem [½] (ii) Shoot / stem [½] (iii) Roots [½]

Q52.2023 Main 31/5/1 · Q222 marks

Write the name and function of parts (i) and (ii) in the diagram of a neuron given below.

Figure

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2023 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/5/1
  • (i) Dendrite (dendron) – information is acquired. [½, ½]
  • (ii) Axon – through which information travels as an electrical impulse. [½, ½]
Q53.2023 Main 31/6/1 · Q222 marks

(a) List two differences between the movement of leaves of a sensitive plant and the movement of a shoot towards light.

OR

(b) What happens at synapse between two neurons ? State briefly.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2023 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/6/1

(a) Any two differences: [1, 1]

Movement of leaves of sensitive plantMovement of shoot towards light
It is not a growth-related movement.It is due to growth in the plant stem.
FastSlow
Reversible responseIrreversible response
Non-directional movement.Directional movement.
Stimulus – touchStimulus – light

(or any other)

OR

(b) At the synapse the electrical signals are converted into chemicals that can easily cross the gap and pass on to the next neuron, where they are again converted into electric signals. In this way the impulse is transmitted from one neuron to another. [2]

Q54.SQP 2026-27 · Q112 marks

Students to attempt either option A or B.

A. Which parts of the brain perform certain actions for which we do not have any thinking control? What are such actions called, give two examples.

OR

B. How is the information of touch in the 'sensitive plant' controlled and coordinated?

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CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 Marking Scheme (Class X Science)

A. The actions on which we do not have any thinking control are controlled by the mid-brain and hind-brain. These are called involuntary actions. Examples (any two): blood pressure, salivation and vomiting.

OR

B. The information of touch is communicated by electrical-chemical means from cell to cell. Plant cells change shape by changing the amount of water in them, resulting in swelling or shrinking, thus changing shapes and causing movement.

Q55.2026 Main 31/4/1 · Q133 marks

Give reasons for the following :

(a) Adrenal gland is known as the stress gland of the body.

(b) Prenatal sex determination is banned in India.

(c) Vegetative propagation is advantageous in some plants.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/4/1

(a) Because adrenal gland secretes adrenaline hormone that enables the animal body to face a scary situation. [1]

(b) To prevent female foeticide. [1]

(c) [1] (any of):

  • Plants raised by vegetative propagation can bear flowers and fruits earlier than those produced from seeds
  • Such methods also make possible the propagation of plants such as banana, orange, rose and jasmine that have lost the capacity to produce seeds
  • All plants produced are genetically similar enough to the parent plant to have all its characteristics.
Q56.2025 Main 31/1/1 · Q293 marks

Plants have neither a nervous system nor muscles, even then they respond to stimuli. For example, the leaves of chhui-mui (touch-me-not) plant when touched begin to fold up and droop.

(a) How is the information communicated in “touch-me-not” plants ?

(b) What enables the plant cells to bring out the observable response ?

(c) Differentiate the movement mentioned above from the movement of tendrils in a pea plant.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/1/1

(a) Plant cells use electrical–chemical means to convey information. / The information that touch has occurred must be communicated. [1]

(b) Plant cells change shape by changing the amount of water in them (swelling or shrinking). [1]

(c) [1] (any one difference / any other)

Movement in touch-me-not plantMovement of tendrils in pea plant
It is growth independentIt is growth dependent
It does not take place in the direction of stimulusIt takes place in the direction of stimulus
It is also called nastic movementIt is also called tropic movement
Q57.2025 Main 31/2/1 · Q293 marks

(a) Define hormone.

(b) “Hormones should be secreted in precise quantities. We have a feedback mechanism through which this is done.” With the help of an example justify the statement.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/2/1

(a) Hormones are chemical messengers (substances) which regulate body functions / Hormones are the biochemical substances produced in one part of the body and move to the target organ or tissue to regulate body function. [1]

(b) Example (or any other example): If the sugar level in blood rises, it is detected by cells of pancreas, which respond to produce more insulin to lower the blood sugar level. As the blood sugar level falls, it is detected by the cells of pancreas and insulin secretion is reduced. [2]

Q58.2025 Main 31/4/1 · Q303 marks

State two limitations of electrical impulses in multicellular organisms. Why is chemical communication better than electrical impulses as a means of communication between cells in multicellular organisms?

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/4/1

Limitations of electrical impulse (any two):

  • They reach only those cells that are connected by nervous tissue, and not every cell in the animal body. [1]
  • Once an electrical impulse is generated in a cell and transmitted, the cell will take some time to reset its mechanism before it can generate and transmit a new impulse. [1] (any other limitation)

Chemical communication is better: the signals (chemical compounds) potentially reach all cells of the body steadily and persistently, providing the desired changes. [1]

Q59.2024 Main 31/1/1 · Q303 marks

Define reflex action. With the help of a flow chart show the path of a reflex action such as sneezing.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2024 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/1/1

Reflex action is a sudden / spontaneous / immediate action in response to the environment / stimulus e.g. sneezing. [1]

[Flow chart: Stimulus → Receptors (Nose) → Sensory neuron → Spinal cord (Relay neuron) → Motor neuron → Effector (Muscles) → Response] [2]

(any other example)

Q60.2024 Main 31/3/1 · Q303 marks

(a) List two constituents of Central Nervous System (CNS). How are these components protected from injuries ?

(b) Write two limitations of the use of electrical impulses.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2024 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/3/1

(a) Constituents: Brain and Spinal cord. [½ + ½]

Protection: Brain – Bony box / in skull / cranium / fluid filled balloon. [½] Spinal cord – Vertebral column. [½]

(b) Limitations:

  • (i) They will reach only those cells that are connected by nervous tissue, not each and every cell in the animal body. [½]
  • (ii) Once an electrical impulse is generated in a cell and transmitted, the cell will take some time to reset its mechanisms before it can generate and transmit a new impulse. [½]

(Any other)

Q61.2024 Main 31/5/1 · Q293 marks

Taking the example of any two animal hormones along with their gland of secretion, explain how these hormones help (i) in growth and development and (ii) regulate metabolism, in the body.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2024 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/5/1

(i)

  • Growth hormone
  • Secreted by pituitary gland.
  • It stimulates growth in all organs. [½ x 3]

(ii)

  • Thyroxin
  • Secreted by thyroid gland.
  • It regulates carbohydrate, protein and fat metabolism for body growth. [½ x 3]
Q62.2023 Main 31/2/1 · Q303 marks

Name the hormone released and the gland which secretes it in human beings during scary situations. How does the body respond to enable it to deal with the situation ?

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2023 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/2/1
  • Adrenaline hormone; Adrenal gland [½, ½]
  • Response (any 2): [1 × 2]
    • Heart beats faster resulting in supply of more oxygen to muscles
    • Breathing rate increases
    • Blood supply to digestive system and skin reduced
    • Blood supply diverted to skeletal muscles
Q63.2023 Main 31/6/1 · Q293 marks

(a) Name the gland and the hormone secreted by it in scary situations in human beings. List any two responses shown by our body when this hormone is secreted into the blood.

OR

(b) In the given diagram

(i) Name the parts labelled A, B, and C.

(ii) Write the functions of A and C.

(iii) Reflex arcs have evolved in animals ? Why ?

Figure

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2023 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/6/1

(a) Adrenal gland; adrenaline hormone [½, ½]

Response (any two): [1, 1]

  • Heart beats faster resulting in supply of more oxygen to muscles
  • Breathing rate increases
  • Blood supply to digestive system and skin gets reduced
  • Blood supply diverted to skeletal muscles

OR

(b) (i) A – Sensory neuron [½]; B – Relay neuron [½]; C – Effector organ / muscle [½]

(ii) A – carries impulse from receptor to spinal cord [½]; C – responds to stimulus [½]

(iii) The thinking process of the brain is not fast enough / reflex arcs are more efficient in functioning in the absence of true thought processes. [½]

Q64.SQP 2025-26 · Q133 marks

Draw and explain how the nerve cells help in transmission of impulses?

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CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 Marking Scheme (Class X Science)
  • All information from our environment is detected by the specialised tips of some nerve cells. The information acquired at the end of the dendritic tip of a nerve cell (Fig. a), sets off a chemical reaction that creates an electrical impulse.
  • This impulse travels from the dendrite to the cell body, and then along the axon to its end. At the end of the axon, the electrical impulse sets off the release of some chemicals.
  • These chemicals cross the gap, or synapse, and start a similar electrical impulse in a dendrite of the next neuron. This is how nervous impulses travel in the body. (Fig b).

[Diagram expected: a neuron with dendrites, cell body, nucleus, axon and axon end (Fig. a), and the transmission of the impulse across a synapse to the dendrite of the next neuron (Fig. b).]

Q65.SQP 2026-27 · Q133 marks

How do muscles move at the cellular level and respond when processed messages are received from the brain?

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CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 Marking Scheme (Class X Science)
  • When a nerve impulse reaches the muscle, the muscle cells will move by changing their shape so that they shorten.
  • Muscle cells have special proteins that change both their shape and their arrangement in the cell in response to nervous electrical impulses.
  • When this happens, new arrangements of these proteins give the muscle cells a shorter form.
Q66.2026 Main 31/2/1 · Q154 marks

Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow :

A middle-aged person is facing some cognitive changes in himself. His early symptoms included mild forgetfulness. For example, forgetting where he left his mobile or failing to find words to complete his sentences. He was facing problems in driving a car, climbing up and down the stairs, inserting a plug into an outlet. He slowly developed a sad mood and anxiety.

(a) What are voluntary actions ? [1]

(b) Which part of the brain is responsible for precision of voluntary actions ? [1]

(c) (i) Explain the role of the medulla. [2]

OR

(c) (ii) How do the animal muscles move ? [2]

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/2/1

(a) Actions which are controlled by forebrain / Actions which are under our control and are performed according to our will. [1]

(b) Cerebellum. [1]

(c) (i) Regulates involuntary functions like heart rate / blood pressure / breathing / sneezing / vomiting. [2]

OR

(c) (ii) Animal muscles are made up of special proteins, that change both shape and arrangement in response to nervous electrical impulses; new arrangements of these proteins give the muscle cells a shorter form so, muscle cells move which help animals to move. [2]

Q67.2026 Main 31/4/1 · Q154 marks

Plants exhibit movements in response to various environmental stimuli to adopt and survive in their surroundings. These movements, influenced by external factors such as light, gravity, water and chemicals are regulated by specific plant hormones. For example, the differential growth of plant parts allows them to bend, grow or orient themselves in particular directions. Roots and shoots often show contrasting response to the same stimulus, highlighting the complex mechanisms involved in plant growth and development.

(a) Why is hydrotropism essential for plants ?

(b) What role does auxin play in the growth of plants ?

(c) Differentiate between movement shown by the sensitive plant and tropic movement by plants (Two points).

OR

(c) How does movement of roots differ from that of shoots in response to gravity and light ?

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/4/1

(a) Due to hydrotropism, the roots grow towards area of water availability so that they can absorb water and minerals. [1]

(b) Auxins promote cell elongation / Auxin regulates the tropic responses like bending (growth) of stem towards light. [1]

(c)

Movement by sensitive plantsTropic Movements by plants
Non-directionalDirectional
FastSlow
Growth independent movementGrowth related

[1 + 1] (Any two points, any other difference)

OR

(c)

Movement of RootsMovement of Shoots
Gravity: Grows towards gravity / Positive geotropismGravity: Grows away from gravity / Negative geotropism
Light: Grows away from light / Negative phototropismLight: Grows towards light / Positive phototropism

[1 + 1]

Q68.2025 Main 31/3/1 · Q384 marks

A person while climbing up a rocky hill comes into a panic state and fear. His body starts reacting in a “flight-or-flight” condition to adjust to the dangerous and stressful situation. Based on the above facts, answer the questions that follow.

(a) (i) Name the hormone secreted in the blood of the person in this situation. [2]

OR

(a) (ii) Name the source gland of the hormone secreted in this condition. [2]

(b) State any two responses in the body of the person as a result of the secretion of this hormone. [1]

(c) How does the action of the chemical signal in terms of hormones differ from the electrical impulses via nerve cells ? [1]

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/3/1

(a) (i) Adrenaline

OR

(a) (ii) Adrenal gland [2]

(b) (any two) [1]

  • Heart beat becomes faster to supply more oxygen to the muscles
  • Blood supply to the digestive system is reduced
  • Blood supply to the skin is reduced
  • Blood is diverted to the skeletal muscles
  • Breathing rate increases / increased contractions of diaphragm and rib muscles

(c) Chemical signal (hormones) – travels through the bloodstream and reaches a wide range of target cells across the body. Electrical signal – travels through a nerve cell. [1] (any other)

Q69.2025 Main 31/4/1 · Q384 marks

In life there are certain changes in the environment called ‘stimuli’ to which we respond appropriately. Touching a flame suddenly is a dangerous situation for us. One way is to think consciously about the possibility of burning and then moving the hand. But our body has been designed in such a way that we save ourself from such situations immediately.

(i) Name the action by which we protect ourself in the situation mentioned above and define it.

(ii) Write the role of (a) motor and (b) relay neuron.

(iii) (A) What are the two types of nervous system in human body? Name the components of each of them.

OR

(iii) (B) Which part of the human brain is responsible for :

(a) thinking

(b) picking up a pencil

(c) controlling blood pressure

(d) controlling hunger

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/4/1

(i) Reflex action. [½] The sudden action in response to stimuli in the environment. [½]

(ii)

  • (a) Motor neuron: carries message from spinal cord to the effector organ / muscle. [½]
  • (b) Relay neuron: connects sensory neuron to motor neuron. [½]

(iii) (A)

  • Central nervous system. Components: brain; spinal cord
  • Peripheral nervous system. Components: cranial nerves; spinal nerves

[½ × 4]

OR

(iii) (B)

  • (a) Fore-brain / Cerebrum
  • (b) Cerebellum / Hind-brain
  • (c) Medulla / Hind-brain
  • (d) Fore-brain

[½ × 4]

Q70.2025 Main 31/6/1 · Q384 marks

The growth movements of plant parts in which the direction of the stimulus determines the direction of the response is known as tropic movements or tropism. Plants also have non-directional movements which may not be growth dependent.

Figure

(I) Name the movement which causes ‘X’ and ‘Y’ to grow downwards and upwards respectively. (Refer above figure)

(II) Write the name of a hormone that plays a major role in (i) falling of leaves (ii) rapid cell division

(III) (a) Leaves of the sensitive plant move very quickly in response to ‘touch’. How is this stimulus of touch communicated and explain how the movement takes place.

OR

(III) (b) Name the plant hormone which is synthesized at the shoot tip. How does this hormone helps the plant to bend towards light ?

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/6/1
  • (I) ‘X’ – Positive geotropism / Negative phototropism [½]; ‘Y’ – Negative geotropism / Positive phototropism [½]
  • (II) (i) Abscisic acid [½] (ii) Cytokinin [½]
  • (III) (a) The plants use electrical-chemical means to convey information (touch) from cell to cell. [1] Plant cells change shape by changing the amount of water in them, resulting in swelling / shrinking of cells. [1]

OR

  • (III) (b) Auxin [1]. When light is coming from one side of the plant, auxin diffuses towards the shady side of the shoot. This concentration of auxin stimulates the cells to grow longer on the side of the shoot which is away from light. Thus the plant appears to bend towards light. [1]
Q71.2023 Supplementary 31/C/1 · Q384 marks

In animals the control and coordination is provided by nervous and muscular tissues. Nervous tissue is made of an organized network of nerve cells or neurons. In human beings, thinking is a complex activity which involves more complex mechanisms and neural connections. These are concentrated in the brain which is the main coordinating centre of the human body. The brain and spinal cord constitute the Central Nervous System which receives information from all parts of the body and integrates it.

(a) How is the brain protected from shocks and injuries ?

(b) Write the main functions of (i) sensory neuron and (ii) motor neuron in a reflex arc.

(c) Which part of the brain is involved in activities like (i) picking a pencil and (ii) vomiting ? State whether these actions are voluntary or involuntary.

OR

(c) How does the central nervous system communicate with other parts of the body to carry out various activities ? Name two components of this system.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2023 (Supplementary), Q.P. Code 31/C/1

(a) Bony box / cranium, fluid-filled balloon [½, ½]

(b) (i) Sensory neuron – passes information from receptors to the spinal cord. [½] (ii) Motor neuron – transmits information from the spinal cord to the effector organ / muscle. [½]

(c) (i) Cerebellum / hind brain – voluntary action [½ + ½] (ii) Medulla / hind brain – involuntary action [½ + ½]

OR

(c) Through the peripheral nervous system: cranial nerves and spinal nerves. [1] Components: cranial nerves and spinal nerves [½, ½]

Q72.2026 Exam 2 31/7/1 · Q165 marks

Attempt either (a) or (b) :

(a) (i) What are the limitations of electrical impulses in multicellular organisms ?

(ii) (I) In a 'Touch-me-not' plant, movement is seen on touch. Compare it with that of animals.

(II) Name the type of movement shown by the growth of pollen tube towards an ovule.

OR

(b) (i) Reflex arcs have evolved in animals because the thinking process of the brain is not fast enough for all situations. Draw a flow chart showing the path of a reflex arc.

(ii) Given below are some actions/activities. Identify the part of brain involved in controlling them :

(I) Taking a walk in the garden
(II) Dancing
(III) Blood pressure

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Exam 2), Q.P. Code 31/7/1

(a) (i) [1+1]

  • Electrical impulses reach only those cells which are connected by nervous tissue, not each and every cell in the body.
  • Once an electrical impulse is generated in a cell and transmitted, the cell will take some time to reset its mechanism before it can generate and transmit a new impulse.

(ii) (I) [2]

Movement in 'Touch-me-not' plantMovement in animals
1. It uses electro-chemical means to convey the information of touch from cell to cell and there is no specialised tissue for this.
2. Plant cells change shape due to changing amount of water, resulting in swelling or shrinking.
1. In animals there is specialised tissue (muscles) for movements which change shape due to special proteins.
2. In animals muscles contract and relax to bring movements.

(II) Chemotropism [1]

OR

(b) (i) [2]

[Flow chart: Receptor → Sensory neuron → (CNS) Spinal cord → Relay neuron → Motor neuron → Effector]

(ii) (I) Cerebrum / fore brain [1]
(II) Cerebellum [1]
(III) Medulla in hindbrain [1]

Q73.2025 Main 31/5/1 · Q355 marks

(A) (a) Analyse the given situations and interpret the possible reason for each :

(i) Iodine deficiency in diet increases the possibility of a disease of swollen neck in a person.

(ii) Some people in population may have very short heights (dwarfs).

(iii) Thick facial hairs develop in boys at the age of 10-12 years.

(b) Explain two reasons which necessitate the need of chemical communication in multicellular organisms.

OR

(B) (a) Differentiate between voluntary and involuntary action.

(b) Define reflex action. With the help of a flow diagram, show the correct sequence of path of Nerve impulse from place of its origin.

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(A)

  • (a)(i) Iodine is necessary for the thyroid gland to make thyroxin hormone; its deficiency causes goitre. [1]
  • (ii) Deficiency of growth hormone in childhood causes dwarfism. [1]
  • (iii) Secretion of testosterone during puberty in males. [1]
  • (b) Hormones or chemical compounds can potentially reach all cells of the body steadily and persistently. [1] Hormones help to coordinate growth, development and responses to environment. [1]

OR

(B)

(a) Any two [1 + 1]

Voluntary actionInvoluntary action
Thinking is involvedDoes not involve thinking
Controlled by fore-brainControlled by hind-brain
It occurs according to our willIt does not occur according to our will

(any other)

(b) Reflex action: sudden action in response to a stimulus in the environment. [1]

[Flow diagram: Stimulus → Receptors → Sensory neurons → Spinal cord / Brain → Motor neuron → Effector (muscle / gland)] [2]

Q74.2024 Main 31/2/1 · Q355 marks

(a) (i) Distinguish between hormonal co-ordination in plants and animals.

(ii) Which part of the brain is responsible for -

(1) intelligence

(2) riding a bicycle

(3) vomiting

(4) controlling hunger

(iii) How is brain and spinal-cord protected against mechanical injuries ?

OR

(b) (i) What are tropic movements ? Give an example of a plant hormone which (1) inhibits growth and (2) promotes cell division.

(ii) Explain directional movement of a tendril in pea plant in response to touch. Name the hormone responsible for this movement.

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(a)

(i)

Hormonal coordination in plantsHormonal coordination in animals
1) By simple diffusionTransported through blood to the target organ
2) No specialised glands involved.Hormone released by endocrine glands.

[1, 1]

(ii) (1) Cerebrum / forebrain, (2) Cerebellum / hindbrain, (3) Medulla / hindbrain, (4) Hypothalamus / forebrain. [½ x 4]

(iii) Brain – Bony box / skull / cranium / fluid filled balloon in skull [½]; Spinal cord – Backbone / vertebral column. [½]

OR

(b)

(i) Plant growth movements in response to stimuli in a particular direction / directional movements due to light, gravity etc. [1]

(1) Plant growth inhibitor: Abscisic acid [½]

(2) Promotes cell division: Cytokinins [½]

(ii) When the tendrils come in contact with any support, auxins move away from the point of contact of the support. More growth occurs on the side away from the support. As a result, unequal growth occurs on its two sides and thus tendrils coil / circle around the support. [2]

Auxins [1]

Q75.2024 Main 31/4/1 · Q355 marks

(a) (i) Define a reflex arc. Why have reflex arcs evolved in animals ? Trace the sequence of events which occur, when you suddenly touch a hot object.

(ii) Name the part of nervous system which helps in communication between the central nervous system and other parts of the body. What are the two components of this system ?

OR

(b) (i) Leaves of chhui-mui plant begin to fold up and droop in response to a stimulus. Name the stimulus and write the cause for such a rapid movement. Is there any growth involved in the movement ?

(ii) Define geotropism in plants. What is meant by positive and negative geotropism ? Give one example of each type.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2024 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/4/1

(a)

(i)

  • The pathway in which impulses travel during the reflex action is called a reflex arc. [1]
  • Because the thinking part of the brain is not fast enough / for quick response to avoid injury. [½]
  • Reflex arc: [Flow chart: Hot plate (stimulus) → Receptors (like skin) → Sensory neurons → Spinal cord → Motor neurons → Effectors (like muscles) → Response] [1+½]

(ii) Peripheral Nervous System [1]. Components: Cranial nerves; Spinal nerves [½; ½]

OR

(b)

(i)

  • Touch [½]
  • The shape of the leaves changes by changing the amount of water in them. [1]
  • No [½]

(ii) Growth of a part of plant in response to the pull of earth or gravity is called geotropism. [1]

  • Positive geotropism − Movement of plant part towards the earth gravity. Example − Roots grow downwards [½+½]
  • Negative geotropism − Movement of plant part away from the force of gravity. Example − Shoots grow upwards. [½+½]
Q76.2023 Main 31/2/1 · Q355 marks

(a) (i) List three points of difference between nervous and hormonal mechanisms for control and coordination in animals.

(ii) How are auxins related with the bending of plant shoot towards unidirectional light ? Explain.

OR

(b) (i) Name the disorder which a person is likely to suffer from due to the following :

(I) Over-secretion of growth hormone

(II) Deficiency of oestrogen in females

(III) Less secretion of thyroxine

Also name the gland that secretes each of the hormones mentioned above.

(ii) How is the timing and amount of hormone released regulated ? Explain with the help of an example.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2023 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/2/1

(a) (i) Any three differences: [1 × 3]

Nervous controlHormonal control
1. Messages are sent as electrical impulses.Messages are carried in the form of chemicals (hormones).
2. It is carried through neurons.It is carried through blood.
3. Nerve impulses produce rapid responses.Hormones produce slow responses.
4. Nerve impulses produce short-lived responses.Hormones produce long-lasting responses.

(or any other)

(ii) When the growing shoot is exposed to unidirectional light, auxin shifts towards the shaded side. [1] More auxin causes more growth of the shoot on the shaded side, resulting in bending of the stem towards the source of light. [1]

OR

(b) (i) [½ × 6]

DisorderGland
(I)GigantismPituitary
(II)Delay in pubertyOvary
(III)GoitreThyroid

(ii) The timing and amount of hormone released are regulated by feedback mechanisms. [1] Example: if the sugar level in the blood rises, more insulin is produced; as the blood sugar level falls, insulin secretion is reduced. [1]

Unit II · World of Living

3. How do Organisms Reproduce?

Q1.2026 Main 31/1/1 · Q21 mark

Identify the type of reproduction shown in the diagram given below :

Figure

  1. Budding
  2. Fragmentation
  3. Spore Formation
  4. Binary Fission
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/1/1

(D) Binary Fission [1 mark]

Q2.2026 Main 31/1/1 · Q31 mark

Identify the correct statement for spirogyra, leishmania and hydra :

  1. they reproduce sexually.
  2. they are unicellular.
  3. they are multicellular.
  4. they reproduce asexually.
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/1/1

(D) they reproduce asexually [1 mark]

Q3.2026 Main 31/2/1 · Q31 mark

Spirogyra, despite being a multi-cellular organism, still shows a simple reproductive method. Select the correct option with regard to reproduction in Spirogyra :

  1. Asexual reproduction by division of cells into two cells
  2. Sexual reproduction by division of cells into many cells
  3. Asexual reproduction by breaking up of Spirogyra filaments into smaller parts
  4. Sexual reproduction by the formation of gametes after meiosis of cells of filaments followed by fusion of male and female gametes
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/2/1

(C) Asexual reproduction by breaking up of Spirogyra filaments into smaller parts. [1 mark]

Q4.2026 Main 31/4/1 · Q21 mark

If the part ‘P’ of the flower is removed, which of the following processes will not take place ?

Figure

  1. Formation of pollens
  2. Formation of flower
  3. Formation of fruit
  4. Formation of seed
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/4/1

(C) Formation of fruit. [1 mark]

Q5.2026 Main 31/4/1 · Q81 mark

Assertion (A) : Variations are not often seen in off-springs produced by asexual reproduction.

Reason (R) : DNA molecule generated by replication is not similar to the original DNA.

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/4/1

(C) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false. [1 mark]

Q6.2026 Main 31/5/1 · Q41 mark

In human beings, the implantation of fertilised egg takes place in which part of female reproductive system ?

  1. Oviduct
  2. Cervix
  3. Uterus
  4. Vagina
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/5/1

(C) Uterus [1 mark]

Q7.2026 Main 31/5/1 · Q81 mark

Assertion (A) : Bacteria that can withstand heat have better chances of survival in a heat wave.

Reason (R) : Accumulation of variations in a species increases the chances of its survival in changing environment.

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/5/1

(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. [1 mark]

Q8.2026 Exam 2 31/7/1 · Q51 mark

From the following, identify the sexually transmitted diseases caused by bacteria.

(i) Warts   (ii) Gonorrhoea   (iii) AIDS   (iv) Syphilis

Choose the correct option :

  1. (iii) and (iv)
  2. (i) and (iii)
  3. (i) and (ii)
  4. (ii) and (iv)
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Exam 2), Q.P. Code 31/7/1

(D) (ii) and (iv) [1 mark]

Q9.2026 Exam 2 31/8/1 · Q81 mark

Directions: Questions 8 and 9 consist of two statements - Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option from (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below.

Assertion (A) : In regeneration, organisms have the ability to give rise to new individual organisms from their body parts.

Reason (R) : Simple animals like Hydra and Planaria show regeneration.

  1. Both, Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  2. Both, Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Exam 2), Q.P. Code 31/8/1

(B) (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the reason (correct explanation) for (A). [1 mark]

Q10.2025 Main 31/1/1 · Q101 mark

The correct/true statement(s) for a bisexual flower is/are :

(i) They possess both stamen and pistil.

(ii) They possess either stamen or pistil.

(iii) They exhibit either self-pollination or cross-pollination.

(iv) They cannot produce fruits on their own.

  1. (i) only
  2. (iv) only
  3. (i) and (iii)
  4. (i) and (iv)
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/1/1

(C) (i) and (iii) [1 mark]

Q11.2025 Main 31/2/1 · Q91 mark

Bryophyllum produces new plant through :

  1. Apical buds formed on the tip of the plant
  2. Vegetative buds produced in the notches of the leaf
  3. Flowers produced in the notches of the branches
  4. Fruits formed on the branches of the plant
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/2/1

(B) Vegetative buds produced in the notches of the leaf [1 mark]

Q12.2025 Main 31/2/1 · Q101 mark

The number of chromosomes in a cell division is halved. This kind of cell division is observed in :

  1. Only testis
  2. Only ovary
  3. Ovary and testis both
  4. All cells of the body
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/2/1

(C) Ovary and testis both [1 mark]

Q13.2025 Main 31/3/1 · Q61 mark

Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option from the choices provided.

Column-IColumn-II
a.Site of fertilisation of egg with the sperm(i)Vagina
b.Site of implantation of embryo(ii)Uterus
c.Site of entry of sperm into the female reproductive tract(iii)Oviduct
d.Site through which the waste materials generated by the developing embryo are removed(iv)Placenta
(v)Cervix
  1. a-(ii), b-(i), c-(v), d-(iv)
  2. a-(iii), b-(i), c-(v), d-(iv)
  3. a-(iv), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(i)
  4. a-(iii), b-(ii), c-(i), d-(iv)
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/3/1

(D) a-(iii), b-(ii), c-(i), d-(iv) [1 mark]

Q14.2025 Main 31/3/1 · Q91 mark

Select a pair of bisexual flowers from the following :

  1. Papaya and mustard
  2. Hibiscus and mustard
  3. Hibiscus and papaya
  4. Hibiscus and watermelon
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/3/1

(B) Hibiscus and mustard [1 mark]

Q15.2025 Main 31/4/1 · Q71 mark

Plants like rose and banana have lost the capacity to produce :

  1. flowers
  2. buds
  3. seeds
  4. fruits
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/4/1

(C) seeds [1 mark]

Q16.2025 Main 31/4/1 · Q81 mark

In a bisexual flower the male gametes are present in the :

  1. anther
  2. ovary
  3. stigma
  4. filament
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/4/1

(A) anther [1 mark]

Q17.2025 Main 31/5/1 · Q101 mark

The modes of reproduction in Spirogyra and Planaria respectively are

  1. Regeneration and budding
  2. Regeneration and fragmentation
  3. Fragmentation and regeneration
  4. Budding and regeneration
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/5/1

(C) Fragmentation and regeneration [1 mark]

Q18.2025 Main 31/5/1 · Q181 mark

Assertion (A) : The embryo gets nutrition from the mother's blood with the help of a special tissue called placenta.

Reason (R) : Placenta is a disc which is embedded in the uterine wall.

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/5/1

(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A). [1 mark]

Q19.2025 Main 31/6/1 · Q101 mark

Select the option having correct matching of the organism given in Column I with the mode of reproduction in Column II :

Column IColumn II
P. Leishmania1. Regeneration
Q. Spirogyra2. Multiple Fission
R. Planaria3. Binary Fission
S. Plasmodium4. Fragmentation
5. Budding
  1. P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-3
  2. P-3, Q-4, R-5, S-2
  3. P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2
  4. P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/6/1

(C) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2 [1 mark]

Q20.2025 Supplementary 31/S/1 · Q91 mark

The end product of meiosis in a reproductive cell in plants is :

  1. Zygote
  2. Pollen grains
  3. Sperms
  4. Egg
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Supplementary), Q.P. Code 31/S/1

(B) Pollen grains [1 mark]

Q21.2024 Main 31/1/1 · Q161 mark

In which of the following organisms, multiple fission is a means of asexual reproduction ?

  1. Yeast
  2. Leishmania
  3. Paramoecium
  4. Plasmodium
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(D) Plasmodium [1 mark]

Q22.2024 Main 31/2/1 · Q111 mark

Identify the mode of asexual reproduction in the following organism :

Figure

  1. Fragmentation
  2. Multiple fission
  3. Budding
  4. Binary fission
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(C) Budding [1 mark]

Q23.2024 Main 31/3/1 · Q91 mark

Part(s) of a flower which attracts insects for pollination is (are)

  1. petals and Sepals
  2. anther and Stigma
  3. petals only
  4. sepals only
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(C) Petals only [1 mark]

Q24.2024 Main 31/3/1 · Q181 mark

Assertion (A) : Offsprings produced by asexual reproduction are genetically similar to the parents.

Reason (R) : Asexual reproduction involves a single parent.

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  2. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
  3. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
  4. (A) is false, but (R) is true.
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2024 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/3/1

(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A). [1 mark]

Q25.2024 Main 31/4/1 · Q81 mark

The plants that can be raised by the method of vegetative propagation are :

  1. Sugarcane, roses, grapes
  2. Sugarcane, mustard, potato
  3. Banana, orange, mustard
  4. Papaya, mustard, potato
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2024 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/4/1

(A) Sugarcane, roses, grapes [1 mark]

Q26.2024 Main 31/4/1 · Q91 mark

The part of seed which is a source of food during germination of seed is :

  1. Cotyledon
  2. Radicle
  3. Plumule
  4. Embryo
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2024 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/4/1

(A) Cotyledon [1 mark]

Q27.2024 Main 31/5/1 · Q91 mark

The incorrect statement about placenta is :

  1. It is a disc embedded in the uterine wall.
  2. It contains villi on the embryo's side of the tissue.
  3. It has a very small surface area for glucose and oxygen to pass from mother to the embryo.
  4. The embryo gets nutrition from the mother's blood through it.
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2024 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/5/1

(C) It has a very small area for glucose and oxygen to pass from mother to the embryo [1 mark]

Q28.2024 Main 31/5/1 · Q101 mark

Select from the following the conditions responsible for the rapid spread of bread mould on a slice of bread :

(i) Formation of large number of spores

(ii) Presence of moisture and nutrients in bread

(iii) Low temperature

(iv) Presence of hyphae

  1. (i) and (ii)
  2. (ii) and (iv)
  3. (ii) and (iii)
  4. (iii) and (iv)
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2024 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/5/1

(A) (i) and (ii) [1 mark]

Q29.2024 Supplementary 31/S/1 · Q111 mark

In bread mould, the structures labelled A and B respectively are :

Figure
  1. hyphae and spore
  2. root and sporangium
  3. hyphae and sporangium
  4. root and spores
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2024 (Supplementary), Q.P. Code 31/S/1

(A) hyphae and spore / (C) hyphae and sporangium [1 mark]

Marking scheme note: any one is correct as the diagram is not clear.

Q30.2023 Main 31/1/1 · Q121 mark

Select the INCORRECT match (between the plant and its vegetative part) from the following :

  1. Bryophyllum, leaf
  2. Potato, stem
  3. Money-plant, stem
  4. Rose, root
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(D) Rose, root [1 mark]

Q31.2023 Main 31/2/1 · Q111 mark

Plants which bear unisexual flowers are :

  1. Mustard and Papaya
  2. Hibiscus and Watermelon
  3. Mustard and Hibiscus
  4. Watermelon and Papaya
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2023 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/2/1

(D) Watermelon and Papaya [1 mark]

Q32.2023 Main 31/2/1 · Q181 mark

Assertion (A) : When a bacterium divides into two, and the resultant two bacteria divide again, the four bacteria produced would be almost similar.

Reason (R) : DNA copying involves small inaccuracies in the reproduction process.

Select the correct answer from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below.

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2023 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/2/1

(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A). [1 mark]

Q33.2023 Main 31/4/1 · Q121 mark

The number of chromosomes in parents and offsprings of a particular species undergoing sexual reproduction remain constant due to :

  1. doubling of chromosomes after zygote formation.
  2. halving of chromosomes after zygote formation.
  3. doubling of chromosomes before gamete formation.
  4. halving of chromosomes at the time of gamete formation.
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2023 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/4/1

(D) halving of chromosomes at the time of gamete formation. [1 mark]

Q34.2023 Main 31/5/1 · Q121 mark

The bacterial and the viral infections that may be caused due to unsafe sex respectively are :

  1. Warts and HIV-AIDS
  2. HIV-AIDS and Warts
  3. Gonorrhoea and Syphilis
  4. Syphilis and Warts
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2023 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/5/1

(D) Syphilis and Warts [1 mark]

Q35.2023 Main 31/6/1 · Q111 mark

Choose the correct order of the stages of binary fission in Leishmania.

Figure

  1. I, II, III, IV, V
  2. I, III, II, V, IV
  3. I, III, V, II, IV
  4. I, II, III, V, IV
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2023 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/6/1

(B) I, III, II, V, IV [1 mark]

Q36.2023 Main 31/6/1 · Q141 mark

Consider the following three flowers namely X, Y and Z. Which flower(s) would develop into a fruit ?

Figure

  1. ‘X’ only
  2. ‘Z’ only
  3. ‘X’ and ‘Y’ only
  4. ‘Y’ and ‘Z’
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2023 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/6/1

(C) ‘X’ and ‘Y’ only [1 mark]

Q37.2023 Supplementary 31/C/1 · Q101 mark

The organism in which an outgrowth on the parent body develops into a new individual is :

  1. Amoeba
  2. Paramecium
  3. Rhizopus
  4. Yeast
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2023 (Supplementary), Q.P. Code 31/C/1

(D) Yeast [1 mark]

Q38.SQP 2026-27 · Q41 mark

In a controlled experiment, the anthers of a mustard plant's flowers were carefully removed in the bud stage before they matured. The bud was covered with a paper bag.

What will be the most likely result for these flowers?

  1. They will still produce seeds and fruit through self-pollination.
  2. They will attract more insects and produce larger flowers but no fruit.
  3. They will not produce any seeds or fruits.
  4. They will produce seeds and fruits that are genetically identical to the parent.
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CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 Marking Scheme (Class X Science)

(C) They will not produce any seeds or fruits. [1 mark]

Q39.SQP 2026-27 · Q51 mark

The Vas deferens and the Oviduct are both targets for surgical contraception (Vasectomy and Tubectomy respectively). Analysing the process of reproduction, what common biological event is prevented by blocking both these structures?

  1. The production of gametes (sperm and egg).
  2. The implantation of the fertilized egg into the uterine wall.
  3. The successful meeting and fusion of the male and the female gametes.
  4. The release of hormones - testosterone and estrogen.
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CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 Marking Scheme (Class X Science)

(C) The successful meeting and fusion of the male and the female gametes [1 mark]

Q40.2026 Main 31/1/1 · Q122 marks

Draw a neat diagram to show germination of pollen on the female reproductive part of the flower. Name and label only the following parts :

(a) The part that receives the pollen grain.

(b) The structure that carries the male germ cell to reach the female germ cell.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/1/1

[Diagram: longitudinal section of a pistil showing pollen grain germinating on the stigma, with the pollen tube growing down through the style towards the ovule in the ovary; labels (a) Stigma and (b) Pollen tube.] [Diagram 1]

(a) Stigma [½]

(b) Pollen tube [½]

Q41.2026 Main 31/2/1 · Q112 marks

“Variation is useful for the survival of species over time.” Explain this statement with the help of an example.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/2/1

Variation provides chance for species to survive under unfavourable / changing environmental conditions. e.g. if there were a population of bacteria living in temperate waters and if water temperature increased by global warming, most of these bacteria would die but the few variants resistant to heat would survive and grow further. [2] (or any other suitable example)

Q42.2026 Exam 2 31/7/1 · Q112 marks

(a) In a tobacco plant, the male gametes have twenty-four chromosomes. The number of chromosomes in the female gametes is also twenty-four. What is the number of chromosomes in the zygote produced ? How is the chromosome number in the zygote re-established ?

OR

(b) Draw a diagram of the longitudinal section of a flower and label : Sepal, Petal, Ovary and Stigma.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Exam 2), Q.P. Code 31/7/1

(a)

  • Number of chromosomes in the zygote: 48 [1]
  • When the two gametes combine during sexual reproduction (by fertilisation to form the zygote), the chromosome number is re-established. [1]

OR

(b) [Diagram: longitudinal section of a flower showing sepal, petal, ovary and stigma (along with stamen, style, ovule, etc.), correctly labelled.] [½ x 4]

Q43.2026 Exam 2 31/7/1 · Q122 marks

Following are the diagrammatic representations of different organisms performing a process.

Figure

(i) Identify the organisms (a) and (b).

(ii) Name the process commonly shown in both the figures.

(iii) How is this process advantageous to the organisms ?

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Exam 2), Q.P. Code 31/7/1

(i) (a) Hydra [½]; (b) Bryophyllum [½]

(ii) Asexual reproduction. [½]

(iii) New generation / new individuals can be created from a single parent; produces many offspring in lesser time. [½]

Q44.2025 Main 31/1/1 · Q222 marks

Draw labelled diagrams to show different stages of budding in Hydra.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/1/1

[Diagram: three successive stages of budding in Hydra – a bud developing as an outgrowth on the parent body, the bud growing larger with developing tentacles, and the fully grown bud attached to / detaching from the parent. Labelled: Tentacles, Bud.]

[Diagram 1 + Labelling 1 = 2 marks]

Q45.2025 Main 31/2/1 · Q242 marks

(a) Write one function each of the following, in a seed :

(i) Seed coat

(ii) Cotyledon

(iii) Radicle

(iv) Plumule

OR

(b) Write the main steps to culture yeast in the laboratory.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/2/1

(a)

  • (i) Seed coat: Protects the seed [½]
  • (ii) Cotyledon: Food storage area of the seed / reserve food material [½]
  • (iii) Radicle: Develops into root on germination of seed / future root [½]
  • (iv) Plumule: Develops into shoot on germination of seed / future shoot [½]

OR

(b)

  • In a test tube take 10 g sugar, add 100 mL of water and a pinch of yeast granules.
  • Keep it in a warm place for 1–2 hours. [2 marks for the steps]
Q46.2025 Main 31/5/1 · Q222 marks

Give reasons :

(a) The male reproductive organ responsible for formation of germ cells is located outside the abdominal cavity.

(b) The roles of the glands, present along the path of the vas-deferens, are very significant.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/5/1
  • (a) Provides a lower temperature than the normal body temperature for sperm formation. [1]
  • (b) The secretion of the glands helps in the transport of sperms and provides nutrition. [1]
Q47.2024 Main 31/2/1 · Q232 marks

"Stability of DNA in a species is ensured during sexual reproduction." Justify the statement.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2024 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/2/1
  • Every germ cell takes one chromosome from each pair, either of maternal or paternal origin. [1]
  • When two germ cells from parents combine, it will restore the original number of chromosomes in the progeny ensuring the stability of DNA of the species. [1]
Q48.2024 Main 31/4/1 · Q242 marks

The survival of a species is promoted through creation of variations. Illustrate with an example.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2024 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/4/1

Example – A population of bacteria living in temperate waters that can withstand heat due to the rise in temperature due to global warming will survive better in a heat wave than the non-variant bacteria having no capacity to tolerate heat wave. Thus, suitable variations promote survival. (Any other example) [2]

Q49.2024 Main 31/5/1 · Q242 marks

Some unicellular organisms such as Plasmodium and Leishmania differ in the manner in which they reproduce. Name and explain the reproductive process taking place in them.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2024 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/5/1
  • Plasmodium: Multiple fission – A single cell divides into many daughter cells simultaneously. [½ + ½]
  • Leishmania: Binary fission – Splitting of one cell into two daughter cells in definite orientation. [½ + ½]
Q50.2024 Supplementary 31/S/1 · Q222 marks

List two ways due to which variations arise in a population. State the importance of variation.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2024 (Supplementary), Q.P. Code 31/S/1

Two ways:

1. Errors in DNA copying mechanism [½]

2. Sexual reproduction [½]

Importance (any one) [1]:

  • Helps a species to survive
  • Helps an organism to adapt to the changing environment
  • Forms the basis of evolution

(or any other)

Q51.2023 Supplementary 31/C/1 · Q222 marks

Name the glands which add their secretions to the sperms. List two function of these secretions.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2023 (Supplementary), Q.P. Code 31/C/1
  • Prostate gland and seminal vesicles [½, ½]
  • (1) It provides nutrition to the sperms. [½]
  • (2) It makes the transport of sperms easier through the fluid medium. [½]
Q52.2022 Main 31/1/1 · Q32 marks

(a) Which of the following flowers will have higher possibility of self-pollination ?

Mustard, Papaya, Watermelon, Hibiscus

(b) List the two reproductive parts of a bisexual flower.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2022 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/1/1

(a) Mustard and Hibiscus [½ + ½]

(b) Stamens and Pistil / Carpel [½ + ½]

Q53.2022 Main 31/1/1 · Q42 marks

Which one of the two multicellular organisms Spirogyra and Planaria reproduces by regeneration and why ? Give an example of any other organism which can also reproduce by the same process.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2022 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/1/1
  • Planaria [½]
  • Regeneration is carried out by specialised cells which are not present in Spirogyra. [1]
  • Hydra [½]
Q54.2022 Main 31/2/1 · Q32 marks

Give reasons :

(i) Placenta is extremely essential for foetal development.

(ii) Uterine lining becomes thick and spongy after fertilisation.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2022 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/2/1

(i) Placenta is extremely essential because it

  • provides nutrients / glucose / oxygen to the growing embryo. [½]
  • removes waste generated by the embryo by transferring it into the mother's blood through it. [½]

(ii) Uterine lining becomes thick and spongy, which is required to provide nourishment to the fertilised egg (embryo). [1]

Q55.2022 Main 31/2/1 · Q42 marks

(a) Name the reproductive and non-reproductive parts of bread mould (Rhizopus).

(b) List any two advantages of vegetative propagation.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2022 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/2/1

(a) Reproductive part: Sporangia / Spores [½]; Non-reproductive part: Hyphae [½]

(b) Any two:

  • Plants raised by vegetative propagation can bear flowers and fruits much earlier than those produced from seeds.
  • It is important for plants that have lost the capacity to produce seeds.
  • All plants formed by this method are genetically similar to the parent plant and have all its characteristics. (or any other)

[½ + ½]

Q56.2022 Main 31/2/1 · Q52 marks

Name the reproductive parts of an angiosperm. Where are these parts located ? Explain the structure of its male reproductive part.

OR

What is puberty ? Mention any two changes that are common to both boys and girls in early teenage years.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2022 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/2/1
  • Stamen [½]
  • Pistil / Carpel [½]
  • Located in the flower [½]
  • The male reproductive part consists of anther and filament. [½] (give full credit to a labelled diagram of stamen)

OR

  • The stage at which the rate of general body growth begins to slow down and the reproductive tissues begin to mature. [1]
  • Two common changes (any two): thick hair growing in armpits and genital area; skin becomes oily; thin hair on legs and arms (or any other). [½ + ½]
Q57.2022 Main 31/3/1 · Q52 marks

Suggest any two contraceptive methods to control the size of human population and explain them.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2022 (Term 2), Q.P. Code 31/3/1

Any two: [1 + 1]

  • Barrier method: prevents the meeting of sperms with ova.
  • Oral pills / chemical method: changes the hormonal balance in females so eggs are not released.
  • Copper-T or loop: to prevent pregnancy / to prevent fusion of male and female gametes.
  • Surgical method: to block the vas deferens in males or fallopian tube in females to prevent fertilization.
Q58.2022 Main 31/3/1 · Q72 marks

Name the part/organ of the human female reproductive system

(a) where contraceptive devices such as loop or copper-T are placed to prevent pregnancy.

(b) which is blocked to prevent the transfer of eggs.

(c) where formation of green cells as ova takes place.

(d) from where the embryo gets nutrition from the mother's blood.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2022 (Term 2), Q.P. Code 31/3/1

(a) Uterus [½]

(b) Fallopian tube or oviduct [½]

(c) Ovary (As the question has a printing error, half mark is awarded to all students irrespective of attempted/non-attempted.) [½]

(d) Placenta [½]

Q59.2022 Main 31/4/1 · Q42 marks

Mention the functions of (a) Placenta (b) Fallopian tubes (c) Uterus and (d) Ovary in the human female reproductive system.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2022 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/4/1

(a) Placenta: helps in the transportation of glucose and oxygen from the mother to the embryo / removal of waste. [½]

(b) Fallopian tubes: egg is carried from the ovary to the uterus / site of fertilisation. [½]

(c) Uterus: helps in the development of the embryo / implantation. [½]

(d) Ovary: production of female gamete or ovum / secretion of female sex hormone. [½]

Q60.2022 Main 31/4/1 · Q62 marks

(a) Differentiate between binary fission in Amoeba and binary fission in Leishmania.

(b) How does reproduction take place in malarial parasite ?

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2022 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/4/1

(a)

  • In Amoeba, the splitting of the two cells during division can take place in any plane. [½]
  • In Leishmania, binary fission occurs in a definite orientation in relation to its whip-like structure. [½]

(b) Malarial parasite / Plasmodium divides into many daughter cells simultaneously by multiple fission. [1]

Q61.2022 Supplementary 31/6/1 · Q32 marks

How is the number of chromosomes in the progeny of sexually reproducing organisms re-established ? Explain.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2022 (Supp), Q.P. Code 31/6/1
  • Sexually reproducing organisms produce germ cells / gametes in reproductive organs which have half the number of chromosomes. [1]
  • When these germ cells / gametes fuse, the number of chromosomes is restored / re-established. [1]
Q62.2022 Supplementary 31/6/1 · Q42 marks

Name the parts A, B and C of the diagram given below. Write a function of the part B.

Figure

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2022 (Supp), Q.P. Code 31/6/1
  • A: Pollen grain [½]
  • B: Male germ cell [½]
  • C: Female germ cell [½]
  • Function of B: it fuses with the female germ cell to form zygote. [½]
Q63.SQP 2026-27 · Q122 marks

What changes are observed in the uterus subsequent to implantation of the young embryo in a human female?

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CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 Marking Scheme (Class X Science)
  • Uterine lining thickens and is richly supplied with blood vessels to nourish the embryo.
  • Placental connection is developed between the uterus and embryo.
Q64.2025 Main 31/5/1 · Q303 marks

(a) Define fertilisation.

(b) What happens to Zygote, Ovule, Ovary and Stamens after fertilisation in a flowering plant ?

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/5/1
  • (a) Fertilisation is the fusion of male and female gametes to form zygote. [1]
  • (b) Zygote forms embryo; Ovule forms seeds; Ovary forms fruits; Stamens wither away (shrivel and fall off). [½ × 4]
Q65.2024 Main 31/2/1 · Q303 marks

Explain the events that take place once a sperm reaches the oviduct till it becomes a foetus. Write the role of placenta in pregnancy.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2024 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/2/1
  • In the oviduct, sperm encounters the egg and fertilisation takes place. [½]
  • The fertilized egg (zygote) starts dividing and forms a ball of cells or embryo. [½]
  • Embryo is implanted in the lining of the uterus, where it continues to grow and develops organs to become a foetus. [½, ½]
  • Role of placenta: (i) Provides a large surface area for glucose and oxygen to pass from the mother to the embryo. [½] (ii) Waste generated by the embryo will be removed by transferring them into the mother's blood. [½]
Q66.2024 Main 31/4/1 · Q293 marks

(a) Explain with the help of a labelled diagram, the process of reproduction in Hydra by budding. Name the cells used for reproduction in this process.

OR

(b) List two roles of each of the following in human reproductive system :

(i) Seminal vesicles and prostate gland

(ii) Oviduct

(iii) Testis

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2024 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/4/1

(a) In Hydra, a bud develops as an outgrowth due to repeated cell division at one specific site. These buds develop into tiny individuals and when fully mature, detach from the parent body and become new independent individuals. [1]

[Labelled diagram: Hydra with a bud developing as an outgrowth on the body of the parent, labelling bud and parent body, and the detached young Hydra] [1½]

Regenerative cells. [½]

OR

(b)

(i) Seminal vesicles and prostate glands: secrete a fluid for nourishment of sperms; secrete a fluid which makes the transport of the sperms easier. [½ + ½]

(ii) Oviduct: egg is carried from ovary to the womb or uterus; site of fertilization. [½ + ½]

(iii) Testis: produces sperms; secretion of hormone – testosterone. [½ + ½]

Q67.2024 Supplementary 31/S/1 · Q293 marks

(a) Name a part of the flower which (i) persists even after a fruit is formed, (ii) attracts insects for pollination, (iii) produces pollen grains and (iv) changes into seed after fertilisation.

(b) After pollination, how does a male germ cell reach the ovary ? Mention the significance of this event.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2024 (Supplementary), Q.P. Code 31/S/1

(a) (i) Sepals [½]; (ii) Petals [½]; (iii) Anther [½]; (iv) Ovule [½]

(b) Through the pollen tube. [½]

Male germ cell fuses with female germ cell to produce a zygote / fertilization takes place. [½]

Q68.2023 Main 31/1/1 · Q353 marks

(a) Name the parts of a bisexual flower that are not directly involved in reproduction.

(b) Differentiate between self pollination and cross pollination. List any two significance of pollination.

(c) What is the fate of ovules and ovary after fertilization in a flower ?

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2023 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/1/1

(a) Sepals/calyx and petals/corolla. [½, ½]

(b) Self-pollination: transfer of pollen grain from anther to stigma in the same flower or another flower of the same plant. [1]

Cross pollination: transfer of pollen grain from anther to stigma of one flower to another of two different plants. [1]

Significance (any two): 1. Necessary for seed formation. 2. Stimulates development of fruits. 3. Cross pollination brings about genetic variation. 4. Leads to fertilization. [½ + ½]

(c) Ovule – seed; Ovary – fruit. [½, ½]

Q69.2022 Main 31/1/1 · Q103 marks

(a) Mention one function each of the following organs in human male reproductive system :

(i) Testis

(ii) Scrotum

(iii) Vas deferens

(iv) Prostate gland

(b) Name the type of germ cell which (i) is motile, and (ii) stores food.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2022 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/1/1

(a)

  • Testis: to produce male gametes or sperms / to produce testosterone or male sex hormone
  • Scrotum: to provide lower temperature for sperm formation
  • Vas deferens: transport of sperms
  • Prostate gland: secretion of fluid for easier transport and nutrition of sperms

[½ × 4]

(b) (i) Sperm [½]; (ii) Egg / Ovum [½]

Q70.2022 Main 31/4/1 · Q103 marks

In flowering plants, the pollen grains are transferred to stigma by pollination but the female germ cells are present in the ovary. Explain with the help of a labelled diagram (only concerned parts), how the male germ cell reaches the ovary.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2022 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/4/1

After the pollen lands on a suitable stigma, it has to reach the female germ cells which are located in the ovary. For this a tube grows out of the pollen grain and travels through the style to reach the ovary. [1]

[Diagram: germination of pollen on stigma, pollen tube growing through the style to the ovule in the ovary [1]; labelling (any two): pollen tube / ovary / male germ cell [½ + ½]]

Q71.2022 Supplementary 31/6/1 · Q103 marks

What is vegetative propagation ? Name two methods in which this process is used to grow many plants. List any two advantages of vegetative propagation.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2022 (Supp), Q.P. Code 31/6/1
  • Vegetative propagation: a method in which parts of plants like root, stem or leaves develop into new plants. [1]
  • Methods: layering, grafting (or any other) [½ + ½]
  • Advantages (any two): plants raised can bear flowers and fruits earlier than those produced from seeds; plants that have lost the capacity to produce seeds can grow into new plants; plants produced are genetically similar to the parent plant. [½ + ½]
Q72.2025 Main 31/2/1 · Q384 marks

When a girl is born, the ovaries already contain thousands of immature eggs. On reaching puberty, some of these start maturing. One matured egg is released every month by one of the ovaries. The two oviducts unite into an elastic bag-like structure known as uterus.

(a) Write the site of fertilization in human female. [1]

(b) How does the uterus prepare itself to receive and nurture the growing embryo ? Explain. [1]

(c) (i) What happens when the egg is not fertilized ? [2]

OR

(c) (ii) How does the developing embryo get nutrition from the mother’s blood ? Explain. [2]

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/2/1

(a) Oviduct / fallopian tube [1]

(b) The lining of the uterus thickens (it becomes spongy) and is richly supplied with blood to nourish the growing embryo. [1]

(c) (i) The uterine lining slowly breaks down and comes out as blood and mucous along with the unfertilized egg. Hence, menstruation will occur. [2]

OR

(c) (ii) With the help of a special tissue called placenta, which is embedded in the uterine wall. It provides oxygen and nutrients from mother to embryo. [2]

Q73.2024 Main 31/2/1 · Q384 marks

Asexual reproduction involves a single parent to produce offsprings without the formation of gametes. It occurs by the following ways : Fission, Budding, Fragmentation, Spore formation and Regeneration. In one of the methods like regeneration, Planaria A is cut horizontally into three pieces – L, M and N and Planaria B is cut vertically into two equal halves – O and P.

Figure

(a) Which of the cut pieces of the two Planaria could regenerate to form a complete organism ?

(b) Give an example of another organism which follows the same mode of reproduction as Planaria.

(c) What is the meaning of 'development' in regeneration ?

OR

(c) Differentiate between regeneration and fragmentation.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2024 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/2/1

(a) All cut pieces of the two planaria will form a complete organism. [1]

(b) Hydra [1]

(c) Specialised cells proliferate to make a large number of cells. This mass of cells change to make different cell types and tissues. These changes take place in an organised sequence and is called development. [2]

OR

(c)

RegenerationFragmentation
Specialised cells proliferate to form new cells which multiply and form a new individualEach piece/fragment grows by cell-to-cell division to form a new organism.

[1, 1]

Q74.2024 Main 31/5/1 · Q384 marks

Pollination is an important process in sexual reproduction of plants. It is an essential process that facilitates fertilisation in plants. Pollinating agents can be wind, water, insects and birds. Several changes take place in the flower after the fertilization has taken place.

(a) Write the main difference between self-pollination and cross-pollination.

(b) Name the part of the flower which attracts insects for pollination. What happens to this part after fertilisation ?

(c) (i) Define fertilisation. What is the fate of ovules and the ovary in a flower after fertilisation ?

OR

(c) (ii) In a germinating seed, which parts are known as future shoot and future root ? Mention the function of cotyledon.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2024 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/5/1

(a)

Self-pollinationCross-pollination
Transfer of pollen grains from anther to the stigma of the same flower.Transfer of pollen grains from the anther of one flower to the stigma of another flower.

[1]

(b) Petals, they dry and fall off. [½ + ½]

(c) (i) Fusion of male and female gametes to form a zygote [1]; Ovule → Seed [½]; Ovary → Fruit [½]

OR

(c) (ii) Future shoot → Plumule [½]; Future root → Radicle [½]; Cotyledon → Stores food. [1]

Q75.2024 Supplementary 31/S/1 · Q384 marks

Plantation drives are often carried out especially during monsoon season for the protection of our environment. Such programmes need a lot of saplings for tree plantation. Plants are propagated by sexual or asexual means in fields and nurseries. Over the years horticulturists have developed asexual methods that use vegetative parts of the plants to multiply. Many plants can reproduce by this method naturally as well as by artificial means.

(a) Which specific part of the plant is used for sexual and asexual means of propagation to produce a new plant ? [1]

(b) Give one example of (i) a flower, and (ii) a fruit grown by vegetative propagation. [1]

(c) (i) List two advantages of growing plants by vegetative propagation. [2]

OR

(c) (ii) Describe an activity to show how potatoes reproduce asexually. [2]

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2024 (Supplementary), Q.P. Code 31/S/1

(a) Sexual – Seed [½]; Asexual – Roots/stem/leaves [½]

(b) (i) Rose/Jasmine (or any other) [½]; (ii) Grapes/orange/banana (or any other) [½]

(c) (i) (Any two) [1, 1]

  • Production of genetically similar plants
  • Propagated plants bear fruits and vegetables earlier than those produced from seeds.
  • Propagation of plants that have lost capacity to produce seeds.

(Any other)

OR

(c) (ii) Put the small pieces of potato containing notches or buds in moist cotton for few days and observe. Notches or buds will give rise to fresh green shoots and roots. [2]

Q76.2023 Main 31/2/1 · Q384 marks

All the reproductive methods of living organisms are broadly categorized into two types : 1. Asexual reproduction, and 2. Sexual reproduction.

Asexual reproduction involves the participation of a single parent without the formation of gametes, fertilisation and transfer of genetic material. This method is a common means of rapidly increasing offsprings under favourable conditions.

(a) Name the type of fission that occurs in Leishmania and Plasmodium.

(b) Write one advantage of sexual mode of reproduction over asexual reproduction.

(c) Give reasons why :

(i) Colonies of yeast fail to multiply in water but multiply in sugar solution.

(ii) Rhizopus individuals do not grow on a dry slice of bread.

OR

(c) Name the filamentous structures a student could identify when he collected water from a pond that appeared dark green. How do these organisms multiply ? Explain.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2023 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/2/1

(a) Leishmania – Binary fission; Plasmodium – Multiple fission [½, ½]

(b) Sexual reproduction leads to more variations which are useful for ensuring the survival of a species. [1]

(c) (i) Sugar solution provides nutrients for growth and multiplication whereas water does not. [1]

(ii) Moisture is required for the growth of Rhizopus. [1]

OR

(c) Spirogyra [½]. Fragmentation – Spirogyra simply breaks up into smaller pieces upon maturation. [½] Each piece grows into a new individual. [1]

Q77.2022 Main 31/3/1 · Q154 marks

The modes by which various organisms reproduce depend on the body design of the organisms. In asexual reproduction, a single individual parent produces offsprings without the involvement of gametes. This method is a common means of increasing the offsprings rapidly under favourable conditions. Asexual reproduction occurs mostly in unicellular organisms, some plants and certain simple multicellular animals.

(a) State the name of the organism in which binary fission takes place in a definite orientation. Also name the disease caused by this organism.

(b) List any two advantages of producing plants through vegetative propagation.

(c) (i) Explain the process of budding in Hydra.

OR

(ii) What happens when (I) a spirogyra filament matures and attains a considerable length, and (II) a sporangia in Rhizopus bursts on maturation ?

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2022 (Term 2), Q.P. Code 31/3/1

(a) Leishmania; Kala-azar [½ + ½]

(b) Plants can bear fruits and flowers much earlier than those produced by sexual reproduction [½]; plants produced are genetically similar to the parent plant [½] (or any other)

(c) (i) A bud develops as an outgrowth due to repeated cell division at one specific site; these buds develop into tiny individuals and, when fully mature, detach from the parent body and become new independent individuals. [2] (Marks should be awarded if a student draws a well-labelled diagram.)

OR

(c) (ii) (I) The filament breaks into smaller pieces or fragments and each fragment grows into a new individual. [1]

(II) It releases spores which germinate and eventually develop into new Rhizopus individuals. [1]

Q78.2026 Main 31/1/1 · Q165 marks

(a) Given below are certain situations. Analyse each and describe its possible impact :

(i) A population of bacteria living in temperate waters whose temperature increased by global warming.

(ii) The sperm encounters the egg when it reaches the oviduct in human females.

(iii) Self pollination does not occur in a flower that contains only pistil.

(iv) Egg does not get fertilised in a human female.

(v) When the seed is placed under appropriate condition of water and air in the soil ?

OR

(b) Given below are certain situations. Analyse and describe what would happen when :

(i) Spores are liberated from blob-like structures of the bread mould ?

(ii) Leaves of bryophyllum fall on wet soil ?

(iii) A pollen from different species land on the stigma of totally unrelated species ?

(iv) Copper-T is placed in the uterus of a human female ?

(v) Spirogyra breaks into smaller fragments upon maturation ?

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/1/1

(a)

  • (i) Most of these bacteria would die, but the few variants resistant to heat would survive and grow further. [1]
  • (ii) Fertilization occurs to form a zygote. [1]
  • (iii) Cross pollination may occur leading to fruit formation. / No fertilization. / No fruit formation. [1]
  • (iv) If the egg is not fertilised, the thick and spongy lining of the uterus breaks and comes out through vagina as blood and mucus, known as menstruation. / Menstruation will take place. [1]
  • (v) The seed will develop into a seedling. / Germination will take place. [1]

OR

(b)

  • (i) When spores land on a substance and get adequate moisture and temperature, it will develop into new Rhizopus. [1]
  • (ii) New plants grow from the buds located in the notches of the leaf. [1]
  • (iii) The pollen tube will not be formed. / No fertilisation will take place. [1]
  • (iv) Fertilization / Pregnancy will be prevented. [1]
  • (v) Each fragment or piece grows into a new individual organism. [1]
Q79.2026 Main 31/2/1 · Q165 marks

Attempt either (a) or (b) :

(a) (i) Name an organ that helps in the formation of male germ cells in humans and also mention the condition that favours the formation of male germ cells.

(ii) In male reproductive system, write the pathway followed to deliver male germ cells to the site of fertilisation.

(iii) Mention the main physical feature of the male germ cell that helps it move towards the female germ cell. [2+2+1=5]

OR

(b) Radha has three children. She does not want to have more children. Radha visits a nearby hospital, to know the methods to prevent pregnancy.

(i) Mention the name of any two ways other than the surgical methods, following which Radha can avoid unwanted pregnancies.

(ii) Name the surgical methods to prevent pregnancy.

(iii) Give one example each of sexually transmitted diseases caused by bacteria and virus. [2+2+1=5]

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/2/1

(a)

(i) Organ - Testes [1]; Condition - Requires a lower temperature than the normal body temperature / Secretion of testosterone. [1]

(ii) The sperms formed in the testes are carried by Vas deferens and delivered to urethra (common passage for both sperms and urine). / Testes → Vas deferens → Urethra [2]

(iii) Long tail of sperms. [1]

OR

(b)

(i) Any two (any other method also): [2]

  • Mechanical barrier / Female condom (Diaphragm) / similar covering worn in vagina
  • Oral contraceptives / Oral pills
  • Copper-T / loops

(ii) Surgical methods [2]

  • Vas deferens in the male is blocked / Vasectomy
  • Fallopian tube in the female is blocked / Tubectomy

(iii)

  • Bacteria - Gonorrhoea / Syphilis (any other example) [½]
  • Virus - Warts / AIDS (any other example) [½]
Q80.2026 Main 31/3/1 · Q165 marks

Attempt either (a) or (b) :

(a) Observe the given diagram and answer the questions that follow :

Figure

(i) Give the name of the structure and type of reproduction shown in the above diagram.

(ii) State one advantage and one disadvantage of the above mentioned method of reproduction.

(iii) Give reason : Asexual reproduction lacks genetic variation.

(iv) Why have higher organisms resorted to sexual reproduction in spite of its complexity ?

OR

(b) Observe the given diagram and answer the questions that follow :

Figure

(i) Give the name and type of reproduction shown in the above diagram.

(ii) Comment on the processes taking place in stage P.

(iii) Name an organism which reproduces by the above mentioned method.

(iv) Name the method that can be used to raise plants that have lost their capacity to produce seeds. List any two advantages of growing plants by such a method.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/3/1

(a)

(i) Structure: Bryophyllum leaf [½]; Type: Vegetative propagation / Asexual reproduction [½]

(ii) Advantage (any one): Genetically identical plants, maintaining desirable traits of the parents. / Bear flowers and fruits earlier than those plants which are grown from seeds / Used for the plants that have lost their capacity to produce seeds. [1]

Disadvantage: No genetic variation. [1]

(iii) As DNA of single parent is involved without gamete fusion. / Offsprings are produced by mitosis hence similar genetic makeup thus, no variation. [1]

(iv) It creates genetic variation, enhances chances of survival in changing environment and drives evolution. [1]

OR

(b)

(i) Name: Multiple Fission [½]; Type: Asexual reproduction [½]

(ii) In stage P, many daughter cells are produced by multiple fission / Repeated nuclear divisions followed by cytoplasmic divisions. [1]

(iii) Plasmodium (any other) [½]

(iv) Vegetative propagation [½]

Advantages (any other advantage also):

  • All the plants produced are genetically similar to the parent plant [1]
  • Such plants can bear flowers and fruits earlier than those produced from seeds. [1]
Q81.2026 Main 31/5/1 · Q165 marks

(A) (i) In an angiospermic flower, fertilization is said to take place when male gametes carried in the pollen tube fuse with the female gamete, present in the embryo sac. This results in lot of changes in different parts of the flower. State the changes taking place in the following structures of flower post fertilization :

(a) Zygote

(b) Ovule

(c) Ovary

(d) Sepals

(ii) Define germination.

OR

(B) (i) Sugarcane does not produce seeds so name the process through which it will be able to reproduce.

(ii) List any two advantages of this method.

(iii) Besides sugarcane, give two more examples of plants that reproduce by this method.

(iv) Why regeneration is not possible in all the types of animals ?

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/5/1

(A)

(i)

  • (a) Zygote: It divides several times to form an embryo within the ovule. [1]
  • (b) Ovule: It develops a tough coat and is gradually converted into a seed. [1]
  • (c) Ovary: Grows rapidly and ripens to form a fruit. [1]
  • (d) Sepals: They shrivel and fall off. [1]

(ii) Germination is the process when the mature seed develops into a seedling under appropriate conditions. [1]

OR

(B)

(i) Vegetative propagation. [1]

(ii) Advantages (any two): [1 + 1]

  • Plants raised by vegetative propagation can bear flowers and fruits earlier than those produced from seeds.
  • Plants produced by vegetative propagation are genetically similar to the parent plant.
  • Plants that have lost the capacity to produce seed can reproduce by vegetative propagation.

(iii) Roses, grapes, banana, orange, jasmine etc. (any other two examples) [½ + ½]

(iv) Regeneration is carried out by specialised cells. The organisms which have those cells only can show regeneration. [1]

Q82.2026 Exam 2 31/8/1 · Q165 marks

(A) In flowering plants, the process of pollination leads to fertilization.

(i) Explain with the help of a well-labelled diagram how the male germ cell from the pollen grain reaches the female germ cell located in the ovule.

(ii) Differentiate between self-pollination and cross-pollination.

(iii) Identify and name the parts 'R' and 'S' in the given diagram of seed.

Figure

OR

(B) (i) Name the special tissue inside the uterus that provides nutrition to the developing embryo. Describe its structure. State its two functions besides nutrition. [3]

(ii) Write any two sexually transmitted diseases in humans and their causative microbial agents. [2]

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Exam 2), Q.P. Code 31/8/1

(A) (i) [Diagram: longitudinal section of a pistil showing pollen grain on the stigma, pollen tube growing through the style into the ovary and reaching the ovule/egg cell, male germ cells travelling down the tube; labelled.] [1]

Pollination → germination of pollen tube → growth of pollen tube carries the male germ cell → entering the ovary and fertilizing the egg cell. [2]

(ii) [1]

Self-pollinationCross-pollination
Transfer of pollen from anther to stigma of the same flower.Transfer of pollen from anther to stigma of a different flower.

(iii) R - Plumule [½]; S - Radicle [½]

OR

(B) (i) Placenta [1]

  • This is a disc which is embedded in the uterine wall. It contains villi on the embryo side of the tissue. On the mother's side are blood spaces which surround the villi. [1]
  • Functions: removes wastes produced by the embryo [½]; provides a large surface area for oxygen to pass from mother to embryo [½]

(ii) [1+1]

Name of the diseaseMicrobial agent
Gonorrhoea / SyphilisBacteria
Warts / HIV-AIDSVirus

(any other)

Q83.2025 Main 31/1/1 · Q355 marks

(a) (i) Write the functions of the following parts of human female reproductive system :

(I) Ovary

(II) Fallopian tube

(III) Uterus

(ii) State briefly two contraceptive methods used by human males.

OR

(b) (i) Differentiate between self-pollination and cross-pollination.

(ii) Identify A, B and C in the diagram given below and write one function of each.

Figure

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/1/1

(a)

(i)

  • Ovary: Produces female gamete (egg) and female hormones (oestrogen). [½, ½]
  • Fallopian tube: Site of fertilization. [1]
  • Uterus: Site of implantation and embryonic development. [1]

(ii) Methods of contraception used by males:

  • Mechanical barrier – Condoms [1]
  • Surgical method – blocking the vas deferens in males (Vasectomy) [1]

OR

(b)

(i) [1 + 1]

Self-pollinationCross-pollination
Pollen grains are transferred from stamen to the stigma of the same flower.Transfer of pollen grains from stamen of one flower to the stigma of another flower of the same species.

(ii)

  • A – Stigma: Receives pollen and provides suitable environment for its germination. [1]
  • B – Pollen tube: Carries male germ cells (gametes) to the female gamete situated in the ovary. [1]
  • C – Egg cell (female germ cell): Fuses with male gamete and forms zygote. [1]
Q84.2025 Main 31/3/1 · Q355 marks

(a) (i) Identify the parts ‘X’ and ‘Y’ in the figure given below :

Figure

(ii) Name the yellowish coloured structures produced by the part labelled as ‘Y’.

(iii) Write the name of the process by which these are transferred to the part labelled as ‘X’.

(iv) Explain the process of seed formation in a flowering plant.

OR

(b) (i) Name the type of asexual mode of reproduction shown in the given figure.

Figure

(ii) Identify the unicellular organism in the diagram.

(iii) List any two advantages of asexual reproduction over sexual reproduction.

(iv) Name and explain any one mode of asexual reproduction observed in Hydra.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/3/1

(a)

  • (i) ‘X’ – Stigma; ‘Y’ – Anther [½ + ½]
  • (ii) Pollen grains [1]
  • (iii) Pollination [1]
  • (iv) After the transfer of pollen grains from anther to stigma, a pollen tube grows out of the pollen grain and travels through the style to reach the ovary. The male germ cell fuses with the female germ cell to form a zygote, which divides several times to form an embryo within the ovule. The ovule develops a tough coat and is gradually converted into a seed. [2]

OR

(b)

  • (i) Binary fission [½]
  • (ii) Leishmania [½]
  • (iii) (any two) Produces a greater number of offspring within a short period of time / Ensures better chances of survival of organisms in unfavourable conditions / Formation of genetically similar organisms / Gamete formation is not required. [1 + 1]
  • (iv) Budding [1] – A bud develops as an outgrowth due to repeated cell division at a specific site, develops into a tiny individual and, after being matured, detaches from the parent body and becomes a new independent individual. [1] (Award marks if explained through a labelled diagram; or any other mode of reproduction)
Q85.2025 Main 31/4/1 · Q355 marks

(A) (i) What is regeneration? Give one example of an organism that shows this process and one organism that does not. Why does regeneration not occur in the latter?

(ii) Water in a pond appears dark green and contains filamentous structures. Name these structures and the method by which they reproduce. Explain the process.

OR

(B) (i) Name the part performing following functions in human male reproductive system :

(a) Carries sperm

(b) Production of male gametes

(c) Whose secretion makes the transport of sperms easier

(d) Provide suitable temperature for sperm formation

(ii) Write any two characteristics of sperms.

(iii) What are surgical contraceptive methods? Give the side effect caused by this procedure.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/4/1

(A)

(i)

  • Regeneration: The ability to give rise to a new individual organism from its body parts / if the individual is somehow cut or broken up into many pieces, then each piece grows into a new organism. [1]
  • Organism that shows regeneration: Planaria / Hydra [½]
  • Organism that does not show regeneration: Spirogyra (any other example) [½]
  • Because it does not have specialised cells which proliferate to make new cell types and tissues. [1]

(ii)

  • Spirogyra. [½]
  • It reproduces through fragmentation. [½]
  • It simply breaks up into smaller pieces upon maturation. The pieces grow into new individuals. [1]

OR

(B)

(i)

  • (a) Vas deferens
  • (b) Testes
  • (c) Prostate gland / seminal vesicles
  • (d) Scrotum

[½ × 4]

(ii) Consists of genetic material, has a tail for movement, small in size. (any two) [½ × 2]

(iii)

  • Vas deferens in the males and fallopian tube in females is blocked to prevent fertilisation. [½ × 2]
  • Can cause infections if not performed properly. [1]
Q86.2025 Main 31/6/1 · Q355 marks

(a) Define Puberty. List any two changes seen in boys at the time of puberty.

(b) Why are testes in human males located outside the abdominal cavity in scrotum ?

(c) List any three techniques of contraception used by humans. Which one of these is not meant for males ?

OR

(a) Name the part performing following functions in human female reproductive system :

(i) production of eggs

(ii) site of fertilization

(iii) site of implantation

(iv) entry of the sperms

(b) What changes are observed in the uterus :

(i) subsequent to implantation of zygote and

(ii) if an egg does not get fertilized ?

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/6/1
  • (a) When the rate of general body growth begins to slow down and reproductive tissues begin to mature, this period of adolescence is called puberty. [1] Changes in boys (any two): cracking of voice / thick hair growth on face / penis occasionally begins to enlarge and become erect / thick hair growing in the genital area or armpits. [½ × 2]
  • (b) As sperm formation requires a temperature which is lower than normal body temperature, testes are located outside the abdominal cavity in the scrotum. [1]
  • (c) Three techniques of contraception (any three): mechanical barrier / condom; chemical method / oral pills; loop or copper-T inside uterus; surgical methods / blockage of vas deferens or fallopian tube. [½ × 3] Not meant for males: oral pills / loop or copper-T. [½]

OR

  • (a) (i) Ovary (ii) Oviduct / fallopian tube (iii) Uterus (iv) Vagina / vaginal passage [½ × 4]
  • (b) (i) Zygote starts dividing in the uterus. [½] Thickened uterine lining, richly supplied with blood vessels, nourishes the developing embryo. [½] Placenta develops, which provides oxygen and food to the embryo and removes waste substances. [½]
  • (ii) The uterine lining slowly breaks down and comes out as blood and mucous along with the unfertilised egg. [1½]
Q87.2025 Supplementary 31/S/1 · Q365 marks

(a) (i) In which form is the information for inheritance of features transmitted from one generation to the next generation ?

(ii) Differentiate between binary fission in Amoeba and Leishmania.

(iii) "Fragmentation cannot be a method of reproduction in all multicellular organisms." Justify this statement.

OR

(b) (i) Define placenta. State the structure and role of placenta in the development of embryo in human beings.

(ii) List three categories of contraceptives and give one example of each.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Supplementary), Q.P. Code 31/S/1

(a) (i) DNA / Deoxyribonucleic acid / gene [1]

(ii) Amoeba – Splitting of the two cells during division (binary fission) can take place in any plane. [1]

Leishmania – Binary fission occurs in a definite orientation in relation to whip-like structure at one end. [1]

(iii) Because most multicellular organisms are not simply random collection of cells. They have specialised cells which are organised as tissues and tissues as organs which have been placed at definite position in the body. [2]

OR

(b) (i)

  • Placenta is a disc-like special tissue which is embedded in the uterine wall. [1]
  • It contains villi on embryo's side. On the mother's side are blood spaces which surround the villi. [½]
  • The embryo gets nourishment from the mother's blood through placenta / the waste generated by embryo is removed by transferring it to mother's blood through placenta. [½]

(ii) (Any three) [½ × 6]

  • Mechanical barrier, e.g. condoms
  • Chemical methods / hormonal methods, e.g. oral pills
  • Contraceptive devices, e.g. Loop / Copper-T
  • Surgical methods, e.g. to block vas deferens in male / fallopian tube in females
Q88.2024 Main 31/1/1 · Q355 marks

(A) (i) Name three techniques/devices used by human females to avoid pregnancy. Mention the side effects caused by each.

(ii) What will happen if in a human female (a) fertilisation takes place, (b) an egg is not fertilised ?

OR

(B) (i) Draw a diagram showing spore formation in Rhizopus and label the (a) reproductive and (b) non-reproductive parts. Why does Rhizopus not multiply on a dry slice of bread ?

(ii) Name and explain the process of asexual reproduction that takes place in Hydra.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2024 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/1/1

(A)

(i)

  • Chemical method / Oral pills [½] – Side effects: Change the hormonal balance of the body. [½]
  • Barrier method / Loop / Copper-T [½] – Side effects: Irritation in uterus. [½]
  • Surgical method / Fallopian tube in female is blocked [½] – Side effects: may cause infections. [½]

(ii)

(a) Fertilized egg/zygote gets implanted in the lining of uterus and starts dividing. [1]

(b) If the egg is not fertilized, the thick and spongy lining of the uterus breaks and comes out through the vagina as blood and mucous. [1]

OR

(B)

(i)

[Diagram: spore formation in Rhizopus showing hyphae with upright sporangiophores bearing sporangia containing spores] [1]

(a) Reproductive part – Sporangia [½]

(b) Non-reproductive part – Hypha/Hyphae [½]

Dry slice of bread does not provide moisture and nutrients necessary for the germination and multiplication of Rhizopus. [1]

(ii)

  • Budding [1]
  • Hydra uses regenerative cells for reproduction. A bud develops as an outgrowth due to repeated cell division at one specific site and develop into tiny individuals. On maturation, these buds detach from the parent and become new individuals. [1]

Alternate answer:

  • Regeneration
  • It is carried out by specialised cells. If hydra is cut or broken into many pieces, many of these pieces grow into separate individuals.

[Note: Award marks for either of the processes and its explanation]

Q89.2024 Main 31/3/1 · Q355 marks

(a) (i) What are spores ? On which structures are they formed ? How do they overcome unfavourable conditions ? Name the organism which multiplies with the help of these structures.

(ii) Give two reasons why some plants are grown by the method of vegetative propagation. List two methods used to grow plants vegetatively.

OR

(b) (i) Study the diagram given below and name the parts marked as A, B and C. What happens when B reaches C in the ovary ? Mention its significance.

Figure

(ii) Write the post fertilisation changes that occur in a flower.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2024 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/3/1

(a)

(i)

  • Spores are reproductive structures that detach from the parent and give rise to a new individual. [½]
  • Sporangium / Sporangia [½]
  • Covered by thick walls to protect them from unfavourable conditions. [½]
  • Rhizopus [½]

(ii)

  • Reasons (any two or any other): Plants which have lost the capacity to produce seeds; plants bear flowers and fruits earlier so as to reduce time; to get genetically similar plants. [1+1]
  • Methods: Layering and Grafting (or any other) [1]

OR

(b)

(i)

  • A – Male germ cell / male gamete; B – Pollen tube; C – Female germ cell / female gamete. [½ x 3]
  • B carries A (male germ cell) and this germ cell fuses with C (female germ cell) to form a zygote. [1]
  • Significance: Zygote is capable of growing into a new plant. [½]

(ii) Post fertilisation changes:

  • Zygote divides many times to form an embryo within ovule.
  • Ovule is converted into seed.
  • Ovary ripens into fruit.
  • Petals, sepals, stamens, style and stigma may shrivel / dry and may fall off. [½ x 4]
Q90.2023 Main 31/4/1 · Q355 marks

(i) Name and explain the two modes of asexual reproduction observed in hydra.

(ii) What is vegetative propagation ? List two advantages of using this technique.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2023 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/4/1

(i) The two modes of asexual reproduction observed in Hydra:

  • Budding: a bud develops as an outgrowth. These buds develop into tiny individuals. When fully matured, it detaches from the parent body and becomes a new independent individual. [½, 1]
  • Regeneration: Hydra can be cut into any number of pieces and each piece grows into a complete organism. [½, 1]

(ii) Definition: when any vegetative part of a plant like root, stem or leaf is used to grow new plants. [1]

Advantages (any two): [½, ½]

  1. Plants can bear flowers and fruits earlier than those produced from seeds.
  2. It enables the propagation of plants such as banana, orange, rose and jasmine which have lost the capacity to produce seeds.
  3. The plants produced are genetically similar enough to the parent plant to have all its characteristics.
Q91.2023 Main 31/5/1 · Q355 marks

(a) (i) Where are testes located in the human males and why ? State two function of the testes.

(ii) In the human female, one of the ovaries releases an egg every month. State the changes that take place if

(1) the egg is fertilized, and

(2) the egg is not fertilized.

(iii) What is done during the surgical method in males and females to prevent pregnancy ?

OR

(b) (i) What happens when :

(1) Leaves of Bryophyllum fall on the soil ?

(2) Planaria is cut into many pieces ?

(3) Sporangia of Rhizopus on maturation liberate spores ?

Mention the modes of reproduction in each of the above three cases.

(ii) Write the changes that occur in a flower once the fertilisation has taken place.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2023 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/5/1

(a) (i) Outside the abdominal cavity in the scrotum; sperm formation requires a lower temperature than the normal body temperature. [½, ½]

Functions: formation of sperms / male gamete [½]; production of testosterone / male sex hormone [½]

(ii) (1) The fertilized egg (zygote) starts dividing to form an embryo and gets implanted in the lining of the uterus. [1]

(2) The inner lining of the uterus slowly breaks and comes out through the vagina as blood and mucus. [1]

(iii) Vas deferens is blocked / vasectomy in males. [½] Fallopian tube is blocked / tubectomy in females. [½]

OR

(b) (i) (1) Buds present on the leaf margins in notches begin to grow to give rise to a new plant – vegetative propagation. [½, ½]

(2) Each part of Planaria grows into a complete organism – regeneration. [½, ½]

(3) The spores begin to grow after reaching a suitable moist surface – spore formation. [½, ½]

(ii) [½ × 4]

  • Zygote divides several times to form an embryo within the ovule.
  • Ovule develops a tough coat and is converted into seed.
  • Ovary grows rapidly and ripens to form a fruit.
  • Petals, sepals, stamens, style and stigma may shrivel and fall off.
Q92.2023 Main 31/6/1 · Q355 marks

Give reason for the following :

(a) During reproduction inheritance of different proteins will lead to altered body designs.

(b) Fertilization cannot take place in flowers if pollination does not occur.

(c) All multicellular organisms cannot give rise to new individuals through fragmentation or regeneration.

(d) Vegetative propagation is practised for growing only some type of plants.

(e) The parents and off-springs of organisms reproducing sexually have the same number of chromosomes.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2023 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/6/1

(a) As DNA is the information source for making proteins. If the information is changed, different proteins will be made and will lead to altered body design. [1]

(b) In the absence of pollination no male gametes will be available for fertilisation. [1]

(c) Because in many multicellular organisms specialised cells are organised into tissues; tissues form organs occupying definite positions in the body. [1]

(d) Any one point: [½, ½]

  1. Plants can bear flowers and fruits earlier than those produced from seeds.
  2. It enables the propagation of plants such as banana, orange, rose and jasmine which have lost the capacity to produce seeds.
  3. The plants produced are genetically similar enough to the parent plant to have all the characteristics.

(e) During gamete formation the number of chromosomes is reduced to half. When the zygote is formed / at the time of fertilisation, fusion of male and female gametes restores the original number of chromosomes in the offspring as in the parent. [1]

Q93.2023 Supplementary 31/C/1 · Q355 marks

(a) (i) Name the parts in the human female reproductive system where the following functions take place :

(1) Maturation of eggs

(2) Fusion of the egg and the sperm

(3) Implantation of the zygote

(ii) What happens to the egg

(1) when it is fertilised ?

(2) when it is not fertilised ?

OR

(b) (i) Explain by giving one example each :

(1) Unisexual flowers

(2) Bisexual flowers

(ii) Name the labelled parts A, B, C and D in the diagram given below.

Figure

(iii) “Pollination may occur without fertilisation but fertilisation will not take place without pollination.” Give reason to justify this statement.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2023 (Supplementary), Q.P. Code 31/C/1

(a) (i) (1) Ovary [1] (2) Oviduct / Fallopian tube [1] (3) Lining of the uterus [1]

(ii) (1) Zygote is formed. [1]

(2) When the egg is not fertilised, the egg lives for about one day; the lining of the uterus slowly breaks down and comes out through the vagina along with blood and mucus. [1]

OR

(b) (i) (1) Unisexual flower – contains either stamens or pistil. [½] e.g. Papaya / Watermelon (any other) [½]

(2) Bisexual flower – contains both stamens and pistil. [½] e.g. Hibiscus / Mustard (any other) [½]

(ii) A – Pollen grain; B – Stigma; C – Pollen tube; D – Female germ cell / egg cell [½ × 4]

(iii) Transfer of pollen is required for fusion of gametes. / Pollen needs to be transferred from the stamen to the stigma as it brings the male germ cell (pollen) and the female germ cell (egg) together for fusion. [1]

Q94.SQP 2025-26 · Q165 marks

Attempt either option A or B.

A. Puneet wanted to grow banana plants.

(i) Based on your knowledge on plant reproduction should he opt for seeds or any alternate method of reproduction. Justify your answer.

(ii) Offsprings of a banana plant usually show very little variation. What causes variation and are variations good or bad? Justify.

OR

B. Annie was conducting research on the number of fruits produced by watermelon under different conditions. She grew 25 watermelon plants each in both glass house A and B. She introduced pollinators in glass house A only.

(i) What difference will she observe in the number of fruits produced in the two glass houses? Explain with reason.

(ii) List 3 changes that will occur in a flower once it gets fertilized.

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CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 Marking Scheme (Class X Science)

A.

  • (i) Puneet should not choose seeds as banana plants have lost the capacity to produce seeds. He should go for vegetative propagation of banana (by stem cutting).
  • (ii) Errors and variations in DNA copying cause variation. Variation is good as it can help a population tide over unfavourable conditions by survival of some variants. It is bad as parents' desirable characters are lost / sometimes variants are not able to survive in the new conditions / the variant is not able to use the cellular apparatus efficiently.

OR

B.

(i) Watermelon has unisexual flowers, the male and female flowers are separate. The presence of pollinators will facilitate cross pollination between the flowers increasing the chance of fertilization and number of fruits being produced. Without pollinators the probability of pollen falling on stigma reduces in a unisexual flower, especially if they are far apart thus the number of fruits produced will be less.

(ii) The three changes observed are:

  • Ovule develops a tough coat and becomes seed.
  • Ovary grows and ripens to form fruit.
  • Petals, sepals, stamen, style and stigma may shrivel and fall off.
Unit II · World of Living

4. Heredity

Q1.2026 Main 31/1/1 · Q61 mark

Sex is determined by different factors in various species. However, in human beings, it is determined genetically.

Which amongst the following option(s) is/are correct for human beings ?

(i) Gamete carrying X chromosome from female parent.
(ii) Gamete carrying X chromosome from male parent.
(iii) Gamete carrying Y chromosome from male parent.

Options :

  1. (ii) and (iii)
  2. (i) only
  3. (i) and (iii)
  4. (iii) only
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/1/1

(A) (ii) and (iii) [1 mark]

Q2.2026 Main 31/2/1 · Q11 mark

The genotype of green stemmed tomato plant is denoted by ‘GG’ and that of purple stemmed tomato plant as ‘gg’. Hybrid of a cross between these two were self-pollinated to obtain F2 progeny. What will be the ratio of GG, Gg and gg in this F2 progeny ?

  1. 2 : 1 : 1
  2. 3 : 1 : 0
  3. 1 : 1 : 2
  4. 1 : 2 : 1
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/2/1

(D) 1 : 2 : 1 [1 mark]

Q3.2026 Main 31/4/1 · Q41 mark

Identify the traits that cannot be transmitted from parents to the off-springs :

(i) Swimming technique   (ii) Blood group   (iii) Eye colour   (iv) Dancing skills

Options :

  1. (i) and (ii)
  2. (i) and (iv)
  3. (iii) and (iv)
  4. (ii) and (iii)
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/4/1

(B) (i) and (iv) [1 mark]

Q4.2026 Main 31/4/1 · Q61 mark

Two pea plants, one with round green seeds (RRyy) and another with wrinkled yellow (rrYY) seeds were crossed with each other which produced F1 progeny that have only round yellow (RrYy) seeds. When F1 plants are self-pollinated, the F2 progeny will have which new combination of characters, as compared to the parents :

(i) Round, yellow   (ii) Round, green   (iii) Wrinkled, yellow   (iv) Wrinkled, green

Correct options are :

  1. (i) and (ii)
  2. (i) and (iv)
  3. (ii) and (iv)
  4. (i) and (iii)
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/4/1

(B) (i) and (iv) [1 mark]

Q5.2026 Main 31/5/1 · Q51 mark

When a human egg is fertilized by a sperm having ‘Y’ chromosome, the zygote has the following combination of chromosomes :

  1. 44 + XX
  2. 22 + XX
  3. 44 + XY
  4. 22 + XY
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/5/1

(C) 44 + XY [1 mark]

Q6.2026 Exam 2 31/7/1 · Q61 mark

Mendel crossed pea plants having yellow seeds (YY) with pea plants having green seeds (yy). Yellow seeds are obtained in F1 progeny which undergoes self-pollination to produce F2 progeny. Select the option showing the result of F2 progeny.

  1. 3 green : 1 yellow
  2. 1 yellow : 1 green
  3. 3 yellow : 1 green
  4. 2 green : 2 yellow
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Exam 2), Q.P. Code 31/7/1

(C) 3 yellow : 1 green [1 mark]

Q7.2026 Exam 2 31/7/1 · Q91 mark

Directions: For Questions 8 and 9, two statements are given - one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select the correct answer from the codes (A), (B), (C) and (D) as given below.

Assertion (A) : In some reptiles, the temperature at which the fertilized eggs are kept determines whether the egg will develop into a male or a female.

Reason (R) : In human beings, the sex is determined genetically.

  1. Both, Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  2. Both, Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Exam 2), Q.P. Code 31/7/1

(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A). [1 mark]

Q8.2026 Exam 2 31/8/1 · Q71 mark

Two pea plants one with round green seeds (RRyy) and another with wrinkled yellow seeds (rrYY) were crossed. All the seeds of F1 progeny have round, yellow seeds (RrYy). When F1 plants are self-pollinated, the F2 progeny will have new combination of characters.

(i) Round, yellow
(ii) Round, green
(iii) Wrinkled, yellow
(iv) Wrinkled, green

Choose the option that shows new combination of characters in F2 progeny.

  1. (i) and (ii)
  2. (i) and (iv)
  3. (ii) and (iv)
  4. (i) and (iii)
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Exam 2), Q.P. Code 31/8/1

(B) (i) and (iv) [1 mark]

Q9.2025 Main 31/1/1 · Q111 mark

If pea plants with round and green seeds (RRyy) are crossed with pea plants having wrinkled and yellow seeds (rrYY), the seeds developed by the plants of F1 generation will be :

  1. 50% round and green
  2. 75% wrinkled and green
  3. 100% round and yellow
  4. 75% wrinkled and yellow
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/1/1

(C) 100% round and yellow [1 mark]

Q10.2025 Main 31/1/1 · Q181 mark

Assertion (A) : A human child bears all the basic features of human beings.

Reason (R) : It looks exactly like its parents, showing very little variations.

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/1/1

(C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false. [1 mark]

Q11.2025 Main 31/2/1 · Q181 mark

Assertion (A) : A mango seed will germinate to form a mango tree.

Reason (R) : Heredity determines the process by which traits and characteristics are reliably inherited from parents to offspring.

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/2/1

(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A). [1 mark]

Q12.2025 Main 31/4/1 · Q91 mark

When a pure-tall pea plant is crossed with a pure-dwarf pea plant, the percentage of tall pea plants in F1 and F2 generation pea plants will be respectively :

  1. 100% ; 25%
  2. 100% ; 50%
  3. 100% ; 75%
  4. 100% ; 100%
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/4/1

(C) 100% ; 75% [1 mark]

Q13.2025 Main 31/4/1 · Q191 mark

Assertion (A) : In reptiles, the temperature at which the fertilized eggs are kept decides the sex of the offsprings.

Reason (R) : Sex is not genetically determined in some animals.

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/4/1

(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A). [1 mark]

Q14.2025 Main 31/6/1 · Q81 mark

A tall pea plant with round seeds (TTRR) is crossed with a short pea plant with wrinkled seeds (ttrr). The F1 generation will be

  1. 25% tall with round seeds
  2. 50% tall with wrinkled seeds
  3. 75% tall with wrinkled seeds
  4. 100% tall with round seeds
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/6/1

(D) 100% tall with round seeds [1 mark]

Q15.2025 Supplementary 31/S/1 · Q101 mark

In garden pea, violet colour flower is the dominant trait over white colour flower which is the recessive trait. When parent plant with violet coloured flowers (Vv) is crossed with a parent plant with white flowers, the possible percentage of occurrence of traits in the F1 progeny would be :

  1. 100% violet
  2. 50% violet, 50% white
  3. 25% violet, 75% white
  4. 75% violet, 25% white
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Supplementary), Q.P. Code 31/S/1

(B) 50% violet, 50% white [1 mark]

Q16.2024 Main 31/1/1 · Q81 mark

Consider the following statements :

(i) The sex of a child is determined by what it inherits from the mother.

(ii) The sex of a child is determined by what it inherits from the father.

(iii) The probability of having a male child is more than that of a female child.

(iv) The sex of a child is determined at the time of fertilisation when male and female gametes fuse to form a zygote.

The correct statements are :

  1. (i) and (ii)
  2. (ii) and (iv)
  3. (iii) and (iv)
  4. (i), (ii) and (iv)
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2024 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/1/1

(B) (ii) and (iv) [1 mark]

Q17.2024 Main 31/1/1 · Q91 mark

Chromosomes :

(i) carry hereditary information from parents to the next generation.

(ii) are thread like structures located inside the nucleus of an animal cell.

(iii) always exist in pairs in human reproductive cells.

(iv) are involved in the process of cell division.

The correct statements are :

  1. (i) and (ii)
  2. (ii) and (iv)
  3. (i), (ii) and (iv)
  4. (i) and (iv)
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2024 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/1/1

(D) (i) and (iv) [1 mark]

Q18.2024 Main 31/2/1 · Q121 mark

A cross made between two pea plants produces 50% tall and 50% short pea plants. The gene combination of the parental pea plants must be

  1. Tt and Tt
  2. TT and Tt
  3. Tt and tt
  4. TT and tt
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2024 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/2/1

(C) Tt and tt [1 mark]

Q19.2024 Main 31/2/1 · Q181 mark

Assertion (A) : Human female has a perfect pair of sex chromosome.

Reason (R) : Sex chromosome contributed by the human male in the zygote decides the sex of a child.

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  3. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
  4. (A) is false, but (R) is true
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2024 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/2/1

(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A). [1 mark]

Q20.2024 Main 31/3/1 · Q101 mark

In an experiment to study independent inheritance of two separate traits : shape and colour of seeds, the ratio of the different combinations in F2 progeny would be

  1. 1:3
  2. 1:2:1
  3. 9:3:3:1
  4. 9:1:1:3
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2024 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/3/1

(C) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 [1 mark]

Q21.2024 Main 31/3/1 · Q121 mark

A cross between two tall pea plants resulted in offsprings having a few dwarf plants. The gene-combination of the parental plants must be

  1. Tt and Tt
  2. Tt and tt
  3. TT and tt
  4. TT and Tt
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2024 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/3/1

(A) Tt and Tt [1 mark]

Q22.2024 Main 31/4/1 · Q101 mark

A zygote is formed by the fusion of a male gamete and a female gamete. The number of chromosomes in the zygote of a human is :

  1. 23
  2. 44
  3. 46
  4. 92
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2024 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/4/1

(C) 46 [1 mark]

Q23.2024 Main 31/5/1 · Q181 mark

Assertion (A) : Sex of the children will be determined by what they inherit from their mother.

Reason (R) : Women have XX sex chromosomes.

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2024 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/5/1

(D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true. [1 mark]

Q24.2023 Main 31/1/1 · Q101 mark

The statement that correctly describes the characteristic(s) of a gene is :

  1. In individuals of a given species, a specific gene is located on a particular chromosome.
  2. A gene is not the information source for making proteins in the cell.
  3. Each chromosome has only one gene located all along its length.
  4. All the inherited traits in human beings are not controlled by genes.
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2023 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/1/1

(A) In individuals of a given species, a specific gene is located on a particular chromosome. [1 mark]

Q25.2023 Main 31/1/1 · Q181 mark

Assertion (A) : Genes inherited from the parents decide the sex of a child.

Reason (R) : X chromosome in a male child is inherited from his father.

Select the correct answer from the options given below.

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  3. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
  4. (A) is false, but (R) is true.
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2023 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/1/1

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false. [1 mark]

Q26.2023 Main 31/2/1 · Q121 mark

When a sperm carrying ‘X’ chromosome fertilises an egg, the resultant zygote has the following combination of chromosomes :

  1. 44 + XX
  2. 44 + XY
  3. 22 + XX
  4. 22 + XY
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2023 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/2/1

(A) 44 + XX [1 mark]

Q27.2023 Main 31/4/1 · Q101 mark

A cross between pea plant with white flowers (vv) and pea plant with violet flowers (VV) resulted in F2 progeny in which ratio of violet (VV) and white (vv) flowers will be :

  1. 1 : 1
  2. 2 : 1
  3. 3 : 1
  4. 1 : 3
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2023 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/4/1

(A) 1 : 1 [1 mark]

Q28.2023 Main 31/4/1 · Q181 mark

Assertion (A) : In humans, if gene (B) is responsible for black eyes and gene (b) is responsible for brown eyes, then the colour of eyes of the progeny having gene combination Bb, bb or BB will be black only.

Reason (R) : The black colour of the eyes is a dominant trait.

Select the correct answer from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below.

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  2. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  3. (A) is true but (R) is false.
  4. (A) is false but (R) is true.
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2023 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/4/1

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true. [1 mark]

Q29.2023 Main 31/5/1 · Q101 mark

Consider the following two statements :

(i) The trait that expresses itself in F1 generation.

(ii) The trait that keeps on passing from one generation to another.

The appropriate terms for the statements (i) and (ii) respectively are :

  1. Recessive trait, Dominant trait
  2. Dominant trait, Recessive trait
  3. Dominant trait, Inherited trait
  4. Recessive trait, Inherited trait
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2023 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/5/1

(C) Dominant trait, Inherited trait [1 mark]

Q30.2023 Main 31/5/1 · Q181 mark

Assertion (A) : Human populations show a great deal of variations in traits.

Reason (R) : All variations in a species have equal chances of surviving in the environment in which they live.

Select the correct answer from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below.

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2023 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/5/1

(C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false. [1 mark]

Q31.2023 Main 31/6/1 · Q91 mark

In an experiment with pea plants, a pure tall plant (TT) is crossed with a pure short plant (tt). The ratio of pure tall plant to pure short plants in F2 generation will be

  1. 1 : 3
  2. 3 : 1
  3. 1 : 1
  4. 2 : 1
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2023 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/6/1

(C) 1 : 1 [1 mark]

Q32.2023 Supplementary 31/C/1 · Q111 mark

In a cross between pure tall pea plants (TT) and pure dwarf pea plants (tt) the offsprings of F1 generation were all tall. When F1 generation was self-crossed, the gene combinations of the offsprings of F2 generation will be :

  1. TT : Tt : tt
  2. TT : tt
  3. Tt : tt
  4. TT : Tt
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2023 (Supplementary), Q.P. Code 31/C/1

(A) TT : Tt : tt [1 mark]

Q33.2023 Supplementary 31/C/1 · Q191 mark

Assertion (A) : Each human trait is influenced by both paternal and maternal DNA.

Reason (R) : As compared to the father, the mother contributes more amount of genetic material to the child.

Select the correct answer from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below.

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2023 (Supplementary), Q.P. Code 31/C/1

(C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false. [1 mark]

Q34.SQP 2025-26 · Q51 mark

In a cross between black furred rabbit (B) and white furred rabbit (b), all offspring were found to have black fur. What can be inferred about the genetic makeup of the parent rabbits?

  1. BB X bb
  2. Bb X Bb
  3. Bb X bb
  4. bb X bb
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CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 Marking Scheme (Class X Science)

(A) BB x bb [1 mark]

Q35.SQP 2025-26 · Q81 mark

Assertion (A) : Tallness of a pea plant is controlled by an enzyme.

Reason (R) : The gene for that enzyme makes proteins which help the plant to be tall.

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
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CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 Marking Scheme (Class X Science)

(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A. [1 mark]

Q36.SQP 2026-27 · Q61 mark

The male gamete of an apple plant has seventeen chromosomes. What is the number of chromosomes in the female gamete and in the cells of the adult plant respectively?

  1. 17, 17
  2. 17, 34
  3. 34, 34
  4. 34, 51
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CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 Marking Scheme (Class X Science)

(B) 17, 34 [1 mark]

Q37.2026 Exam 2 31/8/1 · Q112 marks

Describe how the sex of a new born individual is determined in humans.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Exam 2), Q.P. Code 31/8/1
  • All children will inherit an X-chromosome from their mother. Thus, the sex of the children will be determined by what they inherit from their father. [1]
  • A child who inherits an X-chromosome from her father will be a girl. A child who inherits a Y-chromosome from father will be a boy. [1]

(award marks if described with a suitable diagram)

Q38.2025 Main 31/3/1 · Q242 marks

(a) Explain how the proteins control the ‘characteristics’ in an organism with the help of an example of ‘tallness’ trait in pea plant.

(b) Name the section of DNA that controls the ‘characteristics’ in an organism.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/3/1

(a) Tallness depends on the amount of plant hormone; synthesis of the plant hormone depends on the efficiency of enzymes (proteins); synthesis of enzymes (proteins) depends on a specific DNA sequence (gene). The more the synthesis of hormone, the taller the pea plant will be. [1]

(b) Gene [1]

Q39.2025 Main 31/4/1 · Q242 marks

Explain with the help of a flow chart that in human beings father is responsible for the sex (male or female) of the child.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/4/1

[Flow chart: Father (XY) and Mother (XX) → gametes: sperm X or Y, ovum X → fertilisation: X + X = XX (girl); Y + X = XY (boy).]

  • If a sperm carrying X chromosome fertilises an ovum which carries X chromosome, then the child born will be a girl. [1]
  • If a sperm carrying Y chromosome fertilises an ovum which carries X chromosome, then the child born will be a boy. [1]

(Flow chart [2] in total)

Q40.2025 Main 31/6/1 · Q232 marks

(a) “Proteins control the expression of various characters.” Explain this statement by taking an example of “tallness” as a characteristic in plants.

OR

(b) Explain the mechanism of inheritance used by sexually reproducing organisms to ensure the stability of DNA of the species.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/6/1

(a) The height of the plant depends upon the amount of a particular plant hormone. This hormone depends upon the efficiency of the enzyme (protein), which depends upon a DNA sequence (gene). If the enzyme works efficiently, a lot of hormone is made and the plant will be tall. [2]

OR

(b) Each cell has two copies of each chromosome, one each from the male and female parents. During gamete formation, the gamete takes one chromosome from each pair. When two such gametes having a single set of genes combine together, they restore the normal number of chromosomes in the progeny, ensuring the stability of DNA of the species. (Any other explanation) [2]

Q41.2024 Main 31/3/1 · Q232 marks

(a) List any two pairs of visible contrasting characters of garden pea plants used by Mendel for his experiments stating the dominant and recessive characters in each pair.

OR

(b) In human beings, the probability of getting a male or a female child is 50%. Explain with the help of a flow diagram only.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2024 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/3/1

(a) 2 visible characters of garden pea plants are :

  • Tallness (dominant), Dwarfness (recessive) [½ + ½]
  • Yellow seeds (dominant), Green seeds (recessive) [½ + ½]

(Any other pair)

OR

(b)

[Flow diagram: Parents – father (sperms) XY, mother (eggs) XX → Gametes – father produces X and Y gametes, mother produces X and X gametes → Offspring – XX (female child, 50%) and XY (male child, 50%); each X or Y sperm has an equal chance of fusing with the X egg] [½ + ½ + ½ + ½]

Q42.2023 Main 31/2/1 · Q232 marks

Mendel crossed a pure tall pea plant (TT) with a pure short pea plant (tt) and obtained all tall plants in F1 generation.

(a) What is the gene combination present in the plants of F1 generation ?

(b) Give reason why only tall plants are observed in F1 progeny.

(c) What will be the ratio of the plants obtained in the F2 generation when F1 plants are self-pollinated ?

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2023 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/2/1

(a) Tt [½]

(b) Because only the dominant trait (tallness) is expressed in the F1 generation / tallness is dominant over the recessive short trait. [1]

(c) F2 generation – Tall : short = 3 : 1 [½]

Q43.2023 Supplementary 31/C/1 · Q232 marks

“In human beings, the sex of a newborn child depends on the father and not the mother.” Justify this statement with the help of a flow diagram.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2023 (Supplementary), Q.P. Code 31/C/1

[Flow diagram: Parents – Mother XX, Father XY. Gametes – Mother: X (X); Father: X, Y. Zygote / offspring: X (from mother) + X (from father) = XX Girl; X (from mother) + Y (from father) = XY Boy.] [Diagram 1 + Labelling 1]

(Award 1 mark if explained through words only.)

Q44.2022 Main 31/1/1 · Q52 marks

(a) What is variation ? List two main reasons that may lead to variation in a population.

OR

(b) (i) In a cross between violet flowered plants and white flowered plants, state the characteristics of the plants obtained in the F1 progeny.

(ii) If the plants of F1 progeny are self-pollinated, then what would be observed in the plants of F2 progeny ?

(iii) If 100 plants are produced in F2 progeny, then how many plants will show the recessive trait ?

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2022 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/1/1

(a)

  • The differences in the traits shown by the individuals of a species. [1]
  • Two reasons: (i) Inaccurate / error in DNA copying [½]; (ii) Sexual reproduction [½]

OR

(b)

(i) F1 progeny: Violet flowered plants [½]

(ii) F2 progeny: Violet as well as white flowered plants [1]

(iii) 25 plants [½]

Q45.2022 Main 31/3/1 · Q62 marks

(a) Mendel crossed two pea plants with visible contrasting characteristics and found that there were no half-way characteristics in the plants of F1 progeny. Explain the reason for this observation of Mendel.

OR

(b) Justify the statement “Sex of the children will be determined by what they inherit from their father”.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2022 (Term 2), Q.P. Code 31/3/1

(a) No half-way characteristics were found in the F1 generation because the F1 progeny is a mixture of contrasting traits of the parents, but only one of the characters of the parents gets expressed in the F1 progeny. [1]

The character that gets expressed is a dominant trait and that which does not get expressed in the presence of the dominant trait is a recessive trait. [1]

OR

(b) Mother has XX chromosomes. [½] Father has XY chromosomes. [½] All children inherit an X chromosome from the mother. The one who inherits the X chromosome from the father will be a girl and the one who inherits the Y chromosome from the father will be a boy. [1] (full credit for diagrammatic expression)

Q46.2022 Main 31/4/1 · Q32 marks

Using height (tallness / dwarfness) of a plant as an example, show that genes control the characteristics or traits in an organism.

OR

In a cross between red coloured and white coloured flowers, when plants with red coloured flowers of F1 generation were self pollinated, plants of F2 generation were obtained in which 75% of plants were with red flowers and 25% plants were with white flowers.

Explain the inheritance of traits in the above cross with the help of a flow chart only along with the ratio of plants obtained.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2022 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/4/1
  • The plants have genes which have the ability to produce enzyme for growth. If enzymes are efficient, more growth hormone is produced and thus the plant grows in length. [1]
  • If the gene for that enzyme has an alteration that makes the enzyme less efficient, the amount of hormone produced will be less and the plant will be short. [1]

OR

[Flow chart: F1: Red (Rr) × Red (Rr) [½]; gametes R, r and R, r; F2 (Punnett square): RR, Rr, Rr, rr [½]

75% Red (RR and Rr) flowers; 25% White flowers (rr) [½]

Ratio: 3 : 1 (Red : White)

Q47.2022 Supplementary 31/6/1 · Q52 marks

(a) Sex chromosomes in human males and females are XY and XX respectively. Statistical probability of getting either a male or a female child is 50%. Justify this statement giving reason.

OR

(b) If we cross a tall plant (Tt) with a short plant (tt), what ratio of (Tt) and (tt) plants shall we obtain in F2 generation ? Show with the help of a diagram (flow chart) only.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2022 (Supp), Q.P. Code 31/6/1

(a)

  • Mother produces gametes having only X chromosomes whereas father produces two types of gametes – one having X chromosome and the other having Y chromosome. [1]
  • So, when the gametes fuse to form zygote, 50% will be male (XY) and 50% will be female (XX). [1]

[Diagram (full marks if explained by diagram only): Father XY gives gametes X and Y; Mother XX gives gametes X; zygotes XX (girl) and XY (boy)]

OR

(b)

[Flow chart: Tt (tall) [½] × tt (short); offspring: Tt, Tt, tt, tt – tall, tall, short, short [½]]

Ratio: Tall : Short = 1 : 1, i.e. Tt : tt = 1 : 1 [1]

Q48.2026 Main 31/2/1 · Q143 marks

(a) Giving two examples, justify the statement that the sex of the offspring in all animals is not always genetically determined.

(b) Differentiate between the sex chromosomes of male and female human beings.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/2/1

(a)

  • In a few reptiles, the temperature at which fertilised eggs are kept determine whether the animal developing from the eggs will be male or female. [1]
  • In snails, individuals can change sex. [1]

(or any other suitable example)

(b)

Male sex chromosomeFemale sex chromosome
Male has a mismatched pair i.e. ‘XY’ chromosomes.Female has a perfect pair i.e. ‘XX’ chromosomes.
Y chromosome is smaller than X chromosome.Both X chromosomes are of same size.

[1] (Any one difference, any other difference)

Q49.2026 Main 31/3/1 · Q143 marks

Show the cross and observations made by Mendel when he crossed pure tall pea plant with a pure short pea plant to get F1 progeny.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/3/1

Parents: TT (Tall) × tt (short) [½]

Gametes: T, T, t, t [½]

F1: Tt – all tall plants [1]

[Diagram: cross showing parents TT (tall) × tt (short), gametes T T and t t, converging on F1 Tt, all tall plants]

Observations (any two): [½ + ½]

  • No medium or short height plants were observed in F1 generation.
  • All progeny resembles one of the parents.
  • All plants were tall.
Q50.2026 Main 31/4/1 · Q143 marks

Study the given table and answer the following questions :

ParentsF1F2
A pea plant with red flowers was crossed with a pea plant with white flowers.30 seeds were sown and all bore plants with red flowers.44 seeds were sown, 33 plants bore red flowers and 11 plants bore white flowers.

(a) Depict the information given in the table in the form of a cross.

(b) Deduce the F2 phenotypic ratio/F2 ratio showing external look as well as genotypic/genetic makeup, ratio.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/4/1

(a) Parents: RR (Red flowers) × rr (White flowers) [½]

Gametes: R ; r [½]

F1: Rr (All red) [½]

F1 self-cross: Rr × Rr; Gametes: R, r and R, r; F2: RR, Rr, Rr, rr (RR, Rr, Rr = Red; rr = White) [½]

[Diagram: cross with gametes circled and lines joining them to the F1 and F2 genotypes as described above]

(b) Phenotypic ratio (showing external look of plants): 33 : 11 = 3 : 1 (Red : White) [½]

Genotypic ratio: 1 : 2 : 1 (RR : Rr : rr) [½]

Q51.2026 Main 31/5/1 · Q133 marks

Based on Mendel’s experiment show the cross between round, yellow seeds of pea plant (RRYY) with wrinkled and green seeds of pea plant (rryy) upto F2 generation. Write the number of seeds/plants with following genetic (Genotype) makeup in F2 generation :

(i) RRYY

(ii) rryy

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/5/1

Parents: RRYY (Round, Yellow) × rryy (Wrinkled, green) → F1: RrYy (Round, Yellow) → self pollination [1]

F2 Punnett square: [1]

RYRyrYry
RYRRYYRRYyRrYYRrYy
RyRRYyRRyyRrYyRryy
rYRrYYRrYyrrYYrrYy
ryRrYyRryyrrYyrryy

(i) RRYY – 1 [½]

(ii) rryy – 1 [½]

Q52.2026 Exam 2 31/8/1 · Q143 marks

"Each organism has two sets of all genes, one inherited from each parent i.e. both parents contribute equally to the DNA of the progeny during sexual reproduction".

If such is the case, then how is the stability of DNA of the species ensured ? Discuss.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Exam 2), Q.P. Code 31/8/1
  • Each cell has two copies of each chromosome, one from the male and the other from the female parent. [1]
  • Each germ cell (gamete) takes one chromosome from each pair (either maternal or paternal). [1]
  • When two germ cells (gametes) unite, they restore the normal number of chromosomes in the progeny, ensuring the stability of DNA of the species. [1]
Q53.2025 Main 31/1/1 · Q303 marks

(a) What are chromosomes ?

(b) Explain in brief how stability of DNA content of a species is ensured in sexually reproducing organisms ?

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/1/1

(a) Chromosomes carry genes which control the traits of an organism / chromosomes contain information for inheritance of features from parents to the next generation in the form of DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) molecules. [1]

(b)

  • Each cell has two copies of each chromosome, one from the male and the other from the female parent, which get halved during the formation of germ cells/gametes. [1]
  • After fusion of the germ cells, the zygote is formed, which restores the normal number of chromosomes and the same amount of DNA in the progeny. [1]
Q54.2025 Main 31/2/1 · Q303 marks

The lowest part of the ear called earlobe, is closely attached to the side of the head in some of us (Figure ‘X’), and not in others, called free earlobe (Figure ‘Y’). Attached and free earlobes are two variants found in human populations. The gene for free earlobe is dominant over attached earlobes.

Figure

(a) A man with attached earlobes marries a woman having free earlobes. 50% of their children have free earlobes and 50% have attached earlobes. Explain the inheritance of this trait and write the trait combinations of the progeny.

(b) Write the gene combinations of the father and the mother in the above case.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/2/1

(a) Dominant trait – free earlobe: Ff; Recessive trait – attached earlobe: ff.

[Diagram: Cross between woman with free earlobe (Ff) and man with attached earlobe (ff). Gametes of woman: F and f; gametes of man: f and f. F1 progeny: Ff, Ff (free earlobe) and ff, ff (attached earlobe).] [½ + ½ + ½]

50% free earlobe : 50% attached earlobe – Progeny: Ff : ff [½] (Award marks if answer is written in explanation form)

(b) Gene combinations of: Father – ‘ff’ [½]; Mother – ‘Ff’ [½] (award marks if any other letter denoting the trait is used)

Q55.2025 Main 31/3/1 · Q303 marks

A pure pea plant having round (R), yellow (Y) seeds is crossed with another pure pea plant having wrinkled (r), green (y) seeds. Subsequently F1 progeny is self-pollinated to obtain F2 progeny.

(a) What do the seeds of F1 generation look like ?

(b) Give the possible combinations of traits in seeds of F2 generation. Also give their ratio.

(c) State the reason of obtaining seeds of new combination of traits in F2 generation.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/3/1

(a) Round, yellow [1]

(b) Round yellow : 9; Round green : 3; Wrinkled yellow : 3; Wrinkled green : 1 [1]

(c) Traits are inherited independently / independent assortment of the traits. [1]

Q56.2025 Main 31/6/1 · Q303 marks

The gene combination of purple flowered pea plants is denoted as (WW) and that of white flowered pea plants as (ww), when these two plants are crossed F1 generation is obtained.

(a) List two observations made by Mendel in F1 generation plants.

(b) Give the (i) percentage of white flowered plants and (ii) ratio of the gene combinations WW, Ww and ww in F2 generation.

(c) Write one difference between dominant and recessive trait.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/6/1
  • (a) All plants were purple flowered / no mixed coloured flowers were observed / no white flowered plants were observed / only the dominant parental trait was observed. (Any two) [½ × 2]
  • (b) (i) 25% [½] (ii) 1 : 2 : 1 / 1 WW : 2 Ww : 1 ww [½]
  • (c) Difference (any one) [1]
Dominant traitRecessive trait
A trait that can express itself in the presence of its unexpressed contrasting trait / trait expresses itself alwaysA trait that remains unexpressed in the presence of its contrasting form
Q57.2024 Main 31/4/1 · Q303 marks

List two differences between dominant traits and recessive traits. What percentage of pea plants in the F2 generation were with yellow seeds in Mendel's cross between the pea plants having yellow (YY) and green coloured (yy) seeds ?

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2024 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/4/1
Dominant traitsRecessive traits
(i) When both dominant and recessive traits are inherited, the dominant trait gets expressed.(i) When both dominant and recessive traits are inherited, the recessive trait does not get expressed.
(ii) A single copy of dominant trait is enough to get it expressed.(ii) Both the copies of a trait should be recessive to get it expressed.

[1 x 2]

75% yellow seeds [1]

Q58.2024 Main 31/5/1 · Q303 marks

Mendel crossed pure tall pea plants (TT) with pure short pea plants (tt) and obtained F1 progeny. When the plants of F1 progeny were self-pollinated, plants of F2 progeny were obtained.

(a) What did the plants of F1 progeny look like ? Give their gene combination.

(b) Why could the gene for shortness not be expressed in plants of F1 progeny ?

(c) Write the ratio of the plants obtained in F2 progeny and state the conclusion that can be drawn from this experiment.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2024 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/5/1

(a) All plants tall [½]; Gene combination: Tt [½]

(b) It is a recessive trait / it cannot be expressed in presence of dominant trait. [1]

(c) Tall : Short = 3 : 1 [½]

Conclusion: Tall trait is dominant and short trait is recessive. [½]

Q59.2024 Supplementary 31/S/1 · Q303 marks

A plant having blue coloured flowers (BB) is crossed with a plant having white coloured flowers (bb) :

(a) Name the term used for the trait, which is observed in F1 generation. Give its gene combination.

(b) If the plants obtained in F1 generation are self-pollinated, write the percentage of (i) plants with flowers of blue colour, and (ii) plants with flowers of white colour in F2 generation. What did the reappearance of plants with white coloured flowers in F2 generation indicate ?

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2024 (Supplementary), Q.P. Code 31/S/1

(a) Dominant trait [½]; gene combination Bb [½]

(b) (i) 75% [½]; (ii) 25% [½]

Two copies of the recessive traits (genes) are required for its expression / reappearance. [1]

Q60.2022 Main 31/2/1 · Q103 marks

(a) Name the two types of gametes produced by men.

(b) Does a male child inherit X chromosome from his father ? Justify.

(c) How many types of gametes are produced by a human female ?

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2022 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/2/1

(a) Sperm having X chromosome and sperm having Y chromosome. [½ + ½]

(b) No. [½] A male child gets only the Y chromosome from his father and the X chromosome from his mother to have XY chromosomes. [1]

(c) One type / only ovum / egg. [½]

Q61.2022 Main 31/3/1 · Q133 marks

How do Mendel's experiments show that the traits are inherited independently ? Explain.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2022 (Term 2), Q.P. Code 31/3/1
  • Mendel crossed two pea plants with two different visible contrasting characteristics, such as a plant with round and green seeds with a plant with wrinkled and yellow seeds. In the F1 progeny all the plants obtained have round and yellow seeds, which are the dominant characters. [1]
  • The F1 progeny is self-pollinated to produce the F2 progeny, and the plants produced in the F2 progeny showed new combinations, such as plants with round and green seeds or plants with wrinkled and yellow seeds, which were not present in the parent generation or F1 progeny. [1]
  • The ratio obtained was 9 round yellow : 3 round green : 3 wrinkled yellow : 1 wrinkled green. Thus, traits are independently inherited. [1]

(Full marks should be given if diagrammatically represented.)

Q62.SQP 2025-26 · Q143 marks

In a genetic experiment, plants with pure round green seeds (RRyy) were crossed with plants with wrinkled yellow seeds (rrYY).

(i) Show the gametes formed when F1 was self-pollinated.

(ii) A total of 144 seeds were produced which developed into saplings. Show the ratio in which these traits are independently inherited in these 144 sapling.

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CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 Marking Scheme (Class X Science)

(i) RY, Ry, rY, ry

(ii) The traits which are independently inherited are as follows:

  • Round yellow: 81
  • Round green: 27
  • Wrinkled yellow: 27
  • Wrinkled green: 9

(Ratio: 9 : 3 : 3 : 1)

Q63.2026 Main 31/1/1 · Q154 marks

Mendel took garden pea plants with different characteristics, such as height to study the inheritance pattern of factors (genes). He crossed tall pea plant with short pea plant and obtained all the tall plants in the F1 generation.

Answer the following questions :

(a) Why only tall pea plants were observed in F1 progeny ? [1]

(b) By which method did Mendel obtain F2 progeny ? [1]

(c) (i) Write one difference between dominant and recessive trait. [2]

OR

(c) (ii) Write two observations made by Mendel about F1 progeny. [2]

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/1/1

(a) In F1 progeny, pea plants have 'Tt' where 'T' is dominant over 't' so all the plants of F1 progeny were tall. / Tall height is dominant trait over short height. [1]

(b) Self-pollination [1]

(c) (i)

Dominant traitRecessive trait
i) Expresses itself over recessive trait.
ii) Expresses in both conditions - TT and Tt.
i) Unable to express itself in presence of a dominant trait.
ii) Expresses itself only when it is 'tt' or in pure condition.

(any one, any other suitable difference) [2]

OR

(c) (ii) Mendel's observations (any two) [1+1]

  • All plants of F1 progeny were tall.
  • No medium / no short height plants observed in F1 progeny.
  • F1 progeny resembled one parent only.
Q64.2026 Exam 2 31/7/1 · Q154 marks

Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow :

Indian scientists helped crack the DNA code of 'bread-wheat' genome, which would help improve global food security. It will allow faster breeding for climate-resilient varieties with drought, heat and frost tolerance, disease-resistant and superior quality grain. It may also help people suffering from allergy to wheat gluten. The information generated will help identify genes controlling yield, grain quality, resistance to diseases, etc. A variety of grains can thus be produced.

(a) Write the full form of DNA. [1]

(b) What type of cell division is involved in the formation of gametes ? [1]

(c) (i) Variations confer an advantage to an individual to survive. Justify. [2]

OR

(c) (ii) How do genes control characteristics or traits ? [2]

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Exam 2), Q.P. Code 31/7/1

(a) Deoxyribo nucleic acid [1]

(b) Meiosis / reductional division [1]

(c) (i) India has variety of climatic conditions; variations in wheat varieties will enable farmers to grow the crop according to the best suited variety in a particular climate. It will give benefit of survival and better grain quality. [2]

OR

(c) (ii) A section of DNA that provides information for one protein is called the gene for that protein. For example, plant height depends on hormones that trigger growth. Its quantity will be determined by the efficiency of the enzyme that is needed for the synthesis of this hormone. If the gene has any variation, making it less efficient, it will make the enzyme less efficient, less hormone and hence a short plant. [2]

Q65.2025 Main 31/5/1 · Q384 marks

In human beings, there are 23 pairs of chromosomes. Out of these 23 pairs of chromosomes (i.e. 46 chromosomes), 22 pairs of chromosomes are called autosomes and one pair of chromosomes, i.e. two chromosomes are called sex chromosomes. The sex chromosomes are of two types - ‘X’ chromosomes and ‘Y’ chromosomes. The sex of a child (i.e. progeny), is decided at the time of fertilisation. In other words, at the time of zygote formation the sex chromosomes inherited from the parents of a child decide whether the new born will be a boy or a girl.

(a) What are chromosomes ?

(b) Why is the pair of sex chromosomes in human males called mismatched pair ?

(c) (A) Show with the help of a flow chart that the statistical probability of getting a boy or a girl is 50 : 50.

OR

(c) (B) Mention two examples of animals where sex is not determined genetically like human beings. Describe in brief the method of sex determination in these animals.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/5/1
  • (a) Chromosomes carry genes which control the traits of an organism / chromosomes contain information for inheritance of features from parents to the next generation in the form of DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) molecules. [1]
  • (b) Men have one normal sized X chromosome while the Y chromosome is short. [1]

(c) (A)

[Flow chart – Sex determination in human beings: Parents: Father XY, Mother XX → Gametes (reproductive cells): X, Y (father); X, X (mother) → Zygote formed after fusion of gametes: XX (female), XX (female), XY (male), XY (male) → offspring: 50% probability of a female child, 50% probability of a male child.] [2]

OR

(c) (B)

  • In a few reptiles, the temperature at which fertilised eggs are kept determines the sex of offspring. [1]
  • In snails, the individual can change sex, indicating that it is not genetically determined. [1]
Q66.2025 Supplementary 31/S/1 · Q384 marks

The process of determining the sex of a newborn is purely genetic. But still many people in some societies believe that only the woman (mother) is responsible for determination of the sex of the child and blame her. In fact, the sex of the child is genetically determined. But there are some animals where sex is not genetically determined.

(a) Define sex chromosomes. [1]

(b) Mention one example of animals where sex is not genetically determined. How is sex determined in these animals ? Explain. [1]

(c) (i) Does the genetic combination of the mother play a significant role in determining the sex of newborn ? Explain. [2]

OR

(c) (ii) How is equal genetic contribution of male and female parents ensured in progeny ? [2]

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Supplementary), Q.P. Code 31/S/1

(a) The chromosome pair which is responsible for determination of sex in humans are called sex chromosomes. [1]

(b) Few reptiles / lizards – temperature is responsible for sex determination. Snails – sex determination depends on environmental factors. (Or any other example) [½ + ½]

(c) (i) No. [1] A newborn inherits X chromosome from mother. The sex of the child is determined by what they inherit from their father. A child who inherits X chromosome from father will be a girl (XX) and one who inherits a Y chromosome from him will be a boy (XY). [1]

OR

(c) (ii) It is ensured through sexual reproduction where both male and female parents produce gametes through meiosis. Meiosis reduces the chromosome number to half. So, each gamete carries half of the parents' genetic material. During fertilisation, male gamete fuses with female gamete and restores complete genetic material in progeny. Thus, equal genetic contribution of both parent is ensured. [2]

Q67.2024 Main 31/1/1 · Q384 marks

Mendel worked out the rules of heredity by working on garden pea using a number of visible contrasting characters. He conducted several experiments by making a cross with one or two pairs of contrasting characters of pea plant. On the basis of his observations he gave some interpretations which helped to study the mechanism of inheritance.

(i) When Mendel crossed pea plants with pure tall and pure short characteristics to produce F1 progeny, which two observations were made by him in F1 plants ?

(ii) Write one difference between dominant and recessive trait.

(iii) (A) In a cross with two pairs of contrasting characters

RRYY × rryy
(Round Yellow) (Wrinkled Green)

Mendel observed 4 types of combinations in F2 generation. By which method did he obtain F2 generation ? Write the ratio of the parental combinations obtained and what conclusions were drawn from this experiment.

OR

(iii) (B) Justify the statement : "It is possible that a trait is inherited but may not be expressed."

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2024 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/1/1

(i)

  • In F1 generation, all plants were tall / No short plants were observed [½]
  • No medium height plants / No halfway characteristics were observed / Only dominant parental traits were seen and not the mixture of the two. [½]

(ii)

Dominant traitRecessive trait
Single copy of dominant trait is enough to get it expressed / always expressedOnly expressed when present in pair.

(Any other point) [1]

(iii) (A)

  • Self-pollination / Self-fertilisation / Selfing of F1 plants [½]
  • Ratio – Round Yellow : Wrinkled Green = 9 : 1 [½]
  • Traits are inherited independently. [1]

OR

(iii) (B) If pea plants with yellow seeds are crossed with plants of green seeds, it is found that in F1 generation all the plants have yellow seeds. When F1 plants are self-pollinated, it is found that in F2 generation, plants with yellow seeds and plants with green seeds are obtained. This shows that both the traits are inherited but only one trait is visible in F1 progeny while the other remains unexpressed. [2]

[Note: Award marks if explained by taking one characteristic / Or explained the same diagrammatically]

Q68.2023 Main 31/1/1 · Q384 marks

In order to trace the inheritance of traits Mendel crossed pea plants having one contrasting character or a pair of contrasting characters. When he crossed pea plants having round and yellow seeds with pea plants having wrinkled and green seeds, he observed that no plants with wrinkled and green seeds were obtained in the F1 generation. When the F1 generation pea plants were cross-bred by self-pollination, the F2 generation had seeds with different combinations of shape and colour also.

(a) Write any two pairs of contrasting characteristics of pea plant used by Mendel other than those mentioned above.

(b) Differentiate between dominant and recessive traits.

(c) State the ratio of the combinations observed in the seeds of F2 generation (in the above case). What do you interpret from this result ?

OR

(c) Given below is a cross between a pure violet flowered pea plant (V) and a pure white flowered pea plant (v). Diagrammatically explain what type of progeny is obtained in F1 generation and F2 generation :

Pure violet flowered plant × Pure white flowered plant
(V V)               (v v)

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2023 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/1/1

(a) Tall – Dwarf (height of plant) [½]; White – Purple (colour of flower) [½] (or any other)

(b) Dominant trait – expressed even if one copy of the dominant trait exists. [½] Recessive trait – whose expression is suppressed by a dominant gene / expressed when two copies of the recessive trait are present. [½]

(c) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 [1] Interpretation: Traits are independently inherited. [1]

OR

(c) [Diagram: VV (violet) × vv (white) → F1: all Vv (violet); F1 self-pollination Vv × Vv → F2: VV, Vv, Vv, vv = 3 violet : 1 white (or with Punnett square diagram)] [½ × 4]

Q69.2023 Main 31/4/1 · Q384 marks

The most obvious outcome of the reproductive process is the generation of individuals of similar design, but in sexual reproduction they may not be exactly alike. The resemblances as well as differences are marked. The rules of heredity determine the process by which traits and characteristics are reliably inherited. Many experiments have been done to study the rules of inheritance.

(i) Why an offspring of human being is not a true copy of his parents in sexual reproduction ?

(ii) While performing experiments on inheritance in plants, what is the difference between F1 and F2 generation ?

(iii) (A) Why do we say that variations are useful for the survival of a species over time ?

OR

(iii) (B) Study Mendel’s cross between two plants with a pair of contrasting characters.

RRYY × rryy
Round Yellow   Wrinkled Green

He observed 4 types of combinations in F2 generation. Which of these were new combinations ? Why do new features which are not present in the parents, appear in F2 generation ?

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2023 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/4/1

(i) Sexual reproduction involves the fusion of male and female gametes, which combines the characters of both parents and causes variation. [1]

(ii) [1 (any one)]

F1 generationF2 generation
In F1 generation only the dominant traits are expressed.In F2 generation both dominant and recessive traits are expressed.
It refers to the offspring/plants resulting immediately from a cross between the first set of parents.It refers to the offspring/plants resulting from a cross among the plants of F1 generation.

(iii) (A) Because if a niche of a population of organisms is altered, the whole population could be wiped out. However, if variations are present in this population they have some chance of survival. [2]

[Alternate answer] If there is a population of bacteria living in temperate waters and the water temperature were to be increased by global warming, most of the bacteria would die, but a few variants resistant to heat would survive and grow further. Thus, variations are useful for survival of species over time.

OR

(B) New combinations: Wrinkled, yellow [½]; Round, green [½]. If two or more traits are involved, their genes are independently inherited irrespective of the combination present in parents. [1]

Q70.2023 Main 31/5/1 · Q384 marks

In some families, either rural or urban, females are tortured for giving birth to a female child. They do not seem to understand the scientific reason behind the birth of a boy or a girl. In fact the mother is not responsible for the sex of the child and it has been genetically proved that the sex of a newborn is determined by what the child inherits from the father.

(a) State the basis on which the sex of a newborn baby is determined in humans.

(b) Why is the pair of sex chromosomes called a mismatched pair in males ?

(c) How is the original number of chromosomes present in the parents restored in the progeny ?

OR

(c) Explain by giving two examples of the organisms in which the sex is not genetically determined.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2023 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/5/1

(a) If the X chromosome of the male sperm fuses with the X chromosome of the female ovum, a girl child is born. [½] If the Y chromosome of the male sperm fuses with the X chromosome of the female ovum, a boy child is born. [½]

(b) Because one is a normal-sized ‘X’ while the other is a short one, ‘Y’. [1]

(c) During formation of germ cells/gametes the chromosome number is reduced to half. When two germ cells from two individuals combine to form a new individual, they restore the original number of chromosomes. [2]

OR

(c) Example 1: Reptiles – the temperature at which fertilized eggs are kept determines whether the animals developing in the eggs will be male or female. [½, ½]

Example 2: Snails – individuals can change sex during their lifetime. [½, ½]

Q71.2023 Main 31/6/1 · Q384 marks

All human chromosomes are not paired. Most human chromosomes have a maternal and a paternal copy, and we have 22 such pairs. But one pair called the sex chromosomes, is odd in not always being a perfect pair. Women have a perfect pair of sex chromosomes. But men have a mismatched pair in which one is normal sized while the other is a short one.

(a) In humans, how many chromosomes are present in a Zygote and in each gamete ?

(b) A few reptiles rely entirely on environmental cues for sex determination. Comment.

(c) “The sex of a child is a matter of chance and none of the parents are considered to be responsible for it.” Justify it through flow chart only.

OR

(c) Why do all the gametes formed in human females have an X chromosome ?

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2023 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/6/1

(a) Zygote – 23 pairs / 46 chromosomes. [½] Gamete – 23 chromosomes. [½]

(b) The temperature at which fertilised eggs are kept determines whether the animals developing in the eggs are male or female. [1]

(c) [Flow chart: “Sex determination in human beings”. Parents: Father XY, Mother XX. Father’s gametes: X and Y; mother’s gametes: X and X. Offspring: XX female, XX female, XY male, XY male. 50% probability of a female child; 50% probability of a male child.] [2]

OR

(c) The 23rd pair, or the sex chromosomes, in human females contains ‘XX’ chromosomes. At the time of gamete formation, each gamete gets one X chromosome. [2]

Q72.2022 Main 31/1/1 · Q144 marks

The mechanism by which the sex of an individual is determined is called sex-determination. In human beings, sex of a newborn is genetically determined, whereas in some others it is not. There are 46 (23 pairs) chromosomes in human beings. Out of these, 44 (22 pairs) control the body characters and 2 (one pair) are known as sex chromosomes. The sex chromosomes are of two types – X chromosome and Y chromosome. At the time of fertilisation, depending upon which type of male gamete fuses with the female gamete, the sex of the newborn child is decided.

(a) Why is a pair of sex chromosomes in human beings called a mismatched pair in terms of type and size ?

(b) Out of male or female, which of them has a perfect pair of sex chromosomes ? In case of a perfect pair, will the gametes produced be of the same kind or of a different kind ?

(c) (i) Name two animals whose sex is not genetically determined. Explain the process of their sex determination.

OR

(ii) With the help of a flowchart only, show how sex is genetically determined in human beings.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2022 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/1/1

(a) XY; Y is shorter than X. [½ + ½]

(b) Mother / Female; same kind. [½ + ½]

(c) (i) Reptiles and snails [½ + ½]

  • In reptiles, the temperature at which fertilised eggs are kept determines whether the animal developing in the eggs would be a male or a female. [½]
  • In snails, they can change their sex during their life time. [½]

OR

(c) (ii) Flowchart [Diagram 1 + Labelling 1]

[Diagram: Parents: Male (XY) and Female (XX) → Gametes: X, Y (from father) and X (from mother) → Zygote: XX and XY → Offspring: XX = girl (female), XY = boy (male)]

Q73.2022 Main 31/2/1 · Q144 marks

Mendel blended his knowledge of Science and mathematics to keep the count of the individuals exhibiting a particular trait in each generation. He observed a number of contrasting visible characters controlled in pea plants in a field. He conducted many experiments to arrive at the laws of inheritance.

(a) What do the F1 progeny of tall plants with round seeds and short plants with wrinkled seeds look like ?

(b) Name the recessive traits in above case.

(c) Mention the type of the new combinations of plants obtained in F2 progeny along with their ratio, if F1 progeny was allowed to self pollinate.

OR

(c) If 1600 plants were obtained in F2 progeny, write the number of plants having traits : (i) Tall with round seeds, (ii) Short with wrinkled seeds. Write the conclusion of the above experiment.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2022 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/2/1

(a) Tall with round seeds [1]

(b) Short with wrinkled seeds [1]

(c) Tall with wrinkled seeds : Short with round seeds [1]; ratio 3 : 3, i.e. 1 : 1 [1]

OR

(c) (i) 900 [½]; (ii) 100 [½]

Conclusion: when two individuals showing two different contrasting characteristics are bred with each other, new combinations are seen / visible in the F2 progeny as traits are independently inherited. [1]

Q74.2022 Main 31/4/1 · Q154 marks

Sex of an individual is determined by different factors in various species. Some animals rely entirely on the environmental cues, while in some other animals the individuals can change their sex during their life time indicating that sex of some species is not genetically determined. However, in human beings, the sex of an individual is largely determined genetically.

(a) In what way are the sex chromosomes ‘X’ and ‘Y’ different in size ? Name the mismatched pair of sex chromosome in humans.

(b) Write the number of pair/pairs of sex chromosomes present in human beings. In which one of the parent (male / female) perfect pair / pairs of sex chromosomes are present ?

(c) Citing two examples, justify the statement “Sex of an individual is not always determined genetically”.

OR

Draw a flow chart to show that sex is determined genetically in human beings.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2022 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/4/1

(a) X chromosome is of normal size and Y chromosome is short / Y is shorter than X. [½] The XY pair is the mismatched pair. [½]

(b) One pair of sex chromosomes [½]; mother / female has the perfect pair. [½]

(c)

  • In reptiles, the temperature at which fertilised eggs are kept determines whether the animal developing in the eggs would be a male or a female. [1]
  • In snails, they can change their sex during their lifetime. [1]

OR

[Flow chart: Parents: Male (XY) and Female (XX); Gametes: X, Y and X; Zygote: XX (Female offspring) and XY (Male offspring); ½ × 4 for the four labelled stages]

Q75.2022 Supplementary 31/6/1 · Q144 marks

A student crossed pea plants having round and yellow seeds with pea plants having wrinkled and green seeds. He found that only one type of seeds were produced in the F1 generation. When these F1 generation pea plants were self-pollinated with each other, then in addition to the seed type of F1 generation, some new types of seed combinations were also obtained in the F2 generation.

(a) Mention the dominant traits observed in F1 generation.

(b) What are the new possible combinations of seeds likely to be observed in F2 generation ?

(c) (i) Give reason why the traits which were not visible in the seeds of F1 generation reappeared in the seeds of F2 generation. Write the ratio of different types of seeds obtained in F2 generation in this case.

OR

(ii) What is meant by the terms (I) dominant, and (II) recessive traits ? Explain.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2022 (Supp), Q.P. Code 31/6/1

(a) Round and yellow. [½ + ½]

(b) Wrinkled and yellow; round and green. [½ + ½]

(c) (i) In the presence of the dominant trait the recessive trait does not express. Traits are inherited independently. [½ + ½] Round yellow : Round green : Wrinkled yellow : Wrinkled green = 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 [1]

OR

(ii) (I) Dominant trait: the trait which can express itself even in the presence of the recessive trait. [1]

(II) Recessive trait: the trait which cannot express itself in the presence of the dominant trait. [1]

Q76.SQP 2026-27 · Q154 marks

In order to study patterns of inheritance, Neha had performed typical Mendelian experiments with pea plants in the field. In experiment one, she crossed a pea plant having white flowers (vv) with another pea plant bearing violet flowers (VV). In another experiment, in addition to the colour of the flower she also focussed on the height of the pea plant. This time she crossed a pea plant having violet flowers and tall height (VVTT) with another pea plant having white flowers and short height (vvtt).

What percentage is expected for the following traits as a result of these experiments? Give a reason.

A. Violet flowers in F1 and F2 generation in experiment one? (1)

B. Tall height plants with white flowers in F2 generation in experiment two? (1)

Attempt either sub-part C or D.

C. Percentage of medium height plants with light violet flowers in F1 and F2 generations in experiment two? Give a reason.

OR

D. Percentage of short height plants with white flowers in F1 and F2 generations in experiment two? (2)

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CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 Marking Scheme (Class X Science)

A. In experiment one, in F1 all plants (100%) will have violet (Vv) flowers and in F2, 75% (3/4) plants will have violet flowers (1/4 VV and 2/4 Vv) because violet colour of the flower is a dominant trait in pea plant. [1]

B. 3/16 or 18.75% pea plants will have tall height and white flowers (vvTT/vvTt) – a combination of a dominant and a recessive trait. [1]

C. In pea plants, no half way characteristics are produced because even a single copy of T or V will produce the same result as two copies of T or V. Thus, no plants with medium height and light violet flowers will be produced in F1 or F2 generation (zero percent). [2]

OR

D. In F1 generation all plants will have only dominant traits so no plant with short height and white flowers (recessive traits) will be produced (zero percent). In F2 generation 1/16 or 6.25% plants will have short height with white flowers (vvtt) as both these traits are recessive. [2]

Unit V · Natural Resources

5. Our Environment

Q1.2026 Main 31/1/1 · Q71 mark

Which of the following group is not 'biodegradable' ?

  1. Vegetable peels, dead leaves, paper
  2. Cow dung, leather bag, water
  3. Polythene bag, rubber band, ball pen
  4. Paper, fruits, bones
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/1/1

(C) Polythene bag, rubber band, ball pen [1 mark]

Q2.2026 Main 31/2/1 · Q61 mark

Figure

In the given figure, identify the trophic level having maximum concentration of harmful chemicals.

  1. T1
  2. T5
  3. T4
  4. T3
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/2/1

(B) T5 [1 mark]

Q3.2026 Main 31/2/1 · Q71 mark

Which of the following limits the number of trophic levels in a food chain ?

  1. Availability of water
  2. Deficient food supply
  3. Decrease in energy at higher levels
  4. Pollution in air
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/2/1

(C) Decrease in energy at higher levels. [1 mark]

Q4.2026 Main 31/2/1 · Q91 mark

Assertion (A) : There are generally a greater number of individuals at the lower trophic levels of an ecosystem.

Reason (R) : The greatest number is of the producers.

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/2/1

(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A). [1 mark]

Q5.2026 Main 31/3/1 · Q51 mark

Organisms of a higher trophic level which feed on several types of organisms belonging to a lower trophic level form the :

  1. Food web
  2. Ecosystem
  3. Ecological pyramid
  4. Food chain
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/3/1

(A) Food Web [1 mark]

Q6.2026 Main 31/3/1 · Q61 mark

In accumulation of toxic substances at higher trophic levels of an ecosystem through the food chain, which of the following organisms is affected the most ?

  1. Small aquatic plants
  2. Human beings
  3. Small fish
  4. Large fish
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/3/1

(B) Human Beings [1 mark]

Q7.2026 Main 31/3/1 · Q81 mark

Assertion (A) : Natural replenishment of soil will not take place in absence of microbes.

Reason (R) : Microbes, comprising of bacteria and fungi, break down dead remains and waste products of organisms, and they go into the soil.

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/3/1

(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A [1 mark]

Q8.2026 Main 31/4/1 · Q31 mark

Given below are some of the statements regarding our environment :

(i) Change in our life-styles have resulted in greater amounts of waste material generation.

(ii) Changes in attitude have resulted in use of more disposable things.

(iii) Changes in packaging has resulted in much of our waste becoming non-biodegradable.

(iv) Organic farming.

Which amongst these is not leading to any damage of environment ?

  1. (i), (ii), (iii)
  2. (iv)
  3. (i) and (iii)
  4. (ii) and (iv)
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/4/1

(B) (iv) [1 mark]

Q9.2026 Main 31/4/1 · Q91 mark

Assertion (A) : Highest percentage of pesticides is found in tertiary consumers in a food chain.

Reason (R) : Chemicals / pesticides get accumulated progressively at each trophic level.

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/4/1

(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is correct explanation of Assertion (A). [1 mark]

Q10.2026 Main 31/5/1 · Q61 mark

Which of the following is a non-biodegradable pollutant ?

  1. Paper
  2. DDT
  3. Wood
  4. Vegetable peel
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/5/1

(B) DDT [1 mark]

Q11.2026 Main 31/5/1 · Q71 mark

In an ecosystem, the decomposers perform an important role. Select the option indicating the role of decomposers.

  1. Convert inorganic materials to simpler forms
  2. Break down complex organic substances to simple inorganic substances.
  3. Break down inorganic substances into organic substances.
  4. Do not act on organic compounds.
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/5/1

(B) Breakdown complex organic material into simple inorganic substances. [1 mark]

Q12.2026 Exam 2 31/8/1 · Q41 mark

Examine the given food chains to establish the correct one in an ecosystem :

  1. Seed → mouse → snake → deer
  2. Algae → small fish → large fish → hawk
  3. Grasshopper → frog → snake → elephant
  4. Plants → rabbit → deer → wolf
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Exam 2), Q.P. Code 31/8/1

(B) Algae → small fish → large fish → hawk [1 mark]

Q13.2026 Exam 2 31/8/1 · Q91 mark

Directions: Questions 8 and 9 consist of two statements - Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option from (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below.

Assertion (A) : The energy transferred to a lion when it eats a deer is only a small fraction of the deer's total energy content.

Reason (R) : Energy transfer is efficient at all trophic levels with nearly 90% of energy passed on to the next level.

  1. Both, Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  2. Both, Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Exam 2), Q.P. Code 31/8/1

(C) (A) is true but (R) is false. [1 mark]

Q14.2025 Main 31/1/1 · Q151 mark

Which of the following groups do not constitute a food chain ?

(i) Wolf, rabbit, grass, lion

(ii) Plankton, man, grasshopper, fish

(iii) Hawk, grass, snake, grasshopper, frog

(iv) Grass, snake, wolf, tiger

  1. (i) and (iv)
  2. (i) and (iii)
  3. (ii) and (iii)
  4. (ii) and (iv)
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/1/1

(D) (ii) and (iv) [1 mark]

Q15.2025 Main 31/1/1 · Q161 mark

The percentage of solar energy which is not converted into food energy by the leaves of green plants in a terrestrial ecosystem is about :

  1. 1%
  2. 10%
  3. 90%
  4. 99%
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/1/1

(D) 99% [1 mark]

Q16.2025 Main 31/1/1 · Q201 mark

Assertion (A) : The amount of ozone in the atmosphere began to drop sharply in the 1980s.

Reason (R) : The oxygen atoms combine with molecular oxygen to form ozone.

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/1/1

(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A). [1 mark]

Q17.2025 Main 31/2/1 · Q161 mark

Identify from the following a group containing all non-biodegradable substances.

  1. Leather, Glass, Plastic
  2. Cotton, Wood, Nylon
  3. DDT, Polyester, Glass
  4. Leather, Silk, Wool
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/2/1

(C) DDT, Polyester, Glass [1 mark]

Q18.2025 Main 31/3/1 · Q161 mark

Other than the abiotic components, which of the given biotic components are not required to make an aquarium with small herbivorous fishes a self-sustaining system ?

(i) Aquatic plants and aquatic animals

(ii) Terrestrial plants and terrestrial animals

(iii) Decomposers as bacteria and fungi

(iv) Consumers as clown fishes and sea urchins

  1. (i) and (iv)
  2. (ii) and (iii)
  3. (i) and (iii)
  4. (ii) and (iv)
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/3/1

(D) (ii) and (iv) [1 mark]

Q19.2025 Main 31/3/1 · Q201 mark

Assertion (A) : Use of jute bags for shopping reduces pollution.

Reason (R) : Jute is biodegradable and its bag may be reused as and when needed.

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/3/1

(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A). [1 mark]

Q20.2025 Main 31/4/1 · Q151 mark

In the food chains given below. Select the most efficient food chain in terms of energy :

  1. Grass → Grasshopper → Frog → Snake
  2. Plants → Deer → Lion
  3. Plants → Man
  4. Phytoplankton → Zooplankton → Small Fish → Big Fish
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/4/1

(C) Plants → Man [1 mark]

Q21.2025 Main 31/4/1 · Q161 mark

Which one of the following gets biomagnified at different levels in a food chain ?

  1. Carbon monoxide
  2. CFC's
  3. DDT
  4. Manure
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/4/1

(C) DDT [1 mark]

Q22.2025 Main 31/5/1 · Q151 mark

The examples of natural and manmade (artificial) ecosystems are respectively

  1. Forests and ponds
  2. Crop fields and lakes
  3. Lakes and gardens
  4. Crop fields and forests
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/5/1

(C) Lakes and gardens [1 mark]

Q23.2025 Main 31/5/1 · Q161 mark

Human activities that are affecting the environment are :

  1. minimising the use of chlorofluorocarbons.
  2. excessive use of disposable cups and plates.
  3. maximising the use of reusable utensils for eating food and drinking fluids.
  4. segregating the wastes into biodegradable and non-biodegradable before disposal.
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/5/1

(B) Excessive use of disposable cups and plates. [1 mark]

Q24.2025 Main 31/5/1 · Q201 mark

Assertion (A) : All organisms can make organic compounds like sugar and starch from inorganic substances using radiant energy of the sun.

Reason (R) : The organisms which can produce food by photosynthesis are called producers.

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/5/1

(D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true. [1 mark]

Q25.2025 Main 31/6/1 · Q151 mark

Consider the following food chain :

Grass → Grasshopper → Frog → Snake → Eagle

If the amount of energy available at third trophic level is 50 kJ, the available energy at the producer level was :

  1. 0.5 kJ
  2. 5 kJ
  3. 500 kJ
  4. 5000 kJ
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/6/1

(D) 5000 kJ [1 mark]

Q26.2025 Main 31/6/1 · Q161 mark

The incorrect statement about ozone is

  1. It is a deadly poisonous gas.
  2. It shields the surface of the earth from UV radiation from sun.
  3. It is used as a refrigerant and in fire-extinguishers.
  4. It is formed by combining oxygen molecule with free oxygen atom.
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/6/1

(C) It is used as a refrigerant and in fire-extinguishers. [1 mark]

Q27.2025 Main 31/6/1 · Q201 mark

Assertion (A) : Food web is a network of several food chains operating in an ecosystem.

Reason (R) : Food web decreases the stability of an ecosystem.

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/6/1

(C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false. [1 mark]

Q28.2025 Supplementary 31/S/1 · Q151 mark

The organism occupying the fourth trophic level in a food chain operating in grassland is :

  1. Green plants
  2. Frog
  3. Grasshopper
  4. Snake
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Supplementary), Q.P. Code 31/S/1

(D) Snake [1 mark]

Q29.2025 Supplementary 31/S/1 · Q161 mark

Which one of the following statements is incorrect about the effect on our environment as a result of our activities ?

  1. Improvement in our lifestyle has resulted in greater amounts of waste.
  2. Packaging of materials has resulted in lesser amount of non-biodegradable waste.
  3. Use of disposable cups/kulhads results in loss of fertile topsoil.
  4. Harmful wastes that are non-biodegradable persist in the environment for a long time.
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Supplementary), Q.P. Code 31/S/1

(B) Packaging of materials has resulted in lesser amount of non-biodegradable waste. [1 mark]

Q30.2024 Main 31/1/1 · Q151 mark

Identify the food chain in which the organisms of the second trophic level are missing :

  1. Grass, goat, lion
  2. Zooplankton, Phytoplankton, small fish, large fish
  3. Tiger, grass, snake, frog
  4. Grasshopper, grass, snake, frog, eagle
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2024 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/1/1

(C) Tiger, grass, snake, frog [1 mark]

Q31.2024 Main 31/1/1 · Q181 mark

Assertion (A) : Accumulation of harmful chemicals is maximum in the organisms at the highest trophic level of a food chain.

Reason (R) : Harmful chemicals are sprayed on the crops to protect them from diseases and pests.

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2024 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/1/1

(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A). [1 mark]

Q32.2024 Main 31/3/1 · Q151 mark

A food chain will be more advantageous in terms of energy if it has

  1. 2 trophic levels
  2. 3 trophic levels
  3. 4 trophic levels
  4. 5 trophic levels
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2024 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/3/1

(A) 2 trophic levels [1 mark]

Q33.2024 Main 31/3/1 · Q161 mark

Consider the following statements about ozone :

(a) Ozone is poisonous gas.

(b) Ozone shields the earth's surface from the infrared radiation from the sun.

(c) Ozone is a product of UV radiations acting on oxygen molecule.

(d) At the lower level of the earth's atmosphere, ozone performs most essential function.

The correct statements are

  1. (a) and (b)
  2. (a) and (c)
  3. (b) and (c)
  4. (b) and (d)
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2024 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/3/1

(B) (a) and (c) [1 mark]

Q34.2024 Main 31/3/1 · Q201 mark

Assertion (A) : The waste we generate daily may be biodegradable or non-biodegradable.

Reason (R) : The waste generated, if not disposed off properly may cause serious environmental problems.

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  2. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
  3. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
  4. (A) is false, but (R) is true.
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2024 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/3/1

(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A). [1 mark]

Q35.2024 Main 31/4/1 · Q161 mark

Some wastes are given below :

(i) Garden waste

(ii) Ball point pen refills

(iii) Empty medicine bottles made of glass

(iv) Peels of fruits and vegetables

(v) Old cotton shirt

The non-biodegradable wastes among these are :

  1. (i) and (ii)
  2. (ii) and (iii)
  3. (i), (iv) and (v)
  4. (i), (iii) and (iv)
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2024 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/4/1

(B) (ii) and (iii) [1 mark]

Q36.2024 Main 31/4/1 · Q201 mark

Assertion (A) : Oxygen is essential for all aerobic forms of life.

Reason (R) : Free oxygen atoms combine with molecular oxygen to form ozone.

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2024 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/4/1

(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A). [1 mark]

Q37.2024 Main 31/5/1 · Q161 mark

Which one of the following is not a natural ecosystem ?

  1. Pond ecosystem
  2. Grassland ecosystem
  3. Forest ecosystem
  4. Cropland ecosystem
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2024 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/5/1

(D) Crop land ecosystem [1 mark]

Q38.2024 Main 31/5/1 · Q201 mark

Assertion (A) : Ozone layer protects the surface of the Earth from harmful UV radiations.

Reason (R) : Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) are responsible for depletion of ozone layer.

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2024 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/5/1

(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of Assertion (A). [1 mark]

Q39.2024 Supplementary 31/S/1 · Q151 mark

Consider the following statements :

I. Every step in a food chain is called a trophic level.

II. Decomposers convert complex inorganic matter in dead remains of organisms into simple substances that go into the soil.

III. In a food chain, energy level increases from lower trophic level to higher trophic level.

IV. Linkages between various food chains constitute a food web.

The correct statements is/are :

  1. I only
  2. I and IV
  3. I, II and IV
  4. II and IV
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2024 (Supplementary), Q.P. Code 31/S/1

(B) I and IV [1 mark]

Q40.2024 Supplementary 31/S/1 · Q161 mark

Biomagnification refers to the increase in the :

  1. body weight of an organism.
  2. growth of phytoplanktons.
  3. the amount of harmful chemicals in the successive trophic levels of a food chain.
  4. number of plants and animals in an area.
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2024 (Supplementary), Q.P. Code 31/S/1

(C) the amount of harmful chemicals in the successive trophic levels of a food chain. [1 mark]

Q41.2024 Supplementary 31/S/1 · Q201 mark

Assertion (A) : Ozone (O3) is a molecule formed by the three atoms of oxygen.

Reason (R) : Ozone shields the surface of the Earth from ultraviolet (UV) radiation from the Sun.

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2024 (Supplementary), Q.P. Code 31/S/1

(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A). [1 mark]

Q42.2023 Main 31/6/1 · Q101 mark

Study the given figure of a Food web and identify the primary consumer in the food web :

Figure

  1. Mice and Bear
  2. Rabbit and Cat
  3. Rabbit and Fox
  4. Mice and Rabbit
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CBSE Marking Scheme 2023 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/6/1

(D) Mice and Rabbit [1 mark]

Q43.2023 Main 31/6/1 · Q181 mark

Assertion (A) : The energy which passes to the herbivores does not come back to autotrophs.

Reason (R) : The flow of energy in a food chain is unidirectional.

Select the correct answer from the options given below.

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Marking Scheme 2023 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/6/1

(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of (A). [1 mark]

Q44.SQP 2025-26 · Q61 mark

Which are the correct statements related to ozone?

(i) Ozone layer helps in increasing the UV radiations reaching earth.

(ii) Ozone is a deadly poison.

(iii) Ozone layer shields the earth from UV radiations.

(iv) Ozone layer prevents UV rays which cause skin cancer.

(v) Ozone is formed with the help of Chlorofluorocarbons.

  1. (i), (ii), (iii)
  2. (ii), (iii), (iv)
  3. (iii), (iv), (v)
  4. (i), (iv), (v)
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CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 Marking Scheme (Class X Science)

(B) (ii), (iii), (iv) [1 mark]

Q45.SQP 2025-26 · Q71 mark

Which of the following human activities has resulted in an increase of non-biodegradable substances?

  1. Organic farming
  2. Increase in tree plantation
  3. Use of plastic as packaging material
  4. Composting of kitchen waste
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CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 Marking Scheme (Class X Science)

(C) Use of plastic as packaging material. [1 mark]

Q46.SQP 2025-26 · Q91 mark

Assertion (A) : Vulture will always have the least amount of pesticides in a food chain.

Reason (R) : Vulture occupies the last trophic level and it gets only 10% of energy of the previous trophic level.

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Reveal answerHide answer
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 Marking Scheme (Class X Science)

(D) A is false but R is true. [1 mark]

Q47.SQP 2026-27 · Q71 mark

A fish living in a pond ecosystem feeds on small aquatic insects (larvae). These insect larvae, in turn, feed on green algae and small photosynthetic bacteria. In this specific food chain, what is the trophic level classification of fish?

  1. Producer
  2. Primary Consumer
  3. Secondary Consumer
  4. Tertiary Consumer
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CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 Marking Scheme (Class X Science)

(C) Secondary Consumer [1 mark]

Q48.SQP 2026-27 · Q91 mark

Assertion (A) : In an ecosystem, 1% of energy is available for transfer from one trophic level to the next.

Reason (R) : An average of 10% of the food eaten by organisms is available for flow in the form of chemical energy.

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
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CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 Marking Scheme (Class X Science)

(D) A is false but R is true [1 mark]

Q49.2026 Main 31/2/1 · Q122 marks

Suggest one best way to dispose of the following wastes :

(i) Kitchen waste

(ii) Metallic waste

(iii) Plastic bottles

(iv) Sanitary waste

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/2/1
  • (i) Composting [½]
  • (ii) recycle/reuse [½]
  • (iii) recycle/reuse [½]
  • (iv) Incineration [½]

(or any other relevant answer)

Q50.2026 Main 31/3/1 · Q102 marks

(i) Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) have been linked to depletion of ozone layer. In 1987, the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) succeeded in making an agreement. State this agreement.

(ii) What is the role of ozone in our atmosphere ?

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/3/1

(i) To freeze the CFC production at 1986 levels. [1]

(ii) Ozone shields the earth’s surface from harmful UV radiations. [1]

Q51.2026 Main 31/4/1 · Q112 marks

Explain why food chains generally consist of three or four steps.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/4/1
  • Only 10% of the energy from one trophic level is transferred to the next level. Most of the energy is lost as heat. [1]
  • So very little usable energy will remain after four trophic levels. [1]

[Food chain shown in scheme: Grass (Producer, 1000 kCal) → 10% → Grasshopper (Primary consumer, 100 kCal) → 10% → Frog (Secondary consumer, 10 kCal)] (Any other suitable food chain)

Q52.2026 Exam 2 31/7/1 · Q102 marks

How is ozone layer formed in our atmosphere ? State one important role of ozone in our atmosphere. What is responsible for its depletion ?

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Exam 2), Q.P. Code 31/7/1
  • Formation: O2 (UV) → O + O; O2 + O → O3 (Ozone) [1]
    Alternate answer: The higher energy UV radiations split apart some molecular oxygen (O2) into free oxygen atoms which then combine with the molecular oxygen (O2) to form ozone.
  • Role: It prevents harmful UV rays from reaching the earth's atmosphere. [½]
  • Depletion is caused by CFCs (chlorofluorocarbons). [½]
Q53.2025 Main 31/1/1 · Q262 marks

“Excessive use of chemicals and pesticides in agriculture adversely effect the environment.” Justify this statement.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/1/1

Chemicals/pesticides used by farmers get washed down into the soil or water bodies and affect biotic and abiotic components of the ecosystem. These chemicals are mostly non-biodegradable and get accumulated progressively at each trophic level (biological magnification). Thus, the health of the organisms of all trophic levels is affected. [2]

Q54.2025 Main 31/5/1 · Q262 marks

(a) Why are the organisms of first trophic level important in any food chain ?

(b) Justify the following statement : “The flow of energy in an ecosystem is unidirectional.”

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/5/1
  • (a) The organisms of the first trophic level fix up the solar energy and make it available for heterotrophs or the consumers. [1]
  • (b) As energy moves progressively through various trophic levels it is no longer available to the previous level / the energy that is captured by autotrophs does not revert back to solar input / the energy passed to herbivores does not come back to autotrophs (producers). [1]
Q55.2025 Main 31/6/1 · Q262 marks

We do not clean natural ponds or lakes whereas an aquarium or a swimming pool needs to be cleaned regularly. Why ?

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/6/1
  • Ponds or lakes have natural cleansing agents like microbes which clean the ponds or lakes, whereas an aquarium or a swimming pool is an artificial / man-made ecosystem and does not have decomposers. [1]
  • If we do not clean the aquarium regularly, the waste material will go on increasing, which is harmful for fishes and aquatic plants. [1]
Q56.2024 Main 31/2/1 · Q262 marks

Name the term used for the materials which cannot be broken down by biological processes. Give two ways by which they harm various components of an ecosystem.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2024 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/2/1
  • Non-biodegradable substances [1]
  • Two ways (any two, or any other): (i) They are inert and persist in the environment for a long time and cause pollution. (ii) Cause biological magnification. (iii) Affect the fertility of soil. [½ + ½]
Q57.2024 Main 31/3/1 · Q262 marks

What are decomposers ? List two consequences of their absence in an ecosystem.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2024 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/3/1
  • Decomposers are the microorganisms that break-down the complex organic substances into simple inorganic substances. [1]
  • Consequences (any two or any other): (i) No replenishment of soil (ii) Foul smell (iii) Breeding of flies (iv) Accumulation of dead plants and animals in the environment (v) No recycling of nutrients. [½ + ½]
Q58.2024 Supplementary 31/S/1 · Q262 marks

"A vegetarian food habit helps in getting more energy." Justify the statement.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2024 (Supplementary), Q.P. Code 31/S/1

A vegetarian food habit involves only a two-step food chain: Producer → Primary consumer (Herbivore). [1]

An average of 10% of the amount of organic matter reaches the next level of consumer, hence it gets more energy. [1]

Q59.2023 Main 31/1/1 · Q262 marks

How do harmful chemicals get accumulated progressively at each trophic level in a food chain ?

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2023 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/1/1

The chemicals sprayed on crops are washed down into the soil. From the soil these are absorbed by plants along with water and minerals; plants are eaten by animals. This way they enter a food chain. As these chemicals are not degradable, they get accumulated progressively at each successive trophic level. This phenomenon is called biomagnification. [2]

Q60.2023 Main 31/2/1 · Q262 marks

We do not clean ponds or lakes but an aquarium needs to be cleaned regularly. Why ?

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2023 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/2/1

An aquarium is a man-made ecosystem in which natural cleansing agents like decomposers are not present, so it needs periodic cleaning; [1]

ponds and lakes are natural ecosystems which have natural cleansing agents (decomposers). [1]

Q61.2023 Main 31/4/1 · Q262 marks

Use of several pesticides which results in excessive accumulation of pesticides in rivers or ponds, is a matter of deep concern. Justify this statement.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2023 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/4/1

As these pesticides are non-biodegradable, they get concentrated at each subsequent trophic level progressively and ultimately result in biomagnification. [2]

Q62.2023 Main 31/5/1 · Q262 marks

In the following food chain, if 50 J of energy was available to the hawk, how much energy would have been present at the first and third tropic levels ? Justify your answer.

Grass → Grasshopper → Frog → Snake → Hawk

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2023 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/5/1

The energy at first trophic level will be 5,00,000 J. [½] The energy at third trophic level will be 5000 J. [½]

10% can be taken as the average value for the amount of organic matter/energy that is present at each step and reaches the next level of consumers. [1]

Q63.2023 Supplementary 31/C/1 · Q262 marks

(a) State any one advantage of using cloth bags over plastic bags.

(b) List any two methods by which the solid wastes generated in urban areas can be safely disposed off.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2023 (Supplementary), Q.P. Code 31/C/1

(a) Cloth bag is biodegradable / eco-friendly. [1]

(b) Any two (or any other suitable way): [½ + ½]

  1. Segregation of biodegradable and non-biodegradable waste at source.
  2. By composting.
  3. Recycling of solid wastes.
Q64.2022 Main 31/1/1 · Q72 marks

(a) What is ozone ? How is it formed in the upper layers of the Earth's atmosphere ? How does ozone affect our ecosystem ?

OR

(b) (i) List two human-made ecosystems.

(ii) “We do not clean a pond in the same manner as we do in an aquarium.” Give reason to justify this statement.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2022 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/1/1

(a)

  • Ozone is a molecule formed by three atoms of oxygen. [½]
  • UV radiations split some molecular oxygen (O2) into free oxygen atoms (O + O). These atoms then combine with molecular oxygen to form ozone. [1] (O2 → O + O under UV; O + O2 → O3)
  • Ozone layer shields the surface of the earth from damaging UV radiation of the sun. / Depletion of ozone layer causes harmful effects on the organisms. [½]

OR

(b)

(i) Aquarium, crop field, gardens, etc. (any two) [½ + ½]

(ii) A pond is a natural ecosystem. It has decomposers whereas an aquarium is an artificial ecosystem and does not contain decomposers. Therefore it needs regular cleaning for proper functioning. [1]

Q65.2022 Main 31/2/1 · Q72 marks

In the following food chain, only 2J of energy was available to the peacocks. How much energy would have been present in Grass ? Justify your answer.

GRASS → GRASS HOPPER → FROG → SNAKE → PEACOCK

OR

(a) What is meant by garbage ? List two classes into which garbage is classified.

(b) What do we actually mean when we say that the “enzymes are specific in their action” ?

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2022 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/2/1
  • 20,000 J [1]
  • Only 10% of the usable energy / amount of organic matter is transferred from one trophic level to the next higher trophic level in a food chain and the rest 90% is lost to the environment as heat. [1]

OR

(a)

  • Waste material generated in day-to-day lives. [½]
  • Biodegradable and non-biodegradable substances. [½]

(b) Specific enzymes are needed for the breakdown of a particular / specific substance. [1]

Q66.2022 Main 31/3/1 · Q12 marks

(a) Kulhads (disposable cups made of clay) and disposable paper cups both are used as an alternative for disposable plastic cups. Which one of these two can be considered as a better alternative to plastic cups and why ?

OR

(b) Human beings are most adversely affected by the Biological Magnification. State the reason. Why can ordinary washing of the edibles (fruits and vegetables) not reduce the effect of biological magnification ?

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2022 (Term 2), Q.P. Code 31/3/1

(a) Disposable paper cups. [1] Making of kulhads on a large scale would result in the loss of fertile top soil. / Disposable paper cups can easily decompose and do not pollute the environment. [1] (or any other suitable answer)

OR

(b) Human beings occupy the top level in any food chain, therefore the maximum concentration of these chemicals gets accumulated in our bodies. [1]

Harmful chemicals or pesticides get absorbed from the soil by the plants along with water and minerals, therefore ordinary washing cannot remove these harmful chemicals. [1]

Q67.2022 Main 31/4/1 · Q52 marks

“The improvement in our lifestyle has led to the generation of large amount of waste material.” List two reasons to justify this statement.

OR

“The change in packaging has resulted in waste becoming non-biodegradable.” Giving two examples from daily life, justify this statement.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2022 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/4/1
  • Improvement in lifestyle has led to large consumption of resources. [1]
  • Demand for things with disposable nature increases the non-biodegradable wastes like plastics, metal cans etc. [1] (or any other)

OR

  • The demand for increasing the shelf life of products and transporting goods over large distances is increasing, so plastics / polythene packing is preferred. [1]
  • Less use of biodegradable products such as paper bags, cloth bags etc. [1] (or any other)
Q68.2022 Supplementary 31/6/1 · Q72 marks

(a) (i) Why are crop fields considered as artificial ecosystems ?

(ii) Write a common food chain of four steps operating in a terrestrial ecosystem.

OR

(b) (i) Why should biodegradable and non-biodegradable wastes be discarded separately ?

(ii) What destructive effect do chlorofluorocarbons bring about in the atmosphere and to the mankind ?

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2022 (Supp), Q.P. Code 31/6/1

(a) (i) Because all the biotic as well as abiotic components are created / controlled by human beings. [1]

(ii) Plants → Insect → Frog → Snake (or any other) [1]

OR

(b) (i) Only biodegradable wastes are decomposed into simpler substances and non-biodegradable wastes can be recycled. [1]

(ii) To atmosphere: ozone layer depletion [½]. To mankind: damage to eyes / skin cancer in human beings [½].

Q69.SQP 2025-26 · Q122 marks

About 100 acres of forest land was declared as Natural reserve park. The following organisms were predominant in the Natural reserve park:

rabbit, frog, grass, fish, fox, water insects, zebra, peacock, snake, trees, bird, owl, insects, tiger, vulture, duck.

Create a food web comprising two separate food chains with different producers by using the above data.

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CBSE Sample Question Paper 2025-26 Marking Scheme (Class X Science)
  • Tree food chain – tree, zebra, tiger / any other food chain
  • Grassland food chain – grass, zebra, tiger / any other food chain
  • Food web – join the two food chains at a common point (zebra)
Q70.2026 Main 31/1/1 · Q133 marks

Given below is a pyramid showing various trophic levels in an ecosystem :

Figure

(a) From the organisms listed below, identify which one is to be placed at which trophic level ?
Deer, Grass, Lion, Snake, Rabbit

(b) Discuss the reason why primary consumers will have more energy as compared to secondary consumers ?

(c) Why is the base of the pyramid broad ?

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/1/1

(a) (i) Grass; (ii) Deer, Rabbit; (iii) Snake, Lion; (iv) Lion [1]

(b) Primary consumers feed on green plants which have large amount of energy. Only 10% of its energy is available / passed for the next secondary consumer / trophic level. [1]

(c) The base is broad as the number / energy / mass of producers is usually the highest in comparison to other trophic levels of the pyramid. [1]

Q71.2026 Main 31/5/1 · Q143 marks

(a) Mention any one harmful effect of using plastic bags on the environment. Suggest better alternatives to the usage of plastic bags.

(b) Paddy fields require a large amount of water. The pesticides and chemical fertilizers used are washed down into the soil or waterbodies. How do these chemicals reach our bodies ? What is this phenomenon known as ?

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/5/1

(a)

  • Plastics being non-biodegradable persist in environment for a long time. [½] (any other harmful effect)
  • Alternative - Jute or cloth bag [½] (any other suitable alternative)

(b)

  • Pesticides and chemical fertilizers are not biodegradable. They accumulate progressively at each trophic level. As human beings occupy the top level in any food chain the maximum concentration of these chemicals get accumulated in our bodies. [1]
  • This phenomenon is biological magnification. [1]
Q72.2026 Exam 2 31/7/1 · Q143 marks

(a) Improper waste disposal is a curse to the environment. Explain.

(b) Why are crop fields considered as artificial ecosystems ?

(c) Farmers are using pesticides on the crop plants, but the chances of accumulation of harmful chemicals is greatest in human beings. Why ? Name the phenomenon.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Exam 2), Q.P. Code 31/7/1

(a) When waste is not segregated at source, it gets accumulated and materials like plastic will not be biodegraded. It may clog drains, pollute rivers and oceans and cause harm to cattle, fishes etc. (or any other) [1]

(b) Because crop fields are man-made ecosystems and in these living organisms interact with each other and also with the abiotic components of the ecosystem. [1]

(c) These chemicals are non-biodegradable, hence keep getting accumulated at each trophic level, increasing progressively. As human beings occupy the top level in a food chain, the maximum concentration of these chemicals gets accumulated in them. [½]

The phenomenon is biological magnification. [½]

Q73.2026 Exam 2 31/8/1 · Q133 marks

What role does UV radiation play in the formation of the ozone layer ? Explain the process with relevant chemical reactions. Why is the excessive use of CFCs (Chlorofluoro Carbons) a cause of concern for organisms ?

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2026 (Exam 2), Q.P. Code 31/8/1
  • UV radiation splits apart molecular oxygen into free oxygen atoms, necessary for ozone formation. [1]
    O2 (UV) → O + O
  • O + O2 → O3 (ozone) [1]
  • Excessive use of CFCs causes depletion of the ozone layer. This allows more UV radiation to enter the earth's atmosphere, which is highly damaging to organisms / causes skin cancer in humans. [1]
Q74.2025 Main 31/2/1 · Q333 marks

Write the essential function performed by ozone at the higher levels of the atmosphere. How is it formed in the upper atmosphere ? Write the name of the group of chemicals mainly responsible for the depletion of ozone layer.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/2/1
  • Ozone (O3) shields the surface of earth from Ultra violet (UV) radiation which are highly damaging to organisms (may cause skin cancer). [1]
  • Ultra violet (UV) radiations split apart some molecular oxygen (O2) into free oxygen (O) atoms. These atoms then combine with molecular oxygen to form ozone. [1]
  • Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) / freons [1]
Q75.2025 Main 31/3/1 · Q333 marks

(a) “In a food chain energy flow is unidirectional.” Give two reasons for the given statement.

(b) If 10,000 J energy is available at the producer level, how much energy will be available to the secondary consumers ? Give reason to justify your answer.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/3/1

(a) (any two) [1 × 2]

  • The energy captured by plants does not revert to solar input and the energy which passes to the herbivores does not revert back to autotrophs.
  • As energy moves progressively through the various trophic levels it is no longer available to the previous level.
  • The energy available at each trophic level gets diminished progressively due to loss of energy at each level.

(b) 100 J [½]

Autotrophs (10000 J) → Primary consumer (1000 J) → Secondary consumer (100 J) [½]

/ Only 10% energy of the organic matter of the previous trophic level is transferred to the next trophic level. / 10% law (b) carries 1 mark in all)

Q76.2025 Main 31/4/1 · Q333 marks

What are decomposers? Give two examples. State how they maintain a balance in an ecosystem.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/4/1
  • Decomposers are the microorganisms which break down complex organic substances into simple inorganic substances. [1]
  • Examples: bacteria and fungi [½ + ½]
  • The simple substances formed by decomposition go into the soil and are used up once more by the plants, thus maintaining the balance of the ecosystem. [1]
Q77.2025 Supplementary 31/S/1 · Q333 marks

(a) Define the term biological magnification.

(b) In the given aquatic food chain, which trophic level will have highest effect of biological magnification and why ?

Phytoplankton → Zooplankton → Fishes → Human

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2025 (Supplementary), Q.P. Code 31/S/1

(a) Progressive accumulation of harmful chemicals (pesticides / DDT / non-biodegradable chemicals) at each trophic level as we go higher in the food chain. [1]

(b) Human / Fourth trophic level [1]

As human beings occupy the top level in the food chain, the maximum concentration of non-biodegradable (harmful) chemicals get accumulated in human bodies. [1]

Q78.2024 Main 31/1/1 · Q333 marks

(A) Plants → Deer → Lion

In the given food chain, what will be the impact of removing all the organisms of second trophic level on the first and third trophic level ? Will the impact be the same for the organisms of the third trophic level in the above food chain if they were present in a food web ? Justify.

OR

(B) A gas 'X' which is a deadly poison is found at the higher levels of atmosphere and performs an essential function.

Name the gas and write the function performed by this gas in the atmosphere. Which chemical is linked to the decrease in the level of this gas ? What measures have been taken by an international organization to check the depletion of the layer containing this gas ?

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2024 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/1/1

(A)

  • Number of plants/organisms of first trophic level will increase. [1]
  • Number of lions/organisms of third trophic level will decrease. [1]
  • No [½]
  • As the organisms of that level will find alternative foods and will not starve to death / food web is more stable where other animals as prey may be available. [½]

OR

(B)

  • Gas 'X' is Ozone [1]
  • Ozone shields the surface of the earth from ultra-violet (UV) radiations from the sun. [1]
  • CFCs (Chlorofluorocarbons) [½]
  • Succeeded in forging an agreement to freeze CFC production at 1986 levels / Manufacturing of CFC free refrigerators [½]
Q79.2024 Main 31/2/1 · Q333 marks

Use of pesticides to protect our crops affect organisms at various trophic levels especially human beings. Name the phenomenon involved and explain how does it happen.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2024 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/2/1
  • Phenomenon – Biological Magnification / Biomagnification [1]
  • Pesticides are washed down into the soil and water bodies. [½]
  • From the soil pesticides are absorbed by crop plants along with water and minerals and enter the food chain. [½]
  • These chemicals are non-biodegradable and get accumulated progressively at each trophic level. [½]
  • As human beings occupy the top level in any food chain, the maximum concentration of these chemicals gets accumulated in our bodies. [½]
Q80.2024 Main 31/4/1 · Q333 marks

Study the picture given below showing three food chains (a), (b) and (c) and answer the following questions :

Figure

(i) Name the type of ecosystems that exist in food chains (b) and (c).

(ii) The first trophic level in all food chains are producers. Why ? What percentage of solar energy do these producers capture for their use ?

(iii) Why are the arrows shown in the diagram in one direction only and not vice versa ? Justify.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2024 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/4/1

(i) (b) Terrestrial / grassland / cropland [½]; (c) Aquatic / pond [½]

(ii) First trophic level are always producers or autotrophs as they can capture the solar energy and convert it into chemical energy. [½] 1% energy is captured. [½]

(iii) Because energy flows in one direction only. [½] Justification: when energy passes from one trophic level to other it cannot revert back. [½]

Q81.2024 Main 31/5/1 · Q333 marks

Differentiate between food chain and food web. In a food chain consisting of deer, grass and tiger, if the population of deer decreases, what will happen to the population of organisms belonging to the first and third trophic levels ?

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2024 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/5/1
Food chainFood web
It is a series of organisms feeding on one another at various levelsIt is a network of interconnected food chains / series of branching lines which provides a number of feeding connections amongst different organisms.

[1+1]

Population of grass / first trophic level will increase. [½]

Population of tiger / third trophic level will decrease. [½]

Q82.2023 Main 31/1/1 · Q333 marks

(a) (i) Why does a kitchen garden called an artificial ecosystem while a forest is considered to be a natural ecosystem ?

(ii) While designing an artificial ecosystem at home, write any two things to be kept in mind to convert it into a self-sustaining system. Give reason to justify your answer.

OR

(b) (i) Construct a food chain of four trophic levels comprising the following :

Hawk, snake, plants, rat.

(ii) 20,000 J of energy was transferred by the producers to the organism of second trophic level. Calculate the amount of energy that will be transferred by organisms of the third trophic level to the organisms of the fourth trophic level.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2023 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/1/1

(a) (i) Kitchen garden → a man-made ecosystem / non-sustainable; Forest → ecosystem maintained by nature / self-sustainable. [1]

(ii) In a jar containing water we can provide oxygen through a pump and add a few aquatic plants and animals to make it a self-sustaining system (or any other example). [1]

Justification: oxygen is replenished continuously; aquatic plants serve as food. [1]

OR

(b) (i) Plants → Rats → Snakes → Hawks [1]

(ii) Energy available at second trophic level = 20,000 J; energy transferred from second to third trophic level = 2000 J [1]; energy transferred from third to fourth trophic level = 200 J [1]

Q83.2023 Main 31/2/1 · Q333 marks

Explain how some harmful chemicals enter our bodies through the food chain. Why is the concentration of these harmful chemicals found to be maximum in human beings ?

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2023 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/2/1

Some harmful substances like pesticides are used to protect crops. When these chemicals are washed down into the soil or water bodies, they are absorbed by plants along with water and minerals and by animals from water. When we consume these food items, the pesticides enter our body. [2] (Alternate answer: if the child explains the question through a food chain, credit marks.)

As human beings occupy the top level in any food chain, the maximum concentration of these chemicals gets accumulated in them. [1]

Q84.2023 Main 31/4/1 · Q333 marks

Write one difference between biodegradable and non-biodegradable wastes. List two impacts of each type of the accumulated waste on environment if not disposed off properly.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2023 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/4/1
BiodegradableNon-biodegradable
Biodegradable wastes can be broken down by biological processes.Non-biodegradable wastes cannot be broken down by biological processes.

[1]

Impact of accumulated biodegradable wastes: (i) foul smell [½] (ii) breeding place for carriers of diseases [½] (or any other)

Impact of accumulated non-biodegradable wastes: (i) biological magnification [½] (ii) affects soil fertility [½] (or any other)

Q85.2023 Main 31/5/1 · Q333 marks

How is ozone formed in the higher levels of the atmosphere ? “Damage to the ozone layer is a cause of concern.” Justify this statement.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2023 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/5/1
  • UV radiations act on the oxygen molecule (O2) and split the oxygen molecule into free (nascent) oxygen atoms. [1]
  • These free oxygen atoms combine with an oxygen molecule (O2) to form ozone (O3). [1]

Alternate answer: O2 → O + O (UV); O + O2 → O3

Damage to ozone layer: UV radiations reach the Earth and cause harmful effects like skin cancer in human beings. [½ + ½]

Q86.2023 Main 31/6/1 · Q333 marks

(a) Write the percentage of (i) solar energy captured by the autotrophs and (ii) energy transferred from autotrophs to the next level in a food chain.

(b) What are trophic levels ? Why do different food chains in an ecosystem not have more than four to five trophic levels ? Give reason.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2023 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/6/1

(a) (i) 1% [½] (ii) 10% energy [½]

(b) Every step of a food chain where transfer of energy occurs. [1] Since the amount of available energy keeps on becoming less as we move to higher trophic levels, very little usable energy remains after four trophic levels. [1]

Q87.2023 Supplementary 31/C/1 · Q333 marks

Define trophic levels. At which trophic level do we find (i) secondary and (ii) tertiary consumers in a food chain ? What will happen if all the organisms of a trophic level die ? Give reasons to justify your answer.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2023 (Supplementary), Q.P. Code 31/C/1
  • Trophic level – various steps or levels in a food chain. [1]
  • (i) Secondary consumer – third trophic level. [½]
  • (ii) Tertiary consumer – fourth trophic level. [½]
  • 1. Death of all organisms at one trophic level will lead to ecological imbalance / disrupt the food chain. [½]
  • 2. Organisms of the next level will starve to death / enter other food chain / organisms of the previous level will multiply profusely / (any other). [½]
Q88.2022 Main 31/1/1 · Q133 marks

(a) Name the group of organisms which form in the first trophic level of all food chains. Why are they called so ?

(b) Why are the human beings most adversely affected by bio-magnification ?

(c) State one ill-effect of the absence of decomposers from a natural ecosystem.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2022 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/1/1

(a) Producers, as they can manufacture food by the process of photosynthesis. [½ + ½]

(b) When non-degradable harmful chemicals (pesticides / DDT, etc.) enter a food chain, they get progressively accumulated at each trophic level. Human beings occupy the top level in any food chain, therefore the maximum concentration of these chemicals gets accumulated in their bodies. [1]

(c) Any one: Earth would be covered with dead bodies and foul smell; recycling of minerals will not take place; soil will not get replenished; ecosystem will get disrupted (or any other relevant point). [1]

Q89.2022 Main 31/2/1 · Q133 marks

(a) We do not clean ponds or lakes, but an aquarium needs to be cleaned regularly. Why ?

(b) Why is ozone layer getting depleted at the higher levels of the atmosphere ? Mention one harmful effect caused by its depletion.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2022 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/2/1

(a) A pond is a natural ecosystem having its own cleaning system in the form of decomposers, whereas an aquarium is a man-made or artificial ecosystem having no decomposers. [1]

(b) It is due to release of chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) in the atmosphere. [1] The harmful UV radiations would reach the earth and cause damage to different life forms on the earth / cause skin cancer in human beings. [1]

Q90.2022 Main 31/3/1 · Q83 marks

What are human-made ecosystems ? Give an example. Can a human-made ecosystem become a self-sustaining ecosystem ? Give reason to justify your answer.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2022 (Term 2), Q.P. Code 31/3/1

Human-made ecosystems are artificial ecosystems that are developed by human beings. Example: an aquarium, crop fields, parks (or any other) [1 + ½]

No, they cannot become a self-sustaining ecosystem. [½]

It needs to be cleaned regularly as natural replenishment by decomposers / bacteria (cleansing agents) is not possible. [1] (any other answer with justification)

Q91.2022 Main 31/4/1 · Q93 marks

What are trophic levels ? Why are autotrophs considered to be at the first trophic level of all food chains ? State the reason for limited number of trophic levels in nature.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2022 (Main), Q.P. Code 31/4/1
  • Every step or level of the food chain forms a trophic level. [1]
  • Autotrophs are the green plants, which are the only organisms which can fix the solar energy and make it available for heterotrophs or the consumers. [1]
  • Very little amount of energy is available to the last trophic level as energy is lost at every level to the environment. [1]
Q92.2022 Supplementary 31/6/1 · Q133 marks

Give reasons for the following :

(a) The existence of decomposers is essential in a biosphere.

(b) Flow of energy is unidirectional in a food chain.

(c) A food chain generally consists of only three or four trophic levels.

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CBSE Marking Scheme 2022 (Supp), Q.P. Code 31/6/1

(a) Decomposers decompose dead plants and animals and recycle the nutrients. [1]

(b) The energy captured by autotrophs does not revert back to the solar system. It passes from one level to the next trophic level and does not come back to the previous trophic level. [1]

(c) The loss of energy at each step is so high that very little usable energy remains after four trophic levels. [1]

Q93.SQP 2026-27 · Q143 marks

Study the food chain given below:

Figure

A. In the given food chain, the amount of energy available at the fourth trophic level is 10 kJ, what will be the energy available at the producer level?

B. Is it possible to have three more trophic levels in the above food chain? Justify.

C. Which of these trophic levels will have the maximum amount of pesticide, if it had washed down in the water body from agricultural fields. Why?

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CBSE Sample Question Paper 2026-27 Marking Scheme (Class X Science)

A. 10000 kJ

B. No, the loss of energy at each step is so much that very little usable energy will be left.

C. Large fish, due to biological magnification of pesticide.